ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 2

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:

    • A.

      An error

    • B.

      A fault

    • C.

      A failure

    • D.

      A defect

    • E.

      A mistake

    Correct Answer
    C. A failure
    Explanation
    A failure refers to a situation where the visible behavior of a system deviates from what is expected or specified by the end-users. It implies that the system is not functioning correctly or as intended. This can occur due to various reasons such as errors, faults, defects, or mistakes in the system. However, a failure specifically highlights the discrepancy between the expected and actual behavior, indicating that something has gone wrong in the system's performance.

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  • 2. 

    Regression testing should be performed:

    • A.

      Every week

    • B.

      After the software has changed

    • C.

      As often as possible

    • D.

      When the environment has changed

    • E.

      When the project manager says

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. After the software has changed
    D. When the environment has changed
    Explanation
    Regression testing should be performed after the software has changed and when the environment has changed. This is because regression testing is done to ensure that the changes made to the software do not introduce any new bugs or issues and that the existing functionality still works as expected. Therefore, it is important to perform regression testing after any changes have been made to the software to catch any potential regressions. Additionally, regression testing should also be done when the environment has changed to ensure that the software functions correctly in the new environment.

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  • 3. 

    IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

    • A.

      Test items

    • B.

      Test deliverables

    • C.

      Test tasks

    • D.

      Test environment

    • E.

      Test specification

    Correct Answer
    E. Test specification
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "test specification". The IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard includes test items, test deliverables, test tasks, and test environment. However, it does not include a specific section for test specification. Test specification is typically included in the test plan, but it is not explicitly mentioned in the IEEE 829 standard.

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  • 4. 

    Testing should be stopped when:

    • A.

      All the planned tests have been run

    • B.

      Time has run out

    • C.

      All faults have been fixed correctly

    • D.

      All the planned tests have been run and all faults have been fixed correctly

    • E.

      It depends on the risks for the system being tested

    Correct Answer
    E. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
    Explanation
    Testing should be stopped when it depends on the risks for the system being tested. This means that the decision to stop testing should be based on the level of risk associated with the system. If the risks are deemed acceptable or within the tolerance level, testing can be stopped. However, if the risks are high or there is a potential for severe consequences, testing should continue until the risks are mitigated or reduced to an acceptable level. This ensures that the system is thoroughly tested and any potential issues are identified and addressed before deployment.

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  • 5. 

    Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:

    • A.

      1000, 5000, 99999

    • B.

      9999, 50000, 100000

    • C.

      10000, 50000, 99999

    • D.

      10000, 99999

    • E.

      9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

    Correct Answer
    C. 10000, 50000, 99999
    Explanation
    The given answer, 10000, 50000, 99999, is a result of designing tests for valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries. These inputs cover the lower boundary (10000), an equivalence class within the valid range (50000), and the upper boundary (99999) of the order numbers on the stock control system. By testing these values, we can ensure that the system handles both the minimum and maximum values correctly, as well as a representative value within the valid range.

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  • 6. 

    Consider the following statements about early test design:   i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix iii. early test design can find faults iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements v. early test design takes more effort

    • A.

      I, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false

    • B.

      Iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false

    • C.

      Iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false

    • D.

      I, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

    • E.

      I & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

    Correct Answer
    A. I, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
    Explanation
    Early test design can prevent fault multiplication by identifying and addressing potential faults early in the development process. It can also find faults that may have been overlooked during requirements analysis. Additionally, early test design can cause changes to the requirements as faults are discovered and addressed. However, faults found during early test design are not necessarily more expensive to fix, and early test design does not necessarily require more effort.

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  • 7. 

    Non-functional system testing includes:

    • A.

      Testing to see where the system does not function properly

    • B.

      Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability

    • C.

      Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action

    • D.

      Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function

    • E.

      Testing for functions that should not exist

    Correct Answer
    B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
    Explanation
    Non-functional system testing refers to the testing of quality attributes of a system, such as performance and usability. This type of testing focuses on evaluating how well the system performs under different conditions and how user-friendly it is. It helps identify any issues or weaknesses related to the system's performance, responsiveness, scalability, and overall user experience. By conducting non-functional system testing, organizations can ensure that their system meets the required standards and delivers a satisfactory user experience.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?

