Computer Technology And The Internet

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Computer Technology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following describe cybercrime?

    • A.

      It helps perpetrators expend less effort than committing traditional crime

    • B.

      It is committed on a far broader scale than traditional crime

    • C.

      It has reduced the speed with which criminal activities are conducted

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Cybercrime is described as both a and b, meaning that it helps perpetrators expend less effort than committing traditional crime and it is committed on a far broader scale than traditional crime. This means that cybercriminals can carry out illegal activities more easily and reach a larger number of potential victims compared to traditional criminals.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following crimes would not have been possible without the use of computer technology and the Internet?

    • A.

      Hacking

    • B.

      Extortion

    • C.

      Malware

    • D.

      Both a and c

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and c
    Explanation
    Both hacking and malware would not have been possible without the use of computer technology and the Internet. Hacking refers to unauthorized access to computer systems, networks, or data, which relies on computer technology and the Internet to breach security measures. Similarly, malware, which includes malicious software such as viruses, worms, or ransomware, is designed to exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems and spread through the Internet. Therefore, both crimes require the use of computer technology and the Internet to carry out their illegal activities.

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  • 3. 

    To be considered a cybercrime, computers must be

    • A.

      An incidental aspect to the crime

    • B.

      The target of the crime

    • C.

      The tool used to commit the crime

    • D.

      Both b and c

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both b and c
    Explanation
    To be considered a cybercrime, computers must be both the target of the crime and the tool used to commit the crime. This means that the crime is specifically directed towards the computer system or its data, and the computer is also used as a means to carry out the illegal activity. The other options, such as computers being an incidental aspect to the crime or all of the above, do not fully capture the essential criteria for classifying an offense as a cybercrime.

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  • 4. 

    Hacking occurs when an individual

    • A.

      Seeks to gain unauthorized access to a computer system in order to commit another crime such as destroying information contained in that system

    • B.

      Maliciously sabotages a computer

    • C.

      Seeks to disrupt a computer network

    • D.

      Gains unauthorized access to a system

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Gains unauthorized access to a system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "gains unauthorized access to a system." Hacking refers to the act of gaining unauthorized access to a computer system. This can be done with the intention of committing various crimes, such as destroying information, sabotaging a computer, or disrupting a computer network. Therefore, all of the given options are correct as they describe different actions that can be taken after gaining unauthorized access to a system.

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  • 5. 

    __________ occur when a perpetrator seeks to gain control over multiple computers and then uses these computers to launch an attack against a specific target or targets.

    • A.

      Virus attacks

    • B.

      Worm attacks

    • C.

      Denial of Service attacks

    • D.

      Distributed Denial of Service attacks

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Distributed Denial of Service attacks
    Explanation
    Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks occur when a perpetrator gains control over multiple computers and then uses them to launch an attack against a specific target or targets. In a DDoS attack, the attacker overwhelms the target's network or website with a flood of traffic, making it inaccessible to legitimate users. Unlike a regular Denial of Service (DoS) attack, which is launched from a single source, a DDoS attack involves multiple sources, making it more difficult to mitigate and trace back to the attacker.

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  • 6. 

    A __________ does not need user activity to make copies of itself and spread.

    • A.

      Worm

    • B.

      Virus

    • C.

      Trojan horse

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Worm
    Explanation
    A worm is a type of malicious software that can replicate itself without any user interaction or activity. Unlike viruses and Trojan horses, which often require user action to spread, worms are capable of independently spreading across a network or system. Therefore, a worm does not need user activity to make copies of itself and spread.

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  • 7. 

    Computer hijacking occurs when an individual takes control over a computer (or computers) with a ____________.

    • A.

      Virus

    • B.

      Worm

    • C.

      Trojan horse

    • D.

      Spyware

    • E.

      Bot code

    Correct Answer
    E. Bot code
    Explanation
    Computer hijacking occurs when an individual takes control over a computer (or computers) with the help of bot code. Bot code refers to malicious software that enables hackers to remotely control a compromised computer without the user's knowledge or consent. This allows them to carry out various illegal activities, such as stealing sensitive information, launching cyber-attacks, or using the hijacked computer as part of a larger network of infected machines (botnet) for further malicious purposes.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is malware?

