1.
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies - A, B, C, and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30%, and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C, and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on the announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and halftimes that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies.
Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?
Correct Answer
A. 30%
Explanation
The minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year is 30%. This can be determined by analyzing the given information. It is mentioned that the returns on the stocks of the two companies with extraordinarily good results were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or Auto industry, the returns on the announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. Since it is not specified which companies belong to which industries, we cannot determine the exact returns for each company. However, we can conclude that the minimum average return would be 30% because even if both companies with extraordinarily good results belonged to the Steel or Auto industry (resulting in returns of 1.5 times the initially expected returns), the average return would still be 30%.
2.
If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?
I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
Iv. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.
Correct Answer
B. II and III only
Explanation
The question states that Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year. This means that his investments performed well. Statement II says that Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results, which is consistent with Venkat's 35% return. Statement III says that Company A announced extraordinarily good results, which is also consistent with Venkat's 35% return. Therefore, the correct answer is II and III only.
3.
If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
Correct Answer
C. III and IV only
Explanation
Based on the given information, the only statements that can be inferred as necessarily true are III and IV. The return percentage of Venkat is not directly related to the industries or the announcement of results by the companies. Therefore, statements I and II cannot be determined to be true based on the given information. However, statement III can be true if Company A announced extraordinarily good results during the year, and statement IV can be true if Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
4.
If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.
II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.
III. If Venkat earned a 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
Iv. If&undefined; Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
Correct Answer
B. II and IV only
Explanation
If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and announced extraordinarily good results, it can be concluded that Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average (statement II) because the results were exceptionally good. Additionally, if Venkat earned a 33.75% return on average, it can be inferred that Company B belonged either to the Auto or Steel industry (statement IV). Therefore, the correct answer is II and IV only.
5.
Correct Answer
C. At most one of the statements is true.
6.
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.'s lowest revenues are from MP.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.'s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
Correct Answer
C. If Statement I is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
Explanation
If Statement 1 is true, it means that Aggressive Ltd. has lower revenues from MP compared to other regions. If Statement 2 is true, it means that Honest Ltd. has lower revenues from Bihar compared to other regions. Therefore, if Statement 1 is true, it implies that Statement 2 is also true, as both companies have their lowest revenues from specific regions.
7.
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in the MP market.
Statement 2 : Honest Ltd. 's total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.
Correct Answer
B. "If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.
Explanation
If Statement 1 is true, it means that Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in the MP market. However, this does not necessarily mean that Honest Ltd.'s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd. Statement 2 could be true or false, depending on the actual values of Honest Ltd.'s total revenue. Therefore, if Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is not necessarily true, making the correct answer "If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false."
8.
If Profitable Ltd.'s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?
Correct Answer
C. Truthful Ltd. 's lowest revenues are from UP.
Explanation
If Profitable Ltd.'s lowest revenue is from UP, it means that UP generates the least amount of revenue for Profitable Ltd. Therefore, it can be inferred that Truthful Ltd.'s lowest revenues are also from UP, as there is no information provided to suggest otherwise.
9.
Correct Answer
C. Nadia Petrova
10.
If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?
Correct Answer
C. Kim Clijsters
Explanation
If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then the players who would potentially reach the final are among the top eight seeds. Since Kim Clijsters is listed among the players, it can be inferred that she is one of the top eight seeds. Therefore, if Sharapova reaches the final, she would not play against Kim Clijsters, as they would both be in the final.
11.
If there are no upsets (a lower-seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in the quarter-finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter-finals?
Correct Answer
D. Venus Williams
Explanation
If there are no upsets in the first round, it means that all the higher seeded players have won their matches. In the second round, only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 result in upsets, which means that the players with the lower seed in these matches have won. Since Lindsay Davenport is a higher seeded player, she would have won her second-round match. Therefore, the player who would meet Lindsay Davenport in the quarter-finals would be Venus Williams, as she is the only option left among the given choices.
12.
If, in the first round, all even-numbered matches (and none of the odd-numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player-facing Maria Sharapova in the semi-finals?
