Npsa 2018 3rd Session
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A 46 year old woman presents with a digital breast mammography finding of architectural distortion which does not correspond to a lesion on ultrasound. What is an appropriate next step in management?
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Ultrasound-guided biopsy
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Repeat mammogram in one year
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Mastectomy
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Digital breast tomosynthesis-guided biopsy
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2018 NPSA SELF-ASSESSMENT Test for Saturday, 3rd Session
INSTRUCTIONS:
Please choose the correct answer below. YOU MUST RECEIVE A PASSING SCORE OF 75% OR MORE TO RECEIVE SELF-ASSESSMENT CREDIT FOR THIS SESSION. You may retake the test as many times as you need to achieve the passing score.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
What is the approximate rate of pathologic upgrading of atypical ductal hyperplasia found on core needle biopsy to ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive ductal carcinoma?
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5%
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15%
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30%
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45%
Correct Answer
A. 15% -
- 3.
According to the SSO-ASTRO invasive margins guidelines, what would be the suggested management for a woman with a 3 cm, intermediate grade, unifocal breast cancer with close but negative margins following lumpectomy?
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Re-excise margins
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Proceed to mastectomy
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Proceed to adjuvant radiation
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Monitor on imaging for 6 months before proceeding
Correct Answer
A. Proceed to adjuvant radiation -
- 4.
With regards to patient reported outcomes, which of the following surgical options are least optimal, according to the current literature and preliminary results from this study?
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Breast Conserving Therapy (BCT)
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Mastectomy
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Mastectomy with Reconstruction (autologous)
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Mastectomy with Reconstruction (implant)
Correct Answer
A. Mastectomy -
- 5.
In this study of an equal-access, no cost healthcare system, what was the overall compliance with screening breast MRI among women with a ≥20% risk of developing breast cancer?
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12%
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24%
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48%
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72%
Correct Answer
A. 24% -
- 6.
Which of the following factors was the strongest predictor of complications after open AAA surgery?
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Postoperative hypotension
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Postoperative hypothermia
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Postoperative hypoglycemia
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Postoperative bradycardia
Correct Answer
A. Postoperative hypothermia -
- 7.
A 66 year old man undergoes elective AAA repair with suprarenal clamp. Intraoperatively he is noted to be hypotensive and hypothermic. His operative time is 5 hours. Which factor is the strongest predictor of postoperative mortality?
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Age
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Operative time
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Intraoperative hypotension
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Intraoperative hypothermia
Correct Answer
A. Intraoperative hypotension -
- 8.
A 65 year old female is found to have atypical ductal hyperplasia in 5 of 5 cores after biopsy of a palpable breast mass, with residual microcalcifications post-biopsy. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for occult underlying malignancy?
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Presence of microcalcifications post-biopsy
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Patient age
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Presence of atypical ductal hyperplasia on biopsy
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High proportion of biopsy cores positive for atypical ductal hyperplasia
Correct Answer
A. Presence of atypical ductal hyperplasia on biopsy -
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): +
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Current Version
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Nov 02, 2018Quiz Edited by
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Oct 25, 2018Quiz Created by
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