    • A.

      Virus

    • B.

      Spyware

    • C.

      Denial of service attack

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Both a virus and spyware are considered malware. A virus is a type of malicious software that can replicate itself and spread to other computers, causing harm to the system. Spyware, on the other hand, is designed to secretly gather information about a user's activities without their consent. Both of these forms of malware can cause significant damage to a computer system and compromise user privacy and security. Therefore, the correct answer is "both a and b".

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  • 9. 

    The computer is used as a tool to commit which of the following crimes?

    • A.

      Copyright infringement

    • B.

      Embezzlement

    • C.

      Cyberharassment

    • D.

      Phishing

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The computer can be used as a tool to commit all of the mentioned crimes. Copyright infringement involves illegally copying or distributing copyrighted material. Embezzlement refers to the fraudulent appropriation of funds or assets entrusted to someone's care. Cyberharassment involves using electronic communication to harass, threaten, or intimidate someone. Phishing is a form of online scam where individuals are tricked into revealing sensitive information. Thus, all of these crimes can be facilitated or carried out using a computer.

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  • 10. 

    Hacking is cracking with criminal intent

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It's the other way around. Cracking is hacking with criminal intent

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  • 11. 

    Computer forensics investigations focus on violations of

    • A.

      Civil

    • B.

      Criminal

    • C.

      Administrative

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Computer forensics investigations focus on violations of civil, criminal, and administrative laws. This means that they are conducted to gather evidence and analyze digital data for a wide range of purposes, including resolving civil disputes, investigating criminal activities, and ensuring compliance with administrative regulations. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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  • 12. 

    Public investigations are conducted by

    • A.

      Government agencies

    • B.

      Law enforcement agencies

    • C.

      Citizens

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Public investigations can be conducted by government agencies and law enforcement agencies. Government agencies have the authority and resources to investigate various matters of public interest, such as corruption, fraud, or safety violations. Law enforcement agencies, on the other hand, are responsible for investigating criminal activities and enforcing the law. Both these entities play a crucial role in conducting public investigations to ensure the safety, security, and well-being of the society. Therefore, the correct answer is "both a and b."

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  • 13. 

    The standard of proof in a civil trial is

    • A.

      Preponderance of evidence

    • B.

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • C.

      Clear and convincing evidence

    • D.

      Both a and c

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Preponderance of evidence
    Explanation
    The standard of proof in a civil trial is preponderance of evidence. This means that the party bringing the claim must prove that it is more likely than not that their version of the facts is true. This standard is lower than "beyond a reasonable doubt," which is the standard of proof in a criminal trial. "Clear and convincing evidence" is a higher standard of proof than preponderance of evidence, but it is not the standard used in a civil trial. Therefore, the correct answer is preponderance of evidence.

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  • 14. 

    Investigations of administrative law violations can occur through the use of

    • A.

      Inspections

    • B.

      Searches and seizures

    • C.

      Subpoenas

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above options (inspections, searches and seizures, subpoenas) can be used in investigations of administrative law violations. Inspections involve the examination and evaluation of a person or entity's compliance with regulations. Searches and seizures refer to the process of searching and confiscating evidence related to the violation. Subpoenas are legal orders that require individuals to provide information or testify in a legal proceeding. Therefore, all these methods can be utilized to investigate and address administrative law violations.

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  • 15. 

    The four distinct steps in the computer forensics process are as follows:

    • A.

      Acquisition, identification, extraction, and presentation

    • B.

      Acknowledgement, identification, extraction, and presentation

    • C.

      Acquisition, identification, evaluation, and presentation

    • D.

      Identification, acquisition,evaluation, and presentation

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Acquisition, identification, evaluation, and presentation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is acquisition, identification, evaluation, and presentation. In computer forensics, the first step is acquiring the evidence, which involves collecting and preserving data from various sources. The next step is identification, where the relevant evidence is identified and isolated. Evaluation is the third step, where the collected evidence is analyzed and examined to draw conclusions or make inferences. Finally, the evidence is presented in a clear and organized manner to support the findings. This process ensures that the evidence is handled properly and the conclusions are based on sound analysis.

