Quiz : How Much Do You Know About Digoxin Therapy?

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Quiz : How Much Do You Know About Digoxin Therapy? - Quiz

Digoxin therapy is used for many critical heart conditions. Do you know about it? With a fun quiz, let's see how much you know about digoxin therapy! All you have to do is answer a few simple questions! The practice of pharmacy takes a lot more work than you might think when you hand over your prescription. A lot of work goes into getting you the right drugs. Please make sure to read all the questions carefully before answering. All the questions are compulsory. Have fun and good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An antidote for digitalis toxicity is

    • A.

      Vitamin K

    • B.

      Atropine

    • C.

      Digibind

    • D.

      Digitoxin

    Correct Answer
    C. Digibind
    Explanation
    Digibind is the correct answer because it is an antidote specifically used for digitalis toxicity. Digitalis toxicity occurs when there is an excess of digitalis, a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, in the body. Digibind works by binding to the digitalis and preventing it from exerting its toxic effects. Vitamin K is not an antidote for digitalis toxicity, and atropine and digitoxin are not specifically used to treat digitalis toxicity.

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  • 2. 

    When monitoring patients who are taking digoxin, the serum level should be

    • A.

      0.1 to 0.5 ng/mL

    • B.

      0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL

    • C.

      2.0 to 5.0 ng/mL

    • D.

      5.0 to 8.4 ng/mL

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL
  • 3. 

    Before giving oral digoxin, you find that the patients apical HR is 55 beats/min. You should

    • A.

      give the dose

    • B.

      Hold the dose

    • C.

      Hold the dose and notify the physician

    • D.

      Check the radial pulse

    Correct Answer
    C. Hold the dose and notify the physician
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to hold the dose and notify the physician. A heart rate of 55 beats per minute is lower than the normal range, which may indicate bradycardia. Digoxin is a medication that can further decrease the heart rate, so it is important to hold the dose and inform the physician to assess the patient's condition and determine the appropriate course of action.

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  • 4. 

    Mr. Ferris also complains of constipation. He complains that if he were allowed to eat his high fiber bran as often as he used to, he wouldn't be constipated. What teaching should the nurse provide to Mr. Ferris?

    • A.

      Foods high in fiber bind to digitalis and make it more effective

    • B.

      Let me check with your PCP

    • C.

      Food high in fiber bind to digitalis and make it less effective

    • D.

      Have your wife bring you some and you can eat as much high fiber bran as you would like!

    Correct Answer
    C. Food high in fiber bind to digitalis and make it less effective
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "food high in fiber bind to digitalis and make it less effective." This teaching should be provided to Mr. Ferris because he complains of constipation and believes that if he were allowed to eat his high fiber bran as often as he used to, he wouldn't be constipated. The nurse should inform Mr. Ferris that foods high in fiber can actually bind to digitalis, a medication he may be taking, and make it less effective. This can affect his overall health and contribute to his constipation.

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  • 5. 

    After 3 days of therapy your patient complains of feeling nauseated and has no appetite. She also wonders why the lights are so blurry and bright. Her radial pulse is 52 beats/min. When you check her lab work you note that he digoxin level from that mornin is 3.5 ng/mL. Should you give the dose?

    • A.

      Administer more digoxin

    • B.

      Withhold the dose and notify the PCP

    • C.

      Nothing this is normal

    Correct Answer
    B. Withhold the dose and notify the PCP
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of feeling nauseated, having no appetite, blurry and bright lights, along with a low radial pulse, could be indicative of digoxin toxicity. A digoxin level of 3.5 ng/mL is higher than the therapeutic range (0.5-2.0 ng/mL), suggesting an overdose. Therefore, withholding the dose and notifying the primary care physician (PCP) is the appropriate action to take in this situation.

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  • 6. 

    The antidysrhythmic drug lidocaine is used mainly for the treatment of 

    • A.

      Atrial fibrilation

    • B.

      Bradycardia

    • C.

      Complete heart block

    • D.

      Ventricular dysrhythmias

    Correct Answer
    D. Ventricular dysrhythmias
    Explanation
    Lidocaine is primarily used for the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias. Ventricular dysrhythmias refer to abnormal heart rhythms that originate in the ventricles, the lower chambers of the heart. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels in the ventricular cells, which helps to stabilize the electrical activity of the heart and restore a normal rhythm. This drug is not typically used for atrial fibrillation, bradycardia, or complete heart block, as these conditions involve different mechanisms and require different treatment approaches.

