This Acquisition Test Is For You If You Are A Business Student!

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1. ** Acquisition planning must take place 

Explanation

Acquisition planning must take place as soon as an agency need is identified because it is crucial to plan and strategize the acquisition process from the very beginning. Identifying the agency's need is the first step in understanding what needs to be acquired and how it should be acquired. It allows for early identification of requirements, budgeting, and determining the appropriate acquisition strategy. By starting the planning process early, the agency can ensure that all necessary steps are taken to meet their needs efficiently and effectively.

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About This Quiz
This Acquisition Test Is For You If You Are A Business Student! - Quiz

In corporate finance, mergers and acquisitions are transactions in which the ownership of companies, other business organizations, or their operating units are transferred or consolidated with other entities.... see more
This acquisition test is for you if you are a business student!
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2. If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, then the contracting officer (CO) can

Explanation

If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, the contracting officer (CO) cannot award it anyway because it is mandatory. Instead, the CO can use competitive procedures to acquire the product. This means that the CO will open up the procurement process to other potential suppliers, allowing them to submit their offers. By doing so, the CO can ensure that the best product, in terms of price, quality, and time of delivery, is selected for the contract.

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3. ** When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the micro-purchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) shall provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least how many contractors?

Explanation

When executing a GSA task order above the micro-purchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least three contractors. This ensures a competitive bidding process and allows for a sufficient number of offers to be received in order to make an informed decision. By providing the RFQ to multiple contractors, the CO increases the chances of receiving competitive prices and proposals for the required goods or services.

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4. ** When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a circumstance in which a contracting officer (CO) can justify limiting sources?

Explanation

In certain situations, a contracting officer (CO) may be justified in limiting sources when executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order. One such circumstance is when there is an urgent and compelling need that would result in delays if the regular procedures were followed. This means that if following the usual procedures would cause a delay that could potentially harm national security or public safety, the CO can limit the sources and expedite the process to meet the urgent need.

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5. ** A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than

Explanation

A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than 60 days because leasing equipment for a shorter period may not have significant financial implications and it may be more cost-effective to simply purchase the equipment outright. However, when the lease duration exceeds 60 days, it becomes necessary to evaluate the costs and benefits of leasing versus purchasing to make an informed decision.

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6. ** Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business located on an Indian reservation?

Explanation

The correct answer is Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone). This program is aimed at helping small businesses located in economically disadvantaged areas, including Indian reservations. The program provides various benefits and opportunities for these businesses, such as preferential access to federal contracts and assistance in obtaining loans and access to capital. It aims to stimulate economic development and job creation in these areas by promoting small business growth and success.

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7. What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business?

Explanation

If a contracting officer (CO) only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business, they should award the contract to that offer. This is because the CO has followed the proper procedure by advertising the solicitation and receiving an acceptable offer. There is no requirement to extend the deadline, contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance, or cancel and re-advertise the solicitation in this scenario.

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8. One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than what dollar amount?

Explanation

The correct answer is $750,000. This criterion states that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the EDWOSB program if her personal net worth is less than $750,000. This means that if a woman's personal net worth is below this amount, she may qualify for certain benefits and opportunities provided by the program.

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9. Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the

Explanation

The Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act requires the designation of a competition advocate for each contracting activity. This means that every contracting activity must have an advocate who is responsible for promoting and ensuring fair competition in the procurement process. This requirement helps to prevent favoritism and promote opportunities for small businesses to compete for government contracts. The Small Business Act, Regulatory Flexibility Act, and National Defense Authorization Act do not specifically require the designation of a competition advocate.

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10. ** All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except

Explanation

Brand-name requirements are not an example of competitive procedures because they specify a particular brand or product, limiting competition and preventing other suppliers from offering alternatives. In contrast, sealed bids, two-step sealed bidding, and competitive proposals are all examples of competitive procedures as they allow multiple suppliers to submit their bids or proposals and compete for the contract based on their offerings and prices.

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11. What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern?

