A&p 2113 @ Gwinnett Tech - Chapters 1,2,3 Test Review

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AP Quizzes & Trivia

Covering Chapter 1 (Terminology), Chaper 2 (Chemistry), & Chaper 3 (Cells)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    HCl is a very strong acid. If the concentration of HCl is 0.1M, you can assume that there are 0.1M H+ ions in the solution. What would the pH of that solution be?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      0

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      2

    • E.

      -1

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The pH of a solution is a measure of its acidity or alkalinity. It is calculated using the formula pH = -log[H+]. In this case, the concentration of H+ ions is given as 0.1M. Taking the negative logarithm of 0.1 gives a pH value of 1. This means that the solution is highly acidic.

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  • 2. 

    A buffered solution at 7.0 is distrubed by the addition of HCl. How will it manage to stay at a pH of 7?

    • A.

      Weak acid of the buffer will add more H+

    • B.

      Weak acid of the buffer will remove H+

    • C.

      Weak base of the buffer will add more H+

    • D.

      Weak base of the buffer will remove H+

    Correct Answer
    D. Weak base of the buffer will remove H+
    Explanation
    When HCl is added to the buffered solution, it will release H+ ions. The weak base in the buffer will then react with these H+ ions, forming water and removing them from the solution. This reaction helps to maintain the pH of the solution at 7. Therefore, the weak base of the buffer will remove H+ ions to keep the pH at 7.

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  • 3. 

    If you add HCl to distilled water, the pH of the water would go..

    • A.

      Up

    • B.

      Down

    • C.

      Would not change

    • D.

      Barney Stinson was here.

    Correct Answer
    B. Down
    Explanation
    When HCl is added to distilled water, it dissociates into H+ and Cl- ions. The presence of H+ ions increases the concentration of hydrogen ions in the water, making it more acidic. As a result, the pH of the water decreases, indicating an increase in acidity. Therefore, the correct answer is "down".

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  • 4. 

    A pH of 3 would have which molarity of H+?

    • A.

      3000M

    • B.

      1000M

    • C.

      0.003M

    • D.

      0.001M

    • E.

      3M

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.001M
    Explanation
    A pH of 3 indicates a high concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in a solution. The pH scale is logarithmic, meaning that each unit represents a tenfold difference in concentration. Therefore, a pH of 3 corresponds to a molarity of 0.001M for H+ ions.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following would be classified as hydrophobic?

    • A.

      Glucose

    • B.

      Sucrose

    • C.

      NaCl

    • D.

      Lon chain fatty acid

    • E.

      Pepsin

    Correct Answer
    D. Lon chain fatty acid
    Explanation
    A long chain fatty acid would be classified as hydrophobic because it is nonpolar and does not dissolve in water. Hydrophobic substances tend to repel water and are insoluble in it. Glucose and sucrose are both carbohydrates that are hydrophilic, meaning they dissolve in water. NaCl, also known as table salt, is an ionic compound that dissociates into ions in water and is therefore hydrophilic. Pepsin is an enzyme that is also hydrophilic and soluble in water.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following elements would for a non-polar covalent bond?

    • A.

      C-O

    • B.

      C-N

    • C.

      N-O

    • D.

      N-N

    Correct Answer
    D. N-N
    Explanation
    N-N would form a non-polar covalent bond because both nitrogen atoms have the same electronegativity, meaning they have an equal attraction for the shared electrons. In a non-polar covalent bond, the electrons are shared equally between the atoms, resulting in a balanced distribution of charge and no partial charges.

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  • 7. 

    The pH of distilled water would be..

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      0

    • C.

      7.35

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    Distilled water is considered neutral because it has an equal concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) and hydroxide ions (OH-), resulting in a pH of 7. This means that the solution is neither acidic nor alkaline.

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  • 8. 

     If CO2 is added to water, the pH will..

    • A.

      Go up

    • B.

      Go down

    • C.

      Not change

    • D.

      Barney Stinson.

    Correct Answer
    B. Go down
    Explanation
    When CO2 is added to water, it reacts with water molecules to form carbonic acid (H2CO3). This carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). The increase in hydrogen ions leads to an increase in acidity, causing the pH of the water to decrease. Therefore, the correct answer is "go down."