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  • 7. 

    Cordarone (amiodarone) has possible adverse effects including all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Pulmonary toxicity

    • B.

      Hypothyroidism

    • C.

      Urinary retention

    • D.

      Visual halos

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypothyroidism
    Explanation
    Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. It has several potential adverse effects, including pulmonary toxicity, urinary retention, and visual halos. However, one adverse effect that is not associated with amiodarone is hypothyroidism. This means that taking amiodarone is not likely to cause an underactive thyroid gland.

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  • 8. 

    What adverse side effects and signs of toxicity does NOT apply to the calcium channel blockers?

    • A.

      Headache

    • B.

      fatigue

    • C.

      Dizziness

    • D.

      Transient hypotension

    • E.

      Backache

    Correct Answer
    E. Backache
    Explanation
    Calcium channel blockers are a class of medications used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and heart disease. They work by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the workload on the heart. Adverse side effects commonly associated with calcium channel blockers include headache, fatigue, dizziness, and transient hypotension (low blood pressure). However, backache is not typically listed as a side effect or sign of toxicity for calcium channel blockers. Therefore, it does not apply to this medication class.

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  • 9. 

    The first sign of digitalis toxicity is

    • A.

      Muscular weakness

    • B.

      Headache

    • C.

      Anorexia

    • D.

      Nausea

    Correct Answer
    C. Anorexia
    Explanation
    Anorexia refers to the loss of appetite or lack of desire to eat. In the context of digitalis toxicity, anorexia is often one of the initial signs. Digitalis is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, but an overdose or toxicity can occur. When this happens, anorexia can manifest as a symptom due to the effects of digitalis on the gastrointestinal system. It is important to recognize anorexia as an early sign of digitalis toxicity in order to seek medical attention and prevent further complications.

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  • 10. 

    The purpose of antianginal drug therapy is to

    • A.

      Increase blood flow to the peripheral arteries

    • B.

      Vasodilate the heart muscle

    • C.

      Vasoconstrict the heart muscle

    • D.

      Decrease blood flow to the peripheral arteries

    Correct Answer
    B. Vasodilate the heart muscle
    Explanation
    The purpose of antianginal drug therapy is to vasodilate the heart muscle. This means that the drugs aim to widen the blood vessels in the heart, allowing for increased blood flow to the heart muscle. By vasodilating the heart muscle, these drugs can help improve blood supply to the heart, reduce the workload on the heart, and relieve symptoms of angina, such as chest pain or discomfort. Increasing blood flow to the peripheral arteries or vasoconstricting the heart muscle would be counterproductive in this context, while decreasing blood flow to the peripheral arteries is not the intended goal of antianginal drug therapy.

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  • 11. 

    What is a common side effect of nitroglycerin?

    • A.

      Blurred vision

    • B.

      Dizziness

    • C.

      Headache

    • D.

      Weakness

    Correct Answer
    C. Headache
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerin is a medication commonly used to treat angina, a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. One of the most common side effects of nitroglycerin is a headache. This occurs because nitroglycerin causes blood vessels to dilate, including those in the head. The dilation of blood vessels can lead to increased blood flow and pressure, resulting in a headache. While other side effects like blurred vision, dizziness, and weakness can also occur, headache is the most frequently reported side effect of nitroglycerin.

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  • 12. 

    Nitroglycerin is available in all the following forms EXCEPT

    • A.

      Transdermal patch

    • B.

      Intravenous bolus

    • C.

      Sublingual spray

    • D.

      Topical ointment

    Correct Answer
    B. Intravenous bolus
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerin is available in various forms for medical use, including transdermal patches, sublingual sprays, and topical ointments. However, it is not typically administered as an intravenous bolus. Intravenous bolus refers to the direct injection of a medication into a vein, which is not a common method of administering nitroglycerin.

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  • 13. 

    What is the best way to prevent tolerance to nitrates when using the transdermal patch?

    • A.

      Leave the old patch on for 2 hours when applying a new patch

    • B.