Explanation

If only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern, the contracting officer should make an award to that firm. This is because the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) states that if only one offer is received in response to a small business set-aside, the contracting officer may make an award to that firm if the offer is acceptable and the price is reasonable. Therefore, in this scenario, since the offer is acceptable and there are no issues with the price, the contracting officer should proceed with making an award to the small business concern.

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12. ** In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for small business concerns?

Explanation

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13. ** At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) required?

Explanation

A streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required when the dollar amount of an acquisition falls between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10 million. This means that if the acquisition is below the SAT or above $10 million, a SASS is not required.

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14. ** Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition?

Explanation

The reason "Customer preferred" is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition is because it implies that the customer wants to have a choice and options. Limiting competition would mean reducing the number of choices available to the customer, which contradicts the idea of customer preference.

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15. ** Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds. This statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000.

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16. When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance

Explanation

The correct answer is "before the contractor begins work." When the clause FAR 52.228-5 is included in a contract, the contracting officer requests and receives proof of insurance from the contractor before they start working. This ensures that the contractor has the necessary insurance coverage in place to protect against any potential damages or liabilities that may arise during the course of the project.

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17. Oral solicitations may not be practicable for

Explanation

Oral solicitations may not be practicable for actions exceeding $25,000 because larger purchases typically require a more formal and documented procurement process. The use of oral solicitations may not provide enough transparency and accountability for higher-value acquisitions. Instead, a more rigorous and structured approach, such as written solicitations and competitive bidding, is necessary to ensure fairness, competition, and adherence to procurement regulations.

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18. Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are

Explanation

Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are issued using the Standard Form (SF) 30. The SF 30 is a standardized form used by the government for making amendments to contracts, including RFQs. It allows for clear and consistent communication between the government and potential contractors regarding any changes or updates to the RFQ. By using the SF 30, the government ensures that all parties involved are aware of and can easily track any modifications made to the RFQ.

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19. Which source selection process allows the source selection authority (SSA) discretion in awarding to higher rated performers over lower rated performers if the price differential is warranted and considered the best value?

Explanation

The tradeoff source selection process allows the source selection authority (SSA) to have discretion in awarding contracts to higher rated performers over lower rated performers if the price differential is justified and considered the best value. This means that even if a lower rated performer offers a lower price, the SSA can still choose a higher rated performer if their proposal is considered to provide better overall value. This process allows for a more subjective evaluation of proposals based on a combination of factors, including price and technical capabilities.

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20. ** Which is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract?

Explanation

A cost-plus fixed fee contract is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract. Indefinite-delivery contracts are used when the quantity and timing of future orders are uncertain, allowing the government to order goods or services as needed. Requirements contracts are used when the government has an indefinite need for a specific type of product or service. Definite-quantity contracts are used when the government knows the exact quantity it needs. In contrast, a cost-plus fixed fee contract is a type of cost-reimbursement contract where the contractor is reimbursed for allowable costs incurred plus a fixed fee for profit.

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21. Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for deciding if a preproposal conference is required and making the necessary arrangements. As the individual in charge of managing the contract, the CO has the authority to determine if a preproposal conference is necessary to clarify any issues or provide additional information to potential bidders. They are also responsible for organizing and coordinating the conference, ensuring that all relevant parties are informed and able to participate. The CO's role in this process is crucial in ensuring effective communication and understanding between the contracting agency and potential contractors.

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22. Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to

Explanation

The correct answer is "examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work." Site visits should allow prospective offerors to gather information about the project by examining any government data that is available. This could include data related to the performance of similar work or any other relevant information that may help the offerors in understanding the requirements and scope of the project. This will enable them to make a more informed decision when preparing their bids.

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23. When conducting a site visit,

Explanation

When conducting a site visit, it is important that all offerors have equal access to site information. This ensures fairness and transparency in the bidding process. By making the site information available to all offerors in the same manner, it eliminates any potential advantage or disadvantage for any particular contractor. This allows for a level playing field and ensures that all offerors have the same information to base their proposals on.

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24. When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?

Explanation

When amending a request for proposal (RFP), changes can be made to the quantity of the requested items, the specifications or requirements for those items, and the delivery schedules for when the items are expected to be delivered. This means that any adjustments or modifications to these aspects of the RFP can be made during the amendment process.

