Ohio Attorney General Practice Test
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Are you practicing for the state office of Ohio? If yes, our Ohio Attorney General Practice Test is designed to help you with your preparations in the best possible way. There are plenty of questions on this quiz; make sure to answer them all correctly to get a good score! You can also play this quiz with your friends for excellent group preparations! Keep studying hard, and We sincerely wish you all the best for your exams. Prepare well!
- 1.
The color codes of the different types of chemicals used by law enforcement are:
- A.
HC(yellow), CN(red), CS(blue), and OC(Green)
- B.
HC(yellow), CN(orange), CS(blue), and OC(red)
- C.
HC(yellow), CN(red), CS(blue),OC+CS(black), and OC(orange)
- D.
HC(yellow), CN(red), CS(blue), and OC(orange)
Correct Answer
D. HC(yellow), CN(red), CS(blue), and OC(orange)Explanation
The correct answer is HC(yellow), CN(red), CS(blue), and OC(orange). This is because the given color codes match the chemicals used by law enforcement. HC is represented by yellow, CN is represented by red, CS is represented by blue, and OC is represented by orange.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Four causes of illegible finger prints include:
- A.
Failure to produce focal point, "skipping", failure to clean equipment and fingers, and insufficient ink.
- B.
Failure to produce focal point, sweaty hands, failure to clean equipment and fingers, and refusals.
- C.
Failure to produce focal point, "skipping", failure to clean equipment, and insufficient ink.
- D.
Failure to produce focal point, "skipping", failure to clean equipment and fingers, and too much ink.
Correct Answer
A. Failure to produce focal point, "skipping", failure to clean equipment and fingers, and insufficient ink.Explanation
The correct answer is "Failure to produce focal point, 'skipping', failure to clean equipment and fingers, and insufficient ink." This answer accurately identifies the four causes of illegible fingerprints. Failure to produce a focal point refers to not applying enough pressure when rolling the fingers, resulting in a faint or incomplete print. "Skipping" refers to not properly rolling the fingers, causing gaps or breaks in the print. Failure to clean equipment and fingers can lead to smudged or distorted prints. Lastly, insufficient ink can result in a weak or incomplete print.Rate this question:
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- 3.
How long does a civil protection order last IN the state of Ohio?
- A.
1 year
- B.
3 years
- C.
5 years
- D.
Until the case is over
Correct Answer
C. 5 yearsExplanation
In the state of Ohio, a civil protection order lasts for 5 years. This means that once a protection order is issued, it will remain in effect for a period of 5 years. During this time, the person who requested the order is granted legal protection and the respondent is required to adhere to certain restrictions or conditions outlined in the order. It is important to note that the duration of a civil protection order may vary depending on the specific circumstances of the case.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The 2 types of racism are:
- A.
Individual and Institutional
- B.
Direct and Indirect
- C.
Personal and Group
- D.
Vocal and Presented
Correct Answer
A. Individual and InstitutionalExplanation
The correct answer is Individual and Institutional. This answer correctly identifies the two types of racism. Individual racism refers to the beliefs, attitudes, and actions of individuals that perpetuate racial discrimination, while institutional racism refers to the policies, practices, and structures within institutions that systematically disadvantage certain racial groups. Both types of racism contribute to the perpetuation of racial inequalities and discrimination in society.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What are the factors needed for the commission of a crime?
- A.
Desire, opportunity, and an act
- B.
Desire, victim, and opportunity
- C.
Intent, an act, and a crime violated
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Desire, victim, and opportunityExplanation
The factors needed for the commission of a crime are desire, victim, and opportunity. Desire refers to the motivation or intent to commit the crime. Victim refers to the person or entity that is harmed or affected by the crime. Opportunity refers to the circumstances or conditions that allow the crime to be carried out. These three factors are essential for a crime to be committed as they involve the intention, target, and the chance to carry out the illegal act.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Culpable mental states includes:
- A.
Knowingly, purposely, maliciously, and negligently
- B.
Clear mind, clouded mind, and mentally disabled
- C.
Opportunity, intent, and attitude
- D.
