Np Test 1: Chest Disorders (Respiratory)

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Ctichy84
C
Ctichy84
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 23,976
Questions: 66 | Attempts: 4,559

SettingsSettingsSettings
Np Test 1: Chest Disorders (Respiratory) - Quiz

NP review questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Compared with short-acting beta 2 agonists, long-acting beta 2 agonists:

    • A.

      Should be added to therapy only when ICS use does not provide adequate asthma control.

    • B.

      Have a rapid onset of action across the drug class.

    • C.

      Have a significantly different pharmacodynamic profile.

    • D.

      Are recommended as a first-line therapy in mild persistent asthma.

    Correct Answer
    A. Should be added to therapy only when ICS use does not provide adequate asthma control.
    Explanation
    Long-acting beta 2 agonists should be added to therapy only when ICS use does not provide adequate asthma control. This means that if a patient's asthma symptoms are not well controlled with the use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), then long-acting beta 2 agonists can be considered as an additional treatment option. This suggests that long-acting beta 2 agonists are not recommended as a first-line therapy in mild persistent asthma, and they do not have a rapid onset of action compared to short-acting beta 2 agonists. Additionally, long-acting beta 2 agonists may have a different pharmacodynamic profile compared to short-acting beta 2 agonists.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    All of the following are consistent with the GOLD COPD recommendation for pulmonary rehabilitation except:

    • A.

      Indicated in all COPD stages

    • B.

      Goals include improvement in overall well-being

    • C.

      An underused therapeutic option

    • D.

      Components aimed at reducing the deconditioning common in COPD.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicated in all COPD stages
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "indicated in all COPD stages." The GOLD COPD recommendation for pulmonary rehabilitation includes goals of improving overall well-being and reducing deconditioning, and it is considered an underused therapeutic option. However, pulmonary rehabilitation is not indicated in all COPD stages. It is typically recommended for individuals with moderate to severe COPD, as it may not provide significant benefits for those with mild COPD.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Clinical presentation of progressive primary TB most commonly includes all of the following except:

    • A.

      Malaise

    • B.

      Fever

    • C.

      Dry cough

    • D.

      Frank hemoptysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Frank hemoptysis
    Explanation
    The clinical presentation of progressive primary TB commonly includes malaise, fever, and a dry cough. Frank hemoptysis, which refers to the coughing up of blood, is not typically seen in progressive primary TB. This symptom is more commonly associated with advanced stages of TB or other respiratory conditions.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    The mechanism of transmission of Legionella species is primarily via 

    • A.

      Respiratory droplet

    • B.

      Inhalation of contaminated water

    • C.

      Contact with contaminated surface

    • D.

      Hematogenous spread

    Correct Answer
    B. Inhalation of contaminated water
    Explanation
    Legionella species are primarily transmitted through inhalation of contaminated water. This is because Legionella bacteria thrive in water environments such as hot tubs, cooling towers, and plumbing systems. When these water sources become aerosolized, such as through showers or air conditioning systems, the bacteria can be inhaled into the respiratory system. Once inhaled, Legionella can cause a severe form of pneumonia known as Legionnaires' disease. Other modes of transmission, such as respiratory droplets, contact with contaminated surfaces, or hematogenous spread, are not the primary means of transmission for Legionella species.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Risk factors for infection with DRSP include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Systemic antimicrobial therapy in the previous 3 months

    • B.

      Exposure to children in day care

    • C.

      Age older than 65

    • D.

      Use of inhaled corticosteroids

    Correct Answer
    D. Use of inhaled corticosteroids
    Explanation
    Risk factors for infection with drug-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (DRSP) include systemic antimicrobial therapy in the previous 3 months, exposure to children in day care, and age older than 65. However, the use of inhaled corticosteroids is not considered a risk factor for DRSP infection. Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage respiratory conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and they primarily act locally in the lungs rather than systemically. Therefore, they do not increase the risk of developing DRSP infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Risk factors for development of infection reactivation in patients with latent TB infection include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Diabetes Mellitus

    • B.

      Immunocompromise

    • C.

      Long-term oral corticosteroid therapy

    • D.