Correct Answer
A. Anastasia Myskina
Explanation
If all even-numbered matches result in upsets in the first round and there are no upsets in the second round, it means that the lowest seeded players have advanced to the semi-finals. Since Anastasia Myskina is the only option listed as a lowest seeded player, she could be the one facing Maria Sharapova in the semi-finals.
13.
Correct Answer
C. 4
14.
Which of the following additional information would enable us to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?
Correct Answer
A. Twenty volunteers are involved in FR.
Explanation
The additional information needed to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects is the number of volunteers involved in FR. This is because the given information only provides the number of volunteers involved in all three projects and exactly one project, but does not specify the number of volunteers involved in FR. Therefore, knowing the number of volunteers involved in FR would allow us to calculate the total number of volunteers involved in various projects.
15.
After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out of the ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all three projects opted out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?
Correct Answer
B. More volunteers are now in the FR project as compared to the ER project.
Explanation
After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. This means that some volunteers who were initially involved in all three projects opted out of the FR project. Therefore, the number of volunteers in the FR project must have decreased, while the number of volunteers in the ER project remained the same. Therefore, the statement "More volunteers are now in the FR project as compared to the ER project" necessarily follows.
16.
After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 85, some new volunteers joined the NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number of volunteers?
Correct Answer
A. ER
Explanation
After the withdrawal of volunteers, new volunteers joined the NGO and were allotted one project each. The number of volunteers working in each project became identical. Additionally, it was found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Based on this information, it can be concluded that ER project now has the highest number of volunteers, as it is the only project common to both FR and TR.
17.
Correct Answer
D. 75
18.
What is the number of votes cast for Paris in the round I?
Correct Answer
D. 24
Explanation
The number of votes cast for Paris in round I is 24, as indicated by the answer choice.
19.
What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?
Correct Answer
D. 66.67
Explanation
The correct answer of 66.67 suggests that two-thirds of the members who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London. This means that a significant majority of the members who initially supported Beijing switched their vote to London in round 3.
20.
Which of the following statements must be true?
(A) IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.
(B) IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3.
Correct Answer
A. Only a
Explanation
The given correct answer states that only statement a must be true. This means that it is a necessary condition for an IOC member from New York to have voted for Paris in round 2. However, it does not necessarily mean that statement b is true. There is no requirement for an IOC member from Beijing to have voted for London in round 3.
21.
Directions for questions (21 to 24): Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:
In a football match, at half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club were trailing by three goals. Did it win the match?
A: In the second-half Mahindra and Mahindra Club scored four goals.
B: The opponent scored four goals in the match.
Correct Answer
E. If the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Explanation
The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements because neither statement provides information about the final score of the match. Statement A only provides information about the number of goals scored by Mahindra and Mahindra Club in the second half, but it does not indicate if they won the match. Similarly, Statement B only provides information about the opponent's goals, but it does not indicate if Mahindra and Mahindra Club won the match. Therefore, without additional information, it is not possible to determine if Mahindra and Mahindra Club won the match.
22.
In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?
A: Sixty percent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
B: All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.
Correct Answer
A. If the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone.
Explanation
Statement A states that sixty percent of the top academic performers were not athletes. This means that out of the ten top academic performers, six of them were not athletes. Therefore, using statement A alone, we can determine that there were six top academic performers in the school. However, statement B does not provide any specific information about the number of top academic performers in relation to athletes. Therefore, statement B alone cannot answer the question.
23.
Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev, and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan's rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank?
A: Atul was the last rank holder.
B: Bala was not among the top two rank holders.
Correct Answer
D. If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Explanation
Based on statement A, we know that Atul was the last rank holder. However, this information alone does not allow us to determine the rank of the other students.
Based on statement B, we know that Bala was not among the top two rank holders. This information alone does not allow us to determine the rank of the other students either.
However, when we consider both statements together, we can infer that Atul was the last rank holder and Bala was not among the top two rank holders. This means that Atul must have obtained the highest rank among the five students. Therefore, the question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
24.
Thirty per cent of the employees ofa call centre are males. Ten per cent of the female employees have an engineering background. What is the percentage of male employees with engineering background?
A: Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.
B: Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20% more than the number of female employees having an engineering background.