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  • 9. 

    Adding bicarbonate to a solution will cause the pH to..

    • A.

      Go up

    • B.

      Go down

    • C.

      Not change

    • D.

      Barney Stinson.

    Correct Answer
    A. Go up
    Explanation
    When bicarbonate is added to a solution, it acts as a base and reacts with water to release hydroxide ions (OH-). The increase in hydroxide ions leads to an increase in the concentration of hydroxide ions relative to the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+), resulting in a higher pH. Therefore, adding bicarbonate to a solution causes the pH to go up.

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  • 10. 

    Lactose is made by...

    • A.

      Dehydration synthesis of glucose + glucose

    • B.

      Hydrolysis of glycogen

    • C.

      Dehydration synthesis of glucose + fructose

    • D.

      Dehydration synthesis of glucose + galactose

    Correct Answer
    D. Dehydration synthesis of glucose + galactose
    Explanation
    Lactose is made by dehydration synthesis of glucose + galactose. This process involves the removal of a water molecule to form a bond between the glucose and galactose molecules. This reaction occurs in the mammary glands of mammals, where lactose is produced and found in milk.

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  • 11. 

    Which cell does not have a nucleus?

    • A.

      Smooth muscle cell

    • B.

      Red blood cell

    • C.

      Squamous cell

    • D.

      All cells have a nucleus

    • E.

      White blood cell

    Correct Answer
    B. Red blood cell
    Explanation
    Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, do not have a nucleus. During their maturation process, the nucleus is expelled to make more space for the oxygen-carrying protein called hemoglobin. This absence of a nucleus allows red blood cells to have a biconcave shape, which increases their surface area and enhances their ability to transport oxygen efficiently.

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  • 12. 

    Concerning intracellular and extracellular fluid, we know that extracellular fluid contains..

    • A.

      More K+

    • B.

      More Na+

    • C.

      More phosphate

    • D.

      More magnesium

    • E.

      All are true

    Correct Answer
    B. More Na+
    Explanation
    Extracellular fluid contains more Na+ because Na+ is the primary cation in extracellular fluid, while K+ is the primary cation in intracellular fluid. This is due to the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell, maintaining the concentration gradient. Therefore, it is true that extracellular fluid contains more Na+.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following organelles functions in making ribosomal subunits?

    • A.

      Nucleus

    • B.

      Nucleolus

    • C.

      Ribosomes

    • D.

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    Correct Answer
    B. Nucleolus
    Explanation
    The nucleolus is responsible for making ribosomal subunits. It is a small, dense region within the nucleus of a cell. It contains RNA and proteins, which are used to assemble ribosomes. Ribosomes are essential for protein synthesis in the cell, and they are composed of two subunits that are made in the nucleolus before being exported to the cytoplasm. Therefore, the nucleolus is the correct answer as it directly functions in the production of ribosomal subunits.

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  • 14. 

    During which phase of mitosis do the centromeres line up along the equater of the cell?

    • A.

      Interphase

    • B.

      Prophase

    • C.

      Metaphase

    • D.

      Anaphase

    • E.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer
    C. Metaphase
    Explanation
    During metaphase of mitosis, the centromeres line up along the equator of the cell. This is the stage where the chromosomes, consisting of two sister chromatids, are fully condensed and attached to spindle fibers. The centromeres are located at the center of each chromosome and are responsible for connecting the sister chromatids. The alignment of centromeres at the equator ensures that the sister chromatids will be separated correctly during the subsequent stage of mitosis, anaphase. This alignment is essential for the equal distribution of genetic material to the daughter cells.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?

    • A.

      Lysosome

    • B.

      Golgi apparatus

    • C.

      Centrosome

    • D.

      Nucleus

    • E.

      Vacuole

    Correct Answer
    C. Centrosome
    Explanation
    The centrosome is not a membranous organelle. It is a small region near the nucleus of a cell that contains a pair of centrioles. While it plays a crucial role in cell division and the organization of microtubules, it does not have a membrane surrounding it like other organelles such as the lysosome, Golgi apparatus, nucleus, and vacuole.

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  • 16. 

    The cell that will look like an "inner tube" under the microscope is the...

    • A.

      Red blood cell

    • B.

      White blood cell

    • C.