      Apply a new patch every other day

    • C.

      Leave the patch of for 24 hours once a week

    • D.

      Remove the patch at night for 12 hours and then apply a new patch in the morning

    Correct Answer
    D. Remove the patch at night for 12 hours and then apply a new patch in the morning
    Explanation
    The best way to prevent tolerance to nitrates when using the transdermal patch is to remove the patch at night for 12 hours and then apply a new patch in the morning. This allows for a period of time without the patch, which helps to prevent the body from becoming accustomed to the effects of the medication and developing tolerance. By regularly cycling the use of the patch, the effectiveness of the nitrates can be maintained over time.

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  • 14. 

    A patient who is experiencing an anginal attack has taken one nitroglycerin sublingual tablet and the pain is still there, what should he do next?

    • A.

      Call 911

    • B.

      Drive to the ER NOW

    • C.

      Nothing, it takes a while to work

    • D.

      Wait 5 min and take 1 if still there wait 5 min and take 1 again...if still there call 911!

    Correct Answer
    D. Wait 5 min and take 1 if still there wait 5 min and take 1 again...if still there call 911!
    Explanation
    If a patient is experiencing an anginal attack and has taken one nitroglycerin sublingual tablet but the pain is still present, the next step would be to wait for 5 minutes and take another tablet if the pain persists. If the pain still persists after taking the second tablet, it is recommended to call 911 for immediate medical assistance. This is because nitroglycerin tablets are used to relieve anginal symptoms by dilating the blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart. If the pain persists despite taking the medication, it may indicate a more serious condition that requires emergency medical attention.

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  • 15. 

    Before administering a new nitroglycerin transdermal patch the nurse should

    • A.

      Leave the old patch on

    • B.

      Remove the old patch and clean the residue and then apply the new patch to a clean and hair free area

    • C.

      Apply the patch over hair because it doesn't change the effectiveness of the drug

    • D.

      Apply a new patch to the same spot

    Correct Answer
    B. Remove the old patch and clean the residue and then apply the new patch to a clean and hair free area
    Explanation
    It is important for the nurse to remove the old patch and clean the residue before applying a new nitroglycerin transdermal patch. This ensures that the medication can be absorbed properly and that there are no interactions between the old and new patches. Applying the new patch to a clean and hair-free area also helps with proper adhesion and absorption of the medication.

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  • 16. 

    When applying nitroglycerin topical ointment the nurse should ensure she wears

    • A.

      A hat

    • B.

      A dress

    • C.

      leggings

    • D.

      Gloves

    Correct Answer
    D. Gloves
    Explanation
    When applying nitroglycerin topical ointment, it is important for the nurse to wear gloves. This is because nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that can be absorbed through the skin and cause systemic effects. Wearing gloves helps to protect the nurse's hands from direct contact with the medication, preventing absorption and potential side effects. Additionally, gloves also help to maintain hygiene and prevent the spread of infection.

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  • 17. 

    What herb is used to treat a variety of cardiovascular problems?

    • A.

      Paprika

    • B.

      Hawthorn

    • C.

      Basil

    Correct Answer
    B. Hawthorn
    Explanation
    Hawthorn is a herb that is commonly used to treat a variety of cardiovascular problems. It has been traditionally used to improve heart health and circulation. Hawthorn is believed to have several beneficial effects on the cardiovascular system, including dilating blood vessels, improving blood flow, and strengthening the heart muscle. It is often used as a natural remedy for conditions such as high blood pressure, angina, and heart failure. Research has shown that hawthorn may have antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties, which further contribute to its cardiovascular benefits.

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  • 18. 

    Common side effect of adrenergic drugs involving a sudden drop in blood pressure when patients change position is known as 

    • A.

      Orthopedic hypotension

    • B.

      Orthostatic hypotension

    • C.

      Orthostatic hypertension

    • D.

      Dizziness

    Correct Answer
    B. Orthostatic hypotension
    Explanation
    Orthostatic hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure when patients change their position, such as standing up from a sitting or lying position. This is a common side effect of adrenergic drugs, which affect the sympathetic nervous system and can lead to a decrease in blood pressure. Symptoms of orthostatic hypotension may include dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting.

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  • 19. 