      Male gender

    Correct Answer
    D. Male gender
    Explanation
    The correct answer is male gender. This means that being a male does not increase the risk for the reactivation of latent TB infection. However, diabetes mellitus, immunocompromise, and long-term oral corticosteroid therapy are all known risk factors for the development of infection reactivation in patients with latent TB infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Which of the following best describes the role of theophylline in COPD treatment?

    • A.

      Indicated in moderate to very severe COPD

    • B.

      Use limited by narrow therapeutic profile and drug-drug interaction potential

    • C.

      A potent bronchodilator

    • D.

      Available only in parenteral form.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use limited by narrow therapeutic profile and drug-drug interaction potential
    Explanation
    Theophylline is a medication that is used in the treatment of COPD. It is indicated for use in moderate to very severe cases of COPD. However, its use is limited due to its narrow therapeutic profile and potential for drug-drug interactions. This means that the dosage of theophylline needs to be carefully monitored and adjusted to ensure that it is effective and safe for the individual patient. Additionally, theophylline can interact with other medications, which can further complicate its use. Despite these limitations, theophylline is considered a potent bronchodilator, meaning that it helps to open up the airways and improve breathing in patients with COPD. It is available in various forms, including oral and parenteral formulations.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Which of the following is true regarding the use of systemic corticosteroids?

    • A.

      Parenteral therapy is preferred over the oral route

    • B.

      Tapering down the dosage is required if used for 5-7 days as is typical in an asthma flare

    • C.

      These medications provide action against the formation of various inflammatory mediators.

    • D.

      The adult dose to treat an asthma flare should not exceed the equivalent of prednisone 40 mg daily.

    Correct Answer
    C. These medications provide action against the formation of various inflammatory mediators.
    Explanation
    Systemic corticosteroids provide action against the formation of various inflammatory mediators. This means that they help reduce inflammation in the body by targeting and inhibiting the production of substances that contribute to the inflammatory response. This can be beneficial in treating conditions such as asthma, where inflammation of the airways is a key feature. By reducing inflammation, systemic corticosteroids can help alleviate symptoms and improve lung function.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the therapeutic objective of using inhaled ipratroprium bromide in the treatment of acute asthma exacerbation?

    • A.

      A recommendation for use with short-acting beta2 agonists in the hospital.

    • B.

      An increase in vagal tone in the airway

    • C.

      Inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic receptors

    • D.

      An increase in salivary and mucous secretions

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic receptors
    Explanation
    The therapeutic objective of using inhaled ipratroprium bromide in the treatment of acute asthma exacerbation is the inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic receptors. Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes constriction of the airways. By inhibiting the muscarinic cholinergic receptors, ipratropium bromide helps to relax and open up the airways, making it easier to breathe. This can provide relief from symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness associated with acute asthma exacerbation.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    With a COPD exacerbation, a CXR should be obtained:

    • A.

      Routinely in all patients

    • B.

      When attempting to rule out a concomitant pneumonia

    • C.

      If sputum is increased

    • D.

      When work of breathing is increased.

    Correct Answer
    B. When attempting to rule out a concomitant pneumonia
    Explanation
    A CXR (chest x-ray) should be obtained when attempting to rule out a concomitant pneumonia in a patient with a COPD exacerbation. This is because pneumonia can be a common complication in patients with COPD, and it is important to identify and treat it promptly. A chest x-ray can help visualize any signs of pneumonia such as infiltrates or consolidation in the lungs. It is not necessary to obtain a CXR routinely in all patients with a COPD exacerbation, but it should be considered when there is suspicion of pneumonia or if the patient's work of breathing is increased.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Compared with TST, potential advantages of the QuantiFERON-TB Gold test (QTF-G) include all of the following except 

    • A.

      Ability to have entire testing process complete with one clinical visit

    • B.

      Results are available within 24 hours

    • C.

      Interpretation of test is not subject to reader bias

    • D.

