Ocular Disease II Mt 2

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Quizzes Created: 24 | Total Attempts: 15,567
| Attempts: 383 | Questions: 34
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1. Thicker corneas will have a false high IOP reading on GAT.

Explanation

Thin Ks --> false low
Think Ks --> false high (LASIK pts will have a false low reading due to thinner corneas)

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About This Quiz
Eyes Quizzes & Trivia

The 'Ocular Disease II MT 2' quiz assesses knowledge on ocular conditions, focusing on scleral canals, lamina cribosa, receptive fields, and glaucoma. It evaluates understanding of refractive errors,... see morevisual field loss, and diagnostic criteria pertinent to eye health professionals. see less

2. Nasal steps do NOT cross horizontal midline

Explanation

Temporal wedge defects (nasal radial fibers) DO/CAN cross horizontal midline

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3. You do not need an increase an IOP or VF loss to diagnose GLC.

Explanation

GLC dx may be made of a basis of: structural damage OR functional loss OR high risk

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4. Cupping precedes pallor in GLC

Explanation

Cupping w/o pallor inside cup until later is highly specific for GLC.
Pallor of the rim tissue outside cup is non-GLC optic atrophy

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5. Which of the following GLC meds does not work at night?

Explanation

Beta blockers do not work at night

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6. Small scleral canals tend to be related to what type of refractive error?

Explanation

Scleral canal size directly related to ONH & cup size

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7. 1 mmHg increase in IOP results in ___% increased risk for GLC damage

Explanation

A 1 mmHg increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) results in a 10% increased risk for glaucoma (GLC) damage. Glaucoma is a disease that damages the optic nerve, often caused by increased pressure in the eye. Studies have shown that even a small increase in IOP can significantly increase the risk of developing glaucoma and experiencing damage to the optic nerve. Therefore, a 1 mmHg increase in IOP corresponds to a 10% increased risk for glaucoma damage.

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8. Zone Alpha is more peripheral than Zone Beta

Explanation

Zone Beta is closer to ONH & has large chorodial vessles
Zone Alpha is more peripheral & is the irregular pigmented outer edge of Beta

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9. 1 tonometry reading has low sensitivity and relatively high specificiy

Explanation

50% sensitivity due to 1) substantial IOP variation in GLC pts, 2) varing susceptiblty of different pts to IOP-related damage

70-90% specificity --> most normals (non-GLC) show IOP

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10. Which of the following systemic disease results in slower recycling of mucopolysaccharides in the TM endothelium and subsequent increase in IOP?

Explanation

- Hypothyroidism --> not a vascular issue, messes with the TM
- High BP --> aggressively lowering BP is probably worse than high BP bc then you risk compromising the ON perfusion; however, long term high BP increases risk of GLC due to increased risk of arteriosclerosis & other vascular diseases
- Diabetes --> vascular compromise

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11. Corneal edema will result in false ____ IOP

Explanation

corneal edema --> false low
corneal scarring --> false high

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12. It is best to look for RNFL drop out with the slit lamp under high mag so you can determine whether or not the fine striations are present or absent,

Explanation

For RNFL eval, want LOW MAG or else you will likely think there is a defect when there is not. For ONH eval, you want HIGH MAG so you can see details

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13. Where is there the greatest overlap of receptive fields?

Explanation

The greatest overlap of receptive fields is found in the PM bundles. Receptive fields refer to the area in the visual field that a single neuron responds to. When receptive fields overlap, it means that multiple neurons are responding to the same area, providing a more detailed and accurate representation of that particular region. In the case of PM bundles, the overlap of receptive fields is the highest, indicating a higher level of visual acuity and sensitivity in that area.

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14. Which ethnicity is the strongest risk factor for developing 'normal tension' GLC?

Explanation

Af. Am. + Hispanics --> POAG
Chiese + Viet + Eskimo --> lower risk for POAG, but higher risk for ACG

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15. One advantage of FDT/Matrix perimeters is that they are better at detecting change in VFs since GLC VF loss gets 'deeper' (less sensitive) as it progresses.

Explanation

This is actually a disadvantage of FDT/Matrix since these perimeters bottom-out at 0dB, whereas W/W perimeters can go into the negative numbers to show the relative change between the pt's different VF tests.

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16. Which of the following does NOT require treatment (assume the signs below are the only evidence you are basing you decision from).

Explanation

If you are providing care for a pt for the first time and you notice a slit defect, it would be best to monitor at this point. Since you have no idea about the change/progression of the condition, it would be too soon to treat, and it could be a pseudo-defect. If they have cooresponding ONH damage, then it would be a good idea to treat.

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17. What is the standard of care in GLC detection & management?

Explanation

Dr. Comer indicated that pachymetry will most likely become the standard of care, but at this point (as least legally) it is W/W perimetry

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18. What is the most common mode of GLC progression?

Explanation

Denser 79%
Increased size 53%
New VF in same hemifeld 50%
Improvement 2% (temporary)

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19. Match the pupil response with the type of ON damage.

Explanation

If a pt does not have good direct light responses, always do near reflexes. Near reflexes should NOT be quicker than light reflexes

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20. Parapapillary atrophy represents extensive damage to the ONH.

Explanation

Parapapillary atrophy can precede GLC ONH damage by years. It is most commonly associated with age and is not a very strong sign for GLC. It is more common in DIFFUSE ONH damage & LTG. DDx RPE crescent

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21. GLC functional changes can precede structural damage by years

Explanation

Opposite! Structural damage can precede functional changes by years (pre-perimetric GLC)

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22. Which area of the ON is focal damage most likely to occur?

Explanation

Focal damage is most likely to occur in the inferior area of the ON.