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  • 16. 

    Factors that may affect the feasibility of on-site and off-site computer searches include

    • A.

      The configuration of the software and hardware

    • B.

      The overall size and complexity of the computer system

    • C.

      The technical demands of the search

    • D.

      Both b and c

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The feasibility of on-site and off-site computer searches can be affected by various factors. These factors include the configuration of the software and hardware, which refers to the compatibility and capability of the computer system. The overall size and complexity of the computer system also play a role, as larger and more complex systems may require more time and resources for the search. Additionally, the technical demands of the search, such as the specific requirements and constraints, can impact the feasibility. Therefore, all of the above factors can affect the feasibility of on-site and off-site computer searches.

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  • 17. 

    __________ is any kind of writing, video, or sound recording material whose authenticity needs to be established if introduced as evidence in a court of law.

    • A.

      Testimonial

    • B.

      Demonstrative

    • C.

      Documentary

    • D.

      Direct

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Documentary
    Explanation
    A documentary is any kind of writing, video, or sound recording material whose authenticity needs to be established if introduced as evidence in a court of law. This means that if a documentary is presented as evidence in a court case, it must be proven to be genuine and accurate in order for it to be considered valid. This is because documentaries can be edited or manipulated to present a particular viewpoint or narrative, so it is important to verify their authenticity before accepting them as evidence.

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  • 18. 

    The __________ states that forensic tools, techniques, procedures and evidence are admissible in court only if they have a "general acceptance" within the scientific community.

    • A.

      Daubert standard

    • B.

      Coppolino standard

    • C.

      Frye standard

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Frye standard
    Explanation
    The Frye standard states that forensic tools, techniques, procedures, and evidence are admissible in court only if they have a "general acceptance" within the scientific community. This means that the evidence or technique must be widely accepted and recognized by experts in the field in order to be admissible in court. The Frye standard is often used as a guideline for determining the admissibility of scientific evidence in many jurisdictions.

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  • 19. 

    Eyewitness testimony is an example of

    • A.

      Physical evidence

    • B.

      Direct evidence

    • C.

      Demonstrative evidence

    • D.

      Hearsay evidence

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Direct evidence
    Explanation
    Eyewitness testimony is considered direct evidence because it is based on the firsthand observations and experiences of an individual who directly witnessed a particular event or incident. This type of evidence is often given high credibility in legal proceedings as it is assumed that the witness's firsthand account provides accurate and reliable information about what occurred. Unlike circumstantial evidence, which relies on inferences and indirect observations, direct evidence directly supports or proves a fact without the need for additional reasoning or interpretation. Therefore, eyewitness testimony is classified as direct evidence.

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  • 20. 

    Computer forensics test results are repeatable when the same results are obtained when using the same methods in the same testing environment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because computer forensics test results should be repeatable. This means that if the same methods are used in the same testing environment, the results should be consistent and reproducible. This is important in computer forensics as it ensures the reliability and validity of the findings. By being able to obtain the same results multiple times, it increases confidence in the accuracy of the forensic analysis and strengthens the overall credibility of the investigation.

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  • 21. 

    __________ are spoken words in a conversation or the words written in a message.

    • A.

      Non-content data

    • B.

      Content data

    • C.

      Traffic data

    • D.

      Location data

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Content data
    Explanation
    Content data refers to the actual words spoken or written in a conversation or message. It includes the information, ideas, opinions, or any other form of communication conveyed through language. This can include text messages, emails, phone conversations, or any other form of communication where words are used to convey meaning. Non-content data, on the other hand, refers to metadata or information about the communication such as the time, date, duration, or participants involved. Traffic data refers to the information about the transmission of the communication, and location data refers to the geographical location associated with the communication.

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  • 22. 

    __________ consists of data about a communication.

    • A.

      Content data

    • B.

      Location data

    • C.