      Provides a prediction as to who is at greatest risk for disease development

    Correct Answer
    D. Provides a prediction as to who is at greatest risk for disease development
    Explanation
    The QuantiFERON-TB Gold test (QTF-G) has potential advantages compared to TST, such as the ability to complete the testing process in one clinical visit, providing results within 24 hours, and eliminating reader bias in test interpretation. However, it does not provide a prediction as to who is at the greatest risk for disease development.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    While seeing a 62-year-old who is hospitalized with CAP, the NP considers that:

    • A.

      Antipneumococcal vaccine should be given when antimicrobial therapy has completed.

    • B.

      Antipneumococcal vaccine can be given today, and influenza vaccine can be given in 2 weeks.

    • C.

      Influenza vaccine can be given today and antipneumococcal vaccine can be given in 2 weeks.

    • D.

      Influenza and antipneumococcal vaccines should be given today.

    Correct Answer
    D. Influenza and antipneumococcal vaccines should be given today.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that both the influenza and antipneumococcal vaccines should be given today. This is because the patient is hospitalized with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), which puts them at a higher risk for complications from both influenza and pneumococcal infections. Vaccinating the patient against both diseases will help prevent further illness and potentially serious complications. Delaying the vaccines could put the patient at risk for contracting these infections while they are still vulnerable.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    You are caring for a 52-year-old man who is currently smoking 1.5 PPD and has a 40-pack-year cigarette smoking history and has CAP. It is the third day of his antimicrobial therapy, and he is without fever, is well hydrated and is feeling less short of breath. His initial CXR revealed a right lower lobe infiltrate. Physical exam today reveals peak inspiratory crackles with increased tactile fremitus in the right posterior thorax. Which of the following represents the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

    • A.

      His current plan of care should continue because he is improving by clinical assessment

    • B.

      A CXR should be taken today to confirm resolution of pneumonia

    • C.

      Given the persistence of abnormal thoracic findings, his antimicrobial therapy should be changed.

    • D.

      A computed tomography scan of the thorax is needed today to image better any potential thoracic abnormalities.

    Correct Answer
    A. His current plan of care should continue because he is improving by clinical assessment
    Explanation
    The patient's clinical assessment shows improvement, with the absence of fever, improved hydration, and decreased shortness of breath. Additionally, the physical examination reveals peak inspiratory crackles and increased tactile fremitus in the right posterior thorax, indicating resolution of the right lower lobe infiltrate. Therefore, it is appropriate to continue with the current plan of care as the patient is improving.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    A 33-year-old woman works in a small office with a man recently diagnosed with active pulmonary TB. Which of the following would be the best plan of care for this woman?

    • A.

      She should receive TB chemoprophylaxis if her TST result is 5 mm or more in induration.

    • B.

      Because of her age, TB chemoprophylaxis is contraindicated even in the presence of a positive TST result.

    • C.

      If the TST result is positive, but the CXR is normal, no further evaluation or treatment

    • D.

      Further evaluation is needed only if the TST result is 15 mm or more in induration.

    Correct Answer
    A. She should receive TB chemoprophylaxis if her TST result is 5 mm or more in induration.
    Explanation
    The best plan of care for the 33-year-old woman working in a small office with a man recently diagnosed with active pulmonary TB is for her to receive TB chemoprophylaxis if her TST (tuberculin skin test) result is 5 mm or more in induration. This is because a positive TST result indicates exposure to TB and puts her at risk for developing active TB. Chemoprophylaxis helps to prevent the development of active TB in individuals who have been exposed to the bacteria. Therefore, it is important for her to receive TB chemoprophylaxis if her TST result is positive.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    You examine a 28-year-old woman who has emigrated from a country where TB is endemic. She has documentation of receiving bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) as a child. With this information you consider that:

    • A.

      She will always have a positive TST result

    • B.

      Biannual CXR are needed to assess her health status accurately.

    • C.

      A TST finding of 10 mm or more induration should be considered a positive result.

    • D.

      Isoniazid therapy should be given for 6 months before TST is undertaken.

