Skeletal Practice Exam Part 2 - A & P Zoo 172 For Exam 1

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1. The sternum in another name for the ___________.

Explanation

The sternum is commonly known as the breastbone. It is a long, flat bone located in the center of the chest. It connects to the ribs and forms the front part of the rib cage. The sternum provides protection for vital organs such as the heart and lungs.

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About This Quiz
Skeletal Practice Exam Part 2 - A & P Zoo 172 For Exam 1 - Quiz

This is a practice exam for the first Exam in Zoology 172 A& P for Nursing School at Miami University. This covers skeletal system.

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2. The coxa is made up of all of the following bones EXCEPT the __________.

Explanation

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3. Carpal bones are found in the __________.

Explanation

Carpal bones are a group of small bones located in the hand. These bones are specifically found in the wrist area, forming the wrist joint, and are responsible for providing stability and flexibility to the hand. They work together with the metacarpal bones and phalanges to enable various movements of the hand, such as gripping and grasping objects. Therefore, the correct answer is hand.

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4. The lower jaw is the ___________.

Explanation

The correct answer is mandible. The mandible is the bone that forms the lower jaw in humans. It is the largest and strongest bone in the face and plays a crucial role in chewing, speaking, and facial expression.

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5. The largest, most posterior bone of the tarsals and forms the heel is the ___________.

Explanation

The correct answer is calcaneus. The calcaneus is the largest and most posterior bone of the tarsals, located in the heel region. It plays a crucial role in weight-bearing and helps to support the body's weight during activities such as walking and running.

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6. The __________ articulate proximally with the carpals and distally with the phalanges.

Explanation

The metacarpals are the bones in the hand that articulate proximally with the carpals (wrist bones) and distally with the phalanges (finger bones). These bones form the framework of the palm and back of the hand, allowing for movement and flexibility.

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7. A wider true pelvis =

Explanation

A wider true pelvis is typically found in females. This is because females have wider hips to accommodate childbirth. The wider pelvis provides more space for the passage of the baby during labor. In contrast, males have narrower hips as they do not need to give birth. Dogs, on the other hand, do not have a true pelvis like humans and their pelvic structure differs significantly from humans.

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8. The vertabrae in the ________ all articulate with ribs.

Explanation

The vertebrae in the thoracic region of the spine all articulate with ribs. This means that each thoracic vertebra has a pair of ribs attached to it, forming a protective cage around the vital organs in the chest. The articulation allows for movement and flexibility in the upper body, while also providing support and stability. The cervical, lumbar, and sacral regions of the spine do not have this characteristic, as the vertebrae in these regions do not articulate with ribs.

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9. The ___________ is the longest, strongest bone in the body.

Explanation

The femur is the longest, strongest bone in the body. It is located in the thigh and extends from the hip to the knee. The femur plays a crucial role in supporting the body's weight and facilitating movement. Its length and strength make it well-suited for these functions, allowing it to withstand the forces exerted on it during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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10. The synovial joint is a freely moveable joint.

Explanation

A synovial joint is a type of joint that allows for free movement between the bones. It is characterized by the presence of a synovial membrane, which secretes synovial fluid to lubricate the joint and reduce friction. Examples of synovial joints include the knee, hip, and shoulder joints. Therefore, the statement "The synovial joint is a freely moveable joint" is true because synovial joints do indeed allow for free movement.

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11. Narrow pubic arch - less than 90 degrees =

Explanation

A narrow pubic arch with less than 90 degrees is typically found in males. This is because the shape of the pelvis in males is generally narrower and more V-shaped, allowing for a narrower pubic arch. In females, the pubic arch is wider and more U-shaped to accommodate childbirth. While dogs also have a pubic arch, their anatomy differs from humans, and a narrow pubic arch is not necessarily indicative of their gender.

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12. The thoracic cage contains all of these EXCEPT __________.

Explanation

The thoracic cage is a structure that protects the organs in the thoracic cavity, including the heart and lungs. It is made up of the ribs, costal cartilage, and sternum. The ribs form the main framework of the thoracic cage, while the costal cartilage connects the ribs to the sternum. The sternum is a flat bone in the center of the chest. The clavicle, also known as the collarbone, is not a part of the thoracic cage. It is a long bone that connects the shoulder to the sternum, but it is not directly involved in protecting the thoracic organs.

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13. The "soft spots" on a baby's head are called _________.

Explanation

The "soft spots" on a baby's head are called fontanel. These are areas where the baby's skull bones have not yet fully fused together, allowing for flexibility and growth of the skull as the baby's brain develops. These fontanels are important for the baby's birth and early development, as they allow for easier passage through the birth canal and accommodate the rapid growth of the brain in the early months of life.

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14. If you put your hands on your hips, you will be resting your palms on your _________.

Explanation

When you put your hands on your hips, you are resting your palms on the ilium. The ilium is the largest and uppermost bone of the pelvis, forming the hip bone. It is located on each side of the body and provides support and stability to the upper body. Resting your palms on the ilium helps to maintain balance and posture.

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15. How many vertebrae are in the thoracic region?

