Skeletal Practice Exam Part 2 - A & P Zoo 172 For Exam 1

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This is a practice exam for the first Exam in Zoology 172 A& P for Nursing School at Miami University. This covers skeletal system.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The skull consists of how many bones?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      32

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    C. 8
    Explanation
    The skull consists of 8 bones. The human skull is made up of several bones that come together to protect the brain and support the facial structure. These bones include the frontal bone, parietal bones, temporal bones, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, and ethmoid bone. Together, these bones form the structure of the skull, providing protection and support for the brain and facial features.

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  • 2. 

    The keystone bone for the skull which all other cranial bones articulate is the ___________.

    • A.

      Parietal bone

    • B.

      Frontal bone

    • C.

      Sphenoid bone

    • D.

      Ethmoid bone

    • E.

      Temporal bone

    Correct Answer
    C. Sphenoid bone
    Explanation
    The sphenoid bone is the correct answer because it is a central bone in the skull that articulates with all other cranial bones. It is located at the base of the skull and forms part of the floor of the cranial cavity. The sphenoid bone also houses important structures such as the pituitary gland and forms important cranial landmarks like the sella turcica.

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  • 3. 

    The mastoid process is part of the __________ bone.

    • A.

      Sphenoid

    • B.

      Styloid

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Parietal

    • E.

      Ethmoid

    Correct Answer
    C. Temporal
    Explanation
    The mastoid process is a bony projection located on the temporal bone. It is specifically found behind the ear and serves as a site for the attachment of certain muscles. The temporal bone is situated on the sides and base of the skull, and it houses important structures such as the middle and inner ear, as well as the temporomandibular joint. Therefore, the correct answer is temporal.

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  • 4. 

    The bone that contains the carotid canal is the _________ bone.

    • A.

      Sphenoid

    • B.

      Temporal

    • C.

      Parietal

    • D.

      Ethmoid

    Correct Answer
    B. Temporal
    Explanation
    The temporal bone contains the carotid canal. The carotid canal is a passage in the temporal bone that allows the carotid artery to pass through, supplying blood to the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is temporal.

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  • 5. 

    The ________ bone contains the foramen magnum.

    • A.

      Parietal

    • B.

      Frontal

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Sphenoid

    Correct Answer
    C. Occipital
    Explanation
    The occipital bone is located at the back of the skull and contains the foramen magnum, which is a large opening that allows the spinal cord to pass through and connect to the brain.

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  • 6. 

    The glabella is located on the _________ bone.

    • A.

      Sphenoid

    • B.

      Frontal

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Temporal

    Correct Answer
    B. Frontal
    Explanation
    The glabella is located on the frontal bone. The frontal bone is one of the bones that make up the cranium, or the skull. It forms the forehead and the upper part of the eye sockets. The glabella is a smooth area between the eyebrows and above the bridge of the nose. It is an important anatomical landmark and is used as a reference point in various medical and anthropological measurements.

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  • 7. 

    The sella turcica is part of which bone?

    • A.

      Sphenoid

    • B.

      Ethmoid

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Zygomatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Sphenoid
    Explanation
    The sella turcica is a bony structure located in the sphenoid bone. It is a saddle-shaped depression that houses the pituitary gland. The sphenoid bone is a complex bone located at the base of the skull, and it helps form the floor of the cranial cavity. It is involved in various important functions, such as supporting the brain, protecting vital structures, and providing attachment points for muscles and ligaments.

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  • 8. 

    The crista gali is part of which bone?

    • A.

      Sphenoid

    • B.

      Ethmoid

    • C.

      Frontal

    • D.

      Parietal

    Correct Answer
    B. Ethmoid
    Explanation
    The crista galli is a bony ridge located in the ethmoid bone. It projects upwards into the cranial cavity and serves as an attachment point for the falx cerebri, a fold of dura mater that separates the two cerebral hemispheres. The ethmoid bone is situated at the midline of the skull, between the sphenoid and frontal bones. It plays a crucial role in forming the nasal cavity and contributes to the structure of the eye sockets and the roof of the nasal cavity.

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  • 9. 

    The cribiform plate is found in the ________ bone.

    • A.

      Sphenoid

    • B.

      Ethmoid

    • C.