Knowingly, purposely, recklessly, and negligently
Correct Answer
D. Knowingly, purposely, recklessly, and negligentlyExplanation
The culpable mental states listed in the answer are commonly used in criminal law to determine the level of intent or knowledge a person had when committing a crime. "Knowingly" means the person was aware of their actions and the consequences. "Purposely" means the person acted with a specific intention or goal. "Recklessly" means the person acted with conscious disregard for the risks involved. "Negligently" means the person failed to exercise reasonable care, resulting in harm. These mental states help establish the degree of culpability and responsibility for a criminal act.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which ORC represents drug trafficking?
- A.
2915.03
- B.
2925.03
- C.
2925.02
- D.
2915.02
Correct Answer
B. 2925.03Explanation
ORC 2925.03 pertains to drug trafficking, detailing the illegal act of selling, offering to sell, preparing for shipment, shipping, transporting, delivering, or distributing a controlled substance. This section specifies various conditions under which these acts are considered trafficking, including the type of drug and the amount, under Ohio law.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When responding to a call for service a peace officer's primary duty include:
- A.
Arrive at the scene safely, secure the scene, and conduct a preliminary investigation
- B.
Secure the scene, officer safety, and conduct a preliminary investigation
- C.
Responding to the incident, securing the scene, and conducting a preliminary investigation
- D.
Type of call, officer safety, and conducting a preliminary investigation
Correct Answer
C. Responding to the incident, securing the scene, and conducting a preliminary investigationExplanation
The correct answer is "Responding to the incident, securing the scene, and conducting a preliminary investigation." This answer accurately identifies the primary duties of a peace officer when responding to a call for service. First, the officer must respond to the incident promptly. Then, they need to secure the scene to ensure the safety of everyone involved and preserve any potential evidence. Finally, they should conduct a preliminary investigation to gather information and assess the situation. This sequence of actions is crucial for effective law enforcement response.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The requirements which must be established before a Terry Pat Down/Frisk are:
- A.
Articulate reasonable belief the suspect is armed
- B.
Officer Safety
- C.
A threat from the subject
- D.
Articulate reasonable belief the suspect is armed and poses a threat to them
Correct Answer
D. Articulate reasonable belief the suspect is armed and poses a threat to themExplanation
The correct answer is "Articulate reasonable belief the suspect is armed and poses a threat to them." This means that before conducting a Terry Pat Down/Frisk, the officer must be able to explain and provide evidence that they have a reasonable belief that the suspect is both armed and poses a threat to them. This requirement ensures that the officer has a valid reason to conduct the search and helps protect the individual's rights against unreasonable searches and seizures.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following details disqualifies an Amber Alert from being activated?
- A.
The child is a runaway but is in danger of immediate serious physical harm
- B.
The victim is 17
- C.
There is not descriptive information about the victim, offender, and/or the abduction
- D.
The victim is 12
Correct Answer
C. There is not descriptive information about the victim, offender, and/or the abductionExplanation
The correct answer is that there is not descriptive information about the victim, offender, and/or the abduction. This detail disqualifies an Amber Alert from being activated because without specific information about the victim, offender, and/or the abduction, it would be difficult for the public to assist in locating the missing child. The purpose of an Amber Alert is to quickly disseminate information about a child abduction to the public in order to increase the chances of a safe recovery. Without descriptive information, the alert would not be effective in achieving this goal.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How many numbers are on a standard VIN?
- A.
20
- B.
22
- C.
17
- D.
14
Correct Answer
C. 17Explanation
A standard VIN (Vehicle Identification Number) consists of 17 alphanumeric characters. These characters provide information about the vehicle's manufacturer, model, and features. The VIN is used for various purposes, such as identifying stolen vehicles, registering vehicles, and conducting vehicle history checks. Therefore, the correct answer is 17.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The purpose of any Code of Ethics is
- A.
The moral actions, conduct, and choices of an individual
- B.
Role of a police officer
- C.
To provide direction for Law Enforcement
- D.
To identify expected behavior
Correct Answer
D. To identify expected behaviorExplanation
The purpose of a Code of Ethics is to identify the expected behavior for a particular profession or group. It serves as a guide for individuals to understand and adhere to the moral actions, conduct, and choices that are expected of them. In the case of a police officer, a Code of Ethics provides direction for law enforcement by outlining the standards of behavior that they should uphold in their role. It helps to ensure that officers act in a manner that is ethical, professional, and aligned with the values of their profession.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Define the term vehicle stop:
- A.