      Traffic data

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Traffic data
    Explanation
    Traffic data refers to the information about a communication, such as the source and destination addresses, timestamps, and the amount of data transferred. It does not include the actual content of the communication or the location data. Therefore, the correct answer is traffic data.

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  • 23. 

    Traffic data includes

    • A.

      Telephone numbers

    • B.

      Customer information

    • C.

      Dialed numbers

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because traffic data in the context of telecommunication refers to the information collected and analyzed about telephone calls, including telephone numbers (both originating and receiving), customer information (such as name and address), and dialed numbers (the numbers dialed by the caller). Therefore, all of these elements are included in traffic data.

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  • 24. 

    The Patriot Act made it harder on law enforcement agencies to obtain the personal information of Internet users.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The Patriot Act actually made it easier for law enforcement agencies to obtain the personal information of Internet users. This act expanded the powers of the government to conduct surveillance, collect data, and access personal information in order to prevent terrorism. It allowed for increased monitoring of electronic communications and the collection of data from internet service providers without the need for a warrant. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 25. 

    The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act of 1998 controls the dissemination of information to children.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act of 1998 actually focuses on the collection and protection of personal information from children under the age of 13, rather than controlling the dissemination of information to children. The act requires websites to obtain parental consent before collecting any personal information from children, and also sets guidelines for the security and privacy of such information. Therefore, the statement that the act controls the dissemination of information to children is false.

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  • 26. 

    The __________ is designed to protect children from exposure to indecent material.

    • A.

      Child Protection and Sexual Predator Punishment Act of 1998

    • B.

      Children's Online Privacy Protection Act of 1998

    • C.

      Communications Decency Act of 1996

    • D.

      Communications Act of 1934

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Communications Decency Act of 1996
    Explanation
    The Communications Decency Act of 1996 is designed to protect children from exposure to indecent material. This act was passed in order to regulate and control the content that is available on the internet, particularly when it comes to protecting minors from inappropriate or harmful material. It includes provisions that make it illegal to knowingly transmit or display indecent material in a manner that is accessible to minors. By implementing this act, the government aims to create a safer online environment for children and prevent them from being exposed to explicit or harmful content.

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  • 27. 

    The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002

    • A.

      Defines the types of records that must be recorded and for how long

    • B.

      Deals with falsification and destruction of data

    • C.

      Holds executives directly responsible for problems

    • D.

      Defines e-mails as corporate documents

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 encompasses all of the mentioned points. It defines the types of records that must be recorded and for how long, deals with falsification and destruction of data, holds executives directly responsible for problems, and also defines e-mails as corporate documents. This act was enacted to improve corporate governance and enhance financial transparency and accountability.

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  • 28. 

    __________  was implemented to reduce the chilling effect that searches and seizures had on publishers.

    • A.

      The Privacy Act of 1974

    • B.

      Privacy Protection Act of 1980

    • C.

      Telecommunications Act of 1996

    • D.

      Electronic Freedom of Information Act of 1996

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Privacy Protection Act of 1980
    Explanation
    The Privacy Protection Act of 1980 was implemented to reduce the chilling effect that searches and seizures had on publishers. This act provides protections for journalists and publishers from unreasonable searches and seizures of their materials, such as notes, photographs, and other documents. It establishes procedures that law enforcement must follow when seeking to obtain these materials, including obtaining a warrant and demonstrating a compelling interest in the information. By providing these protections, the act aims to encourage freedom of the press and prevent the suppression of information.

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  • 29. 

    __________ is based on targeted surveillance and affects only a limited number of individuals during specific periods of time.

    • A.

      Data preservation

    • B.

      Data retention

    • C.

      Content data

    • D.

      Non-content data

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Data preservation
    Explanation
    Data preservation is the correct answer because it involves the targeted surveillance of a limited number of individuals during specific periods of time. Data preservation refers to the process of retaining and protecting data for future use or reference, typically in legal or investigative contexts. It focuses on preserving specific data related to a particular case or investigation, rather than retaining all data indiscriminately. This targeted approach ensures that only relevant information is retained while minimizing the impact on the privacy of individuals not involved in the investigation.

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  • 30. 