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25. Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?

Explanation

If the changes in the request for proposal (RFP) are so significant that they go beyond what potential contractors could have reasonably expected, it would justify canceling the RFP before closing. This means that the alterations are substantial enough to significantly impact the nature of the project or the requirements for the contractors. In such a case, it would be fair to cancel the RFP and potentially issue a new one that reflects the updated changes.

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26. What additional product information may be required of offerors to ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB)?

Explanation

Descriptive literature may be required of offerors to ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB). Descriptive literature provides detailed information about the product, including specifications, features, and functionality. This allows the buyer to evaluate whether the product meets their specific needs and requirements. By reviewing the descriptive literature, the buyer can assess the product's suitability and make an informed decision during the bidding process.

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27. ** What should be considered before amending an invitation for bid (IFB)?

Explanation

Before amending an invitation for bid (IFB), it is important to consider the period of time remaining until bid opening and the need to extend the period. This is because any amendments to the IFB may require additional time for potential bidders to review and submit their bids. If there is not enough time remaining until the bid opening, extending the period may be necessary to ensure fairness and give all potential bidders an equal opportunity to participate.

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28. Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the CO and 

Explanation

The program manager is responsible for overseeing the overall acquisition process and ensuring that the project objectives are met. They have a comprehensive understanding of the project requirements and can effectively coordinate and communicate with the various stakeholders involved. The program manager's leadership in the acquisition team is crucial in ensuring that the team works together cohesively and effectively to achieve the desired outcomes.

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29. ** Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels?

Explanation

The base supply officer is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels. They oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies to ensure that the needs of the organization are met efficiently and effectively. This includes monitoring inventory levels, coordinating with suppliers, and evaluating supply chain options to ensure that the customer's requirements are fulfilled.

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30. ** At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule?

Explanation

Agencies shall purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule at prices not to exceed fair market value. This means that they cannot pay more than the fair market value for the supplies.

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31. When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, which is not included in the requirements package?

Explanation

The requirements package for a General Services Administration (GSA) task order typically includes the location of work and delivery schedule, description of work to be performed, and security clearance requirements. However, the price indicated on the independent government estimate is not included in the requirements package. This is because the independent government estimate is a separate document that provides an estimate of the cost for the project, but it is not a requirement that needs to be included in the package.

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32. ** Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000?

Explanation

The contracting officer is usually the one who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000. This individual is responsible for managing the acquisition process and has the authority to make decisions regarding contract awards and justifications.

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33. At what dollar amount does the non-manufacturer rule not apply?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Under $25,000." The non-manufacturer rule does not apply for contracts under $25,000. This means that small businesses can be awarded contracts for supplies without having to meet the requirements of being a manufacturer or a regular dealer.

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34. Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as

Explanation

Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as request for proposals (RFP). RFPs are used when the government needs to purchase goods or services that are more complex and require a detailed proposal from potential vendors. This allows the government to evaluate different proposals and select the one that best meets their needs. Unlike request for bids or invitation for bids, which are used for simpler acquisitions, RFPs involve a negotiation process and allow for more flexibility in terms of pricing and terms. Request for quotations (RFQ) is used for smaller purchases and does not involve a negotiation process.

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35. The of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service is known as

Explanation

An acquisition strategy panel (ASP) is a group of functional experts who review and recommend acquisition strategies for a specific product or service. They analyze various factors such as cost, quality, and performance to determine the best approach for acquiring the product or service. The ASP plays a crucial role in ensuring that the acquisition process is efficient and effective, ultimately leading to successful outcomes for the organization.

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36. What action must a CO take if MR indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs?

Explanation

If the MR (Market Research) indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs, the CO (Contracting Officer) must restate the terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items. This means that the CO should revise the requirements or specifications in order to allow for the purchase of a similar commercial item that is available in the market. This ensures that the customer's needs are still met while utilizing the benefits of commercial items.

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37. When shall a contracting officer (CO) provide unsuccessful offerors additional information after awarding a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)?