      Mastoid

    • D.

      Styloid

    Correct Answer
    B. Ethmoid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ethmoid. The ethmoid bone is a small, delicate bone located between the eye sockets and forms part of the nasal cavity and the orbit of the eye. The cribiform plate is a horizontal plate of the ethmoid bone that separates the nasal cavity from the brain. It contains small holes through which the olfactory nerves pass, allowing for the sense of smell.

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  • 10. 

    The optic canal is located in which cranial bone?

    • A.

      Occipital

    • B.

      Sphenoid

    • C.

      Ethmoid

    • D.

      Temporal

    Correct Answer
    B. Sphenoid
    Explanation
    The optic canal is a small opening located in the sphenoid bone. It is situated at the base of the skull, towards the front, and allows for the passage of the optic nerve from the eye to the brain. The sphenoid bone is a butterfly-shaped bone that forms part of the cranial floor, and it houses several important structures, including the optic canal, which plays a crucial role in vision.

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  • 11. 

    Which bone projects into and/or forms the nasal cavities.

    • A.

      Sphenoid

    • B.

      Mastoid

    • C.

      Ethmoid

    • D.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    C. Ethmoid
    Explanation
    The ethmoid bone projects into and forms the nasal cavities. It is located at the midline of the skull, between the eyes, and helps to separate the nasal cavity from the brain. The ethmoid bone contains thin, delicate plates called ethmoidal labyrinth, which form the walls of the nasal cavity and contribute to the structure of the nasal septum. Additionally, the ethmoid bone has small air-filled spaces called ethmoid sinuses, which help to lighten the skull and produce mucus that moisturizes the nasal passages.

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  • 12. 

    This bone is the keystone bone of the face in which all other facial bones articulate with it.

    • A.

      Mandible

    • B.

      Maxilla

    • C.

      Mastoid

    • D.

      Mental

    Correct Answer
    B. Maxilla
    Explanation
    The maxilla is the correct answer because it is the main bone in the upper jaw and it forms the central part of the face. It is also known as the keystone bone because it connects with all the other facial bones, including the nasal bones, zygomatic bones, and palatine bones. The maxilla plays a crucial role in supporting the teeth, forming the roof of the mouth, and providing structure to the face.

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  • 13. 

    These are all sinuses EXCEPT________.

    • A.

      Frontal

    • B.

      Sphenoid

    • C.

      Ethmoid

    • D.

      Temporal

    • E.

      Maxillary

    Correct Answer
    D. Temporal
    Explanation
    The question asks for the sinus that is NOT included in the given list. The list includes the frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary sinuses. The correct answer, temporal, is not included in the list, making it the exception.

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  • 14. 

    The teeth are held in the maxilla by the ___________.

    • A.

      Gums

    • B.

      Alveolar process

    • C.

      Glue

    • D.

      Palatine process

    Correct Answer
    B. Alveolar process
    Explanation
    The teeth are held in the maxilla by the alveolar process. The alveolar process is a ridge-like structure that surrounds and supports the teeth in the upper jaw. It consists of bone tissue that forms sockets called alveoli, which accommodate the roots of the teeth. The alveolar process plays a crucial role in maintaining the stability and position of the teeth within the maxilla.

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  • 15. 

    The palatine process is part of the palatine bone.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The palatine process is not part of the palatine bone. The palatine process refers to the horizontal portion of the maxilla bone that forms the anterior part of the hard palate. The palatine bone, on the other hand, is a separate bone located behind the maxilla and contributes to the formation of the posterior part of the hard palate. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 16. 

    The palatine process is part of the maxilla.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The palatine process is indeed part of the maxilla. The maxilla is a bone in the upper jaw that forms the majority of the hard palate, which is the roof of the mouth. The palatine process is a horizontal projection of the maxilla bone that contributes to the formation of the hard palate. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 17. 

    The palatine process is the ________ palate.

    • A.

      Hard

    • B.

      Soft

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard
    Explanation
    The palatine process refers to the bony structure that forms the hard palate. The hard palate is the anterior part of the roof of the mouth, consisting of bone and covered by a layer of mucous membrane. It is responsible for separating the oral and nasal cavities and plays a crucial role in speech production and chewing. The soft palate, on the other hand, is located posterior to the hard palate and is made up of muscular tissue. It helps to close off the nasal passages during swallowing and also plays a role in speech.