Whenever an officer stops his/another vehicle
- B.
Any situation where an officer deploys from his vehicle
- C.
Offender is reacting to the lights and sirens
- D.
Both A and B
Correct Answer
B. Any situation where an officer deploys from his vehicleExplanation
The term "vehicle stop" refers to any situation where an officer deploys from his vehicle. This can include situations where an officer stops his own vehicle or another vehicle. It is not specifically limited to situations where an offender is reacting to lights and sirens.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The most crucial aspect of a vehicle stop is:
- A.
Officer Safety
- B.
Location of the Stop
- C.
The Assessment
- D.
Radio Procedure
Correct Answer
C. The AssessmentExplanation
The most crucial aspect of a vehicle stop is the assessment. This refers to the process of evaluating the situation and determining the level of threat or risk involved. It involves observing the behavior of the driver and passengers, looking for any signs of danger or suspicious activity. The assessment helps the officer make informed decisions about how to proceed with the stop, ensuring their safety and the safety of others.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Most important aspect of a high-risk vehicle stop?
- A.
The Assessment
- B.
Officer Safety
- C.
Your Location
- D.
Cover and Concealment
Correct Answer
D. Cover and ConcealmentExplanation
Cover and concealment are the most important aspects of a high-risk vehicle stop because they provide protection and safety for the officers involved. Cover refers to physical barriers like walls or vehicles that shield officers from potential gunfire or other threats. Concealment, on the other hand, refers to objects or surroundings that hide officers from the view of suspects, making it harder for them to be targeted. By prioritizing cover and concealment, officers can minimize their exposure to danger and increase their chances of successfully apprehending suspects during a high-risk vehicle stop.Rate this question:
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- 16.
ORC 2903.02 Defines
- A.
Rape
- B.
Assault
- C.
Sexual Battery
- D.
Murder
Correct Answer
D. MurderExplanation
The given answer, "Murder," is correct because the question is asking for a definition of the terms listed, and "Murder" is one of the terms defined by ORC 2903.02. The other terms listed, such as "Rape," "Assault," and "Sexual Battery," are not defined by ORC 2903.02.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The penalty for the unauthorized use of OHLEG is:
- A.
Felony of the 4th Degree
- B.
Felony of the 5th Degree
- C.
Misdemeanor of the 1st Degree
- D.
Misdemeanor is the 5th degree
Correct Answer
B. Felony of the 5th DegreeExplanation
The correct answer is Felony of the 5th Degree. Unauthorized use of OHLEG refers to the illegal access or misuse of the Ohio Law Enforcement Gateway, which is a statewide system used by law enforcement agencies. Such unauthorized use is considered a felony offense. In this case, it is specifically categorized as a felony of the 5th degree, indicating that it is a less severe felony compared to higher-degree felonies but still a serious criminal offense.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A controlled buy is defined as:
- A.
Purchase of drugs/stolen property by a confidential informant
- B.
Purchase of drugs by a confident informant
- C.
Purchase of drugs by a confidential by an undercover officer
- D.
Purchase of drugs/stolen property by an undercover officer
Correct Answer
B. Purchase of drugs by a confident informantExplanation
A controlled buy is defined as the purchase of drugs by a confidential informant. This means that a person who is working with law enforcement to gather information and evidence about illegal drug activities is involved in making the purchase. The confidential informant is typically someone who has knowledge or involvement in the drug trade and is cooperating with authorities in exchange for leniency or other benefits. The purpose of a controlled buy is to gather evidence, identify individuals involved in drug trafficking, and potentially make arrests.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The plain feel doctrine directly responds to which of the following?
- A.
Drug use
- B.
Tennessee vs Gardner
- C.
Mims vs Maryland
- D.
Terry pat down/frisk
Correct Answer
D. Terry pat down/friskExplanation
The plain feel doctrine directly responds to the Terry pat down/frisk. The doctrine allows law enforcement officers to seize contraband or illegal items that are immediately apparent to the officer's sense of touch during a lawful pat down search. This means that if an officer feels an object during a frisk that they can immediately identify as contraband, such as drugs or a weapon, they are allowed to seize it without a warrant. The plain feel doctrine is a legal principle that balances the need for officer safety and the protection of individual rights.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What are the elements necessary to constitute and arrest?