Explanation

Upon request due to the award being based on factors other than price, the contracting officer (CO) shall provide unsuccessful offerors with additional information after awarding a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This is because when the award is based on factors other than price, such as technical capabilities or past performance, unsuccessful offerors may want to understand why they were not selected and request additional information to improve their future proposals. The CO is obligated to provide this information upon request in order to maintain transparency and fairness in the procurement process.

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38. What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?

Explanation

Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part 19 prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses. This part of the FAR provides guidelines and regulations for promoting the utilization of small businesses in federal contracting. It includes provisions for small business set-asides, subcontracting opportunities, and other initiatives aimed at supporting and promoting small businesses in government contracts.

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39. Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) contract?

Explanation

HUBZone full and open is not a type of historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) contract. The other options, such as HUBZone set-aside, HUBZone sole source, and competitive HUBZone set-aside, all refer to specific types of contracts that are designated for businesses located in HUBZone areas. However, HUBZone full and open does not specify any restrictions or preferences for HUBZone businesses, indicating that it is not a type of HUBZone contract.

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40. Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB)?

Explanation

The factor in which a contracting officer can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB) is when the CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns. This means that if the CO believes that only one SDVOSB is capable of fulfilling the contract requirements, they can award the contract to that business without competition.

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41. ** Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?

Explanation

End of fiscal year constraints is not a factor in determining competitive procedures. Competitive procedures are typically determined based on factors such as micro-purchases, market conditions, and support of existing systems. Micro-purchases refer to small purchases made by government agencies, while market conditions and support of existing systems help in evaluating the feasibility and effectiveness of competitive procedures. However, the end of the fiscal year does not directly impact the determination of competitive procedures.

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42. What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 exception satisfies the requirement for sole-source and brand-name justifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements." This exception under Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 allows for sole-source and brand-name justifications when there is only one source that can meet the agency's requirements. In such cases, competition is not feasible, and the agency can justify the sole-source procurement based on the fact that no other source is capable of fulfilling the requirements. This exception ensures that the agency can acquire the necessary goods or services efficiently and effectively.

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43. ** Within how many days after contract award must a justification and approval (J&A) be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE)?

Explanation

Within 14 days after contract award, a justification and approval (J&A) must be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE). This is done to ensure transparency and accountability in the contracting process. By making the J&A available to the public, it allows for scrutiny and review of the contract award decision, ensuring that it was made in a fair and justified manner. This helps to maintain public trust and confidence in the government's procurement procedures.

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44. ** The penal amount of a performance bond is based on what percentage of the contract price?

Explanation

The penal amount of a performance bond is based on 100% of the contract price. This means that if the contractor fails to fulfill their obligations under the contract, the bond will cover the full amount of the contract price. This provides assurance to the project owner that they will be compensated for any financial losses incurred due to the contractor's non-performance.

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45. ** When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability is

Explanation

When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability is $100,000. This means that the contractor must have insurance coverage of at least $100,000 to protect against any claims or lawsuits brought by employees who are injured or become ill while working on the government installation. This coverage is necessary to ensure that the contractor is able to compensate employees for any damages or medical expenses that may arise from work-related injuries.

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46. To the maximum extent practicable, public law requires that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items include only those clauses required to implement provisions of law or executive orders, or those clauses

Explanation

The correct answer is "determined to be consistent with customary commercial practice." This means that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items should include only those clauses that are in line with the usual practices in the commercial industry. These clauses should not be excessive or burdensome, but rather reflect the standard practices followed by businesses in similar transactions. By including only clauses that are consistent with customary commercial practice, the aim is to streamline the contracting process and ensure fairness and efficiency in the acquisition of commercial items.

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47. ** Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and 52.212–4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by checking block

Explanation

The correct answer is 27a of the SF 1449. This is because the question is asking about the specific block in the Standard Form (SF) 1449 that incorporates the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212-1 and 52.212-4 into commercial contracts by reference.

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48. ** Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clause 52.212–2, Evaluation-Commercial Items, in solicitations is true?

Explanation

The correct answer states that the provision is not necessary when an award will be based on price alone and using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP). This means that when the evaluation of offers is solely based on price and the procurement process follows simplified procedures, the inclusion of the FAR clause 52.212-2, Evaluation-Commercial Items, is not required.