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  • 18. 

    The malar is another name for which bone?

    • A.

      Lacrimal

    • B.

      Nasal

    • C.

      Zygomatic

    • D.

      Mandible

    Correct Answer
    C. Zygomatic
    Explanation
    The malar bone, also known as the zygomatic bone, is the correct answer. It is a facial bone that forms the prominence of the cheek and the outer side of the eye socket. The lacrimal bone is a small bone in the eye socket, the nasal bone forms the bridge of the nose, and the mandible is the lower jawbone.

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  • 19. 

    The lower jaw is the ___________.

    • A.

      Mandible

    • B.

      Maxilla

    • C.

      Mastoid

    • D.

      Malar

    Correct Answer
    A. Mandible
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mandible. The mandible is the bone that forms the lower jaw in humans. It is the largest and strongest bone in the face and plays a crucial role in chewing, speaking, and facial expression.

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  • 20. 

    The "soft spots" on a baby's head are called _________.

    • A.

      Fountains

    • B.

      Follicle

    • C.

      Fontanel

    • D.

      Suture

    Correct Answer
    C. Fontanel
    Explanation
    The "soft spots" on a baby's head are called fontanel. These are areas where the baby's skull bones have not yet fully fused together, allowing for flexibility and growth of the skull as the baby's brain develops. These fontanels are important for the baby's birth and early development, as they allow for easier passage through the birth canal and accommodate the rapid growth of the brain in the early months of life.

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  • 21. 

    The vertebral column has ________ moveable vertebrae.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      33

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 24
    Explanation
    The vertebral column is made up of a series of individual bones called vertebrae. These vertebrae are stacked on top of each other and are connected by joints, allowing for movement and flexibility. The correct answer is 24 because the vertebral column typically consists of 24 moveable vertebrae, including 7 cervical (neck), 12 thoracic (upper back), and 5 lumbar (lower back) vertebrae.

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  • 22. 

    The vertebral column has a total of ______ vertebrae.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      33

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    C. 33
    Explanation
    The vertebral column, also known as the spine, is made up of a series of individual bones called vertebrae. These vertebrae are stacked on top of each other to form a flexible and protective structure for the spinal cord. The correct answer is 33 because the vertebral column typically consists of 33 vertebrae in total. These vertebrae are divided into different regions including the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal regions. Each region has a specific number of vertebrae, with the cervical region having 7, the thoracic region having 12, the lumbar region having 5, the sacral region having 5 fused vertebrae, and the coccygeal region having 4 fused vertebrae.

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  • 23. 

    How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The lumbar region of the spine consists of five vertebrae. These are the largest and strongest vertebrae in the spine, located in the lower back. They provide support and stability to the upper body and allow for movement, such as bending and twisting. The correct answer is 5.

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  • 24. 

    How many vertebrae are in the thoracic region?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 12
    Explanation
    The thoracic region of the spine consists of 12 vertebrae. These vertebrae are located in the middle portion of the spine, between the cervical (neck) region and the lumbar (lower back) region. Each vertebra in the thoracic region is connected to a rib, forming the rib cage and providing support and protection to the vital organs in the chest cavity. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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  • 25. 

    How many vertebrae are in the cervical region?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 7
    Explanation
    The cervical region of the spine consists of the neck area. It is made up of seven vertebrae, which are the smallest and most mobile vertebrae in the spine. These vertebrae provide support and flexibility to the neck, allowing for movements such as nodding and rotating the head.

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  • 26. 

    The vertebral column has a total of _________ bones.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      33

    • D.

      26

    Correct Answer
    D. 26
    Explanation
    The vertebral column, also known as the spine, consists of 26 bones. This column provides support and protection to the spinal cord and allows for movement and flexibility. It is made up of individual vertebrae, which are stacked on top of each other. Each vertebra has a specific shape and function, and together they form the complete vertebral column.

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  • 27. 

    The primary curves of the spine are the pelvic and the _________.

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Lumbar

    • C.

      Thoracic

    • D.