    Michael has been taking clonidine (Catapres) for 5 months and his blood pressure has been normal for 2 months. He tells you that he would like to stop taking the drug. What do you say?

    • A.

      Go ahead and stop it - your blood pressure is normal

    • B.

      Stop taking the drug for a month and see how you do

    • C.

      This drug should not be stopped suddendly and does not cure high blood pressure

    • D.

      You can stop the drug is you exercise and avoid salty foods

    Correct Answer
    C. This drug should not be stopped suddendly and does not cure high blood pressure
    Explanation
    Clonidine (Catapres) is a medication used to treat high blood pressure. It is important to inform the patient that abruptly stopping the medication can be dangerous and may cause a sudden increase in blood pressure. Additionally, clonidine does not cure high blood pressure, but rather helps to manage it. Therefore, the correct answer is that the drug should not be stopped suddenly and does not cure high blood pressure.

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  • 20. 

    All of the following side effects may occur with the use of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors except

    • A.

      A dry, nonproductive cough

    • B.

      fatigue

    • C.

      Restlessness

    • D.

      headaches

    Correct Answer
    C. Restlessness
    Explanation
    ACE inhibitors are a type of medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. They work by blocking the action of an enzyme that causes blood vessels to narrow. One of the most common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a dry, nonproductive cough, which occurs in about 5-20% of patients. Fatigue and headaches are also possible side effects, but restlessness is not typically associated with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the correct answer is restlessness.

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  • 21. 

    The nurse should obtain baseline blood pressure reading for a patient starting an antihypertensive drug by

    • A.

      Taking BP in both arms in the standing, sitting and lying positions

    • B.

      Takin BP in one arm in one position

    • C.

      You dont need a baseline

    • D.

      Take BP on upper thigh

    Correct Answer
    A. Taking BP in both arms in the standing, sitting and lying positions
    Explanation
    When starting an antihypertensive drug, obtaining baseline blood pressure readings is important to establish a reference point for future comparisons. Taking blood pressure in both arms and in different positions (standing, sitting, and lying) helps to identify any discrepancies or variations in blood pressure measurements. This information is crucial for accurate monitoring and adjustment of the antihypertensive treatment.

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  • 22. 

    Which antithrombolytic drug should not be combined with celery, chamomile, clove, dong guai, feverfew, garlic, ginger, ginkgo balboa, ginseng, green tea, onion, passion flower, red clover, St. Johns wart, and turmeric because it can cause a synergistic effect and increase the risk for bleeding?

    • A.

      Vitamin K

    • B.

      Heparin

    • C.

      insulin

    • D.

      Coumadin (warfarin)

    Correct Answer
    D. Coumadin (warfarin)
    Explanation
    Coumadin (warfarin) is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting, and consuming foods or supplements that contain vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin. The mentioned substances, such as celery, chamomile, garlic, ginger, and green tea, have natural anticoagulant properties or can interact with warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is important to avoid combining these substances with Coumadin to prevent potential complications.

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  • 23. 

    A laboratory test used to measure the effectiveness of heparin therapy

    • A.

      PT/INR

    • B.

      BPTT

    • C.

      APTT

    • D.

      PT

    Correct Answer
    C. APTT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is aPTT because it is a laboratory test used to measure the effectiveness of heparin therapy. aPTT stands for activated partial thromboplastin time and it measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Heparin is a medication used to prevent blood clots, so monitoring aPTT levels helps determine if the heparin dosage is appropriate for the patient. The test is commonly used in patients receiving heparin therapy to ensure that the blood is not too thin or too thick, thus helping to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting.

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  • 24. 

    A laboratory test used to measure the effectiveness of warfarin sodium therapy

    • A.

      PT/INR

    • B.

      APTT

    • C.

      BPTT

    • D.

      PT

    Correct Answer
    A. PT/INR
    Explanation
    PT/INR is the correct answer because it is a laboratory test that is commonly used to measure the effectiveness of warfarin sodium therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that is used to prevent blood clots, and PT/INR measures the clotting ability of the blood. It stands for Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio, and it provides information about how long it takes for the blood to clot. By monitoring the PT/INR levels, healthcare professionals can adjust the warfarin dosage to ensure that the patient is receiving the appropriate therapy.

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  • 25. 