Explanation

The thoracic region of the spine consists of 12 vertebrae. These vertebrae are located in the middle portion of the spine, between the cervical (neck) region and the lumbar (lower back) region. Each vertebra in the thoracic region is connected to a rib, forming the rib cage and providing support and protection to the vital organs in the chest cavity. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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16. The head of the femur in the acetabulum is an example of a ___________ joint.

Explanation

The head of the femur in the acetabulum forms a ball and socket joint. This type of joint allows for a wide range of motion in multiple directions, making it suitable for movements such as rotation, flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. The rounded head of the femur fits into the cup-shaped socket of the acetabulum, allowing for stability and mobility in the hip joint.

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17. The palatine process is part of the maxilla.

Explanation

The palatine process is indeed part of the maxilla. The maxilla is a bone in the upper jaw that forms the majority of the hard palate, which is the roof of the mouth. The palatine process is a horizontal projection of the maxilla bone that contributes to the formation of the hard palate. Therefore, the statement is true.

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18. The palatine process is the ________ palate.

Explanation

The palatine process refers to the bony structure that forms the hard palate. The hard palate is the anterior part of the roof of the mouth, consisting of bone and covered by a layer of mucous membrane. It is responsible for separating the oral and nasal cavities and plays a crucial role in speech production and chewing. The soft palate, on the other hand, is located posterior to the hard palate and is made up of muscular tissue. It helps to close off the nasal passages during swallowing and also plays a role in speech.

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19. How many vertebrae are in the cervical region?

Explanation

The cervical region of the spine consists of the neck area. It is made up of seven vertebrae, which are the smallest and most mobile vertebrae in the spine. These vertebrae provide support and flexibility to the neck, allowing for movements such as nodding and rotating the head.

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20. There are ________ floating ribs.

Explanation

The statement "There are ________ floating ribs" suggests that the question is asking for the number of floating ribs. Floating ribs are the last two pairs of ribs in the ribcage that do not attach to the sternum. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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21. The __________ is the uppermost part of the sternum and articulates with the clavicles.

Explanation

The manubrium is the uppermost part of the sternum and it articulates with the clavicles. It is a broad and triangular bone that forms the superior portion of the sternum. The clavicles, also known as collarbones, attach to the manubrium at the sternoclavicular joints.

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22. _________ scoliosis has a structural defect causing the curve.

Explanation

Anatomic scoliosis refers to a type of scoliosis where there is a structural defect causing the curve. This means that there is a physical abnormality or malformation in the spine that is responsible for the curvature. In contrast, idiopathic scoliosis does not have a known structural cause and is often considered to be of unknown origin. Therefore, anatomic scoliosis is the correct answer as it specifically states that there is a structural defect causing the curve.

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23. The sternum is composed of three parts.  Which part is not part of the sternum.

Explanation

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24. C1 vertebra is also called the __________.

Explanation

The C1 vertebra is also known as the atlas. The atlas is the first vertebra in the cervical spine and is responsible for supporting the weight of the head. It is named after the Greek mythological figure Atlas, who carried the weight of the world on his shoulders. The atlas is unique in that it does not have a body like the other vertebrae, but instead consists of a ring-like structure that allows for the movement of the head.

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25. __________ are those that do not attach directly to the sternum, but to the cartilage of another rib.

Explanation

False ribs are those that do not attach directly to the sternum, but to the cartilage of another rib. Unlike true ribs, which attach directly to the sternum, false ribs have their cartilage attached to the cartilage of the rib above them. This allows for more flexibility in the ribcage and helps with the expansion of the chest during breathing. Floating ribs, on the other hand, are the last two pairs of false ribs that do not attach to the sternum or any other rib, giving them a floating-like appearance.

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26. The part of the ulna that forms the "bump" of the elbow is the __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is the olecranon process. The olecranon process is the part of the ulna bone that forms the "bump" of the elbow. It is a large, curved projection at the upper end of the ulna, which serves as the attachment point for muscles and ligaments that stabilize the elbow joint.

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27. Red marrow is found in ______________.

Explanation

Red marrow is found in spongy bone. Spongy bone, also known as cancellous bone, is a type of bone tissue that has a porous and sponge-like structure. It is found at the ends of long bones, such as the femur and humerus, as well as in the vertebrae, ribs, and skull. Red marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It contains a high concentration of blood vessels and hematopoietic stem cells, which are responsible for the production of new blood cells. Therefore, red marrow is primarily found in the spongy bone.

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28. The pectoral girdle includes the clavicles and the __________.

Explanation

The pectoral girdle is a set of bones that connects the upper limbs to the axial skeleton. It consists of the clavicles (collarbones) and the scapulae (shoulder blades). The clavicles are located in the front of the body and attach to the sternum, while the scapulae are located on the back and provide attachment sites for muscles that move the arms. Therefore, the correct answer is "scapulae."

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29. The ________ bone contains the foramen magnum.

Explanation

The occipital bone is located at the back of the skull and contains the foramen magnum, which is a large opening that allows the spinal cord to pass through and connect to the brain.

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30. How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region?

Explanation

The lumbar region of the spine consists of five vertebrae. These are the largest and strongest vertebrae in the spine, located in the lower back. They provide support and stability to the upper body and allow for movement, such as bending and twisting. The correct answer is 5.