      Sacral

    Correct Answer
    C. Thoracic
    Explanation
    The primary curves of the spine are the pelvic and the thoracic curves. The pelvic curve is located in the lower region of the spine, while the thoracic curve is located in the middle region. These curves are natural and develop during fetal development to help distribute the weight of the body and maintain balance. The cervical and lumbar curves are secondary curves that develop as a person grows and begins to sit upright and walk. The sacral curve is actually a part of the pelvic curve, so it is not considered a separate primary curve.

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  • 28. 

    The secondary curves of the spine are the cervical and the ___________.

    • A.

      Thoracic

    • B.

      Lumbar

    • C.

      Pelvic

    • D.

      Sacral

    Correct Answer
    B. Lumbar
    Explanation
    The secondary curves of the spine refer to the natural curves that develop as a person grows. The primary curves are present at birth in the thoracic and sacral regions, while the secondary curves develop later in life. The cervical curve develops when a baby begins to hold their head up, and the lumbar curve develops when a child begins to walk. Therefore, the correct answer is "lumbar" as it is one of the secondary curves of the spine.

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  • 29. 

    Scoliosis is an abnormal ___________ curve of the spine over 5 degress.

    • A.

      Kyphotic

    • B.

      Lordotic

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    C. Lateral
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curve of the spine over 5 degrees. This means that instead of the spine being straight, it curves to the side. Kyphotic refers to an abnormal forward curve of the spine, lordotic refers to an abnormal inward curve of the spine, and frontal is not a term used to describe the curvature of the spine. Therefore, lateral is the correct answer as it accurately describes the abnormal curve seen in scoliosis.

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  • 30. 

    Hyperlordosis is an excess curvature of a _________ curve.

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    Correct Answer
    B. Secondary
    Explanation
    Hyperlordosis is an excess curvature of the secondary curve. The human spine has three natural curves: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The primary curve is present at birth and is located in the thoracic region. The secondary curve develops as a child begins to lift their head and crawl, and it is located in the cervical region. The tertiary curve develops as a child learns to walk and stand, and it is located in the lumbar region. Hyperlordosis specifically refers to an excessive inward curvature of the secondary curve in the cervical region, leading to an exaggerated arch in the lower back.

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  • 31. 

    Hyperkyphosis is an excess curvature of a _________ curve.

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    Hyperkyphosis is an excess curvature of the primary curve. The primary curves are the natural curves present in the spine at birth, including the thoracic and sacral curves. Hyperkyphosis refers to an exaggerated curvature of the thoracic spine, causing a forward rounding of the upper back. This condition is commonly seen in individuals with osteoporosis or poor posture.

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  • 32. 

    All of these are types of scoliosis EXCEPT__________.

    • A.

      Anatomic

    • B.

      Idiopathic

    • C.

      Hypopathic

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypopathic
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is a medical condition characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine. Anatomic scoliosis refers to scoliosis caused by a structural abnormality in the spine. Idiopathic scoliosis is the most common type and has no known cause. However, hypopathic scoliosis is not a recognized term or type of scoliosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "hypopathic".

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  • 33. 

    _________ scoliosis has a structural defect causing the curve.

    • A.

      Anatomic

    • B.

      Idiopathic

    Correct Answer
    A. Anatomic
    Explanation
    Anatomic scoliosis refers to a type of scoliosis where there is a structural defect causing the curve. This means that there is a physical abnormality or malformation in the spine that is responsible for the curvature. In contrast, idiopathic scoliosis does not have a known structural cause and is often considered to be of unknown origin. Therefore, anatomic scoliosis is the correct answer as it specifically states that there is a structural defect causing the curve.

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  • 34. 

    _________ scoliosis has no known reason causing the curve.

    • A.

      Anatomic

    • B.

      Idiopathic

    Correct Answer
    B. Idiopathic
    Explanation
    Idiopathic scoliosis refers to a type of scoliosis that occurs without any known cause. Unlike anatomic scoliosis, which is caused by a specific anatomical abnormality, idiopathic scoliosis develops spontaneously and its exact cause is unknown. This term is used to describe the majority of scoliosis cases, especially in adolescents, where the curvature of the spine occurs without any identifiable reason or underlying condition.

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  • 35. 

    __________ project posteriorly from each side of the body of a vertebrae to form the first part of the vertebral arch.

    • A.