    Correct Answer
    C. A TST finding of 10 mm or more induration should be considered a positive result.
    Explanation
    Given that the woman has received BCG vaccination, it is important to consider the impact of the vaccine on the TST result. BCG vaccination can cause a false-positive TST result, leading to induration. However, the size of the induration is important in determining the significance of the result. A TST finding of 10 mm or more induration is considered a positive result, regardless of BCG vaccination. Therefore, in this case, a TST finding of 10 mm or more induration should be considered a positive result.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    You see a 67-year-old man with stage IV (very severe) COPD who asks, "When should I use my home oxygen?" You respond:

    • A.

      As needed when SOB

    • B.

      Primarily during sleep hours

    • C.

      Preferably during waking hours

    • D.

      For at least 15 hours a day

    Correct Answer
    D. For at least 15 hours a day
    Explanation
    For patients with stage IV COPD, using home oxygen for at least 15 hours a day is recommended. This is because oxygen therapy can improve symptoms, exercise tolerance, and survival in patients with severe COPD. Using oxygen as needed when experiencing shortness of breath may not provide sufficient oxygenation throughout the day, while using it primarily during sleep hours may not address the oxygen needs during waking hours. Therefore, using home oxygen for at least 15 hours a day is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    An organism often associated with COPD exacerbation in a person with advanced disease and repeated exacerbations is

    • A.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • B.

      Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) pneumoniae

    • C.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • D.

      Haemophilus influenzae

    Correct Answer
    D. Haemophilus influenzae
    Explanation
    Haemophilus influenzae is commonly linked to COPD exacerbations in advanced cases, causing repeated flare-ups. This bacterium colonizes the respiratory tract, particularly in individuals with compromised lung function. Its presence can worsen symptoms, leading to severe exacerbations and complications in COPD patients. Effective management strategies target Haemophilus influenzae to minimize exacerbation frequency and improve patient outcomes.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    What is the most appropriate choice for abx therapy for a severe COPD exacerbation in a 52-year-old man?

    • A.

      Azithromycin

    • B.

      Amoxicillin

    • C.

      Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

    • D.

      Fosfomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Azithromycin
    Explanation
    Azithromycin is the most appropriate choice for abx therapy for a severe COPD exacerbation in a 52-year-old man because it is a macrolide antibiotic that has activity against common respiratory pathogens, including Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. It also has anti-inflammatory properties, which can be beneficial in reducing airway inflammation in COPD exacerbations. Additionally, azithromycin has a convenient dosing regimen, with a long half-life, allowing for once-daily dosing for a shorter duration of therapy. Amoxicillin is not the best choice as it primarily covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is less commonly associated with COPD exacerbations. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and fosfomycin are not typically used for COPD exacerbations.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Regarding the use of long-acting beta2 agonists (LABA), which of the following is true?

    • A.

      LABAs enhance the anti-inflammatory action of the corticosteroids

    • B.

      Use of LABAs is associated with a small increase in risk of asthma-related death.

    • C.

      LABAs reduce asthma exacerbations

    • D.

      LABAs can be tried before ICS to relieve bronchospasm.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use of LABAs is associated with a small increase in risk of asthma-related death.
    Explanation
    Long-acting beta2 agonists (LABAs) are bronchodilators that help to relax the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. However, studies have shown that the use of LABAs alone, without the concurrent use of corticosteroids, can increase the risk of asthma-related death. Therefore, it is important to always use LABAs in combination with corticosteroids to enhance the anti-inflammatory action and reduce the risk of adverse events.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of short-acting beta2 agonists?

    • A.

      Reducer of inflammation

    • B.

      Inhibition of secretions

    • C.

      Modification of leukotrienes

    • D.

      Smooth muscle relaxation

    Correct Answer
    D. Smooth muscle relaxation
    Explanation
    Short-acting beta2 agonists work by causing smooth muscle relaxation. When these agonists bind to beta2 receptors in the airway smooth muscle, it leads to the activation of an enzyme called adenylate cyclase, which increases the production of a molecule called cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). Increased cAMP levels then trigger a cascade of intracellular events that ultimately result in the relaxation of the smooth muscle in the airways. This relaxation helps to open up the airways, making it easier for individuals with conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to breathe.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    Which of the following represents findings in an acceptable sputum specimen for Gram staining?

    • A.

      Many squamous epithelial cells and few WBCs

    • B.

