Fy 15 Med-surg: CNA/Hct Annual Education Policy/Procedure/Protocol Quiz
Questions and Answers
- 1.
RHJ is a latex free facility.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement "RHJ is a latex free facility" is false. This means that RHJ is not a latex-free facility.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the facility's (RHJ VAMC) emergency number?
- A.
5911
- B.
6911
- C.
7911
- D.
8911
Correct Answer
C. 7911Explanation
The correct answer is 7911 because it is the only option that ends with "911," which is commonly associated with emergency numbers. The other options do not have the same pattern and are therefore unlikely to be emergency numbers.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Ceiling lifts are the only safe patient handling devices that are available at the VA for safe patient handling.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because it claims that ceiling lifts are the only safe patient handling devices available at the VA for safe patient handling. This is not true as there are other safe patient handling devices available apart from ceiling lifts. Ceiling lifts are just one of the options for safe patient handling, but there are other devices such as transfer slings, transfer boards, and hydraulic lifts that can also be used for safe patient handling at the VA.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Nursing NA/HCT are allowed to chart on the Hourly Rounds Flowsheet and the Nursing shift note.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Nursing NA/HCT are allowed to chart on the Hourly Rounds Flowsheet and the Nursing shift note. This means that nursing NA/HCT have the authority to document their observations and actions on both the Hourly Rounds Flowsheet and the Nursing shift note. This allows for accurate and comprehensive record-keeping of patient care, ensuring that important information is captured and can be easily accessed by other healthcare professionals.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the acceptable range for pulse rate in an adult patient?
- A.
50 - 100 beats/min.
- B.
60 - 100 beats/min.
- C.
70 - 100 beats/min.
- D.
80 - 100 beats/min.
Correct Answer
B. 60 - 100 beats/min.Explanation
The acceptable range for pulse rate in an adult patient is typically between 60 and 100 beats per minute. This range is considered normal and indicates a healthy heart rate. A pulse rate below 60 may indicate bradycardia, while a pulse rate above 100 may indicate tachycardia. It is important to monitor pulse rate as it can provide valuable information about a person's cardiovascular health.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the acceptable range for respirations in the adult patient?
- A.
14 - 20
- B.
14 - 24
- C.
12 - 20
- D.
12 - 24
Correct Answer
C. 12 - 20Explanation
The acceptable range for respirations in the adult patient is 12 - 20 breaths per minute. This range indicates a normal respiratory rate and is considered within the healthy range for adults. A respiratory rate below 12 or above 20 could indicate an underlying health issue and may require further evaluation and medical intervention.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the acceptable range for 02 saturation?
- A.
90 - 100
- B.
92 - 100
- C.
95 - 100
- D.
98 - 100
Correct Answer
C. 95 - 100Explanation
The acceptable range for O2 saturation is 95 - 100. This range indicates that the blood is adequately saturated with oxygen, which is necessary for proper functioning of the body. O2 saturation levels below 95 may indicate a lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be a sign of respiratory or cardiovascular issues.Rate this question:
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- 8.
HCTs/NAs may function in the role of sitter for a patient that is placed on suicidal precautions.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
HCTs/NAs can indeed function as sitters for patients on suicidal precautions. This means that they are responsible for closely monitoring the patient to ensure their safety and prevent any self-harm attempts. This may involve staying in the patient's room or within close proximity to provide constant supervision and support. This is an important role in ensuring the well-being of patients who are at risk of self-harm or suicide.Rate this question:
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- 9.
HCTs/NAs should participate in the Post Fall Huddle meetings.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
HCTs/NAs should participate in the Post Fall Huddle meetings because these meetings provide an opportunity to review and discuss any falls that have occurred. By involving the healthcare team and nursing assistants in these meetings, they can share their observations, insights, and any relevant information about the fall incidents. This collaborative approach helps in identifying the root causes of falls, implementing preventive measures, and improving patient safety. Therefore, it is important for HCTs/NAs to actively participate in Post Fall Huddle meetings.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the proper procedure to verify a patient's identification?
- A.
Ask the patient to state his/her full name and last four of social security number
- B.
Ask the patient to state his/her last name and last four of social security number
- C.
Ask the patient to state his/her full name and full social security number
- D.
Ask the patient to state his/her last name and full social security number
Correct Answer
C. Ask the patient to state his/her full name and full social security number -
- 11.
How many staff members are required when using a lift for safe patient handling?
- A.
It can be used with only one person
- B.
A minimum of 2 people
- C.
