M&IB Devx - Requirements

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Quizzes Created: 13 | Total Attempts: 10,955
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M&IB Devx - Requirements - Quiz


This is part of the DevX course assessment that will be taken by delegates before and after the programme


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are the 4 parts of a functional requirement?

    • A.

      Inputs, outputs, process, design

    • B.

      Inputs, outputs, initial conditions, final conditions

    • C.

      Inputs, outputs, constraints, interfaces

    • D.

      Inputs, outputs, process, non-functional constraints

    Correct Answer
    B. Inputs, outputs, initial conditions, final conditions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "inputs, outputs, initial conditions, final conditions." Functional requirements describe the behavior of a system or its components. Inputs refer to the data or information that is provided to the system, while outputs are the results or outcomes produced by the system. Initial conditions represent the starting state or prerequisites required for the system to function properly, and final conditions specify the expected end state or outcome of the system. These four parts collectively define the functional requirements of a system.

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  • 2. 

    What are the two things you must do in interview closure?

    • A.

      Leave and say goodbye

    • B.

      There are no specific requirements for the closure of an interview

    • C.

      Summarise the meeting and thank the individual

    • D.

      Ask for another interview and thank the individual

    Correct Answer
    C. Summarise the meeting and thank the individual
    Explanation
    In an interview closure, it is important to summarize the meeting to ensure that both parties are on the same page regarding the discussed topics and any conclusions reached. This allows for a clear understanding of the interview's outcomes. Additionally, thanking the individual shows appreciation for their time and consideration throughout the interview process. By summarizing and expressing gratitude, it helps create a positive impression and leaves a lasting impact on the interviewer.

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  • 3. 

    In information security CIA stands for...

    • A.

      Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

    • B.

      Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication

    • C.

      Confidentiality, Integration, Auditing

    • D.

      Confidence, Integration, Auditing

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability. These three concepts, commonly known as the CIA triad, are fundamental principles in information security. Confidentiality ensures that information is accessible only to authorized individuals or entities. Integrity ensures that information is accurate, complete, and unaltered. Availability ensures that information is accessible and usable when needed. By considering these three aspects, organizations can protect their data from unauthorized access, maintain its accuracy and reliability, and ensure its availability to authorized users.

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  • 4. 

    What is authorization?

    • A.

      Verifying the identity of a user

    • B.

      Logging each action a user performs.

    • C.

      Determining if a user can perform a certain action.

    • D.

      Validating user inputs

    Correct Answer
    C. Determining if a user can perform a certain action.
    Explanation
    Authorization refers to the process of determining whether a user has the necessary privileges or permissions to perform a specific action or access certain resources within a system. It involves verifying the user's identity and then evaluating their permissions or roles to determine if they are allowed to perform the requested action. This helps to ensure that only authorized users can perform certain actions or access sensitive information, thereby maintaining security and preventing unauthorized access or misuse of resources.

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  • 5. 

    How do you minimize attack surfaces?

    • A.

      Expose very few points of entry into your system and defend them rigorously

    • B.

      Keep the interface definition a secret

    • C.

      Put all of the systems behind a firewall

    • D.

      You can't

    Correct Answer
    A. Expose very few points of entry into your system and defend them rigorously
    Explanation
    To minimize attack surfaces, it is important to expose as few points of entry into the system as possible and then defend them rigorously. By limiting the number of entry points, there are fewer opportunities for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities. Additionally, by implementing strong security measures and continuously monitoring and updating the defenses, the system is better protected against potential attacks. This approach helps to reduce the overall attack surface and enhances the security posture of the system.

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  • 6. 

    Once a use case starts it continues until...

    • A.

      All requirements are met

    • B.

      All inputs have been processed

    • C.

      A successful or adverse result is achieved

    • D.

      All outputs have been identified

    Correct Answer
    C. A successful or adverse result is achieved
    Explanation
    Once a use case starts, it continues until a successful or adverse result is achieved. This means that the use case will keep running until it reaches a desired outcome or an undesired outcome. It does not necessarily depend on whether all requirements are met, all inputs have been processed, or all outputs have been identified. The focus is on achieving a specific result, regardless of the other factors mentioned.

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  • 7. 

    A data element dictionary contains which of the following items for each entry?

    • A.

      Name and type

    • B.

      Default value or Use Case reference

    • C.

      Valid domain, default value

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A data element dictionary contains all of the above items for each entry. It includes the name and type of the data element, the default value or a reference to a use case where it is used, and the valid domain of the data element along with its default value.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following statements about Availability is true?

    • A.

      Functional and non-functional requirements must be met concurrently

    • B.

      A critical subset of functional and non-functional requirements must be met

    • C.

      Availability only applies to the time in which there is power to the system

    • D.