    • A.

      Status accounting of configuration items

    • B.

      Auditing conformance to ISO9001

    • C.

      Identification of test versions

    • D.

      Record of changes to documentation over time

    • E.

      Controlled library access

    Correct Answer
    B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
    Explanation
    Auditing conformance to ISO9001 is not part of configuration management because ISO9001 is a quality management standard that focuses on ensuring consistent quality in products and services. Configuration management, on the other hand, is a process that involves managing and controlling changes to a system's configuration items, such as hardware, software, and documentation. While auditing and quality management are important aspects of overall project management, they are not specifically related to configuration management.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

    • A.

      To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately

    • B.

      To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

    • C.

      To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once

    • D.

      To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

    • E.

      To specify how the software should be divided into modules

    Correct Answer
    C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
    Explanation
    The main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small is to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once. This means that the strategy outlines a plan for integrating different modules of the software system, determining the order in which they should be combined and the number of modules that should be integrated at a given time. This helps in managing the complexity of integration testing and ensures a systematic approach to combining modules for testing purposes.

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  • 10. 

    What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

    • A.

      To know when a specific test has finished its execution

    • B.

      To ensure that the test case specification is complete

    • C.

      To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

    • D.

      To know when test planning is complete

    • E.

      To plan when to stop testing

    Correct Answer
    E. To plan when to stop testing
    Explanation
    The purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan is to plan when to stop testing. This criteria helps in determining the point at which testing activities can be considered complete, based on certain predefined conditions or objectives. It ensures that testing is not continued indefinitely and helps in managing resources and time effectively. By setting specific criteria, such as achieving a certain level of test coverage or meeting specific quality standards, the test team can determine when it is appropriate to conclude testing activities.

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  • 11. 

    Consider the following statements:   i. an incident may be closed without being fixed ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

    • A.

      Ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false

    • B.

      I and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false

    • C.

      I, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false

    • D.

      I and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false

    • E.

      I is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

    Correct Answer
    B. I and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false. This means that incidents may not be raised against documentation, and incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test. However, an incident may be closed without being fixed, the final stage of incident tracking is not fixing, and the incident record does include information on test environments.

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  • 12. 

    Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:   Read P Read Q IF P+Q > 100 THEN Print “Large” ENDIF If P > 50 THEN Print “P Large” ENDIF

    • A.

      1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    • B.

      1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    • C.

      1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage

    • D.

      2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    • E.

      2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    Explanation
    The code has two if statements. For statement coverage, we need to test both if statements, so only one test is required. For branch coverage, we need to test both the true and false branches of each if statement. The first if statement has two branches (P+Q > 100 is either true or false), and the second if statement has two branches (P > 50 is either true or false). Therefore, a total of two tests are required for branch coverage.

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  • 13. 

    Given the following:   Switch PC on Start “outlook” IF outlook appears THEN Send an email Close outlook

    • A.

      1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage

    • B.

      1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    • C.

      1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage

    • D.

      2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    • E.

      2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    Explanation
    The given code snippet has 4 statements: "Switch PC on", "Start 'outlook'", "IF outlook appears THEN", and "Close outlook". To achieve statement coverage, at least one test is needed that executes all 4 statements.

    The code also has 2 branches: one branch for the "IF outlook appears THEN" statement, and one branch for the "Close outlook" statement. To achieve branch coverage, at least 2 tests are needed: one test that executes the "IF outlook appears THEN" branch and another test that executes the "Close outlook" branch.

    Therefore, the correct answer is "1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage".

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  • 14. 

    14. Given the following code, which is true:   IF A > B THEN C = A – B ELSE C = A + B ENDIF Read D IF C = D Then Print “Error” ENDIF

    • A.

      1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    • B.

      2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    • C.

      2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage

    • D.

      3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    • E.

      3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    Explanation
    The given code has two branches: one for the "IF" statement and one for the "ELSE" statement. To achieve branch coverage, we need to test both branches. Therefore, we need 2 tests for branch coverage. Additionally, the code has four statements: the "IF" statement, the assignment statement for C = A - B, the assignment statement for C = A + B, and the "Print" statement. To achieve statement coverage, we need to test all four statements. Therefore, we need 2 tests for statement coverage.