    This substance reverses the effect of warfarin sodium

    • A.

      Vitamin K

    • B.

      Vitamin E

    • C.

      Warafarinex

    • D.

      Protamine sulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin K
    Explanation
    Vitamin K is the correct answer because it is known to reverse the effects of warfarin sodium, a commonly used anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is necessary for the synthesis of clotting factors in the body. Therefore, if a patient on warfarin experiences excessive bleeding or needs to quickly reverse the anticoagulant effects, administering vitamin K can help restore normal clotting function. Vitamin E, protamine sulfate, and warfarinex are not known to reverse the effects of warfarin.

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  • 26. 

    This substance reverses the effects of heparin

    • A.

      Vitamin K

    • B.

      Vitamin R

    • C.

      Heparinex

    • D.

      Protamine sulfate

    Correct Answer
    D. Protamine sulfate
    Explanation
    Protamine sulfate is a substance that is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant medication. Heparin is commonly used to prevent blood clots, but in some cases, it may need to be reversed quickly, such as during surgery or in cases of overdose. Protamine sulfate works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its effects, allowing the blood to clot normally again. Vitamin K and vitamin R are not known to reverse the effects of heparin, and heparinex is not a recognized substance for this purpose. Therefore, protamine sulfate is the correct answer.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following would not be appropriate for the use of anticoagulants?

    • A.

      Atrial fibrilation

    • B.

      Aneyursms

    • C.

      Myocardial infarction

    • D.

      Presence of mechanical heart valves

    Correct Answer
    B. Aneyursms
  • 28. 

    When teaching the patient who will be taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) at home, what should the patient be told regarding OTC drug use?

    • A.

      Chose NSAIDs over aspirin as needed for pain relief

    • B.

      aspirin and other NSAIDs may result in increased anticoagulant effect

    • C.

      Vitamin E therapy is recommended to improve the effect of Coumadin

    • D.

      Mineral oil is the laxative of choice while taking anticoagulants

    Correct Answer
    B. aspirin and other NSAIDs may result in increased anticoagulant effect
    Explanation
    Patients taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) should be informed that using aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase the anticoagulant effect of the medication. This is because NSAIDs can interfere with the blood's ability to clot, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is important for patients to avoid or limit the use of NSAIDs while taking warfarin to prevent potential complications.

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  • 29. 

    Which agent has antiplatelet properties?

    • A.

      Aspirin

    • B.

      Enoxaparin

    • C.

      Heparin

    • D.

      Urokinase

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirin
    Explanation
    Aspirin is the correct answer because it has antiplatelet properties. It inhibits the aggregation of platelets, preventing blood clot formation. Aspirin achieves this by irreversibly inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, which is responsible for the production of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet aggregator. By inhibiting thromboxane A2 production, aspirin reduces platelet activation and aggregation, making it an effective antiplatelet agent. Enoxaparin, heparin, and urokinase are not antiplatelet agents; they are anticoagulants that work by different mechanisms to prevent blood clotting.

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  • 30. 

    When administering subcutaneous heparin, the nurse should remember to

    • A.

      Use the same sites for injection to reduce trauma

    • B.

      Use a 1 inch needle for subQ injections

    • C.

      Inject the medication without aspirating for blood return

    • D.

      Rub the sire after the injection to increase reabsorption

    Correct Answer
    C. Inject the medication without aspirating for blood return
    Explanation
    When administering subcutaneous heparin, it is important for the nurse to inject the medication without aspirating for blood return. Aspirating for blood return is not necessary for subcutaneous injections because the medication is being injected into the fatty tissue layer below the skin, rather than directly into a blood vessel. Aspirating could potentially cause unnecessary pain and trauma to the patient. Therefore, it is recommended to inject the medication without aspirating for blood return in order to ensure a safe and effective administration of subcutaneous heparin.

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  • 31. 

    Which medication is indicted for the prevention and treatment of deep vein thrombosis after knee or hip surgery?

    • A.

      Aspirin

    • B.

      Clopidogrel (Plavix)

    • C.

      Warfarin (Coumadin)

    • D.

      Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

    Correct Answer
    D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
    Explanation
    Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is indicated for the prevention and treatment of deep vein thrombosis after knee or hip surgery. Aspirin and clopidogrel are antiplatelet medications and are not typically used for the prevention or treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant, but it is not the preferred choice for prophylaxis after knee or hip surgery. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin that helps to prevent blood clots by inhibiting clotting factors. Therefore, enoxaparin is the correct medication choice in this scenario.

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  • 32. 

    After you give Mrs. Washington her heparin injection, she complains of pain and begins to rub the site. Is that a problem?

    • A.

      Yes, you should not rub the injection site of heparin before or after administration

    • B.

      Yes, she may get heparin and blood on her hand

    • C.

      No, its supposed to hurt, its an injection

    • D.

      No, she is dramatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, you should not rub the injection site of heparin before or after administration
    Explanation
    Rubbing the injection site of heparin before or after administration can cause irritation and potential bleeding at the site. This can lead to complications such as bruising, hematoma, or infection. It is important to handle the injection site with care and avoid rubbing or touching it to ensure proper healing and minimize any potential risks.

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  • 33. 

    Which food is NOT high in vitamin k?

    • A.

      Canola oil

    • B.

      Soybean oil

    • C.

      Green leafy vegetables

    • D.

      Dairy products

    Correct Answer
    D. Dairy products
    Explanation
    Dairy products are not high in vitamin K. While green leafy vegetables, canola oil, and soybean oil are all good sources of vitamin K, dairy products do not contain significant amounts of this vitamin. Vitamin K is primarily found in leafy greens and oils, making dairy products an exception in this case.

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  • 34. 

    Ursula, an inpatient on your unit, is on anticoagulant therapy. you enter her room to find that she is restless and confused, what should you do?

    • A.

      Nothing these are normal effects

    • B.

      Call the PCP immediately

    • C.

      Give more of the anticoagulant

    • D.

      Its normal because she is old

    Correct Answer
    B. Call the PCP immediately
    Explanation
    If Ursula, an inpatient on the unit, is on anticoagulant therapy and is exhibiting restlessness and confusion, it is important to call the PCP (Primary Care Provider) immediately. These symptoms may indicate a potential complication or adverse reaction to the anticoagulant therapy, such as bleeding in the brain or an interaction with other medications. Promptly notifying the PCP will allow for a thorough evaluation and appropriate intervention to ensure Ursula's safety and well-being.

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  • 35. 

    The patient is confused as to why she has to be on both heparin and warfarin (Coumadin)at the same time when the PCP said he was switching her to Coumadin. Teach the patient why.

    • A.

      Because you can be on both at the same time

    • B.

      Because peak time for Coumadin is 7 days, so to maintain therapeutic antithrombolytic properties she must be on both

    • C.

      Because you have to stay on heparin forever

    • D.

      Because she is in really bad shape so she has to be on both

    Correct Answer
    B. Because peak time for Coumadin is 7 days, so to maintain therapeutic antithrombolytic properties she must be on both
    Explanation
    The patient needs to be on both heparin and warfarin (Coumadin) at the same time because the peak time for Coumadin is 7 days. This means that it takes 7 days for Coumadin to reach its full therapeutic antithrombolytic properties. Therefore, in order to maintain the desired effects and prevent blood clots, the patient needs to continue taking heparin while waiting for the Coumadin to reach its peak effectiveness.

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  • 36. 

    Heparin can be used to flush IV lines in small doses.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Heparin is a medication that helps prevent blood from clotting. When small doses of heparin are used to flush IV lines, it helps keep the lines clear and prevents clotting. This is important because clotting can lead to blockages in the line, which can affect the delivery of medication or fluids to the patient. Therefore, using heparin to flush IV lines in small doses is a common practice in healthcare settings.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the symptoms are signs of warfarin (Coumadin) overdose?

    • A.

      Blood in stool (melena)

    • B.

      Pinpoint sized red hemorrhage spots on skin (petechiae)

    • C.

      Excessive menstrual bleeding

    • D.

      Oozing from superficial injuries

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the symptoms mentioned (blood in stool, pinpoint-sized red hemorrhage spots on the skin, excessive menstrual bleeding, and oozing from superficial injuries) are signs of warfarin (Coumadin) overdose. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent blood clots. However, an overdose of warfarin can lead to excessive bleeding, both internally and externally, resulting in symptoms such as blood in stool, petechiae (tiny red spots on the skin), excessive menstrual bleeding, and oozing from superficial injuries. Therefore, all of the mentioned symptoms are signs of warfarin overdose.