      Squamous cell

    • D.

      Smooth muscle cell

    • E.

      Sperm

    Correct Answer
    A. Red blood cell
    Explanation
    A red blood cell is the correct answer because it has a unique shape that resembles an "inner tube" when viewed under a microscope. The cell is biconcave in shape, meaning it is thinner in the center and thicker at the edges, giving it a similar appearance to an inner tube. This shape allows the red blood cell to be flexible and squeeze through narrow blood vessels, delivering oxygen to tissues throughout the body.

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  • 17. 

    If a cell has 46 chromosomes, how many centrosomes would it have when it is in metaphase?

    • A.

      46

    • B.

      23

    • C.

      1

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2
    Explanation
    During metaphase, the cell's chromosomes align in the middle of the cell. Each chromosome is attached to a spindle fiber by a structure called a centromere. Since a cell with 46 chromosomes would have 2 copies of each chromosome, it would also have 2 centrosomes, one at each end of the cell, each responsible for organizing the spindle fibers and ensuring proper chromosome alignment during cell division.

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  • 18. 

    The function of a cell membrane would be to....

    • A.

      Determine what goes in and out of a cell

    • B.

      Recognition of other cells

    • C.

      Provide for cell to cell junctions

    • D.

      House enzymes that can control specific reactions

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The cell membrane has multiple functions. It regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell, allowing certain molecules to enter or leave while blocking others. It also plays a role in cell recognition, allowing cells to identify and interact with each other. Additionally, the cell membrane forms cell-to-cell junctions, which are important for tissue structure and function. Finally, the cell membrane houses enzymes that can control specific reactions within the cell. Therefore, all of the options listed are correct functions of the cell membrane.

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  • 19. 

    Which statement is true?

    • A.

      All cells have nuclei

    • B.

      Cells can never have more than one nucleus

    • C.

      Many different types of cells in the body contain flagella

    • D.

      Squamous cells build a scale like layer of protection on the surface of the skin

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Squamous cells build a scale like layer of protection on the surface of the skin
    Explanation
    Squamous cells are a type of epithelial cell that are flat and scale-like in shape. These cells are found on the outermost layer of the skin and play a crucial role in providing a protective barrier against external factors such as pathogens, UV radiation, and physical damage. Therefore, the statement "squamous cells build a scale like layer of protection on the surface of the skin" is true.

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  • 20. 

    Which organ system contains the pituitary gland?

    • A.

      Integumentary

    • B.

      Nervous

    • C.

      Endocrine

    • D.

      Cardiovascular

    Correct Answer
    C. Endocrine
    Explanation
    The pituitary gland is part of the endocrine system. The endocrine system is responsible for producing and secreting hormones that regulate various bodily functions. The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, is often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls the release of hormones from other glands in the body. It plays a crucial role in regulating growth, metabolism, reproduction, and other important functions.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is NOT true about the muscular organ system?

    • A.

      The muscular system provides for movement.

    • B.

      The muscular system does not provide support and protection for other tissues.

    • C.

      The muscular system generates heat that helps maintain body temprature.

    • D.

      The muscular system contains skeletal muscles and associated tendons.

    Correct Answer
    B. The muscular system does not provide support and protection for other tissues.
    Explanation
    The muscular system is responsible for movement, generating heat, and contains skeletal muscles and associated tendons. However, it does not provide support and protection for other tissues. This is the opposite of what is stated in the question, which asks for what is NOT true about the muscular organ system.

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  • 22. 

    The nervous system does NOT include which of the following organs?

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Spinal cord

    • C.

      Peripherial nerves

    • D.

      Sense organs

    • E.

      Heart

    Correct Answer
    E. Heart
    Explanation
    The nervous system is responsible for transmitting signals between different parts of the body, allowing for communication and coordination. It includes the brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, and sense organs. However, the heart is not part of the nervous system. The heart is part of the circulatory system, which is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.

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  • 23. 

    A group of cells working together that perform similar functions is called...

    • A.

      Tissue

    • B.

      Organelle

    • C.

      Organ

    • D.