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49. When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 12,

Explanation

When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 12, the correct approach is to post only a detailed summary describing the requirement to the government-wide point of entry (GPE). This means that instead of using the Standard Form (SF) 33 or SF 1449, which are typically used for formal solicitations, a simplified process is followed. The detailed summary serves as a way to inform potential contractors about the requirement and invite them to submit their capabilities or qualifications for consideration. This approach allows for a more efficient and streamlined procurement process.

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50. ** Streamlined procedures

Explanation

Streamlined procedures eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation. This means that instead of going through the usual process of posting a synopsis and then issuing a separate solicitation, streamlined procedures combine these two steps into one. This saves time and effort for both the government and the contractors involved. By eliminating the need for separate documents, streamlined procedures can expedite the procurement process and make it more efficient.

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51. What office is responsible for tracking prior commercial item determinations?

Explanation

The Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) Commercial Item Group is responsible for tracking prior commercial item determinations. This means that they keep records and monitor previous determinations made regarding commercial items. This information is important for future reference and decision-making in procurement processes.

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52. Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as

Explanation

Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as request for quotations (RFQ). This is because RFQs are used when the government needs to procure goods or services that are readily available in the market and can be obtained at a reasonable price. RFQs are typically used for purchases below a certain threshold and involve requesting vendors to provide a quote for the required goods or services. This allows the government to compare prices and select the most advantageous offer.

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53. What part of the uniform contract format (UCF) contains sections K through M?

Explanation

Sections K through M of the uniform contract format (UCF) are contained in Part IV of the format. This part of the UCF covers representations, certifications, and other statements of offerors or respondents.

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54. ** Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process and

Explanation

Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process because they allow for direct communication and immediate clarification of any questions or concerns. They also provide an opportunity for the government to assess the offeror's understanding and capabilities in a more interactive and dynamic manner. By substituting written information with oral presentations, the evaluation process can be streamlined and expedited, saving both time and money.

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55. Section L of a solicitation

Explanation

Section L of a solicitation provides instructions to offerors in preparing their proposals. This section typically includes information such as the format and content requirements for the proposal, submission instructions, and any specific instructions or guidelines that the government wants the offerors to follow. By providing these instructions, the government ensures that all offerors are aware of the requirements and expectations for their proposals, which helps to ensure a fair and consistent evaluation process.

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56. In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state

Explanation

Advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state the project magnitude. This means that the physical characteristics and estimated price range of the project should be clearly mentioned in the notice or solicitation. This information is important for potential bidders to assess whether they have the capacity and resources to undertake the project. It also helps in determining the appropriate level of competition and identifying the right contractors for the job.

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57. Which statement describes the correct use of wage determinations?

Explanation

The correct use of wage determinations is to modify contracts and incorporate the most current wage determination each time the contracting officer exercises an option to extend the term of a construction contract. This ensures that the wages paid to workers are in accordance with the current wage determination and helps maintain fair and consistent wages within the construction industry.

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58. Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are

Explanation

Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are not exempt from the development of acquisition plans. This means that even though the contract was awarded by another agency, the process of developing acquisition plans still applies. These plans are necessary for effective and efficient procurement, and ensure that the acquisition process is properly planned and executed.

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59. ** When developing order placement procedures, the contracting officer (CO) should consider all of the following except

Explanation

When developing order placement procedures, the contracting officer (CO) should consider various factors such as minimum order requirements, potential impact on other orders placed with the contractor, and the amount of time contractors need to make informed business decisions. However, past performance on earlier orders placed on previous contracts is not a relevant factor to consider in this context. The focus is on the current order placement procedures and the contractor's ability to meet the requirements and make informed decisions, rather than their past performance on unrelated contracts.

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60. What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled?

Explanation

After a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled, unopened offeror proposals are returned to the offeror unopened. This means that the proposals are not opened or reviewed by the organization issuing the RFP. Instead, they are sent back to the offerors in their original, sealed condition. This ensures that the offerors have their proposals returned to them and allows them to use or modify their proposals for other opportunities if they choose to do so.