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  • 38. 

    Patients taking cholestyramine (Questran) may experience which of the following side effects?

    • A.

      Blurred vision and photophobia

    • B.

      Drowsiness and difficulty concentrating

    • C.

      Diarrhea and abdominal cramps

    • D.

      Belching and bloating

    Correct Answer
    D. Belching and bloating
    Explanation
    Cholestyramine (Questran) is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. It works by binding to bile acids in the intestines, preventing their reabsorption. One of the common side effects of cholestyramine is gastrointestinal discomfort, which can manifest as belching and bloating. This occurs because the medication can cause an increase in gas production and can disrupt the normal digestion process. It is important for patients to be aware of these side effects and to report them to their healthcare provider if they become bothersome or persistent.

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  • 39. 

    Dietary concerns for the patient on an antilipidemic therapy include all the following except

    • A.

      Supplemental fat-soluble vitamins

    • B.

      Supplemental B vitamin complex, espically niacin

    • C.

      Increasing the intake of high fiber foods

    • D.

      Choosing and preparing foods that are lower in cholestrol and saturated fats

    Correct Answer
    B. Supplemental B vitamin complex, espically niacin
    Explanation
    The patient on an antilipidemic therapy needs to be cautious about their dietary choices to manage their lipid levels. They should focus on choosing and preparing foods that are lower in cholesterol and saturated fats. They should also increase their intake of high fiber foods, as fiber helps in reducing cholesterol levels. Additionally, they may need to take supplemental fat-soluble vitamins to compensate for any deficiencies caused by the therapy. However, they do not need to take a supplemental B vitamin complex, especially niacin, as it is not directly related to the concerns of antilipidemic therapy.

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  • 40. 

    The presence of which condition is a contraindication to the use of antilipidemic therapy?

    • A.

      Liver disease

    • B.

      Renal disease

    • C.

      Coronary artery disease

    • D.

      Diabetes mellitus

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver disease
    Explanation
    Liver disease is a contraindication to the use of antilipidemic therapy because the liver plays a crucial role in metabolizing and eliminating drugs from the body. In cases of liver disease, the liver's ability to perform these functions is compromised, leading to potential drug toxicity or further liver damage. Therefore, it is not advisable to use antilipidemic therapy in individuals with liver disease.

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  • 41. 

    Which lipoprotein is often refered to as "good cholestrol"

    • A.

      Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL)`

    • B.

      Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

    • C.

      High-density lipoprotien (HDL)

    • D.

      Triglycerides

    Correct Answer
    C. High-density lipoprotien (HDL)
    Explanation
    High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is often referred to as "good cholesterol" because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and carry it back to the liver for processing and elimination. High levels of HDL are associated with a lower risk of heart disease, while low levels of HDL are linked to an increased risk. Therefore, HDL is considered beneficial for cardiovascular health.

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  • 42. 

    Undesirable side effects of niacin may be minimized by

    • A.

      Starting niacin at full strength to help the patient build tolerance

    • B.

      Taking niacin on an empty stomach

    • C.

      Taking a small dose of NSAIDs 30 minutes before the niacin

    • D.

      Taking the niacin every other day if side effects are bothersom

    Correct Answer
    C. Taking a small dose of NSAIDs 30 minutes before the niacin
    Explanation
    Taking a small dose of NSAIDs 30 minutes before taking niacin can help minimize the undesirable side effects of niacin. NSAIDs, or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, can help reduce the flushing and itching that are common side effects of niacin. By taking NSAIDs prior to niacin, it can help alleviate these symptoms and make the medication more tolerable for the patient.

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  • 43. 

    During a routine checkup, Mr. Harris is found to have an LDL of 230 (therapeutic level is below 130). He says " I'm a busy man! Just give me some pills. I've got a plane to catch". What should you educate the patient about?

    • A.

      Just have the PCP give him the pills

    • B.

      The pills alone will not lower LDL, it requires a lifestyle change

    • C.

      Tell him that you must have a low stres level for the antilipidedimic to work

    • D.