      System

    Correct Answer
    A. Tissue
    Explanation
    A group of cells working together that perform similar functions is called tissue. Tissues are a collection of cells that work together to perform a specific function in the body. They are the building blocks of organs and systems in the body. Organelles are small structures within cells that have specific functions, while organs are made up of different tissues working together, and systems are made up of organs working together. Therefore, tissue is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 24. 

     The ability of the body or a cell to seek and maintain a condition of equilibrium or stability within its internal environment  when dealing with external changes is know as?

    • A.

      Feedback systems

    • B.

      Homeostasis

    • C.

      Metabolism

    Correct Answer
    B. Homeostasis
    Explanation
    Homeostasis refers to the ability of the body or a cell to maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. It involves various feedback systems that regulate processes such as temperature, pH, and hormone levels. This balance is crucial for the proper functioning of the body and allows it to adapt to different conditions while keeping its internal environment relatively constant. Metabolism, on the other hand, refers to the chemical processes that occur within the body to maintain life.

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  • 25. 

    The correct order for the levels of organizaiton is:

    • A.

      Chemical, organelle, tissue, cell, organ, organ system

    • B.

      Chemical, organ, tissue, organelle, organ system, cell

    • C.

      Chemical, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system

    • D.

      Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle, chemical

    Correct Answer
    C. Chemical, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system
    Explanation
    The correct order for the levels of organization is chemical, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system. This order follows the hierarchical structure of how living organisms are organized. Chemicals are the basic building blocks of life, which combine to form organelles within cells. Cells are the fundamental units of life, which group together to form tissues. Tissues then combine to form organs, which work together in organ systems to perform specific functions. Therefore, this order represents the progression from the smallest components of life to larger, more complex structures.

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  • 26. 

    Metabolism is...?

    • A.

      How the cell reproduces.

    • B.

      The process of all chemical reactions within the body.

    • C.

      The process of joining one cell to another.

    Correct Answer
    B. The process of all chemical reactions within the body.
    Explanation
    Metabolism refers to the process of all chemical reactions that occur within the body. It involves the conversion of food into energy, the synthesis of molecules, and the breakdown of substances. Metabolism is essential for various biological functions such as growth, repair, and maintenance of cells and tissues. It encompasses both anabolism (building up of molecules) and catabolism (breaking down of molecules). Therefore, the correct answer is "the process of all chemical reactions within the body."

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  • 27. 

    In anatomical positon, the plams are facing..?

    • A.

      Forwards

    • B.

      Backwards

    Correct Answer
    A. Forwards
    Explanation
    In anatomical position, the palms are facing forwards. This means that when the body is standing upright with the arms at the sides, the palms of the hands are facing forward or towards the front of the body. This position is commonly used as a reference point in anatomy and allows for consistent and standardized descriptions of the body's structures and movements.

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  • 28. 

    The anatomical term for the cheek is...

    • A.

      Antebrachial

    • B.

      Carpal

    • C.

      Buccal

    • D.

      Ocular

    Correct Answer
    C. Buccal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "buccal." The term "buccal" refers to the cheek, specifically the soft tissue on the inside of the mouth. It is derived from the Latin word "bucca," meaning cheek. This term is commonly used in medical and anatomical contexts to describe structures or conditions related to the cheek area.

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  • 29. 

    The anatomical term for the front of the elbow is..

    • A.

      Antecubital

    • B.

      Antebrachial

    • C.

      Palmar

    • D.

      Cephalic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antecubital
    Explanation
    The anatomical term for the front of the elbow is antecubital. This term refers to the region in front of the elbow joint. It is commonly used in medical and anatomical contexts to describe the area where blood vessels and nerves are located and where blood is often drawn for medical procedures.

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  • 30. 

    The anatomical term for the heel is the...

    • A.

      Brachial

    • B.

      Plantar

    • C.

      Peroneal

    • D.

      Calcaneal

    Correct Answer
    D. Calcaneal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is calcaneal because the term "calcaneal" refers to the heel bone, which is located in the foot. It is the largest bone in the foot and provides support and stability to the foot while walking or standing. The term "brachial" refers to the arm, "plantar" refers to the sole of the foot, and "peroneal" refers to the fibula bone in the lower leg. Therefore, calcaneal is the most appropriate term to describe the heel.

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  • 31. 

    The anatomical term for the chest is the...

    • A.

      Mammary

    • B.