      Laminae

    • B.

      Transverse processes

    • C.

      Pedicles

    • D.

      Discs

    Correct Answer
    C. Pedicles
    Explanation
    The pedicles project posteriorly from each side of the body of a vertebrae to form the first part of the vertebral arch. The vertebral arch is a bony structure that surrounds and protects the spinal cord. The pedicles are short, thick processes that connect the vertebral body to the laminae, which are the flat plates that complete the vertebral arch. Together with the laminae, the pedicles help to provide stability and support to the spine.

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  • 36. 

    ___________ are two plates of bone that enclose the back of the vertebral foramen.

    • A.

      Laminae

    • B.

      Transverse processes

    • C.

      Pedicles

    • D.

      Discs

    Correct Answer
    A. Laminae
    Explanation
    The laminae are two plates of bone that enclose the back of the vertebral foramen. They form the posterior portion of the vertebral arch and help protect the spinal cord. The laminae connect the transverse processes to the spinous process, providing stability and support to the vertebrae.

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  • 37. 

    The _________ projects posteriorly from the junction of the two laminae at the back of the vertebra.

    • A.

      Transverse process

    • B.

      Articular process

    • C.

      Odontoid process

    • D.

      Spinous process

    Correct Answer
    D. Spinous process
    Explanation
    The spinous process is a bony projection that extends posteriorly from the junction of the two laminae at the back of the vertebra. It is easily palpable along the midline of the back and serves as an attachment point for muscles and ligaments. The transverse process extends laterally from the vertebra, the articular process is involved in forming joints between adjacent vertebrae, and the odontoid process is a projection of the second cervical vertebra.

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  • 38. 

    The _________ are the largest vertebrae.

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Thoracic

    • C.

      Lumbar

    Correct Answer
    C. Lumbar
    Explanation
    The lumbar vertebrae are the largest vertebrae in the spinal column. They are located in the lower back region and are responsible for providing support and stability to the upper body. The lumbar vertebrae are larger and stronger compared to the cervical and thoracic vertebrae, as they bear more weight and are subjected to greater stress and pressure.

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  • 39. 

    C1 vertebra is also called the __________.

    • A.

      Axis

    • B.

      Atlas

    • C.

      Dens

    • D.

      Vertebral prominins

    Correct Answer
    B. Atlas
    Explanation
    The C1 vertebra is also known as the atlas. The atlas is the first vertebra in the cervical spine and is responsible for supporting the weight of the head. It is named after the Greek mythological figure Atlas, who carried the weight of the world on his shoulders. The atlas is unique in that it does not have a body like the other vertebrae, but instead consists of a ring-like structure that allows for the movement of the head.

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  • 40. 

    The _______ vertebra contains the dens.

    • A.

      Axis

    • B.

      Atlas

    • C.

      Sacrum

    • D.

      Thoracic

    Correct Answer
    A. Axis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is axis. The axis vertebra is the second cervical vertebra and it contains a bony process called the dens or odontoid process. This dens acts as a pivot point for the rotation of the head and allows for a greater range of motion in the neck. The atlas vertebra, on the other hand, is the first cervical vertebra and does not contain the dens. The sacrum and thoracic vertebrae are located in different regions of the spine and do not contain the dens.

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  • 41. 

    The atlas pivots around the anterior upward projection on the axis called the dens or also called the _________.

    • A.

      Vertebral prominens

    • B.

      Odontoid process

    • C.

      Transverse process

    • D.

      Bifed spine

    Correct Answer
    B. Odontoid process
    Explanation
    The atlas, the first cervical vertebra, rotates around the odontoid process, also known as the dens. The odontoid process is an upward projection on the axis, the second cervical vertebra. It serves as a pivot point for the atlas, allowing for the nodding motion of the head. The other options, vertebral prominens, transverse process, and bifid spine, are not related to the rotation of the atlas.

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  • 42. 

    The only vertebrae with a bifed spine in the __________ region.

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Thoracic

    • C.

      Lumbar

    • D.

      Sacral

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervical
    Explanation
    The cervical region is the correct answer because it is the only region of the vertebrae that has a bifed spine. The bifed spine refers to a spine that is divided into two branches or projections. The thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions do not have this characteristic.

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  • 43. 