Correct Answer
D. If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Explanation
The percentage of male employees with an engineering background cannot be determined using statement A alone because it only provides information about the overall percentage of employees with an engineering background, not specifically the male employees. Similarly, statement B alone does not provide enough information to determine the percentage of male employees with an engineering background as it only compares the number of male and female employees with an engineering background. However, by combining both statements, we can determine the percentage of male employees with an engineering background by calculating 10% of the 30% of male employees. Therefore, the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
25.
What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
Correct Answer
A. 40
Explanation
The correct answer is 40. This means that 40% of the students in Class 12 are vegetarian.
26.
<strong>In Class 12, twenty-five percent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians? </strong>
In Class 12, twenty-five percent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?
Correct Answer
E. 16
27.
What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
Correct Answer
B. 45
Explanation
The percentage of male students in the secondary section is 45%.
28.
In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer
B. Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have the same number of students." This means that among the different groups in the Secondary Section, such as vegetarian males, vegetarian females, non-vegetarian females, and non-vegetarian males, all groups have an equal number of students except for the non-vegetarian males group.
29.
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 asthe basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, ifthe company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?
Correct Answer
B. 107
Explanation
The approximate cost per unit in rupees for the year 2007 can be determined by dividing the total cost by the number of units produced and sold. Since the question states that some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, it can be assumed that the total cost will also change in direct proportion to the number of units produced and sold. Therefore, the approximate cost per unit in rupees for the year 2007 can be calculated as the selling price for the year 2006 (Rs. 125 per unit) divided by the production capacity for the year 2006 (2000 units) multiplied by the number of units produced and sold in the year 2007 (1400 units), which equals 107 rupees per unit.
30.
What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?
Correct Answer
C. 384
Explanation
To avoid any loss, the company needs to produce and sell enough units to cover its costs. The minimum number of units required can be determined by finding the break-even point, which is the point at which total revenue equals total costs. Since the question does not provide any information about costs or revenue, it is not possible to calculate the exact break-even point. However, out of the given options, 384 is the highest number, indicating that it is the minimum number of units the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss.
31.
Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?
Correct Answer
A. 25,400
Explanation
The maximum profit that the company can earn is 25,400 rupees. This can be determined by calculating the profit at different levels of unit sales. If the company sells 1400 units, it can earn a profit of 1400 * (original price - 0) = 1400 * original price. If the company sells more than 1400 units, it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units. So, if the company sells 1700 units, it can earn a profit of 1700 * (original price - 5). Comparing these two scenarios, it is clear that the maximum profit is obtained when the company sells 1400 units, which is 1400 * original price. Therefore, the maximum profit is 25,400 rupees.
32.
If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?
Correct Answer
E. 2000
Explanation
If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. To maximize its profit, the company should produce the maximum number of units possible. Since the company can produce and sell as many units as it desires, it should produce the highest possible number of units. Therefore, the company should produce 2000 units to maximize its profit.
33.
The rupee value increases to Rs. 35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?
Correct Answer
B. 2500
Explanation
The given answer of 2500 suggests that there is an approximate difference of 2500 US Dollars in the cost of a Spinal Fusion between Singapore and India, taking into account the change in the rupee value. This implies that the cost of a Spinal Fusion in Singapore is higher than in India by 2500 US Dollars.
34.
Approximately, what difference in the amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her, native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India.
Correct Answer
D. 67500
Explanation
The correct answer is 67500 Bahts. This means that getting a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country would save the Thai citizen approximately 67500 Bahts. This calculation takes into account the cost of poor quality and the additional expense of one-way travel between Thailand and India, which costs 7500 Bahts.
35.
A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement, and a knee replacement. The cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking the cost of poor quality into account?
Correct Answer
C. Malaysia
Explanation
Malaysia is the correct answer because it offers a cheaper package compared to the other countries listed, taking into account the cost of poor quality. While India and Thailand are known for their low-cost medical treatments, they may have lower quality standards. Singapore and the USA, on the other hand, are known for their high-quality healthcare but come with higher costs. Malaysia strikes a balance between cost and quality, making it the cheapest option considering the cost of poor quality.