At least 3 people if spinal cord injury (SCI) patient
Correct Answer
B. A minimum of 2 peopleExplanation
When using a lift for safe patient handling, a minimum of 2 people are required. This is because one person needs to operate the lift and ensure the patient's safety, while another person assists in positioning and supporting the patient during the transfer. Having two people helps to distribute the workload and reduces the risk of injury to both the patient and the staff members involved.Rate this question:
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- 12.
According to the CPM 136-12-02, who does one call to obtain assistance for a hard of hearing patient or a language interpreter?
- A.
AT & T Relay Service
- B.
TTY Phone
- C.
Bellsouth Relay Service
- D.
Both A & B
Correct Answer
D. Both A & BExplanation
According to CPM 136-12-02, one can call both the AT & T Relay Service and the TTY Phone to obtain assistance for a hard of hearing patient or a language interpreter.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Common areas of increased risk for pressure ulcers include all except:
- A.
Elbows
- B.
Occiput
- C.
Knees
- D.
Thighs
Correct Answer
D. ThighsExplanation
Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, occur when there is prolonged pressure on the skin, leading to tissue damage. Common areas at increased risk for pressure ulcers are bony prominences where there is less subcutaneous tissue to cushion the pressure. The elbows, occiput (back of the head), and knees are all bony areas that are susceptible to pressure ulcers. However, the thighs have more subcutaneous tissue and muscle, providing better cushioning and reducing the risk of pressure ulcers in that area.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Factors that will increase the risk of pressure ulcer development in hospitalized patients are: (select all that apply)
- A.
Dry skin
- B.
Incontinence
- C.
Spasticity
- D.
Poor positioning
Correct Answer(s)
A. Dry skin
B. Incontinence
C. Spasticity
D. Poor positioningExplanation
Dry skin, incontinence, spasticity, and poor positioning are all factors that can increase the risk of pressure ulcer development in hospitalized patients. Dry skin can lead to increased friction and shear, making the skin more susceptible to damage. Incontinence can cause prolonged exposure to moisture, which can weaken the skin and make it more prone to breakdown. Spasticity, or muscle stiffness, can lead to increased pressure on certain areas of the body, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers. Poor positioning, such as prolonged immobility or incorrect alignment, can also cause pressure to be concentrated on specific areas, leading to tissue damage.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A patient is experiencing chest pain, the nurse may ask you to perform the following tasks except:
- A.
Obtain vital signs
- B.
Obtain EKG
- C.
Obtain oxygen saturation level
- D.
Give nitroglycerin
Correct Answer
D. Give nitroglycerinExplanation
The nurse may ask the patient to perform various tasks in order to assess their condition and provide appropriate care. In the case of a patient experiencing chest pain, obtaining vital signs, obtaining an EKG, and obtaining oxygen saturation level are all important tasks to gather information about the patient's condition. However, giving nitroglycerin is not a task that the nurse would ask the patient to perform. Nitroglycerin is a medication that is typically administered by healthcare professionals to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow to the heart.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The hypoglycemia protocal is initiated when a blood sugar of less than ________ is obtained.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct Answer
C. -
- 17.
What is the acceptable range for temperture in an adult?
- A.
96.8F - 100.4F
- B.
97.8F - 100.4F
- C.
97F - 100.4F
- D.
98.6F - 100.4F
Correct Answer
A. 96.8F - 100.4FExplanation
The acceptable range for temperature in an adult is 96.8F - 100.4F. This range is considered normal for an adult's body temperature.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the average B/P in an adult patient?
- A.
< 120 / < 80 mm Hg
- B.
< 110 / < 60 mm Hg
- C.
< 120 / < 90 mm Hg
- D.
< 100 / < 70 mm Hg
Correct Answer
A. < 120 / < 80 mm HgExplanation
The given answer < 120 / < 80 mm Hg is the correct answer because it falls within the normal range for average blood pressure in an adult patient. The first number (systolic pressure) should be below 120 mm Hg and the second number (diastolic pressure) should be below 80 mm Hg. This indicates a healthy blood pressure reading and suggests that the patient's cardiovascular system is functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Pre-thickened liquids are available for patients with a diagnosis of _________.
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
Diabetes
- C.
Dysphagia
Correct Answer
C. DysphagiaExplanation
Pre-thickened liquids are available for patients with a diagnosis of dysphagia. Dysphagia is a condition characterized by difficulty swallowing, which can be caused by various factors such as neurological disorders, muscle weakness, or structural abnormalities. Thickened liquids help to reduce the risk of aspiration and choking by making it easier for individuals with dysphagia to swallow safely. These pre-thickened liquids are specifically designed for individuals with swallowing difficulties and are an important part of their dietary management.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In order to prevent a catheter acquired urinary tract infection (CAUTI), the following interventions can be provided by the CNA/HCT except:
- A.
Peri care every shift
- B.
Check for signs and symptoms of infection
- C.