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31. The _________ projects posteriorly from the junction of the two laminae at the back of the vertebra.

Explanation

The spinous process is a bony projection that extends posteriorly from the junction of the two laminae at the back of the vertebra. It is easily palpable along the midline of the back and serves as an attachment point for muscles and ligaments. The transverse process extends laterally from the vertebra, the articular process is involved in forming joints between adjacent vertebrae, and the odontoid process is a projection of the second cervical vertebra.

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32. The __________ is the medial projection that projects from the distal end of the tibia and forms the medial ankle.

Explanation

The medial malleolus is the correct answer because it is the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle that is formed by the distal end of the tibia. It provides stability to the ankle joint and serves as an attachment point for ligaments and tendons. The other options, such as the medial condyle and medial epicondyle, are not related to the ankle but are instead found in the knee joint. The medial nerve is a nerve in the body and is not related to the ankle or tibia.

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33. All of these are types of scoliosis EXCEPT__________.

Explanation

Scoliosis is a medical condition characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine. Anatomic scoliosis refers to scoliosis caused by a structural abnormality in the spine. Idiopathic scoliosis is the most common type and has no known cause. However, hypopathic scoliosis is not a recognized term or type of scoliosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "hypopathic".

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34. The proximal bone of the arm is the __________.

Explanation

The proximal bone of the arm refers to the bone that is closer to the body's center. In the case of the arm, the humerus is the correct answer as it is the long bone located in the upper arm, connecting the shoulder to the elbow. The ulna, radius, and tibia are bones found in different parts of the body and not directly associated with the arm.

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35. This bone is the keystone bone of the face in which all other facial bones articulate with it.

Explanation

The maxilla is the correct answer because it is the main bone in the upper jaw and it forms the central part of the face. It is also known as the keystone bone because it connects with all the other facial bones, including the nasal bones, zygomatic bones, and palatine bones. The maxilla plays a crucial role in supporting the teeth, forming the roof of the mouth, and providing structure to the face.

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36. The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the ____________.

Explanation

The patella, commonly known as the kneecap, is the largest sesamoid bone in the body. Sesamoid bones are small, rounded bones that are embedded within tendons, providing protection and improving the leverage of the muscles around them. The patella is located in the front of the knee joint and plays a crucial role in the extension of the leg. Its size and position make it the largest sesamoid bone in the body.

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37. _________ scoliosis has no known reason causing the curve.

Explanation

Idiopathic scoliosis refers to a type of scoliosis that occurs without any known cause. Unlike anatomic scoliosis, which is caused by a specific anatomical abnormality, idiopathic scoliosis develops spontaneously and its exact cause is unknown. This term is used to describe the majority of scoliosis cases, especially in adolescents, where the curvature of the spine occurs without any identifiable reason or underlying condition.

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38. The _________ are the largest vertebrae.

Explanation

The lumbar vertebrae are the largest vertebrae in the spinal column. They are located in the lower back region and are responsible for providing support and stability to the upper body. The lumbar vertebrae are larger and stronger compared to the cervical and thoracic vertebrae, as they bear more weight and are subjected to greater stress and pressure.

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39. There are _________ true ribs.

Explanation

The statement "There are 7 true ribs" is correct. True ribs are the first 7 pairs of ribs in the human body that are directly attached to the sternum. The remaining 5 pairs of ribs are called false ribs, as they either do not attach directly to the sternum or are indirectly attached through cartilage. Therefore, the correct answer is 7.

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40. The mastoid process is part of the __________ bone.

Explanation

The mastoid process is a bony projection located on the temporal bone. It is specifically found behind the ear and serves as a site for the attachment of certain muscles. The temporal bone is situated on the sides and base of the skull, and it houses important structures such as the middle and inner ear, as well as the temporomandibular joint. Therefore, the correct answer is temporal.

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41. The medial bone of the forearm is the ________.

Explanation

The correct answer is ulna. The ulna is the medial bone of the forearm, located on the inner side of the forearm when the palm is facing up. It is one of the two bones in the forearm, the other being the radius. The ulna is longer and larger than the radius and plays a crucial role in forming the elbow joint with the humerus.

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42. The _________ is the most superior of the tarsal bones and articulates with the tibia.

Explanation

The talus is the most superior of the tarsal bones and articulates with the tibia. It is located between the tibia and the calcaneus, forming the ankle joint. The talus plays a crucial role in weight-bearing and movement of the foot, allowing for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. It is also responsible for transmitting forces from the leg to the foot during walking or running.

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43. The cavity which articulates with the femur and is part of the ilium, ischium, and the pubis is called the __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is acetabulum. The acetabulum is a concave socket located in the pelvis, formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis bones. It articulates with the femur to form the hip joint. The acetabulum is responsible for providing stability and support to the femur, allowing for smooth movement and weight-bearing.

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44. The elbow (olecranon process into the olecranon fossa) is an example of which kind of joint?

Explanation

The elbow joint is a hinge joint because it allows movement in only one plane, similar to a door hinge. The articulation between the olecranon process of the ulna and the olecranon fossa of the humerus allows flexion and extension of the forearm. This type of joint is characterized by its stability and limited range of motion.