    The __________ amended existing legislation to remove any unnecessary burdens in criminal investigations.

    • A.

      Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986

    • B.

      Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act of 1994

    • C.

      Cable Communications Privacy Act of 1984

    • D.

      USA Patriot Act of 2001

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. USA Patriot Act of 2001
    Explanation
    The USA Patriot Act of 2001 amended existing legislation to remove any unnecessary burdens in criminal investigations. This act was passed in response to the September 11th terrorist attacks and aimed to enhance the ability of law enforcement agencies to detect and prevent terrorism. It expanded the powers of the government to conduct surveillance, gather intelligence, and share information among different agencies. The act also allowed for easier access to electronic communications and records, making it easier for law enforcement to gather evidence in criminal investigations.

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  • 31. 

    The Fourth Amendment provides everyone in the United States (e.g., citizens, non-citizens, illegal immigrants, foreign nationals visiting the United States for work or education) with the right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Fourth Amendment of the United States Constitution guarantees protection against unreasonable searches and seizures for all individuals within the country, regardless of their citizenship or immigration status. This means that everyone, including citizens, non-citizens, illegal immigrants, and foreign nationals visiting for work or education, has the right to be free from searches and seizures that are not based on probable cause or a valid warrant. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 32. 

    Certain exceptions to the exclusionary rule include __________.

    • A.

      The good faith exception

    • B.

      The inevitable discovery exception

    • C.

      The legal exception

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Both the good faith exception and the inevitable discovery exception are certain exceptions to the exclusionary rule. The good faith exception allows evidence to be admissible if it was obtained by law enforcement officers who believed they were acting within the law, even if the search warrant was later found to be invalid. The inevitable discovery exception allows evidence to be admissible if it would have been inevitably discovered by lawful means. Therefore, the correct answer is both a and b.

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  • 33. 

    Certain exceptions may justify the search of a computer without a warrant, including __________.

    • A.

      Consent

    • B.

      Search incident to arrest

    • C.

      Plain view

    • D.

      Border searches

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options listed in the answer can justify the search of a computer without a warrant under certain exceptions. Consent allows a person to voluntarily allow the search of their computer. A search incident to arrest allows law enforcement to search a person's computer if they have been lawfully arrested. Plain view allows law enforcement to search a computer if they see evidence of a crime in plain sight. Border searches allow customs and border patrol agents to search electronic devices at the border without a warrant. Therefore, all of these exceptions can justify a warrantless search of a computer.

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  • 34. 

    Routine border searches do not require reasonable suspicion, probable cause, or a warrant to be conducted

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Routine border searches do not require reasonable suspicion, probable cause, or a warrant to be conducted because they fall under the "border search exception" to the Fourth Amendment's warrant requirement. The government has the authority to conduct searches at the border to protect national security and prevent the entry of contraband or illegal goods. These searches are considered necessary and routine for the functioning of border control and are therefore exempt from the usual requirements of reasonable suspicion, probable cause, or a warrant.

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  • 35. 

    The Fourth Amendment applies to searches conducted by private individuals, businesses, and nongovernmental agencies.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The Fourth Amendment only applies to searches conducted by government entities, such as law enforcement agencies. Private individuals, businesses, and nongovernmental agencies are not bound by the Fourth Amendment and therefore are not subject to its restrictions on searches and seizures.

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  • 36. 

    To be valid, the warrant must specifically state ______________.

    • A.

      The crime (or crimes) being investigated

    • B.

      The location to be searched

    • C.

      The items to be seized

    • D.

      Both b and c

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above." In order for a warrant to be valid, it must specifically state the crime or crimes being investigated, the location to be searched, and the items to be seized. All of these elements are necessary to ensure that the search and seizure are conducted within the boundaries of the law and protect individuals' rights.

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  • 37. 

    An employee has a reasonable expectation of privacy in the contents of his or her locker at a workplace if

    • A.

      The lock on the locker was provided by the employer

    • B.

      The lock on the locker was provided by the employee

    • C.

      A policy for searching lockers existed in the company

    • D.