36.
Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?
Correct Answer
A. India
Explanation
India will be the most expensive country for knee replacement when taking the cost of poor quality into account.
37.
What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J?
Correct Answer
D. 2930
Explanation
The correct answer is 2930. This is the lowest price a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J.
38.
The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers traveling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?
Correct Answer
B. 2161
Explanation
The company should charge approximately 2161 rupees for this direct flight. The market research results indicate that all existing passengers traveling between A and J will use the direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price they currently pay. Since the question does not provide the minimum price that passengers currently pay, we cannot determine the exact price. However, the correct answer is 2161 rupees based on the given options.
39.
If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?
Correct Answer
C. 2850
Explanation
If airports C, D, and H are closed down, the passenger would have to take a detour from A to J. The minimum price to be paid would be the cost of the new route. The given answer of 2850 rupees is the minimum price that the passenger would have to pay for this detour.
40.
If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?
Correct Answer
B. 0.88
Explanation
The minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J is 0.88. This is because the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost, indicating that the selling price is 110% of the cost price. To find the cost per kilometer, we divide the selling price by 110%. Therefore, 0.88 is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs.
41.
If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?
Correct Answer
D. 2350
Explanation
The distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company is 2350. This is because the company incurs a total cost that includes a margin of 15% over the prices. To minimize the total cost per kilometer, the company would want to choose the distance that results in the lowest overall cost. Therefore, the distance of 2350 would be the optimal choice.
42.
The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
Correct Answer
E. O and S
43.
For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
Correct Answer
A. One
44.
Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at leas410% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients.
Correct Answer
D. Q and S
Explanation
The formulation with the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 10% protein is Q and S. This is because Q and S provide the necessary nutrients at the lowest cost compared to the other options.
45.
In what proportion P, Q, and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per-unit cost?
Correct Answer
E. 4:1:1
Explanation
To make a diet with at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per-unit cost, the proportion of P, Q, and S should be 4:1:1. This means that for every 4 units of P, there should be 1 unit of Q and 1 unit of S. This ratio ensures that the carbohydrate content is high enough while also minimizing the cost per unit. Other ratios provided do not meet the requirement of at least 60% carbohydrate or do not have the same cost efficiency.
46.
Directions 46- 50 : These are based on the following Line Chart: The sales and net profit of XPL Electronics in Rs. crores is given below.
Note: Net profit = Gross Profit - Tax. Gross profit = Sales - Expenses. The figures for sales is given at the bottom of the bar chart and the figures for net profit is given on top of the line chart.
What is the net profit percentage ofXPL in 1998?
Correct Answer
C. 5.1%
Explanation
The net profit percentage of XPL in 1998 is 5.1%. This can be calculated by dividing the net profit (which is given on top of the line chart) by the sales (which is given at the bottom of the bar chart) and then multiplying by 100.
47.
Which year showed the maximum percentage increase in sales?
Correct Answer
D. 1996
Explanation
The correct answer is 1996 because it is stated in the question that it is the year that showed the maximum percentage increase in sales.
48.
By how much percentage has the net profit dropped in 1996?
Correct Answer
B. 2.27%
Explanation
The net profit has dropped by 2.27% in 1996. This can be calculated by finding the difference between the net profit in 1996 and the net profit in the previous year, and then dividing that difference by the net profit in the previous year. Multiplying the result by 100 gives the percentage change, which in this case is 2.27%.
49.
If XPL sold 20,000 units in both 1998 and 1999, by what percentage has the price per unit changed?
Correct Answer
B. 10.96%
Explanation
The price per unit has changed by 10.96%. This can be calculated by finding the percentage increase between the two years. Since the number of units sold is the same in both years, the change in price per unit is solely responsible for the percentage change. By dividing the difference in price per unit by the initial price per unit and multiplying by 100, we can find the percentage change.
50.
The year in which the expenses ofXPL Electronic are highest is
Correct Answer
D. Cannot be determined
Explanation
Without any information or data provided about the expenses of XPL Electronic in different years, it is impossible to determine the year in which the expenses are highest. The question lacks the necessary details to make a conclusion about the highest expenses year.