      You cannot travel while taking this type of medication

    Correct Answer
    B. The pills alone will not lower LDL, it requires a lifestyle change
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the pills alone will not lower LDL, it requires a lifestyle change. This means that simply taking medication will not be enough to lower Mr. Harris's LDL levels. He needs to make changes in his lifestyle, such as adopting a healthier diet, exercising regularly, and managing stress levels, in order to effectively reduce his LDL levels.

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  • 44. 

    Mr. Miller is taking atirvastatin (Lipitor) and calls the office to complain of some muscle pain that has persisted for 3 days. Is this a concern?

    • A.

      No, this is a common side effect

    • B.

      No, he probably just pulled it on his own

    • C.

      Yes, it may develop into a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis

    • D.

      Yes, he should stop therapy immediately

    Correct Answer
    C. Yes, it may develop into a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis
    Explanation
    Muscle pain is a known side effect of atorvastatin (Lipitor), however, if it persists for 3 days, it could be a sign of a more serious condition called rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition where muscle tissue breaks down and releases a protein called myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can cause kidney damage. Therefore, it is important for Mr. Miller to be concerned and seek medical attention.

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  • 45. 

    What herb will lower serum cholestrol and triglyceride levels?

    • A.

      Hawthorne

    • B.

      Basil

    • C.

      Garlic

    • D.

      Paprika

    Correct Answer
    C. Garlic
    Explanation
    Garlic is known to have properties that can lower serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels. It contains compounds like allicin and sulfur, which have been found to reduce cholesterol synthesis in the liver and decrease triglyceride levels. Several studies have shown that regular consumption of garlic can have a positive impact on lipid profiles, leading to lower cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Therefore, garlic is considered a beneficial herb for managing cholesterol and triglyceride levels in the body.

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  • 46. 

    Water intoxication is a serious adverse reaction to which posterior pitutary drug?

    • A.

      Vasopressin

    • B.

      Desmopressin

    • C.

      Corticotropin

    • D.

      Plavix

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasopressin
    Explanation
    Water intoxication is a condition where there is an excessive amount of water in the body, leading to an imbalance in electrolytes and potentially causing serious health complications. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), is a posterior pituitary drug that regulates water balance in the body. It acts on the kidneys to reabsorb water, reducing urine output. However, if vasopressin is administered in excessive amounts or inappropriately, it can lead to water intoxication. Therefore, vasopressin is the correct answer as it can cause this serious adverse reaction.

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  • 47. 

    Growth hormone can be given to children regardless of if their epiphyseal discs are closed or not.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    False. Growth hormone should not be given to children if their epiphyseal discs are closed. The epiphyseal discs are responsible for bone growth and once they are closed, the bones can no longer grow in length. Giving growth hormone to children with closed epiphyseal discs would not result in any further increase in height. Therefore, growth hormone is only effective in promoting growth in children whose epiphyseal discs are still open.

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  • 48. 

    Gonadotropins may cause birth defects so women who are trying to become pregnant should talk to their PCP.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Gonadotropins are a type of medication that stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs. However, these medications have been associated with an increased risk of birth defects in babies. Therefore, it is important for women who are trying to become pregnant to discuss the potential risks and benefits of using gonadotropins with their primary care physician (PCP) before starting treatment. This conversation will help them make an informed decision and take necessary precautions to minimize the risk of birth defects.

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  • 49. 

    Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) may mask signs of infection, including fungal or viral eye infections and may cause a decreased resistance and inability to identify the source of infection. They also may cause a disturbance in the psyche of the patient

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) can indeed mask signs of infection, including eye infections caused by fungi or viruses. It can also decrease the body's resistance to infections and make it difficult for the patient to identify the source of the infection. Additionally, ACTH can cause psychological disturbances in patients.

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  • 50. 

    Corticosteroids administered to older adults should be closely monitored because their preexisting conditions such as CHF, HTN, osteoporosis, and arthritis may be worsened by the use of these agents

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Corticosteroids can have negative effects on older adults with preexisting conditions such as congestive heart failure (CHF), hypertension (HTN), osteoporosis, and arthritis. These medications can worsen these conditions, which is why it is important to closely monitor older adults when they are administered corticosteroids.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 26, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 11, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Allie6603
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