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45. The skull consists of how many bones?

Explanation

The skull consists of 8 bones. The human skull is made up of several bones that come together to protect the brain and support the facial structure. These bones include the frontal bone, parietal bones, temporal bones, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, and ethmoid bone. Together, these bones form the structure of the skull, providing protection and support for the brain and facial features.

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46. The lateral bone of the forearm anatomically speaking is the _________.

Explanation

The radius is the lateral bone of the forearm. It is located on the thumb side of the forearm and runs parallel to the ulna, which is the medial bone of the forearm. The radius is responsible for rotating the forearm and allowing movements such as supination and pronation. It also plays a role in supporting the wrist joint.

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47. The lateral and medial condyles and epicondyles are found on the distal end of the humerus and the _________.

Explanation

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48. __________ decreases the angle between bones.

Explanation

Flexion is the correct answer because it is the movement that decreases the angle between bones. Flexion typically occurs in the sagittal plane and involves bending or decreasing the angle between two body parts. This movement is commonly observed in joints such as the elbow, knee, and hip.

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49. Scoliosis is an abnormal ___________ curve of the spine over 5 degress.

Explanation

Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curve of the spine over 5 degrees. This means that instead of the spine being straight, it curves to the side. Kyphotic refers to an abnormal forward curve of the spine, lordotic refers to an abnormal inward curve of the spine, and frontal is not a term used to describe the curvature of the spine. Therefore, lateral is the correct answer as it accurately describes the abnormal curve seen in scoliosis.

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50. Hyperlordosis is an excess curvature of a _________ curve.

Explanation

Hyperlordosis is an excess curvature of the secondary curve. The human spine has three natural curves: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The primary curve is present at birth and is located in the thoracic region. The secondary curve develops as a child begins to lift their head and crawl, and it is located in the cervical region. The tertiary curve develops as a child learns to walk and stand, and it is located in the lumbar region. Hyperlordosis specifically refers to an excessive inward curvature of the secondary curve in the cervical region, leading to an exaggerated arch in the lower back.

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51. The odontoid process of the axis projecting into the atlas is an example of a ________ joint.

Explanation

The odontoid process of the axis projecting into the atlas forms a pivot joint. In a pivot joint, one bone rotates around another bone, allowing for rotational movement. In this case, the odontoid process acts as the pivot point, allowing the atlas (C1 vertebra) to rotate around the axis (C2 vertebra). This type of joint is essential for the rotation and flexibility of the neck.

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52. Which bone projects into and/or forms the nasal cavities.

Explanation

The ethmoid bone projects into and forms the nasal cavities. It is located at the midline of the skull, between the eyes, and helps to separate the nasal cavity from the brain. The ethmoid bone contains thin, delicate plates called ethmoidal labyrinth, which form the walls of the nasal cavity and contribute to the structure of the nasal septum. Additionally, the ethmoid bone has small air-filled spaces called ethmoid sinuses, which help to lighten the skull and produce mucus that moisturizes the nasal passages.

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53. The __________ of the scapula forms the lateral portion of the acromioclavicular joint.

Explanation

The acromion is a bony process of the scapula that forms the lateral portion of the acromioclavicular joint. This joint is where the acromion of the scapula articulates with the clavicle. Therefore, the acromion is the correct answer as it specifically relates to the structure that forms the lateral portion of the acromioclavicular joint.

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54. The _________ is the only bone that attaches the shoulder and arm to the axial skeleton.

Explanation

The clavicle is the correct answer because it is the only bone that connects the shoulder and arm to the axial skeleton. The scapula is a flat bone that sits on the back of the shoulder and does not directly attach to the axial skeleton. The humerus is the bone of the upper arm, and the sternum is the breastbone, neither of which connect the shoulder and arm to the axial skeleton. Therefore, the clavicle is the only bone that fulfills this role.

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55. The long ridge that runs down the posterior of the femur is called the ________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "linea aspera." The linea aspera is a long ridge that runs down the posterior of the femur, or thigh bone. It serves as an attachment site for muscles and provides stability to the hip joint. The greater trochanter is a bony prominence on the femur, the fovea capitus is a depression on the head of the femur, and the tibia is a bone in the lower leg, none of which match the description given.

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56. The vertebral column has ________ moveable vertebrae.

Explanation

The vertebral column is made up of a series of individual bones called vertebrae. These vertebrae are stacked on top of each other and are connected by joints, allowing for movement and flexibility. The correct answer is 24 because the vertebral column typically consists of 24 moveable vertebrae, including 7 cervical (neck), 12 thoracic (upper back), and 5 lumbar (lower back) vertebrae.

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57. ___________ is circular movement of distal epiphysis in all planes.

Explanation

Circumduction is the correct answer because it refers to the circular movement of the distal epiphysis in all planes. This movement involves a combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, creating a circular motion. It is commonly seen in ball-and-socket joints such as the shoulder and hip, allowing for a wide range of motion.

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58. The secondary curves of the spine are the cervical and the ___________.