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61. ** A pre-bid conference

Explanation

A pre-bid conference is used in complex acquisitions as a means to explain complicated specifications. In complex acquisitions, the specifications can often be difficult to understand or interpret. Therefore, a pre-bid conference is held to provide an opportunity for potential bidders to ask questions and seek clarification on the specifications. This helps ensure that all bidders have a clear understanding of the requirements and can submit accurate and competitive bids.

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62. Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the following except

Explanation

Amendments to an invitation for bids (IFB) can change various aspects of the bid, such as specifications, delivery schedule, or addressing any ambiguity in the invitation. However, the contract type is typically determined before the bidding process begins and is not subject to change through amendments to the IFB. Therefore, the correct answer is contract type.

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63. Presolicitation notices include what information?

Explanation

Presolicitation notices include the notification of small business set-asides. This means that when a government agency plans to procure goods or services, they may reserve a portion of the contract for small businesses. This notification is included in the presolicitation notice to inform small businesses about the opportunity and encourage their participation in the bidding process. The other options listed, such as instructions to offerors, offer evaluation criteria, and applicable provisions and clauses, are also important components of presolicitation notices, but the specific information mentioned in the answer is the notification of small business set-asides.

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64. ** When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, how many days must a requirement exceeding $25,000 be posted?

Explanation

The correct answer is "A reasonable time." When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, there is no specific number of days required for posting a requirement exceeding $25,000. Instead, the contracting officer must determine what constitutes a reasonable time based on factors such as the complexity of the requirement, the urgency of the need, and industry standards. This allows for flexibility in setting response times that are appropriate for each individual acquisition.

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65. What Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template may be used to determine the availability of commercial sources or conducting market research?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Sources sought." A sources sought notice is a Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template that is used to determine the availability of commercial sources or to conduct market research. It is typically used when the government agency is unsure if there are qualified vendors or contractors available for a specific project or requirement. By issuing a sources sought notice, the agency can gather information from potential vendors and determine if there is sufficient competition in the market before proceeding with a formal solicitation.

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66. ** WHat higher level planning process is used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house?

Explanation

Competitive Sourcing is the higher level planning process used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house. This process involves comparing the costs and benefits of contracting out the work to external vendors versus performing it internally. It aims to ensure that the government makes informed decisions based on factors such as cost-effectiveness, efficiency, and the ability to achieve desired outcomes. By considering competitive sourcing, the government can determine the most suitable approach for delivering services and achieving its objectives.

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67. A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions w/ a dollar value  

Explanation

A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions between the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and $10 million. The SAT is the maximum dollar value for acquisitions that can be considered simplified acquisitions. This means that any acquisition with a dollar value exceeding the SAT but not exceeding $10 million requires a SASS.

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68. What specific information is included in a MRR?

Explanation

A MRR (Market Research Report) includes information about constraints to competition. This means that the report provides details about any limitations or restrictions that may exist in the competitive landscape for a particular procurement or contract. This information is crucial for the government or organization conducting the market research to understand the level of competition they can expect and make informed decisions based on that.

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69. ** Which  is not an example of a wholesale supply source?

Explanation

The Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) is not an example of a wholesale supply source because it is a retail organization that provides goods and services to military personnel, retirees, and their families. It operates stores on military installations and does not serve as a wholesale supplier to other organizations or agencies. On the other hand, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), Department of Veteran Affairs (VA), and General Services Administration (GSA) are all examples of wholesale supply sources that provide goods and services to various government agencies and organizations.

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70. ** The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for all of the following except

Explanation

The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for establishing prices for supplies and services, establishing rules and regulations to implement the AbilityOne Act, and determining supplies and services to be purchased by all entities of the government from AbilityOne participating nonprofit agencies. However, it is not responsible for providing everything from workplaces, security, and supplies to telecommunications.

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71. When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), at a minimum, the ordering activity shall document

Explanation

When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the ordering activity is required to document the amount paid and the basis for the award decision. This documentation ensures transparency and accountability in the procurement process. By recording the amount paid, the ordering activity can track and verify the expenditure of funds. Additionally, documenting the basis for the award decision provides a record of the evaluation criteria and justification for selecting a particular contractor. This documentation is important for auditing purposes and to demonstrate compliance with procurement regulations.