      Both a and c

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. The lock on the locker was provided by the employee
    Explanation
    If the lock on the locker was provided by the employee, it suggests that the employee took the initiative to secure their personal belongings and maintain privacy. This implies that the employee intended for the contents of the locker to be private and not accessible to others. Therefore, the employee can reasonably expect privacy in the contents of their locker.

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  • 38. 

    With the __________ exception, an investigator can seize evidence without a search warrant if the destruction of evidence is imminent.

    • A.

      Plain view doctrine

    • B.

      Border search doctrine

    • C.

      Exigent circumstances

    • D.

      Open fields

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Exigent circumstances
    Explanation
    Exigent circumstances refers to situations where there is an urgent need for action or intervention. In the context of this question, it means that an investigator can seize evidence without a search warrant if there is an immediate threat of the evidence being destroyed. This exception allows law enforcement to act quickly and prevent the destruction of evidence that could be crucial to an investigation. The other options, such as the plain view doctrine, border search doctrine, and open fields, do not specifically address the issue of imminent destruction of evidence.

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  • 39. 

    Under the Fourth Amendment, search warrants must

    • A.

      Be supported by probable cause

    • B.

      Have the objects of the search described with sufficient particularity

    • C.

      Include a search protocol

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Under the Fourth Amendment, search warrants must be supported by probable cause and have the objects of the search described with sufficient particularity. This means that before conducting a search, law enforcement must have a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the items or evidence being sought are connected to that crime. Additionally, the warrant must specify the location to be searched and the items to be seized in order to prevent general searches and protect individuals' privacy rights. Therefore, the correct answer is both a and b.

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  • 40. 

    Who can consent to a search if they have the authority over the property?

    • A.

      Wife

    • B.

      Roommate

    • C.

      Son-in-law/daughter-in-law

    • D.

      Boyfriend/girlfriend

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above individuals can consent to a search if they have authority over the property. This means that if any of these individuals have ownership or control over the property, they can give consent for a search to be conducted by law enforcement. It is important to note that consent must be given voluntarily and knowingly, without any coercion or duress.

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  • 41. 

    The most common hacking technique is ___________________.

    • A.

      Web defacement

    • B.

      Password cracking

    • C.

      Denial of service attack

    • D.

      The man-in-the middle attack

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Password cracking
    Explanation
    The most common hacking technique is password cracking. This involves attempting to gain unauthorized access to a system or account by guessing or cracking the password. This technique is commonly used because many individuals use weak or easily guessable passwords, making it easier for hackers to gain access. Additionally, there are various tools and methods available to hackers that can assist in cracking passwords, further contributing to its prevalence as a hacking technique.

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  • 42. 

    _______________ is used to track users’ online activities and deliver targeted pop-up ads to users.

    • A.

      Adware

    • B.

      Spyware

    • C.

      A computer virus

    • D.

      A worm

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Adware
    Explanation
    Adware is used to track users' online activities and deliver targeted pop-up ads to users. Unlike spyware, which is designed to gather information without the user's knowledge, adware is typically installed with the user's consent, often bundled with free software. Adware is not as harmful as a computer virus or a worm, as its main purpose is to display advertisements rather than causing damage to the user's system. Therefore, the correct answer is Adware.

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  • 43. 

    Cyberterrorists may seek unauthorized access to critical infrastructure computer systems to:

    • A.

      Block communications systems

    • B.

      Disrupt air traffic control

    • C.

      Shut down electric utilities

    • D.

      Contaminate water

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Cyberterrorists may seek unauthorized access to critical infrastructure computer systems in order to block communications systems, disrupt air traffic control, shut down electric utilities, and contaminate water. This means that they can cause significant damage and disruption to various essential services, posing a serious threat to public safety and national security.

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  • 44. 

    ______________ occurs when a seller takes on various digital identities by opening up several email accounts and bids on his or her own items multiple times to prompt genuine bidders to provide a much higher bid for an item than they would have done otherwise.

    • A.

      Drive bidding

    • B.

      Bid siphoning

    • C.

      Bid rigging

    • D.