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  • 15. 

    Consider the following:   Pick up and read the newspaper Look at what is on television If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program Otherwise Continue reading the newspaper If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

    • A.

      SC = 1 and DC = 1

    • B.

      SC = 1 and DC = 2

    • C.

      SC = 1 and DC = 3

    • D.

      SC = 2 and DC = 2

    • E.

      SC = 2 and DC = 3

    Correct Answer
    E. SC = 2 and DC = 3
    Explanation
    "Otherwise" means ELSE...the next "IF" is therefore a nested IF

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  • 16. 

    The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

    • A.

      Attend a tool exhibition

    • B.

      Invite a vendor to give a demo

    • C.

      Analyse your needs and requirements

    • D.

      Find out what your budget would be for the tool

    • E.

      Search the internet

    Correct Answer
    C. Analyse your needs and requirements
    Explanation
    To effectively choose a test tool, it is crucial to first analyze your needs and requirements. This step allows you to identify the specific functionalities and features that are essential for your testing process. By understanding your requirements, you can narrow down your options and focus on tools that align with your needs. This approach ensures that you select a tool that will effectively address your testing challenges and improve your overall testing efficiency.

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  • 17. 

    When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

    • A.

      A small team to establish the best way to use the tool

    • B.

      Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool

    • C.

      The independent testing team

    • D.

      The managers to see what projects it should be used in

    • E.

      The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

    Correct Answer
    B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
    Explanation
    When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool. This is because different individuals or teams may have different requirements and perspectives on how to best utilize the tool. By involving all potential users from the beginning, it allows for a comprehensive understanding of the tool's capabilities and limitations. It also promotes collaboration and knowledge sharing among team members, ensuring that the tool is utilized effectively across the organization. Additionally, involving all potential users early on can help identify any issues or challenges that may arise during implementation, allowing for timely resolution.

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  • 18. 

    What can static analysis NOT find?

    • A.

      The use of a variable before it has been defined

    • B.

      Unreachable (“dead”) code

    • C.

      Whether the value stored in a variable is correct

    • D.

      The re-definition of a variable before it has been used

    • E.

      Array bound violations

    Correct Answer
    C. Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
    Explanation
    Static analysis is a method used to analyze code without actually executing it. It can detect certain issues like the use of a variable before it has been defined, unreachable code, the re-definition of a variable before it has been used, and array bound violations. However, static analysis cannot determine whether the value stored in a variable is correct. It can only identify potential issues based on the code structure and syntax, but cannot verify the correctness of the values assigned to variables during runtime.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

    • A.

      Equivalence partitioning

    • B.

      State transition testing

    • C.

      LCSAJ

    • D.

      Syntax testing

    • E.

      Boundary value analysis

    Correct Answer
    C. LCSAJ
    Explanation
    LCSAJ stands for Linear Code Sequence and Jump, which is a white box testing technique used to test the flow of control within a program. It involves testing all possible linear sequences of executable statements and jumps within a program. Unlike black box techniques such as equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, syntax testing, and boundary value analysis, LCSAJ requires knowledge of the internal structure and logic of the program being tested. Therefore, LCSAJ is not a black box technique.

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  • 20. 

    Beta testing is:

    • A.

      Performed by customers at their own site

    • B.

      Performed by customers at their software developer’s site

    • C.

      Performed by an independent test team

    • D.

      Useful to test bespoke software

    • E.

      Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

    Correct Answer
    A. Performed by customers at their own site
    Explanation
    Beta testing is a type of testing where customers use the software at their own site, outside of the software developer's location. This allows customers to test the software in their own environment and provide feedback on its performance, usability, and any issues they encounter. Beta testing is typically done towards the end of the software development lifecycle to gather real-world feedback before the software is released to the general public.

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  • 21. 

    Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:   i. static analysis ii. performance testing iii. test management iv. dynamic analysis v. test running vi. test data preparation

    • A.

      Developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v

    • B.

      Developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi

    • C.

      Developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi

    • D.

      Developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v

    • E.

      Developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

    Correct Answer
    B. Developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
    Explanation
    Developers typically use static analysis (i) to analyze code for potential errors or vulnerabilities, dynamic analysis (iv) to analyze code behavior during runtime, and test data preparation (vi) to create test cases and input data. On the other hand, an independent test team typically uses performance testing (ii) to assess system performance, test management (iii) to plan and organize testing activities, test running (v) to execute test cases, and test data preparation (vi) to create test cases and input data.

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  • 22. 

    The main focus of acceptance testing is:

    • A.

      Finding faults in the system

    • B.

      Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users

    • C.

      Testing the system with other systems

    • D.

      Testing for a business perspective

    • E.

      Testing by an independent test team

    Correct Answer
    D. Testing for a business perspective
    Explanation
    Acceptance testing is a type of testing that is performed to ensure that the system meets the business requirements and is acceptable to all users. It focuses on testing the system from a business perspective, ensuring that it meets the needs and expectations of the stakeholders. This type of testing aims to validate the system's functionality, usability, and overall suitability for the intended business use. It involves testing the system against the business requirements, user scenarios, and expected outcomes to ensure that it performs as expected and satisfies the business needs.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:

    • A.

      Black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique

    • B.

      White box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique

    • C.

      Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique

    • D.

      Black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

    • E.

      White box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

    Correct Answer
    A. Black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
    Explanation
    The statement "black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique" is false. Black box design techniques focus on testing the functionality of a component without considering its internal structure or implementation details. These techniques do not necessarily have an associated measurement technique because they are primarily concerned with the inputs and outputs of the component. Measurement techniques are more commonly associated with white box design techniques, which involve testing the internal structure and implementation of the component.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT true:

    • A.

      Inspection is the most formal review process

    • B.

      Inspections should be led by a trained leader

    • C.

      Managers can perform inspections on management documents

    • D.

      Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

    • E.

      Inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

    Correct Answer
    D. Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
    Explanation
    Inspection is a formal review process that involves comparing documents with predecessor documents. This means that inspection requires the existence of written documents to be compared. Therefore, the statement "inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents" is not true.

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  • 25. 

    A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Generating expected outputs

    • B.

      Replaying inputs according to a programmed script

    • C.

      Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes

    • D.

      Recording test inputs

    • E.

      Reading test values from a data file

    Correct Answer
    A. Generating expected outputs
    Explanation
    A typical commercial test execution tool is capable of performing various tasks such as replaying inputs, comparing expected outcomes with actual outcomes, recording test inputs, and reading test values from a data file. However, generating expected outputs is not a function typically performed by these tools. This task usually requires human intervention and expertise to determine the expected outputs based on the test inputs and the system under test.

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  • 26. 

    The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

    • A.

      Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

    • B.

      Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

    • C.

      Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

    • D.

      Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

    • E.

      Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

    Correct Answer
    A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
    Explanation
    Re-testing refers to running a test again to ensure that the previously identified faults have been fixed. On the other hand, regression testing aims to identify any unexpected side effects that may have been introduced as a result of fixing the faults or making changes to the software. Therefore, the correct answer explains that re-testing involves running a test again, while regression testing focuses on identifying unexpected side effects.

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  • 27. 

    Expected results are:

    • A.

      Only important in system testing

    • B.

      Only used in component testing

    • C.

      Never specified in advance

    • D.

      Most useful when specified in advance

    • E.

      Derived from the code

    Correct Answer
    D. Most useful when specified in advance
    Explanation
    When expected results are specified in advance, it becomes easier to determine whether the system or component being tested is functioning correctly. It allows for clear criteria to be set, ensuring that the testing process is focused and efficient. Having specified expected results in advance also helps in identifying any deviations or discrepancies from the desired outcome, enabling prompt resolution of issues. Therefore, specifying expected results in advance is considered the most useful approach in testing.

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  • 28. 

    Test managers should not:

    • A.

      Report on deviations from the project plan

    • B.

      Sign the system off for release

    • C.

      Re-allocate resource to meet original plans

    • D.