      Availability concerns only the ability of a user to log in

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional and non-functional requirements must be met concurrently
    Explanation
    Functional and non-functional requirements must be met concurrently means that availability is not only concerned with the system being operational but also with meeting the necessary functionality and performance requirements. It implies that the system should not only be accessible but also able to perform its intended functions and meet the performance criteria at the same time. This ensures that the system is available and usable for the users when they need it, without any compromise on its functionality or performance.

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  • 9. 

    What is the function of a user story?

    • A.

      Gives background material on the current company

    • B.

      Acts as a requirement

    • C.

      Is a method for doing class design

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Acts as a requirement
    Explanation
    A user story acts as a requirement in the context of software development. It is a short, simple, and concise description of a feature or functionality from the perspective of an end user. User stories help to capture the needs and expectations of the users and provide a clear understanding of what needs to be developed. They serve as a communication tool between the development team and stakeholders, guiding the development process and ensuring that the final product meets the user's requirements.

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  • 10. 

    What is the purpose of Planning Poker?

    • A.

      To identify issues concerning development time

    • B.

      To decide who will perform the task

    • C.

      To determine the best method of doing development

    • D.

      To determine which tasks will be done first

    Correct Answer
    A. To identify issues concerning development time
    Explanation
    Planning Poker is a collaborative estimation technique used in Agile project management to identify and address potential issues related to development time. It involves team members assigning a numerical value to each task or user story based on its complexity and effort required. By discussing and comparing these estimates, the team can identify any discrepancies or concerns regarding the development time for specific tasks. This allows for a more accurate and realistic planning process, enabling the team to allocate resources effectively and meet project deadlines.

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  • 11. 

    What is the purpose of a team retrospective in Agile development?

    • A.

      Establish the cost of the previous sprint

    • B.

      Identify areas in which the team can improve

    • C.

      Identify the most effective developers

    • D.

      Identify the contents of the next sprint

    Correct Answer
    B. Identify areas in which the team can improve
    Explanation
    The purpose of a team retrospective in Agile development is to identify areas in which the team can improve. This is done by reflecting on the previous sprint and analyzing what went well and what could have been done better. The retrospective allows team members to openly discuss their experiences, share feedback, and suggest improvements for future sprints. By identifying areas of improvement, the team can continuously enhance their processes, communication, and collaboration, ultimately leading to better results and increased efficiency in their Agile development practices.

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  • 12. 

    Traceability facilitates impact analysis

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Traceability refers to the ability to track and document the relationships between different components of a system or project. It helps in understanding the impact of changes made to one component on other components. By having traceability, it becomes easier to analyze and assess the potential impact of any change or modification. Therefore, it can be concluded that traceability indeed facilitates impact analysis.

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  • 13. 

     User acceptance tests are derived from Functional Requirements

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    User acceptance tests are derived from functional requirements because user acceptance testing is performed to determine whether a system meets the specified functional requirements and is acceptable to the end users. These tests are designed to validate the system's functionality, usability, and performance from the user's perspective. By conducting user acceptance tests, organizations can ensure that the system meets the needs and expectations of the users and that it functions correctly according to the defined functional requirements. Therefore, the statement "User acceptance tests are derived from functional requirements" is true.

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  • 14. 

    Agile development considers process to be the most important part of developing software

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Agile development does not consider process to be the most important part of developing software. Instead, it emphasizes the importance of individuals and interactions, working software, customer collaboration, and responding to change. While process is still important in agile development, it is not considered the most important aspect.

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  • 15. 

    PMX is a step by step guide to software development within M&IB

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    PMX is not a step by step guide to software development within M&IB. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is NOT a measure of the quality of a requirement?

    • A.

      Clear

    • B.

      Prioritised

    • C.

      Separate from design

    • D.

      Consistent

    Correct Answer
    B. Prioritised
    Explanation
    The quality of a requirement is not determined by its prioritization. Prioritization is a process of ranking requirements based on their importance or urgency, but it does not directly assess the quality of the requirement itself. Quality measures for requirements typically include factors such as clarity, consistency, and being separate from design.

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  • 17. 

    What would you use a closed question for?

    • A.

      Get the most detail from the interviewee

    • B.

      Finish the interview

    • C.

      Extract specific information

    • D.

      To lead the interviewee to the right answer

    Correct Answer
    C. Extract specific information
    Explanation
    A closed question is used to extract specific information from the interviewee. It typically requires a short and concise answer, often a "yes" or "no" response. These types of questions are useful when the interviewer wants to gather specific details or facts and does not require a lengthy explanation. By asking closed questions, the interviewer can narrow down the information and focus on specific aspects of the topic being discussed.

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  • 18. 

    A system designed with complete mediation contains which of the following?

    • A.