      Axillary

    • C.

      Thoracic

    • D.

      Scapular

    Correct Answer
    C. Thoracic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is thoracic because the term "thoracic" refers to the chest region. It is derived from the word "thorax" which specifically relates to the part of the body between the neck and the abdomen, containing the heart, lungs, and other vital organs. The term "mammary" refers to the breasts, "axillary" relates to the armpit area, and "scapular" refers to the shoulder blade region. Therefore, thoracic is the most appropriate anatomical term for the chest.

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  • 32. 

    The anatomical term for the great toe is the..

    • A.

      Tarsal

    • B.

      Pedal

    • C.

      Hallux

    • D.

      Pollex

    Correct Answer
    C. Hallux
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hallux. The term "hallux" refers specifically to the great toe, which is the largest and most medial toe of the foot. This term is commonly used in anatomy to distinguish the great toe from the other toes. The other options, tarsal, pedal, and pollex, do not specifically refer to the great toe and are not anatomically correct in this context.

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  • 33. 

    The anatomical term for the back of the knee is the...

    • A.

      Vertbral

    • B.

      Popliteal

    • C.

      Sural

    • D.

      Plantar

    Correct Answer
    B. Popliteal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is popliteal. The popliteal refers to the area at the back of the knee. It is a term used to describe the anatomical structures such as blood vessels, nerves, and lymph nodes that are located in this region. It is important to know this term when discussing injuries or conditions that affect the back of the knee. The other options, vertbral, sural, and plantar, do not specifically refer to the back of the knee.

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  • 34. 

    The anatomical term for the genital/anus region is..

    • A.

      Pelvic

    • B.

      Pubic

    • C.

      Peroneal

    • D.

      Perineal

    Correct Answer
    D. Perineal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is perineal. The perineal region refers to the area between the genital and anus, including the perineum. It is the anatomical term used to describe this specific region of the body.

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  • 35. 

    The popliteal is _____________ to the calcaneal.

    • A.

      Proximal

    • B.

      Distal

    Correct Answer
    A. Proximal
    Explanation
    The popliteal is located closer to the body or the point of attachment than the calcaneal. In anatomical terms, "proximal" refers to a position closer to the point of attachment or the center of the body. Since the popliteal is closer to the body compared to the calcaneal (which refers to the heel), the correct answer is "proximal".

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  • 36. 

    The antebrachial is ______________ to the antecubital.

    • A.

      Proximal

    • B.

      Distal

    Correct Answer
    B. Distal
    Explanation
    The antebrachial is distal to the antecubital. Distal refers to a position farther away from the point of reference, in this case, the antecubital. Therefore, the correct answer is distal.

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  • 37. 

    The carpal is ___________ to the palmar.

    • A.

      Proximal

    • B.

      Distal

    Correct Answer
    A. Proximal
    Explanation
    The carpal is proximal to the palmar. "Proximal" refers to a position closer to the point of attachment or the center of the body. In this case, the carpal, which refers to the bones in the wrist, is closer to the point of attachment or center of the body compared to the palmar, which refers to the palm of the hand. Therefore, the carpal is described as being proximal to the palmar.

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  • 38. 

    The ocular is ______________ to the umbilical.

    • A.

      superior

    • B.

      Inferior

    Correct Answer
    A. superior
    Explanation
    The ocular is positioned above or higher than the umbilical.

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  • 39. 

    The coxal is ____________ to the scapular.

    • A.

      Superior

    • B.

      Inferior

    Correct Answer
    B. Inferior
    Explanation
    The coxal bone is located below or inferior to the scapular bone. This means that the coxal bone is positioned lower in the body compared to the scapular bone.

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  • 40. 

    The gluteal is ____________ to the popliteal.

    • A.

      Superior

    • B.

      Inferior

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior
    Explanation
    The gluteal is positioned above or superior to the popliteal region. The gluteal region refers to the buttocks, while the popliteal region is located behind the knee. Therefore, the gluteal is anatomically higher or superior to the popliteal region.

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  • 41. 

    The umbilical is ____________ to the acromial.

    • A.

      Medial

    • B.

      Lateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Medial
    Explanation
    The umbilical is located closer to the midline of the body than the acromial. Therefore, it is considered to be medial to the acromial.