      Raise incidents on faults that they have found

    • E.

      Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

    Correct Answer
    C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
    Explanation
    Test managers should not re-allocate resources to meet original plans. This means that they should not change or adjust the allocation of resources in order to adhere to the original project plans. This could potentially disrupt the project and lead to delays or other issues. It is important for test managers to report on deviations from the project plan, sign the system off for release, raise incidents on faults they have found, and provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement.

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  • 29. 

    Unreachable code would best be found using:

    • A.

      Code reviews

    • B.

      Code inspections

    • C.

      A coverage tool

    • D.

      A test management tool

    • E.

      A static analysis tool

    Correct Answer
    E. A static analysis tool
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool would be the best option for finding unreachable code. Unlike code reviews or inspections which rely on human analysis, a static analysis tool can automatically scan the code and detect any sections that are not being executed. It can identify code that is unreachable due to conditional statements, loops, or other control flow structures. This makes it a more efficient and reliable method for identifying and removing unreachable code from a codebase. Coverage tools and test management tools are more focused on measuring test coverage and managing test cases, so they may not be as effective in identifying unreachable code.

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  • 30. 

    A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:

    • A.

      A dynamic analysis tool

    • B.

      A test execution tool

    • C.

      A debugging tool

    • D.

      A test management tool

    • E.

      A configuration management tool

    Correct Answer
    D. A test management tool
    Explanation
    A test management tool is a tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests. It helps in managing the entire testing process by providing features such as test planning, test case creation, test execution tracking, defect management, and reporting. This tool helps in organizing and coordinating testing activities, ensuring that all necessary tests are executed and documented, and providing visibility into the testing progress and results.

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  • 31. 

    What information need not be included in a test incident report:

    • A.

      How to fix the fault

    • B.

      How to reproduce the fault

    • C.

      Test environment details

    • D.

      Severity, priority

    • E.

      The actual and expected outcomes

    Correct Answer
    A. How to fix the fault
    Explanation
    The information that need not be included in a test incident report is how to fix the fault. A test incident report is used to document and communicate the details of a defect or issue found during testing. It typically includes information such as how to reproduce the fault, test environment details, severity and priority of the issue, and the actual and expected outcomes. However, the report does not need to provide instructions on how to fix the fault, as that is typically the responsibility of the development or maintenance team.

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  • 32. 

    Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes: 1. led by author 2. undocumented 3. no management participation 4. led by a trained moderator or leader 5. uses entry exit criteria   s) inspection t) peer review u) informal review v) walkthrough

    • A.

      S = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1

    • B.

      S = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1

    • C.

      S = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4

    • D.

      S = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

    • E.

      S = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

    Correct Answer
    B. S = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
    Explanation
    The expression that best matches the given characteristics or review processes is s=4 and 5, t=3, u=2, v=1. This is because the process is led by a trained moderator or leader (s=4) and also uses entry exit criteria (s=5). It is undocumented (t=3) and there is no management participation (u=2). Additionally, the process involves a walkthrough (v=1).

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

    • A.

      Business process-based testing

    • B.

      Performance, load and stress testing

    • C.

      Requirements-based testing

    • D.

      Usability testing

    • E.

      Top-down integration testing

    Correct Answer
    E. Top-down integration testing
    Explanation
    Top-down integration testing is not part of system testing because it is a type of integration testing. System testing focuses on testing the entire system as a whole, ensuring that all components work together correctly. It includes various types of testing such as business process-based testing, performance testing, requirements-based testing, and usability testing. Top-down integration testing, on the other hand, is a specific approach to integration testing where higher-level modules are tested first before lower-level modules are integrated. Therefore, it is not considered a part of system testing.

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  • 34. 

    What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:

    • A.

      Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour

    • B.

      Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code

    • C.

      Expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases

    • D.

      Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run

    • E.

      Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

    Correct Answer
    A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
    Explanation
    The statement that expected outcomes are defined by the software's behavior is false. Expected outcomes are not solely determined by the software's behavior, but rather they are derived from a specification. The behavior of the software is just one factor that contributes to the expected outcomes, which also include outputs to a screen, changes to files and databases, timing constraints, and other specifications outlined in the testing process.