      Checks when accessing any objects

    • B.

      A central messaging system

    • C.

      A mid-tier through which all traffic is passed

    • D.

      Tests built-in at every stage

    Correct Answer
    A. Checks when accessing any objects
    Explanation
    A system designed with complete mediation includes checks when accessing any objects. This means that before any object is accessed, the system verifies and validates the request to ensure that it is authorized and appropriate. This helps to prevent unauthorized or malicious access to objects within the system. By implementing checks when accessing any objects, the system can enforce security measures and protect the integrity of the system and its data.

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  • 19. 

    What is a Customer Support Request for?

    • A.

      Information or advice

    • B.

      A standard change

    • C.

      Access to an IT service

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A Customer Support Request can be for various purposes such as seeking information or advice, requesting a standard change, or gaining access to an IT service. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as it encompasses all the mentioned options.

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  • 20. 

    When should a development team contact production about making a new service go live?

    • A.

      As early as possible

    • B.

      Generally, a week before the go live date

    • C.

      Generally, a month before the go live date

    • D.

      They will contact you when they need input

    Correct Answer
    A. As early as possible
    Explanation
    The development team should contact production about making a new service go live as early as possible. This allows for ample time to address any potential issues or challenges that may arise during the process. By contacting production early, the team can ensure that all necessary preparations and coordination are in place to successfully launch the new service. It also allows for proper testing and validation to be conducted, minimizing the risk of any unexpected problems during the go live phase.

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  • 21. 

    What does the 'Warranty Period' mean for developers?

    • A.

      The time during which support teams are available for heightened support during and after go live

    • B.

      The time during which developers are covered for losses due to their software

    • C.

      The time during which developers are available for support during and after go live

    • D.

      We don't use them here

    Correct Answer
    C. The time during which developers are available for support during and after go live
    Explanation
    The 'Warranty Period' for developers refers to the time in which they are available to provide support during and after the software's launch. This means that developers will assist with any issues or problems that may arise during this period, ensuring that the software is functioning correctly and meeting the requirements of the users.

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  • 22. 

    What is Geneos?

    • A.

      A scheduling system

    • B.

      A system monitoring tool

    • C.

      An issue tracking system

    • D.

      A software development tool

    Correct Answer
    B. A system monitoring tool
    Explanation
    Geneos is a system monitoring tool. It is used to monitor and manage the performance of various systems and applications in real-time. It provides real-time alerts, dashboards, and reports to help administrators and operators track and analyze system performance, identify issues, and take proactive measures to ensure system stability and availability. Geneos is commonly used in financial institutions and other industries where real-time monitoring and performance management are critical.

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  • 23. 

    Which of these is the best definiton of a problem?

    • A.

      A failed service

    • B.

      The cause of one or more incidents

    • C.

      A financial loss

    • D.

      A person who doesn’t understand a system

    Correct Answer
    B. The cause of one or more incidents
    Explanation
    A problem can be defined as the cause of one or more incidents. When an incident occurs, it is usually a result of an underlying problem. Identifying and addressing the problem is essential to prevent further incidents from happening. Therefore, this definition accurately captures the essence of what a problem represents in a given context.

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  • 24. 

    How is an Incident Report raised?

    • A.

      A telephone call to the manager of the system

    • B.

      An email to the manager of the system

    • C.

      Using GEL

    • D.

      Using GBM Console

    Correct Answer
    C. Using GEL
    Explanation
    An Incident Report is raised using GEL. GEL stands for Generic Execution Language, which is a programming language used in the CA Service Desk Manager software. GEL allows users to create and customize workflows, including the creation of Incident Reports. By using GEL, users can input the necessary information and details about the incident, ensuring that all relevant information is included in the report.

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  • 25. 

    Who can raise an Incident Report?

    • A.

      Anyone

    • B.

      The owner of the affected system

    • C.

      The owner of the system causing the incident

    • D.

      An Incident Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Anyone
    Explanation
    Anyone can raise an Incident Report. This means that anyone who witnesses or experiences an incident can report it, regardless of their role or position within the organization. This inclusive approach allows for a wide range of individuals to contribute to incident reporting, ensuring that all incidents are properly documented and addressed. It also encourages a culture of transparency and accountability, as it empowers everyone to take responsibility for reporting incidents and promoting a safe and secure working environment.

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  • 26. 

    Which of these is NOT an Incident Report Status?

    • A.

      Open

    • B.

      In Progress

    • C.

      Resolved

    • D.

      Closed

    Correct Answer
    B. In Progress
    Explanation
    "In Progress" is not an Incident Report Status because it is listed as one of the options in the question. The other options, "Open," "Resolved," and "Closed," are all commonly used incident report statuses in various industries.

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  • 27. 