Explanation

The secondary curves of the spine refer to the natural curves that develop as a person grows. The primary curves are present at birth in the thoracic and sacral regions, while the secondary curves develop later in life. The cervical curve develops when a baby begins to hold their head up, and the lumbar curve develops when a child begins to walk. Therefore, the correct answer is "lumbar" as it is one of the secondary curves of the spine.

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59. The __________ is the attachment point for the patellar ligament which connects the patella to the tibia in a non-elastic connection.

Explanation

The tibial tuberosity is the attachment point for the patellar ligament, which connects the patella (kneecap) to the tibia (shinbone). This connection is non-elastic, meaning it does not have much flexibility or stretch. The tibial tuberosity is a bony prominence located on the front surface of the tibia, just below the knee joint. It provides a stable anchor point for the patellar ligament, allowing it to transmit forces from the quadriceps muscles to the lower leg during movements like jumping or running.

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60. The cribiform plate is found in the ________ bone.

Explanation

The correct answer is ethmoid. The ethmoid bone is a small, delicate bone located between the eye sockets and forms part of the nasal cavity and the orbit of the eye. The cribiform plate is a horizontal plate of the ethmoid bone that separates the nasal cavity from the brain. It contains small holes through which the olfactory nerves pass, allowing for the sense of smell.

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61. The __________ of the scapula forms the medial portion of the shoulder joint and is the mounting for the rotator cuff.

Explanation

The glenoid cavity is the correct answer because it forms the medial portion of the shoulder joint and provides a surface for the attachment of the rotator cuff. The glenoid cavity is a shallow, concave socket on the lateral side of the scapula where the head of the humerus articulates, allowing for movement and stability in the shoulder joint. The other options, supraspinous fossa, coracoid process, and olecranon fossa, are not directly related to the shoulder joint or the rotator cuff.

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62. The posterior 1/2 of the obturator foramen is found in the __________.

Explanation

The posterior half of the obturator foramen is located in the ischium. The obturator foramen is a large opening in the hip bone that is formed by the ischium and pubis bones. The ischium is the posterior and lower part of the hip bone, while the pubis is the anterior and upper part. Therefore, the correct answer is ischium.

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63. There are _______ false ribs.

Explanation

The statement "There are 3 false ribs" is correct. False ribs are the last five pairs of ribs in the ribcage that do not directly attach to the sternum. Instead, they either attach indirectly to the sternum or are floating ribs that do not attach to the sternum at all. There are 3 pairs of false ribs, making a total of 6 false ribs in the human ribcage.

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64. The _______ vertebra contains the dens.

Explanation

The correct answer is axis. The axis vertebra is the second cervical vertebra and it contains a bony process called the dens or odontoid process. This dens acts as a pivot point for the rotation of the head and allows for a greater range of motion in the neck. The atlas vertebra, on the other hand, is the first cervical vertebra and does not contain the dens. The sacrum and thoracic vertebrae are located in different regions of the spine and do not contain the dens.

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65. When the hand pronates, it is__________.

Explanation

When the hand pronates, it means that the palm of the hand is facing downwards. This is why the correct answer is "palm down".

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66. The vertebrae that have a broad, hatchet-shaped spinous process are in the _______ region.

Explanation

The vertebrae in the lumbar region have a broad, hatchet-shaped spinous process. The spinous process is the bony projection at the back of each vertebra, and in the lumbar region, it is wider and shaped like a hatchet. This helps to provide attachment points for muscles and ligaments in the lower back, which support the weight of the upper body and allow for movement and stability in the spine. The cervical region refers to the vertebrae in the neck, the thoracic region refers to the vertebrae in the chest, and the sacral region refers to the vertebrae at the base of the spine.

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67. Hyperkyphosis is an excess curvature of a _________ curve.

Explanation

Hyperkyphosis is an excess curvature of the primary curve. The primary curves are the natural curves present in the spine at birth, including the thoracic and sacral curves. Hyperkyphosis refers to an exaggerated curvature of the thoracic spine, causing a forward rounding of the upper back. This condition is commonly seen in individuals with osteoporosis or poor posture.

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68. The ________ is also called the hip bone and innominate and forms the lateral and anterior portion of the pelvis.

Explanation

The coxae, also known as the hip bone and innominate, make up the lateral and anterior part of the pelvis. The sacrum is a triangular bone at the base of the spine, the coccyx is the tailbone, and the thumb is a digit on the hand.

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69. The greater sciatic notch is found in the _________.

Explanation

The greater sciatic notch is found in the ilium. The ilium is one of the three bones that make up the hip bone, along with the ischium and pubis. The greater sciatic notch is a large notch located on the posterior aspect of the ilium. It is an important landmark for various structures that pass through the greater sciatic foramen, such as the sciatic nerve and the piriformis muscle.

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70. The teeth are held in the maxilla by the ___________.

Explanation

The teeth are held in the maxilla by the alveolar process. The alveolar process is a ridge-like structure that surrounds and supports the teeth in the upper jaw. It consists of bone tissue that forms sockets called alveoli, which accommodate the roots of the teeth. The alveolar process plays a crucial role in maintaining the stability and position of the teeth within the maxilla.

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71. The __________ is the distal, lateral, spherical, end of the humerus that articulates with the radius.