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23. What is the minimum number of VFs that should within the 1st 2 years of GLC diagnosis?

Explanation

At least 3 the 1st year & 3 the 2nd year to determine rate of progression and RO rapid progression

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24. For every ____ microns thinner CCT than normal, there is a ____% increased risk for GLC damage.

Explanation

For every 40 microns thinner central corneal thickness (CCT) than normal, there is a 70% increased risk for glaucoma (GLC) damage. This means that as the CCT decreases by 40 microns, the risk of GLC damage increases by 70%. This relationship suggests that thinner CCT may be a risk factor for developing glaucoma.

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25. What % of normal pts have C:D > 0.7?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2% because it is the percentage of normal patients who have a C:D (Cup-to-Disc) ratio greater than 0.7. This means that out of all the normal patients, only 2% of them have an optic cup size that is more than 70% of the optic disc size.

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26. Indicate which areas of the lamina cribosa tend to have larger pore size.

Explanation

Superior & inferior LC coorespond to the arcuate bundles. Larger diameter fibers (M cells) pass through superior & inferior poles (theory that M cells are affected 1st in GLC, which is the basis of FDT technology)

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27. Most early VF loss in GLC occurs in the periphery and progresses centrally, eventually leading to blindness if left untreated.

Explanation

Most early GLC VF loss occurs centrally, and later in the periphery

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28. Like many signs of GLC, drance hemes are not highly specific to GLC

Explanation

Drance hemes are common, but transient. Precedes ONH damage / VF loss by years. Indicates chronic vascular insufficiency...future damage is coming

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29. I-Care tonometry has many advantages including: no anesthetic needed, portable, less affected by biomechanical factors compared to NCT

Explanation

I-Care is portable & does not require anesthetic, however it is still applanates and therefore is susceptible to IOP inaccuracies due to corneal biomech factors

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30. Where are paracentral scotomas most likely to appear in early GLC VF loss (in terms of VF, not retina)?

Explanation

Occur in nasal VF because arcuates are affected which are in the temporal retina. Can also occur beyond 20 deg superior.

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31. ____% of eyes w/ drance hemes will develop VF loss progression over the next 16 mo

Explanation

Many eyes w/ drance hemes develop a focal notch at the location of drance heme & cooresponding VF defect

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32. List the following procedures in the order they should be performed.

Explanation

Need to do pachymetry before the cornea is touched (before GONIO & TONOMETRY)
Need to do imaging before pachymetry

At least 3 hours after waking up
At least 3 months after cataract sx
At least 3 6 months after refractive sx

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33. Indicate all the signs/symptoms associated with DIFFUSE axon loss.

Explanation

Diffuse Axon Loss:
- generalized cup increase (ROUND)
- generalized RNFL drop out
- general depression of VF
- Tritan CV defect
- increased latency & amp on ERG
- often in younger pts & higher IOPs

Focal Axon Loss:
- ONH damage in localized regions (notching, vertical cup enlargement, occasionally temporal rim)
- RNFL loss localize to arcuate bundles (slit defects, wedge defects)
- Focal VF loss; arcuates damaged most often (nasal step, paracentral scotomas)
- often in elderly, normal/slightly elevated IOPs

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34. Indicate ALL of the DDx's for drance hemes

Explanation

Drance hemes, also known as flame-shaped hemorrhages, are typically seen in the retina and can be indicative of various underlying conditions. The given answer options include DM (diabetes mellitus), anti-coagulant use, migraine, PVD (peripheral vascular disease), and AION (anterior ischemic optic neuropathy). These conditions are known to be associated with the development of drance hemes. However, it is important to note that this list is not exhaustive, and other conditions such as CRVO (central retinal vein occlusion) and cardiovascular disease can also cause drance hemes.

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Thicker corneas will have a false high IOP reading on GAT.
Nasal steps do NOT cross horizontal midline
You do not need an increase an IOP or VF loss to diagnose GLC.
Cupping precedes pallor in GLC
Which of the following GLC meds does not work at night?
Small scleral canals tend to be related to what type of refractive...
1 mmHg increase in IOP results in ___% increased risk for GLC damage
Zone Alpha is more peripheral than Zone Beta
1 tonometry reading has low sensitivity and relatively high specificiy
Which of the following systemic disease results in slower recycling of...
Corneal edema will result in false ____ IOP
It is best to look for RNFL drop out with the slit lamp under high mag...
Where is there the greatest overlap of receptive fields?
Which ethnicity is the strongest risk factor for developing...
One advantage of FDT/Matrix perimeters is that they are better at...
Which of the following does NOT require treatment (assume the signs...
What is the standard of care in GLC detection & management?
What is the most common mode of GLC progression?
Match the pupil response with the type of ON damage.
Parapapillary atrophy represents extensive damage to the ONH.
GLC functional changes can precede structural damage by years
Which area of the ON is focal damage most likely to occur?
What is the minimum number of VFs that should within the 1st 2 years...
For every ____ microns thinner CCT than normal, there is a ____%...
What % of normal pts have C:D > 0.7?
Indicate which areas of the lamina cribosa tend to have larger pore...
Most early VF loss in GLC occurs in the periphery and progresses...
Like many signs of GLC, drance hemes are not highly specific to GLC
I-Care tonometry has many advantages including: no anesthetic needed,...
Where are paracentral scotomas most likely to appear in early GLC VF...
____% of eyes w/ drance hemes will develop VF loss progression over...
List the following procedures in the order they should be performed.
Indicate all the signs/symptoms associated with DIFFUSE axon loss.
Indicate ALL of the DDx's for drance hemes
Alert!

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