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  • 35. 

    The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

    • A.

      ISO/IEC 12207

    • B.

      BS7925-1

    • C.

      BS7925-2

    • D.

      ANSI/IEEE 829

    • E.

      ANSI/IEEE 729

    Correct Answer
    B. BS7925-1
    Explanation
    BS7925-1 is the correct answer because it is a standard that specifically focuses on testing terms and provides definitions for them. ISO/IEC 12207 is a standard for software life cycle processes, not specifically for testing terms. BS7925-2 is a standard for software component testing, not for testing terms. ANSI/IEEE 829 is a standard for software test documentation, not for testing terms. ANSI/IEEE 729 is not a recognized standard for testing terms. Therefore, BS7925-1 is the most appropriate standard for providing definitions of testing terms.

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  • 36. 

    The cost of fixing a fault:

    • A.

      Is not important

    • B.

      Increases as we move the product towards live use

    • C.

      Decreases as we move the product towards live use

    • D.

      Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

    • E.

      Can never be determined

    Correct Answer
    B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
    Explanation
    As the product moves towards live use, the cost of fixing a fault increases. This is because any issues or faults discovered during the testing phase or after the product has been deployed can have a significant impact on the user experience, reputation, and overall success of the product. Fixing these faults may require additional resources, time, and effort, which can be more expensive compared to identifying and fixing them earlier in the development process. Therefore, it is crucial to address and resolve faults as early as possible to minimize costs and ensure a smooth product launch.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:

    • A.

      Test items (i.e. software versions)

    • B.

      What is not to be tested

    • C.

      Test environments

    • D.

      Quality plans

    • E.

      Schedules and deadlines

    Correct Answer
    D. Quality plans
    Explanation
    The Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard includes various components such as test items, what is not to be tested, test environments, and schedules and deadlines. Quality plans, on the other hand, are not typically included in the Test Plan document. Quality plans are separate documents that outline the overall quality objectives and strategies for the project, whereas the Test Plan document focuses specifically on the testing activities and approach. Therefore, the correct answer is Quality plans.

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  • 38. 

    Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

    • A.

      No, because they apply to development documentation

    • B.

      No, because they are normally applied before testing

    • C.

      No, because they do not apply to the test documentation

    • D.

      Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality

    • E.

      Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

    Correct Answer
    D. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
    Explanation
    Reviews and inspections can be considered part of testing because they help detect faults and improve the quality of the software being developed. Reviews and inspections involve examining the documentation, code, or other artifacts to identify defects, errors, or areas for improvement. By identifying these issues early on, it helps in improving the overall quality of the software and reduces the likelihood of defects being present in the final product. Therefore, reviews and inspections are an important part of the testing process.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

    • A.

      Measuring response time

    • B.

      Measuring transaction rates

    • C.

      Recovery testing

    • D.

      Simulating many users

    • E.

      Generating many transactions

    Correct Answer
    C. Recovery testing
    Explanation
    Recovery testing is not part of performance testing. Performance testing involves measuring response time, transaction rates, simulating many users, and generating many transactions to assess the system's performance under different loads. Recovery testing, on the other hand, focuses on testing the system's ability to recover from failures or disruptions. It checks how well the system can recover its data and functionality after a crash, power outage, or other unexpected events. While recovery testing is an important aspect of overall system testing, it is not specifically related to performance evaluation.

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  • 40. 

    Error guessing is best used:

    • A.

      As the first approach to deriving test cases

    • B.

      After more formal techniques have been applied

    • C.

      By inexperienced testers

    • D.

      After the system has gone live

    • E.

      Only by end users

    Correct Answer
    B. After more formal techniques have been applied
    Explanation
    Error guessing is best used after more formal techniques have been applied. This means that error guessing should not be the primary approach to deriving test cases. Instead, it should be used as a supplementary technique after other more structured and systematic methods have been used. This is because formal techniques such as boundary value analysis, equivalence partitioning, and decision tables are more reliable and comprehensive in identifying test cases. Error guessing can then be used to uncover additional defects or issues that may not have been identified by the formal techniques.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 05, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Devilbrand
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