Explanation

The capitulum is the correct answer because it is the distal, lateral, spherical end of the humerus that articulates with the radius. It forms part of the elbow joint and allows for the flexion and extension of the forearm. The trochlea is also part of the elbow joint, but it is the medial, spool-like end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. The olecranon fossa is a depression on the posterior aspect of the humerus, while the coronoid process is a projection on the anterior aspect of the ulna.

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72. The lesser sciatic notch is found in the __________.

Explanation

The lesser sciatic notch is found in the ischium. The ischium is one of the three bones that make up the hip bone, along with the ilium and pubis. The lesser sciatic notch is a small indentation or groove located on the ischium bone. It is important for understanding the anatomy and structure of the hip bone and its various landmarks.

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73. The crista gali is part of which bone?

Explanation

The crista galli is a bony ridge located in the ethmoid bone. It projects upwards into the cranial cavity and serves as an attachment point for the falx cerebri, a fold of dura mater that separates the two cerebral hemispheres. The ethmoid bone is situated at the midline of the skull, between the sphenoid and frontal bones. It plays a crucial role in forming the nasal cavity and contributes to the structure of the eye sockets and the roof of the nasal cavity.

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74. The atlas pivots around the anterior upward projection on the axis called the dens or also called the _________.

Explanation

The atlas, the first cervical vertebra, rotates around the odontoid process, also known as the dens. The odontoid process is an upward projection on the axis, the second cervical vertebra. It serves as a pivot point for the atlas, allowing for the nodding motion of the head. The other options, vertebral prominens, transverse process, and bifid spine, are not related to the rotation of the atlas.

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75. Lateral movement of the sole of the foot is called ___________.

Explanation

Eversion refers to the lateral movement of the sole of the foot. This movement involves the foot turning outward, away from the midline of the body. It is opposite to inversion, which is the medial movement of the sole of the foot. Eversion occurs at the subtalar joint and is important for maintaining balance and stability during activities such as walking or running.

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76. The sella turcica is part of which bone?

Explanation

The sella turcica is a bony structure located in the sphenoid bone. It is a saddle-shaped depression that houses the pituitary gland. The sphenoid bone is a complex bone located at the base of the skull, and it helps form the floor of the cranial cavity. It is involved in various important functions, such as supporting the brain, protecting vital structures, and providing attachment points for muscles and ligaments.

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77. The _______ of the scapula is the long, diagonally oriented posterior projection that runs across the body obliquely and terminates at the base of the acromion.

Explanation

The spine of the scapula is a long, diagonally oriented posterior projection that runs across the body obliquely and terminates at the base of the acromion. It is a prominent feature of the scapula and provides attachment for various muscles and ligaments.

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78. These are all sinuses EXCEPT________.

Explanation

The question asks for the sinus that is NOT included in the given list. The list includes the frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary sinuses. The correct answer, temporal, is not included in the list, making it the exception.

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79. The anterior 1/2 of the obturator foramen is found in the ___________.

Explanation

The anterior 1/2 of the obturator foramen is found in the pubis. The obturator foramen is a large opening in the hip bone formed by the ischium and pubis. The pubis is the front part of the hip bone, and it contributes to the formation of the obturator foramen along with the ischium. Therefore, the anterior half of the obturator foramen is located in the pubis.

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80. The __________ forms the posterior part of the pelvis.

Explanation

The sacrum forms the posterior part of the pelvis. It is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. The sacrum connects the spine to the hip bones (ilium) and provides stability and support to the pelvis. It also plays a role in transferring weight from the upper body to the lower limbs. The coccyx is a small bone located at the bottom of the sacrum, while the ischium is one of the three bones that make up the hip bone.

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81. The vertebral column has a total of ______ vertebrae.

Explanation

The vertebral column, also known as the spine, is made up of a series of individual bones called vertebrae. These vertebrae are stacked on top of each other to form a flexible and protective structure for the spinal cord. The correct answer is 33 because the vertebral column typically consists of 33 vertebrae in total. These vertebrae are divided into different regions including the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal regions. Each region has a specific number of vertebrae, with the cervical region having 7, the thoracic region having 12, the lumbar region having 5, the sacral region having 5 fused vertebrae, and the coccygeal region having 4 fused vertebrae.

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82. The only vertebrae with a bifed spine in the __________ region.

Explanation

The cervical region is the correct answer because it is the only region of the vertebrae that has a bifed spine. The bifed spine refers to a spine that is divided into two branches or projections. The thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions do not have this characteristic.

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83. The ___________ is the inferior, laterally pointing projection of the superior front of the scapula.

Explanation

The coracoid process is the correct answer because it is the inferior, laterally pointing projection of the superior front of the scapula. The acromion is a different projection on the scapula, located on the superior aspect. The conoid tubercle and glenoid cavity are also not the correct answers as they are not projections of the superior front of the scapula.

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84. The bone that contains the carotid canal is the _________ bone.

Explanation

The temporal bone contains the carotid canal. The carotid canal is a passage in the temporal bone that allows the carotid artery to pass through, supplying blood to the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is temporal.

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85. The optic canal is located in which cranial bone?