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72. When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), which factor is not documented when considering best value?

Explanation

When considering best value for an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contractor that the customer chose is not documented. Best value refers to the overall combination of price, quality, and other factors that provide the greatest benefit to the government. Therefore, while the amount paid, basis for the award decision, and description of the supply or service purchased are all documented factors in considering best value, the specific contractor chosen by the customer is not documented.

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73. When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within

Explanation

When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within 14 days. This means that after the order is placed, the justification must be uploaded to the website within two weeks. This requirement ensures transparency and allows other potential suppliers to review the justification and understand why the order was awarded to limited sources.

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74. ** Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F)?

Explanation

Establishing or maintaining alternative sources is an exception to full and open competition that must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F). This means that if an agency wants to award a contract to a specific source without competition, they must provide a written D&F that justifies the need for establishing or maintaining alternative sources. This exception allows the agency to bypass full and open competition in order to ensure the availability of alternative sources for critical goods or services.

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75. ** Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification. The CO is responsible for ensuring that the justification is valid and in compliance with all relevant regulations and laws. They have the authority to approve or disapprove the justification and are accountable for the procurement process. The technical expert provides input and expertise, but the final decision lies with the CO. The competition advocate promotes competition in the procurement process, and the requiring activity's unit commander may have input, but the ultimate responsibility rests with the CO.

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76. Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is

Explanation

The correct answer is "encouraged from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of bids." This means that in sealed bidding, the exchange of information is encouraged from the very beginning when the requirement is identified, all the way until the bids are received. This allows for open communication and clarification between the government and the bidders, ensuring a fair and transparent bidding process.

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77. Proposed contract actions are required to be publicized according to Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part

Explanation

The correct answer is 5. According to Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 5, proposed contract actions are required to be publicized. This means that any contracts that the government plans to award must be made known to the public through various methods, such as posting notices on government websites or publishing in newspapers. This transparency ensures fair competition and allows interested parties to have an opportunity to bid on the contracts.

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78. Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place must remain posted for at least how many days?

Explanation

Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place must remain posted for at least 10 days. This requirement ensures transparency and allows interested parties to have sufficient time to review and consider the contract actions. By keeping the information posted for a specific period, it allows for a fair and open process, promoting accountability and preventing any potential favoritism or unfair practices.

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79. ** Justification and approvals (J&A) publicized to the government-wide point of entry (GPE) must remain posted for a minimum of

Explanation

J&A publicized to the government-wide point of entry (GPE) must remain posted for a minimum of 30 days. This ensures that the information is available for a sufficient amount of time for interested parties to review and provide any necessary approvals or justifications. Keeping the J&A posted for 30 days allows for transparency and accountability in the government procurement process.

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80. ** When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is appropriate when

Explanation

When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is appropriate when cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs. This means that if the total cost of leasing the equipment over a certain period of time is higher than the cost of purchasing it outright, then it is more cost-effective to choose the purchase option. This decision is based on financial considerations and aims to minimize expenses in the long run.

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81. Which is not a required criterion for a small business to qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone)?

Explanation

The criterion that is not required for a small business to qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) is to be at least 51 percent owned by one or more citizens who live in a HUBZone. While being located in a HUBZone, having at least 35 percent of employees residing in a HUBZone, and being at least 51 percent owned and controlled by one or more US citizens are all necessary criteria, the requirement for the owners to live in a HUBZone is not necessary.

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82. The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive describing new initiatives

Explanation

The correct answer is "required to increase the acquisition of commercial items." The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive to outline new initiatives aimed at increasing the acquisition of commercial items. This suggests that the advocate is focused on promoting competition in the procurement process and encouraging the acquisition of goods or services from commercial sources.

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83. The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source requirement is that the brand-name requirement

Explanation

A brand-name requirement can be provided by multiple sources, meaning that different companies can offer products that meet the specified brand-name requirement. On the other hand, a single-source requirement means that only one company can fulfill the requirement, making it a sole-source requirement. Therefore, the correct answer is that a brand-name requirement can be provided by multiple sources, whereas a single source or one company can only fill sole-source requirements.

