6c051 01
6C051 URE Vol 01
- 1.
(001) Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?
- A.
Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts.
- B.
Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts.
- C.
Permissive acts, administrative acts, and appropriations acts.
- D.
Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.
Correct Answer
D. Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts. -
- 2.
(001) What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?
- A.
Department of Labor.
- B.
General Services Administration.
- C.
Small Business Administration.
- D.
Committee for Purchase from the Blind.
Correct Answer
C. Small Business Administration. -
- 3.
(001) Which party is the contractor?
- A.
Agent.
- B.
Principal.
- C.
Third party.
- D.
Agent and third party.
Correct Answer
C. Third party. -
- 4.
(001) What are the two categories of actual authority?
- A.
Implied and assumed.
- B.
Implied and apparent.
- C.
Express and implied.
- D.
Express and apparent.
Correct Answer
C. Express and implied. -
- 5.
(001) When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better
- A.
That neither party should suffer from the mistakes.
- B.
That the government should suffer from their mistakes.
- C.
For an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes.
- D.
That the individual and the government share the suffering from the mistakes.
Correct Answer
C. For an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes. -
- 6.
(001) Who is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds of their authority?
- A.
The CO.
- B.
The government.
- C.
The contractor.
- D.
The agent.
Correct Answer
C. The contractor. -
- 7.
(001) The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the
- A.
Government knew or should have known the true facts.
- B.
Contractor did not know and should not have known the true facts.
- C.
Government intended that the contractor rely on the acts of the government.
- D.
Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.
Correct Answer
D. Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government. -
- 8.
(001) Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of
- A.
Whether the government acted in the public’s interest.
- B.
Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.
- C.
Who would otherwise have had authority to release the information.
- D.
Whether the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action.
Correct Answer
B. Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently. -
- 9.
(001) A CO appointment must be reviewed at least
- A.
Annually.
- B.
Every two years.
- C.
Every five years.
- D.
When requested by the appointing authority.
Correct Answer
B. Every two years. -
- 10.
(001) Which statement concerning the CO’s appointment or termination is true?
- A.
In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive.
- B.
Termination of a CO may be retroactive if in the best interest of the government.
- C.
There is no authority to waive the qualification requirements for a CO as stated in the selection criteria.
- D.
Termination of a CO appointment is made verbally unless the Certificate of Appointment contains a provision for automatic termination.
Correct Answer
A. In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive. -
- 11.
(001) Which statement about the offeree is correct?
- A.
The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.
- B.
The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested.
- C.
The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.
- D.
Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.
Correct Answer
D. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer. -
- 12.
(001) Which statement about an offer is correct?
- A.
It is not enough that only the essential terms of the contract are certain.
- B.
Every term in the offer must be absolutely certain to each party of the contract.
- C.
The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain.
- D.
You cannot enter a contract with the price implied to be “a reasonable price at the time of delivery.”
Correct Answer
C. The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain. -
- 13.
(001) An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a
- A.
Cancellation.
- B.
Termination.
- C.
Revocation.
- D.
Breach of contract.
Correct Answer
C. Revocation. -
- 14.
(001) Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?
- A.
If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance.
- B.
The offer cannot dictate the place or manner of acceptance.
- C.
Acceptance must be communicated by the US mail.
- D.
Acceptance must be in writing.
Correct Answer
A. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance. -
- 15.
(001) What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
- A.
Sufficiency.
- B.
Detriment.
- C.
Acceptance.
- D.
Consideration.
Correct Answer
D. Consideration. -
- 16.
(001) What is meant by adequate consideration?
- A.
The actual worth or a promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit.
- B.
The consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform.
- C.
Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment.
- D.
The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.
Correct Answer
D. The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain. -
- 17.
(001) What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?
- A.
Having an unsound mind.
- B.
Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.
- C.
Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.
- D.
Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.
Correct Answer
D. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. -
- 18.
(001) Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?
- A.
A 23-year-old car salesperson.
- B.
A 17-year-old college student.
- C.
A 25-year-old intoxicated person.
- D.
A 50-year-old patient in a mental institution.
Correct Answer
A. A 23-year-old car salesperson. -
- 19.
(001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is
- A.
Lawful if not challenged with 120 days.
- B.
Lawful only to the party who made the offer.
- C.
Unlawful and void and will not be enforced.
- D.
Unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.
Correct Answer
C. Unlawful and void and will not be enforced. -
- 20.
(001) Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when
- A.
The agreement concerns minor crimes.
- B.
Only a portion of the contract was illegal.
- C.
The agreement was made to restrain trade.
- D.
The innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect.
Correct Answer
D. The innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect. -
- 21.
(001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?
- A.
Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.
- B.
CO determining the price to be fair and reasonable.
- C.
CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs.
- D.
Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made.
Correct Answer
A. Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance. -
- 22.
(001) What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?
- A.
Process of claim under the Disputes Act.
- B.
Request of a no-cost settlement from the contractor.
- C.
Charge to the individual who committed the unauthorized commitment.
- D.
Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.
Correct Answer
D. Resolution by the GAO claim procedures. -
- 23.
(002) What publications series represents Contracting?
- A.
62
- B.
63
- C.
64
- D.
65
Correct Answer
C. 64 -
- 24.
(002) Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?
- A.
AFI 38-101.
- B.
AFI 64-102.
- C.
AFI 65-109.
- D.
AFPD 64-1.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 64-102. -
- 25.
(002) FAR is issued under the joint authority of the
- A.
Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the NASA.
- B.
Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Administrator of NASA.
- C.
Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense.
- D.
Secretary of Defense, the Administrator of NASA, and the National Security Council.
Correct Answer
A. Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the NASA. -
- 26.
(002) What councils prepare all FAR revisions?
- A.
DAR Council and the National Security Acquisition Council.
- B.
DAR Council and the CAA Council.
- C.
General Council and the National Security Acquisition Council.
- D.
General Council and the CAA Council.
Correct Answer
B. DAR Council and the CAA Council. -
- 27.
(002) What is meant by implementing FAR?
- A.
Adding material that is unique to the Air Force.
- B.
Adding material that is unique to DOD.
- C.
Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.
- D.
Numbering when the text cannot be integrated intelligibly with its FAR counterparts.
Correct Answer
C. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR. -
- 28.
(002) Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?
- A.
219.502–2.
- B.
219.502–2–70.
- C.
5319.502–2.
- D.
5319.502–70.
Correct Answer
B. 219.502–2–70. -
- 29.
(002) DFARS is updated
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Monthly.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly. -
- 30.
(002) In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as
- A.
The supplementing regulation.
- B.
The negotiating authority.
- C.
Rulings.
- D.
Precedents.
Correct Answer
D. Precedents. -
- 31.
(002) Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?
- A.
Federal Register.
- B.
Federal Acquisition Circular.
- C.
Defense Acquisition Circular.
- D.
DFARS Appendix A.
Correct Answer
A. Federal Register. -
- 32.
(003) A government action may be protested by
- A.
The next low bidder.
- B.
An interested party.
- C.
All responsible bidders.
- D.
The next low small business bidder.
Correct Answer
B. An interested party. -
- 33.
(003) Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30 -
- 34.
(003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately
- A.
Begins consolidating a complete report.
- B.
Provides a 30 day cancellation notice to the contractor.
- C.
Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.
- D.
Suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation.
Correct Answer
C. Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. -
- 35.
(003) How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is known, or should have been known?
- A.
No later than 10 days.
- B.
No later than 30 days.
- C.
Within one year.
- D.
Up to six years.
Correct Answer
A. No later than 10 days. -
- 36.
(003) How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest?
- A.
30
- B.
45
- C.
100
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 100 -
- 37.
(003) What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?
- A.
Submit a claim under the Default clause.
- B.
Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.
- C.
File a claim with the United States Court of Federal Appeals.
- D.
File a claim with ASBCA.
Correct Answer
B. Submit a claim under the Disputes clause. -
- 38.
(003) Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within
- A.
30 days after accrual of the claim
- B.
180 days after accrual of the claim
- C.
Two years after accrual of the claim
- D.
Six years after accrual of the claim
Correct Answer
D. Six years after accrual of the claim -
- 39.
(003) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?
- A.
Functional area chief
- B.
US Court of Federal Claims
- C.
Air Force Material Command Law Center
- D.
Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals
Correct Answer
D. Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals -
- 40.
(003) If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?
- A.
With final contract payment
- B.
With the next scheduled contract payment
- C.
As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal
- D.
As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.
Correct Answer
D. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal. -
- 41.
(003) How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to ASBCA?
- A.
90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision
- B.
180 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision
- C.
Six months from the date of the contracting officer’s decision
- D.
12 months from the date of the contracting officer’s decision
Correct Answer
A. 90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision -
- 42.
(003) Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in
- A.
AFFARS Appendix AA
- B.
DFARS Appendix A.
- C.
AFFARS Appendix CC.
- D.
DFARS Appendix C.
Correct Answer
B. DFARS Appendix A. -
- 43.
(003) Two techniques of ADR are
- A.
Mitigation and controversy hearings
- B.
Mediation and controversy hearings
- C.
Mitigation and arbitration
- D.
Mediation and arbitration
Correct Answer
D. Mediation and arbitration -
- 44.
(004) Which government requirement is violated when the wrong “color of money” is used?
- A.
Procurement Act.
- B.
Anti-Deficiency Act
- C.
Bona-fide Needs Rule
- D.
Misappropriations Act
Correct Answer
D. Misappropriations Act -
- 45.
(004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?
- A.
Procurement Act.
- B.
Anti-Deficiency Act
- C.
Misappropriations Act.
- D.
Continuing Appropriations Act.
Correct Answer
B. Anti-Deficiency Act -
- 46.
(004) The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated
- A.
Prior to expiration of the funds.
- B.
As necessary to meet mission requirements
- C.
For the purpose the funds are authorized for
- D.
In the same year the government will use the supplies or services
Correct Answer
D. In the same year the government will use the supplies or services -
- 47.
(004) NAFs are generated through
- A.
Appropriations Act.
- B.
Taxpayer dollars.
- C.
Enabling and Procedural Acts.
- D.
Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.
Correct Answer
D. Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities. -
- 48.
(004) O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?
- A.
No-year.
- B.
Annual.
- C.
Continuing.
- D.
Multiple year.
Correct Answer
B. Annual. -
- 49.
(004) Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?
- A.
Mission Support Group Commander.
- B.
Force Support Squadron Commander.
- C.
Contracting Squadron Commander.
- D.
NAF contracting officer.
Correct Answer
B. Force Support Squadron Commander. -
- 50.
(004) What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?
- A.
Part 30
- B.
Part 31
- C.
Part 32
- D.
Part 33
Correct Answer
C. Part 32 -
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Oct 22, 2013Quiz Edited by
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