- A.
Stop, interaction, and probable cause
- B.
Intent, Authority, and Seizure
- C.
Intent, probable cause, and seizure
- D.
Intent, Authority, and Detainment
Correct Answer
B. Intent, Authority, and SeizureExplanation
To constitute an arrest, three elements are necessary: intent, authority, and seizure. Intent refers to the intention of the arresting officer to take a person into custody. Authority refers to the legal power or jurisdiction the officer has to make the arrest. Seizure refers to the physical act of taking the person into custody, depriving them of their freedom. These three elements must be present for an arrest to be considered valid and lawful.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How do you justify a warrantless, nonconsensual entry into a private dwelling in order to make an arrest?
- A.
Fear of harm to the suspect or others inside the dwelling
- B.
Fear of evidence being destroyed
- C.
Exigent Circumstances
- D.
Wait to get a warrant or consent
Correct Answer
C. Exigent CircumstancesExplanation
Exigent circumstances refer to situations where there is an urgent need for immediate action to prevent serious harm or destruction of evidence. In the context of making an arrest, if there is a reasonable belief that waiting to obtain a warrant or consent would result in harm to the suspect or others inside the dwelling, or the destruction of crucial evidence, a warrantless and nonconsensual entry into the private dwelling may be justified. This exception allows law enforcement officers to prioritize public safety and prevent the loss of important evidence in time-sensitive situations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following describes a plain target?
- A.
Strike intended only to defend and control a subject until he/she complies
- B.
Easy to strike target areas
- C.
Used to defend from sustaining an injury or to control the subject if pain compliance techniques do not work.
- D.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
A. Strike intended only to defend and control a subject until he/she compliesExplanation
A plain target refers to a strike that is intended solely for the purpose of defending oneself and gaining control over a subject until they comply. It does not involve causing harm or injury, but rather focuses on restraining and controlling the individual. This type of target is used as a non-violent method to subdue and manage a person who may be uncooperative or resistant.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is not a major component of the criminal justice system?
- A.
Law Enforcement
- B.
Corrections
- C.
Courts
- D.
Probation
Correct Answer
D. ProbationExplanation
Probation is not considered a major component of the criminal justice system. The criminal justice system primarily consists of law enforcement, corrections, and courts. Law enforcement agencies are responsible for enforcing laws and maintaining public order. Corrections involve the punishment, rehabilitation, and supervision of individuals who have been convicted of crimes. Courts are responsible for the fair and impartial administration of justice. Probation, on the other hand, is a form of punishment or supervision that is imposed instead of incarceration or as a part of a sentence, but it is not considered a major component of the criminal justice system.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following is a goal of sentencing?
- A.
Locus Parentis
- B.
Parens Partriae
- C.
To punish the offender
- D.
To justify the offense
Correct Answer
C. To punish the offenderExplanation
The goal of sentencing is to punish the offender. Sentencing aims to impose a penalty or consequence on individuals who have committed a crime, as a form of retribution for their actions. By punishing the offender, it is believed that justice is served and that it acts as a deterrent for future criminal behavior. The goal of punishment is to hold individuals accountable for their actions and to maintain social order within the community.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What did Maryland v. Wilson do in terms of guidelines for a police officer?
- A.
The right for police officers to pull passengers out of a vehicle for officer safety
- B.
Use of force police officers can use
- C.
The right for police officers to pull drivers out of a vehicle for officer safety.
- D.
When a police officer can use deadly force
Correct Answer
A. The right for police officers to pull passengers out of a vehicle for officer safetyExplanation
Maryland v. Wilson established the right for police officers to pull passengers out of a vehicle for officer safety. This means that if an officer has a reasonable belief that a passenger poses a threat to their safety, they can remove them from the vehicle. This guideline ensures that officers can take necessary actions to protect themselves and others in potentially dangerous situations during traffic stops or other encounters involving vehicles.Rate this question:
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Apr 09, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jul 14, 2015Quiz Created by
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