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84. Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and

Explanation

This answer suggests that brand-name justifications should include an explanation of the impact on the mission if the brand is substituted. This is important because it shows that the specific brand has unique capabilities that are necessary for the mission's success. Additionally, the answer mentions that at least three suggested sources should be provided, which could include the wing commander's preference and alternative brands that may be considered. These sources help to provide a comprehensive justification for the chosen brand.

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85. ** A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard Form (SF) 1449 when all of the following conditions are present except

Explanation

When all of the conditions mentioned in the question are present, a separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard Form (SF) 1449, except when streamlined procedures are being used. Streamlined procedures are typically used for acquisitions that are below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and do not require a separate synopsis and solicitation. Therefore, the correct answer is "streamlined procedures are being used."

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86. ** The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to

Explanation

The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to combine FAR Part 15 procedures with FAR Part 12 procedures, and the RFP is prepared using the commercial contract format. This means that the RFP should follow the guidelines set forth in both FAR Part 15 and FAR Part 12, which provide specific procedures for acquiring commercial items. Additionally, the RFP should be prepared using the commercial contract format, which is the appropriate format for acquiring commercial goods and services.

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87. Which of the following describes a preproposal conference?

Explanation

A preproposal conference is a meeting that may take place after a solicitation is issued but before offers are submitted. During this conference, potential offerors can gather information and clarification about the solicitation requirements. It provides an opportunity for offerors to ask questions, seek clarification, and understand the scope of the project. The changes agreed upon during the conference may also qualify the terms of the solicitation, ensuring that all potential offerors have the same understanding and can submit competitive proposals.

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88. When the uniform contract format (UCF) is used for sealed bidding, prepare the invitation for bid (IFB) on Standard Form (SF)

Explanation

The correct answer is 33 because the Uniform Contract Format (UCF) is a standardized format used for government contracts. When using the UCF for sealed bidding, the invitation for bid (IFB) should be prepared on Standard Form (SF) 33. This ensures consistency and clarity in the bidding process, making it easier for both the government agency and the bidders to review and evaluate the bids.

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** Acquisition planning must take place 
If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in...
** When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order...
** When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a...
** A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment...
** Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business...
What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives...
One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged...
Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a...
** All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except
What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one...
** In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for...
** At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary...
** Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit...
** Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any...
When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5,...
Oral solicitations may not be practicable for
Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are
Which source selection process allows the source selection authority...
** Which is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract?
Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the...
Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to
When conducting a site visit,
When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?
Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal...
What additional product information may be required of offerors to...
** What should be considered before amending an invitation for bid...
Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the CO...
** Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and...
** At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies...
When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order,...
** Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding...
At what dollar amount does the non-manufacturer rule not apply?
Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)...
The of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition...
What action must a CO take if MR indicates that a commercial item is...
When shall a contracting officer (CO) provide unsuccessful offerors...
What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy for...
Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone...
Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a...
** Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?
What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 exception satisfies...
** Within how many days after contract award must a justification...
** The penal amount of a performance bond is based on what percentage...
** When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on...
To the maximum extent practicable, public law requires that contracts...
** Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1...
** Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of...
When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition...
** Streamlined procedures
What office is responsible for tracking prior commercial item...
Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are...
What part of the uniform contract format (UCF) contains sections K...
** Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs...
Section L of a solicitation
In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range,...
Which statement describes the correct use of wage determinations?
Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract...
** When developing order placement procedures, the contracting...
What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for...
** A pre-bid conference
Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the...
Presolicitation notices include what information?
** When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition...
What Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template may be used to...
** WHat higher level planning process is used to identify and...
A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for...
What specific information is included in a MRR?
** Which  is not an example of a wholesale supply source?
** The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely...
When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is...
When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is...
When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the...
** Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must...
** Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory...
Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is
Proposed contract actions are required to be publicized according to...
Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed...
** Justification and approvals (J&A) publicized to the...
** When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method...
Which is not a required criterion for a small business to qualify as a...
The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to...
The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source...
Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and
** A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the...
** The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to
Which of the following describes a preproposal conference?
When the uniform contract format (UCF) is used for sealed bidding,...
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