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  • 42. 

    The manual is ___________ to the lumbar.

    • A.

      Medial

    • B.

      Lateral

    Correct Answer
    B. Lateral
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is "lateral" because it means "on or toward the side" and is the opposite of "medial" which means "toward the midline or center". Therefore, the manual is positioned or related to the lumbar in a way that is away from the midline or center, indicating a lateral orientation.

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  • 43. 

    If a patient has a cut on the same arm as a previous cut, then it is...

    • A.

      Bilateral

    • B.

      Ipsilateral

    • C.

      Contralateral

    Correct Answer
    B. Ipsilateral
    Explanation
    If a patient has a cut on the same arm as a previous cut, it is considered ipsilateral. Ipsilateral refers to something occurring on the same side of the body. In this case, both cuts are on the same arm, indicating that they are on the same side of the body.

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  • 44. 

    If a patient has breast cancer in both breasts, then it is...

    • A.

      Bilateral

    • B.

      Ipsilateral

    • C.

      Contralateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilateral
    Explanation
    If a patient has breast cancer in both breasts, it is referred to as bilateral. This term indicates that the cancer is present in both sides of the body, specifically in both breasts. It distinguishes from ipsilateral, which means the cancer is present in the same side of the body, and contralateral, which means the cancer is present in the opposite side of the body.

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  • 45. 

    If a patient has to have a finger cut off on the opposite side as they previously had a leg cut off, it is...

    • A.

      Bilateral

    • B.

      Ipsilateral

    • C.

      Contralateral

    Correct Answer
    C. Contralateral
    Explanation
    Contralateral refers to the opposite side of the body. In this scenario, the patient had a leg cut off on one side, and now they have to have a finger cut off on the opposite side. Therefore, the finger cut off is on the contralateral side to the leg that was previously cut off.

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  • 46. 

    If you cut a body into a cross section, it is....

    • A.

      Transverse

    • B.

      Sagittal

    • C.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Transverse
    Explanation
    When a body is cut into a cross section, it means that the cut is made perpendicular to the long axis of the body. In this case, the correct answer is "transverse" because a transverse cut divides the body into upper and lower portions, creating a cross-section. A sagittal cut would divide the body into left and right portions, while a frontal cut would divide the body into front and back portions.

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  • 47. 

    If you cut a body into anterior and posterior parts, it would be..

    • A.

      Transverse

    • B.

      Sagittal

    • C.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    C. Frontal
    Explanation
    If you cut a body into anterior and posterior parts, it would be considered a frontal cut. A frontal cut divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) sections. This type of cut is also known as a coronal plane, and it is used to study the body's structures from a front-to-back perspective.

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  • 48. 

    If you cut a body into left and right halves, it would be...

    • A.

      Transverse

    • B.

      Sagittal

    • C.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    B. Sagittal
    Explanation
    If you cut a body into left and right halves, it would be sagittal. Sagittal refers to a plane that divides the body into left and right portions. In this case, the body is being divided into two halves along a vertical plane, separating it into left and right sides. Transverse refers to a plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions, while frontal refers to a plane that divides the body into front and back portions.

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  • 49. 

    The body cavity consisting of two cavities, both lined by meninges and containing the brain and spinal cord is..

    • A.

      Ventral

    • B.

      Dorsal

    • C.

      Mediastinum

    Correct Answer
    B. Dorsal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is dorsal. The dorsal body cavity consists of two cavities, the cranial cavity and the vertebral cavity. Both cavities are lined by meninges and contain the brain and spinal cord. The term "dorsal" refers to the back or posterior side of the body, which is where the cranial and vertebral cavities are located.

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  • 50. 

    The body cavity consisting of two main cavities seperated by the diaphragm is...

    • A.

      Ventral

    • B.

      Dorsal

    • C.

      Mediastinum

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventral
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ventral because the body cavity consists of two main cavities, the ventral cavity and the dorsal cavity, which are separated by the diaphragm. The ventral cavity is located in the front of the body and contains organs such as the heart, lungs, and digestive organs. The dorsal cavity, on the other hand, is located in the back of the body and contains organs such as the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the ventral cavity is the correct answer in this case.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 06, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Yobeccah
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