    The vertebrae that have a broad, hatchet-shaped spinous process are in the _______ region.

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Thoracic

    • C.

      Lumbar

    • D.

      Sacral

    Correct Answer
    C. Lumbar
    Explanation
    The vertebrae in the lumbar region have a broad, hatchet-shaped spinous process. The spinous process is the bony projection at the back of each vertebra, and in the lumbar region, it is wider and shaped like a hatchet. This helps to provide attachment points for muscles and ligaments in the lower back, which support the weight of the upper body and allow for movement and stability in the spine. The cervical region refers to the vertebrae in the neck, the thoracic region refers to the vertebrae in the chest, and the sacral region refers to the vertebrae at the base of the spine.

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  • 44. 

    The vertabrae in the ________ all articulate with ribs.

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Thoracic

    • C.

      Lumbar

    • D.

      Sacral

    Correct Answer
    B. Thoracic
    Explanation
    The vertebrae in the thoracic region of the spine all articulate with ribs. This means that each thoracic vertebra has a pair of ribs attached to it, forming a protective cage around the vital organs in the chest. The articulation allows for movement and flexibility in the upper body, while also providing support and stability. The cervical, lumbar, and sacral regions of the spine do not have this characteristic, as the vertebrae in these regions do not articulate with ribs.

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  • 45. 

    The __________ forms the posterior part of the pelvis.

    • A.

      Coccyx

    • B.

      Sacrum

    • C.

      Illium

    • D.

      Ischium

    Correct Answer
    B. Sacrum
    Explanation
    The sacrum forms the posterior part of the pelvis. It is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. The sacrum connects the spine to the hip bones (ilium) and provides stability and support to the pelvis. It also plays a role in transferring weight from the upper body to the lower limbs. The coccyx is a small bone located at the bottom of the sacrum, while the ischium is one of the three bones that make up the hip bone.

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  • 46. 

    The thoracic cage contains all of these EXCEPT __________.

    • A.

      Ribs

    • B.

      Costal cartilage

    • C.

      Sternum

    • D.

      Clavicle

    Correct Answer
    D. Clavicle
    Explanation
    The thoracic cage is a structure that protects the organs in the thoracic cavity, including the heart and lungs. It is made up of the ribs, costal cartilage, and sternum. The ribs form the main framework of the thoracic cage, while the costal cartilage connects the ribs to the sternum. The sternum is a flat bone in the center of the chest. The clavicle, also known as the collarbone, is not a part of the thoracic cage. It is a long bone that connects the shoulder to the sternum, but it is not directly involved in protecting the thoracic organs.

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  • 47. 

    There are _________ true ribs.

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      13

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    B. 7
    Explanation
    The statement "There are 7 true ribs" is correct. True ribs are the first 7 pairs of ribs in the human body that are directly attached to the sternum. The remaining 5 pairs of ribs are called false ribs, as they either do not attach directly to the sternum or are indirectly attached through cartilage. Therefore, the correct answer is 7.

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  • 48. 

    There are _______ false ribs.

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The statement "There are 3 false ribs" is correct. False ribs are the last five pairs of ribs in the ribcage that do not directly attach to the sternum. Instead, they either attach indirectly to the sternum or are floating ribs that do not attach to the sternum at all. There are 3 pairs of false ribs, making a total of 6 false ribs in the human ribcage.

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  • 49. 

    There are ________ floating ribs.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The statement "There are ________ floating ribs" suggests that the question is asking for the number of floating ribs. Floating ribs are the last two pairs of ribs in the ribcage that do not attach to the sternum. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 50. 

    __________ are those that do not attach directly to the sternum, but to the cartilage of another rib.

    • A.

      True ribs

    • B.

      False ribs

    • C.

      Floating ribs

    Correct Answer
    B. False ribs
    Explanation
    False ribs are those that do not attach directly to the sternum, but to the cartilage of another rib. Unlike true ribs, which attach directly to the sternum, false ribs have their cartilage attached to the cartilage of the rib above them. This allows for more flexibility in the ribcage and helps with the expansion of the chest during breathing. Floating ribs, on the other hand, are the last two pairs of false ribs that do not attach to the sternum or any other rib, giving them a floating-like appearance.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 25, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Shelleyr
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