    How frequently should a SEV2 Incident Report be updated?

    • A.

      At least every 30 minutes

    • B.

      At least every hour

    • C.

      At least every 2 hours

    • D.

      At least every 3 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. At least every hour
    Explanation
    A SEV2 Incident Report should be updated at least every hour to ensure that all relevant information is captured and communicated in a timely manner. This allows stakeholders to stay informed about the incident's progress and any changes that may impact resolution efforts. Updating the report more frequently than every hour may be excessive and could hinder the incident response process, while updating it less frequently could lead to delays in providing necessary updates to stakeholders. Therefore, updating the report at least every hour strikes a balance between keeping stakeholders informed and allowing the incident response team to focus on resolving the issue.

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  • 28. 

    What is the main advantage of using a fishbone diagram rather than the “Five Whys” for root cause analysis?

    • A.

      There isn’t one

    • B.

      You can ask more than five questions

    • C.

      It allows more people to be involved

    • D.

      It generates multiple root causes

    Correct Answer
    D. It generates multiple root causes
    Explanation
    The main advantage of using a fishbone diagram rather than the "Five Whys" for root cause analysis is that it generates multiple root causes. While the "Five Whys" method focuses on asking five consecutive questions to identify the root cause, the fishbone diagram allows for a more comprehensive analysis by identifying multiple potential causes that can contribute to the problem. This helps in gaining a deeper understanding of the issue and considering various factors that may be influencing it.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is NOT always true about root causes?

    • A.

      All root causes must have solutions implemented which eliminate them

    • B.

      A root cause can be documented as a known problem if it has no business impact

    • C.

      A workaround can be used in place of a solution

    • D.

      The root causes of a problem need to be determined

    Correct Answer
    A. All root causes must have solutions implemented which eliminate them
    Explanation
    Root causes are the underlying reasons or factors that contribute to a problem. While it is ideal to implement solutions that completely eliminate root causes, it is not always possible or practical. In some cases, a workaround can be used as a temporary solution until a permanent fix can be implemented. Therefore, it is not always true that all root causes must have solutions that completely eliminate them.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is NOT an incident management role?

    • A.

      Incident Coordinator

    • B.

      Recovery Manager

    • C.

      Integration Manager

    • D.

      Reviewer

    Correct Answer
    C. Integration Manager
    Explanation
    The Integration Manager is not an incident management role because their primary responsibility is not related to managing and resolving incidents. The role of an Integration Manager typically involves coordinating and overseeing the integration of different systems or components within an organization. They focus on ensuring smooth integration and functionality of various systems, rather than directly handling and resolving incidents that occur within those systems.

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  • 31. 

    Select THREE of the following which are parts of Transactional Performance Testing. 

    • A.

      Normal operations

    • B.

      Backup and restore

    • C.

      Disaster recovery

    • D.

      Integration

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Normal operations
    B. Backup and restore
    C. Disaster recovery
    Explanation
    Transactional Performance Testing involves testing the performance of a system during normal operations, as well as its ability to handle backup and restore processes and disaster recovery scenarios. Normal operations refer to the regular functioning of the system under typical conditions. Backup and restore testing ensures that the system can effectively backup and restore data without impacting its performance. Disaster recovery testing evaluates the system's ability to recover and resume operations after a catastrophic event. Integration, on the other hand, involves testing the interaction between different components or systems and is not specifically related to transactional performance testing.

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  • 32. 

    In M&IB, what is GEL is used for?

    • A.

      Reporting incidents

    • B.

      Tracking problems

    • C.

      Change requests

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    GEL, which stands for Global Event Log, is used in M&IB for reporting incidents, tracking problems, and managing change requests. The Global Event Log is a centralized system that records and tracks all events and activities related to incidents, problems, and change requests. It allows for efficient reporting, tracking, and management of these issues, ensuring that they are properly addressed and resolved. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 33. 

    What is the definition of a Use Case?

    • A.

      A sequence of steps the computer must follow to create the UAT

    • B.

      A sequence of steps specifying an interaction between one or more interfacing elements and the system

    • C.

      An agreement between users and developers on which hardware to purchase

    • D.

      An agreement between users and managers on what the requirements for the steps on the computer to resolve a conflict.

    Correct Answer
    B. A sequence of steps specifying an interaction between one or more interfacing elements and the system
    Explanation
    A Use Case is defined as a sequence of steps that specifies the interaction between one or more interfacing elements and the system. It outlines the actions and events that occur when a user interacts with a system to achieve a specific goal. Use Cases are commonly used in software development to capture and document the functional requirements of a system and serve as a basis for testing and validation. They provide a clear understanding of how the system should behave and help in identifying potential issues or improvements.

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  • Current Version
  • May 28, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 06, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    James Richardson
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