Maintain no kinks in tubing or coil on bed
- D.
Notify the MD of cloudy or red urine color
Correct Answer
D. Notify the MD of cloudy or red urine colorExplanation
The CNA/HCT can provide peri care every shift, check for signs and symptoms of infection, and maintain no kinks in tubing or coil on bed to prevent a catheter acquired urinary tract infection (CAUTI). However, notifying the MD of cloudy or red urine color is not an intervention that the CNA/HCT can provide. This task falls under the responsibility of the healthcare provider or nurse who can assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When measuring the amount of urine from the foley catheter, you should measure the amount while the graduate is seated on the floor.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer, which is False, is that when measuring the amount of urine from a foley catheter, it should be done while the graduate is seated on a chair or a bed, not on the floor. This is because measuring urine output requires accuracy, and measuring it while the graduate is seated on the floor may lead to errors in measurement.Rate this question:
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- 22.
In order to protect the patient's skin, you can provide the following interventions: (select all that apply)
- A.
Bathing
- B.
Apply barrier cream to reddened areas
- C.
Limit linen to only 2 layers
- D.
Place adult briefs on patient and change every four hours
Correct Answer(s)
A. Bathing
B. Apply barrier cream to reddened areas
C. Limit linen to only 2 layersExplanation
To protect the patient's skin, several interventions can be provided. Bathing helps to keep the skin clean and free from irritants. Applying a barrier cream to reddened areas creates a protective layer and helps prevent further irritation. Limiting the linen to only 2 layers reduces friction and irritation on the skin. Placing adult briefs on the patient and changing them every four hours helps to keep the skin dry and prevent moisture-related skin issues.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All staff is responsible for implementing interventions to create a safe environment and maintain safety of all patients.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
This statement suggests that all staff members have the responsibility to implement interventions that promote a safe environment and ensure the safety of all patients. This implies that it is not solely the responsibility of a specific group or department, but rather a collective effort by all staff members. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 24.
I pledge to demonstrate the core values of the American Nurses Association code of ethics by upholding the standards of honesty and integrity. By answering yes, you certify that you are the person taking this test.
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
A. YesExplanation
The explanation for the correct answer "Yes" is that by pledging to demonstrate the core values of the American Nurses Association code of ethics, the person is committing to upholding the standards of honesty and integrity. By answering "Yes," they are certifying that they are the person taking the test, thereby affirming their commitment to the code of ethics and their honesty in taking the test.Rate this question:
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- 25.
If a patient has trouble swallowing his food then he will also have trouble feeding him/her self.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement suggests that if a patient has trouble swallowing food, they will also have trouble feeding themselves. However, this is not necessarily true. While difficulty swallowing may make it challenging to eat certain types of food or require modifications in the diet, it does not automatically imply that the patient will have trouble feeding themselves. Factors such as the severity of the swallowing difficulty, the presence of assistance or adaptive devices, and the individual's overall physical and cognitive abilities can all influence their ability to feed themselves.Rate this question:
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- 26.
If a patient is having feeding problems, you should do the following (select all that apply):
- A.
Cut meat
- B.
Butter bread
- C.
Open packages
- D.
Remind the patient to eat slowly
Correct Answer(s)
A. Cut meat
B. Butter bread
C. Open packages
D. Remind the patient to eat slowlyExplanation
If a patient is having feeding problems, there are several actions that can be taken to assist them. Cutting meat into smaller, more manageable pieces can make it easier for the patient to chew and swallow. Buttering bread can help to soften it, making it easier to consume. Opening packages can be helpful for patients who may have difficulty with fine motor skills or gripping objects. Reminding the patient to eat slowly can help prevent choking or aspiration, allowing them to eat more safely and comfortably.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How often should a patient's intake and output be recorded?
- A.
Once a day
- B.
Every 12 hours
- C.
Every 8 hours
- D.
Every 6 hours
Correct Answer
C. Every 8 hoursExplanation
Patients' intake and output should be recorded every 8 hours. This frequency allows healthcare professionals to closely monitor the patient's fluid balance and ensure they are receiving adequate hydration and eliminating waste properly. Recording intake and output every 8 hours provides a comprehensive picture of the patient's fluid status and allows for timely interventions if any imbalances or abnormalities are detected.Rate this question:
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- 28.
It is important to reposition a patient during an eight-hour shift. How often should he or she be turned?
- A.
Every 2
- B.
Every 4
- C.
Every 6
- D.