Explanation

The optic canal is a small opening located in the sphenoid bone. It is situated at the base of the skull, towards the front, and allows for the passage of the optic nerve from the eye to the brain. The sphenoid bone is a butterfly-shaped bone that forms part of the cranial floor, and it houses several important structures, including the optic canal, which plays a crucial role in vision.

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86. The glabella is located on the _________ bone.

Explanation

The glabella is located on the frontal bone. The frontal bone is one of the bones that make up the cranium, or the skull. It forms the forehead and the upper part of the eye sockets. The glabella is a smooth area between the eyebrows and above the bridge of the nose. It is an important anatomical landmark and is used as a reference point in various medical and anthropological measurements.

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87. ___________ are two plates of bone that enclose the back of the vertebral foramen.

Explanation

The laminae are two plates of bone that enclose the back of the vertebral foramen. They form the posterior portion of the vertebral arch and help protect the spinal cord. The laminae connect the transverse processes to the spinous process, providing stability and support to the vertebrae.

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88. The _________ is the "keystone" bone of the foot and lies intermediate between the talus and the medial cuneiform.

Explanation

The navicular bone is considered the "keystone" bone of the foot because it is positioned between the talus and the medial cuneiform. This bone helps to maintain the arch of the foot and provides stability during weight-bearing activities.

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89. The keystone bone for the skull which all other cranial bones articulate is the ___________.

Explanation

The sphenoid bone is the correct answer because it is a central bone in the skull that articulates with all other cranial bones. It is located at the base of the skull and forms part of the floor of the cranial cavity. The sphenoid bone also houses important structures such as the pituitary gland and forms important cranial landmarks like the sella turcica.

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90. The palatine process is part of the palatine bone.

Explanation

The palatine process is not part of the palatine bone. The palatine process refers to the horizontal portion of the maxilla bone that forms the anterior part of the hard palate. The palatine bone, on the other hand, is a separate bone located behind the maxilla and contributes to the formation of the posterior part of the hard palate. Therefore, the statement is false.

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91. The primary curves of the spine are the pelvic and the _________.

Explanation

The primary curves of the spine are the pelvic and the thoracic curves. The pelvic curve is located in the lower region of the spine, while the thoracic curve is located in the middle region. These curves are natural and develop during fetal development to help distribute the weight of the body and maintain balance. The cervical and lumbar curves are secondary curves that develop as a person grows and begins to sit upright and walk. The sacral curve is actually a part of the pelvic curve, so it is not considered a separate primary curve.

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92. The indentation in the medial aspect of the femoral head is called the __________.

Explanation

The indentation in the medial aspect of the femoral head is known as the fovea capitus. It is a small depression that serves as the attachment point for the ligament of the head of the femur. This ligament helps to stabilize the hip joint and maintain proper alignment of the femoral head within the acetabulum. The fovea capitus is an important anatomical landmark in the hip joint.

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93. The __________ is the distal, medial, rounded, notched end of the humerus and articulates with the ulna.

Explanation

The trochlea is the correct answer because it is the distal, medial, rounded, notched end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. The capitulum is also a part of the humerus, but it articulates with the radius, not the ulna. The deltoid tuberosity is a rough area on the lateral side of the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches, and the olecranon fossa is a depression on the posterior side of the humerus that accommodates the olecranon process of the ulna.

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94. The ___________ is the bony projection immediately proximal to the capitulum.

Explanation

The bony projection immediately proximal to the capitulum is known as the lateral epicondyle.

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95. The malar is another name for which bone?

Explanation

The malar bone, also known as the zygomatic bone, is the correct answer. It is a facial bone that forms the prominence of the cheek and the outer side of the eye socket. The lacrimal bone is a small bone in the eye socket, the nasal bone forms the bridge of the nose, and the mandible is the lower jawbone.

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96. __________ project posteriorly from each side of the body of a vertebrae to form the first part of the vertebral arch.

Explanation

The pedicles project posteriorly from each side of the body of a vertebrae to form the first part of the vertebral arch. The vertebral arch is a bony structure that surrounds and protects the spinal cord. The pedicles are short, thick processes that connect the vertebral body to the laminae, which are the flat plates that complete the vertebral arch. Together with the laminae, the pedicles help to provide stability and support to the spine.

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97. The __________ is the bony projection of the ulna just distal to the trochlear notch.

Explanation

The bony projection of the ulna just distal to the trochlear notch is called the coronoid process.

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98. The carpals and tarsals have examples of ___________ joints.

Explanation

The carpals and tarsals have examples of plane joints. Plane joints are also known as gliding joints, and they allow for limited movement in multiple directions. The carpals are the bones in the wrist, and the tarsals are the bones in the ankle. These joints allow for small gliding movements between the bones, facilitating flexibility and mobility in the hands and feet.

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99. The carpal to metacarpal is an example of a _________ joint.

Explanation

The carpal to metacarpal joint is an example of a saddle joint. This type of joint allows for movement in multiple directions, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction. The surfaces of the bones in a saddle joint are shaped like a saddle, with one convex and one concave surface, allowing for a greater range of motion compared to a hinge or pivot joint.