      Shill bidding

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Shill bidding
    Explanation
    Shill bidding occurs when a seller creates multiple email accounts and bids on their own items to deceive genuine bidders into placing higher bids. This manipulative tactic aims to artificially increase the price of an item, leading to higher profits for the seller.

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  • 45. 

    The _______________ scheme occurs when individuals falsely advertise favorable and misleading representations of stock to convince people to buy a specific stock.

    • A.

      Pyramid

    • B.

      Ponzi

    • C.

      Pump and dump

    • D.

      Cybersmear

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Pump and dump
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "pump and dump." This scheme involves individuals promoting a stock with false and misleading information to manipulate its price and convince others to buy it. Once the price is artificially inflated, those who initiated the scheme sell their shares at a profit, causing the stock to plummet and leaving other investors with significant losses.

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  • 46. 

    _____________ schemes involve soliciting investors to contribute to investment opportunities that promise high returns for little to no risk.  The money provided by new investors is used to pay existing investors. The money provided by new investors is used to pay existing investors, but none of the money that an investor provides is actually invested anywhere.

    • A.

      Pyramid

    • B.

      Ponzi

    • C.

      Pump and dump

    • D.

      Cybersmear

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Ponzi
    Explanation
    A Ponzi scheme involves soliciting investors to contribute to investment opportunities that promise high returns for little to no risk. The money provided by new investors is used to pay existing investors, but none of the money that an investor provides is actually invested anywhere. This creates a cycle of using new investors' funds to pay off previous investors, giving the illusion of legitimate returns. However, the scheme eventually collapses when there are not enough new investors to sustain the payouts, leading to significant financial losses for those involved.

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  • 47. 

    A ____________ scheme requires new investors to become involved marketing a product and recruiting other investors. The fees provided by new entrants are used to pay those that previously entered this scheme.

    • A.

      Pyramid

    • B.

      Ponzi

    • C.

      Pump and dump

    • D.

      Cybersmear

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyramid
    Explanation
    A pyramid scheme is a type of investment scheme where new investors are recruited to market a product and bring in more investors. The fees paid by these new entrants are then used to pay those who joined earlier in the scheme. This creates a hierarchical structure resembling a pyramid, where the people at the top benefit the most, while those at the bottom struggle to find new investors and may end up losing their money.

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  • 48. 

    ______________ are designed to protect commercial identities or brands.

    • A.

      Trade secrets

    • B.

      Copyright

    • C.

      Trademarks

    • D.

      Patents

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Trademarks
    Explanation
    Trademarks are designed to protect commercial identities or brands. A trademark is a distinctive symbol, word, phrase, design, or combination thereof that identifies and distinguishes the source of goods or services from those of others. It helps consumers identify and differentiate products or services in the marketplace. By registering a trademark, a business can legally prevent others from using a similar mark that could confuse consumers and harm the brand's reputation. Therefore, trademarks play a crucial role in safeguarding commercial identities and brands.

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  • 49. 

    Some crimes that fall under the personal crime category include:

    • A.

      Death, assault, domestic violence, drug dealing, and illegal gambling

    • B.

      Telecommunications fraud, auction fraud, and credit card fraud

    • C.

      Cyberharassment, cyberstalking, cyberbullying, extortion

    • D.

      Both a and c

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and c
    Explanation
    Note: While "both a and c" is the answer the professor is looking for, he will also accept "none of the above" as death is not a crime (murder is, but not death) and cyberbullying is not listed as falling under the personal crime category according to chapter 5.

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  • 50. 

    The term used to describe a reproduction of someone else’s recording marketed under a different label is ___________.

    • A.

      Bootleg

    • B.

      Counterfeit

    • C.

      Stolen

    • D.

      Both a and b

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Bootleg
    Explanation
    A reproduction of someone else's recording marketed under a different label is commonly referred to as a bootleg. This term is used to describe unauthorized copies of recordings that are often sold illegally or without the permission of the original artist or copyright holder. Bootlegs are typically made without the knowledge or involvement of the original recording company, and they are known for their poor quality and lack of official packaging or labeling.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 25, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    MrsQ
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