Every 8
Correct Answer
A. Every 2Explanation
Patients should be repositioned every 2 hours during an eight-hour shift. Repositioning helps prevent pressure ulcers, improves circulation, and reduces the risk of complications such as pneumonia or urinary tract infections. By repositioning every 2 hours, the patient's body weight is redistributed, relieving pressure on certain areas and allowing blood flow to reach all parts of the body. This regular repositioning schedule ensures the patient's comfort and overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The most serious problem that wrinkles in the bedclothes can cause is
- A.
Restlessness
- B.
Sleeplessness
- C.
Pressure ulcer
- D.
Bleeding and shock
Correct Answer
C. Pressure ulcerExplanation
Wrinkles in bedclothes can cause pressure ulcers. When a person lies on wrinkled bedclothes for an extended period, the wrinkles can create pressure points on the body. This pressure can restrict blood flow to the affected area, leading to tissue damage and the formation of pressure ulcers. Pressure ulcers are painful and can be difficult to treat, causing discomfort and complications for the individual. Therefore, pressure ulcers are the most serious problem that wrinkles in bedclothes can cause.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The most common site for counting the pulse is the
- A.
Carotid artery
- B.
Femoral artery
- C.
Brachial artery
- D.
Radial artery
Correct Answer
D. Radial arteryExplanation
The radial artery is the most common site for counting the pulse because it is easily accessible and located close to the surface of the skin. It is located on the wrist, on the thumb side, making it convenient for healthcare professionals to feel and count the pulse. Additionally, the radial artery is a major artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the hand, so it provides an accurate representation of the heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Feeding problems are common in patients that have the following diagnoses, select all that apply:
- A.
Strokes
- B.
Parkinson's disease
- C.
Alzheimer's
- D.
Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer(s)
A. Strokes
B. Parkinson's disease
C. Alzheimer's
D. Multiple sclerosisExplanation
Patients with strokes, Parkinson's disease, Alzheimer's, and multiple sclerosis often experience feeding problems. Strokes can affect the muscles involved in swallowing and chewing, leading to difficulties in eating. Parkinson's disease can cause dysphagia, making it challenging for patients to swallow food properly. Alzheimer's disease can lead to a decline in cognitive function, including difficulties in recognizing and using utensils, resulting in feeding problems. Multiple sclerosis can affect the nerves that control swallowing and coordination of the muscles involved in eating, causing feeding difficulties.Rate this question:
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- 32.
If a patient has a feeding problem, that means that he/she will also have a swallowing problem.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Having a feeding problem does not necessarily mean that a patient will also have a swallowing problem. Feeding problems can arise due to various reasons such as difficulty in chewing or manipulating food, loss of appetite, or aversion to certain textures or tastes. On the other hand, swallowing problems, also known as dysphagia, specifically refer to difficulties in the process of swallowing. While feeding problems can be a contributing factor to swallowing problems, they are not always synonymous.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A patient that is placed on contact isolation requires that the healthcare provider wear a gown, mask, gloves and foot covers.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because when a patient is placed on contact isolation, healthcare providers only need to wear a gown and gloves. Masks and foot covers are not necessary for contact isolation.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Is [your statement here] true or false?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given question asks whether the statement is true or false. Since the answer provided is "True", it implies that the statement is indeed true.Rate this question:
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- 35.
You are asked to take the oxygen saturation rate of a new admission, you note that the patient has on black nail polish. You inform the patient that you will need to remove the nail polish from one of her nails, you are doing this because:
- A.
Nail polish contaminates the finger senor
- B.
Nail polish increases oxygen saturation
- C.
Nail polish interferes with senor function.
Correct Answer
C. Nail polish interferes with senor function.Explanation
Nail polish interferes with sensor function. Nail polish creates a barrier between the finger and the sensor, preventing accurate readings of oxygen saturation. Removing the nail polish allows for direct contact between the finger and the sensor, ensuring accurate measurements.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When orienting a new CNA caring for a male patient, which of the following observed actions indicates a need for further orientation for the CNA?
- A.
Used clean gloves
- B.
Did not retract the foreskin before cleansing
- C.
Use the clean portion of washcloth for each cleansing wipe
- D.
Used circular motion to cleanse from urinary meatus outward.
Correct Answer
B. Did not retract the foreskin before cleansingExplanation
The CNA should retract the foreskin before cleansing the male patient's genital area. This is important for proper hygiene and to prevent any buildup of bacteria or infection. Failing to retract the foreskin indicates a lack of understanding or knowledge about this necessary step in caring for male patients.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A patient has a large black tarry stool, you do not need to report this to the nurse, stool changes as a person ages from brown to black.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Stool color can vary depending on various factors such as diet, medications, and gastrointestinal bleeding. A large black tarry stool can be an indication of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious condition that should be reported to the nurse immediately. Stool color changes should not be assumed as a normal part of aging.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 08, 2014Quiz Created by
Milly
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