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100. The vertebral column has a total of _________ bones.

Explanation

The vertebral column, also known as the spine, consists of 26 bones. This column provides support and protection to the spinal cord and allows for movement and flexibility. It is made up of individual vertebrae, which are stacked on top of each other. Each vertebra has a specific shape and function, and together they form the complete vertebral column.

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The sternum in another name for the ___________.
The coxa is made up of all of the following bones EXCEPT the...
Carpal bones are found in the __________.
The lower jaw is the ___________.
The largest, most posterior bone of the tarsals and forms the heel is...
The __________ articulate proximally with the carpals and distally...
A wider true pelvis =
The vertabrae in the ________ all articulate with ribs.
The ___________ is the longest, strongest bone in the body.
The synovial joint is a freely moveable joint.
Narrow pubic arch - less than 90 degrees =
The thoracic cage contains all of these EXCEPT __________.
The "soft spots" on a baby's head are called _________.
If you put your hands on your hips, you will be resting your palms on...
How many vertebrae are in the thoracic region?
The head of the femur in the acetabulum is an example of a ___________...
The palatine process is part of the maxilla.
The palatine process is the ________ palate.
How many vertebrae are in the cervical region?
There are ________ floating ribs.
The __________ is the uppermost part of the sternum and articulates...
_________ scoliosis has a structural defect causing the curve.
The sternum is composed of three parts.  Which part is not part...
C1 vertebra is also called the __________.
__________ are those that do not attach directly to the sternum, but...
The part of the ulna that forms the "bump" of the elbow is the...
Red marrow is found in ______________.
The pectoral girdle includes the clavicles and the __________.
The ________ bone contains the foramen magnum.
How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region?
The _________ projects posteriorly from the junction of the two...
The __________ is the medial projection that projects from the distal...
All of these are types of scoliosis EXCEPT__________.
The proximal bone of the arm is the __________.
This bone is the keystone bone of the face in which all other facial...
The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the ____________.
_________ scoliosis has no known reason causing the curve.
The _________ are the largest vertebrae.
There are _________ true ribs.
The mastoid process is part of the __________ bone.
The medial bone of the forearm is the ________.
The _________ is the most superior of the tarsal bones and articulates...
The cavity which articulates with the femur and is part of the ilium,...
The elbow (olecranon process into the olecranon fossa) is an example...
The skull consists of how many bones?
The lateral bone of the forearm anatomically speaking is the...
The lateral and medial condyles and epicondyles are found on the...
__________ decreases the angle between bones.
Scoliosis is an abnormal ___________ curve of the spine over 5...
Hyperlordosis is an excess curvature of a _________ curve.
The odontoid process of the axis projecting into the atlas is an...
Which bone projects into and/or forms the nasal cavities.
The __________ of the scapula forms the lateral portion of the...
The _________ is the only bone that attaches the shoulder and arm to...
The long ridge that runs down the posterior of the femur is called the...
The vertebral column has ________ moveable vertebrae.
___________ is circular movement of distal epiphysis in all planes.
The secondary curves of the spine are the cervical and the...
The __________ is the attachment point for the patellar ligament which...
The cribiform plate is found in the ________ bone.
The __________ of the scapula forms the medial portion of the shoulder...
The posterior 1/2 of the obturator foramen is found in the __________.
There are _______ false ribs.
The _______ vertebra contains the dens.
When the hand pronates, it is__________.
The vertebrae that have a broad, hatchet-shaped spinous process are in...
Hyperkyphosis is an excess curvature of a _________ curve.
The ________ is also called the hip bone and innominate and forms the...
The greater sciatic notch is found in the _________.
The teeth are held in the maxilla by the ___________.
The __________ is the distal, lateral, spherical, end of the humerus...
The lesser sciatic notch is found in the __________.
The crista gali is part of which bone?
The atlas pivots around the anterior upward projection on the axis...
Lateral movement of the sole of the foot is called ___________.
The sella turcica is part of which bone?
The _______ of the scapula is the long, diagonally oriented posterior...
These are all sinuses EXCEPT________.
The anterior 1/2 of the obturator foramen is found in the ___________.
The __________ forms the posterior part of the pelvis.
The vertebral column has a total of ______ vertebrae.
The only vertebrae with a bifed spine in the __________ region.
The ___________ is the inferior, laterally pointing projection of the...
The bone that contains the carotid canal is the _________ bone.
The optic canal is located in which cranial bone?
The glabella is located on the _________ bone.
___________ are two plates of bone that enclose the back of the...
The _________ is the "keystone" bone of the foot and lies intermediate...
The keystone bone for the skull which all other cranial bones...
The palatine process is part of the palatine bone.
The primary curves of the spine are the pelvic and the _________.
The indentation in the medial aspect of the femoral head is called the...
The __________ is the distal, medial, rounded, notched end of the...
The ___________ is the bony projection immediately proximal to the...
The malar is another name for which bone?
__________ project posteriorly from each side of the body of a...
The __________ is the bony projection of the ulna just distal to the...
The carpals and tarsals have examples of ___________ joints.
The carpal to metacarpal is an example of a _________ joint.
The vertebral column has a total of _________ bones.
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