      Three or more stained organisms

    • C.

      Few squamous epithelial cells and many WBCs

    • D.

      Motile bacteria with monocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Few squamous epithelial cells and many WBCs
    Explanation
    An acceptable sputum specimen for Gram staining should contain few squamous epithelial cells and many white blood cells (WBCs). Squamous epithelial cells are normal cells found in the respiratory tract and their presence in a sputum specimen indicates contamination from the mouth or throat. On the other hand, an increased number of WBCs suggests an active infection in the lower respiratory tract. Therefore, finding few squamous epithelial cells and many WBCs is indicative of a good sputum specimen for Gram staining.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Findings of increased tactile fremitus and dullness to percussion at the right lung base in the person with CAP likely indicate an area of:

    • A.

      Atelectasis

    • B.

      Pneumothorax

    • C.

      Consolidation

    • D.

      Cavitation

    Correct Answer
    C. Consolidation
    Explanation
    The findings of increased tactile fremitus and dullness to percussion at the right lung base in a person with CAP likely indicate an area of consolidation. Consolidation refers to the filling of the alveoli with fluid, such as pus or blood, causing the affected lung tissue to become solid. This can occur as a result of pneumonia, where the air sacs in the lungs become inflamed and filled with fluid. The increased tactile fremitus, which is the vibration felt upon palpation, and dullness to percussion, which is the dull sound heard upon tapping the chest, are consistent with the presence of consolidation in the lung.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    All of the following antimicrobial strategies help facilitate the development of resistant pathogens except:

    • A.

      Longer course of therapy

    • B.

      Lower antimicrobial dosage

    • C.

      Higher antimicrobial dosage

    • D.

      Prescribing a broader spectrum agent

    Correct Answer
    C. Higher antimicrobial dosage
    Explanation
    Higher antimicrobial dosage can actually help facilitate the development of resistant pathogens. When a higher dosage is used, it puts more selective pressure on the pathogens, allowing the more resistant strains to survive and proliferate. This can lead to the development of resistance over time. Therefore, higher antimicrobial dosage is not an effective strategy to prevent the development of resistant pathogens.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Risk factors for death resulting from pneumonia include:

    • A.

      Viral origin

    • B.

      History of allergy

    • C.

      Renal insufficiency

    • D.

      Polycythemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Renal insufficiency
    Explanation
    Renal insufficiency is a risk factor for death resulting from pneumonia. Renal insufficiency refers to the inability of the kidneys to properly filter waste and regulate fluid and electrolyte balance. This can weaken the immune system and make individuals more susceptible to infections like pneumonia. Additionally, renal insufficiency can impair the body's ability to eliminate toxins and medications, which may hinder the effectiveness of treatment for pneumonia. Therefore, individuals with renal insufficiency are at a higher risk of complications and death from pneumonia.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which is the most appropriate choice for therapy of mild acute COPD exacerbation in a 42-year-old man?

    • A.

      Levofloxacin

    • B.

      Daptomycin

    • C.

      Linezolid

    • D.

      ABX therapy is usually not indicated

    Correct Answer
    D. ABX therapy is usually not indicated
    Explanation
    ABX therapy is usually not indicated for mild acute COPD exacerbation in a 42-year-old man because it is typically caused by viral infections rather than bacterial infections. Antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, so they would not be effective in treating a viral exacerbation. Additionally, unnecessary use of antibiotics can contribute to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for therapy in this case would be to not prescribe antibiotics unless there are specific indications of a bacterial infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    Which of the following pathogens is often implicated in a COPD exacerbation caused by bacterial respiratory tract infection?

    • A.

      Legionella species

    • B.

      Streptococcus pyogens

    • C.

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • D.

      Staphylococcus aureus

    Correct Answer
    C. Haemophilus influenzae
    Explanation
    Haemophilus influenzae is often implicated in a COPD exacerbation caused by bacterial respiratory tract infection. This pathogen is a common cause of respiratory infections, particularly in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is known to colonize the respiratory tract and can cause exacerbations by inducing inflammation and damage to the airways. Treatment with appropriate antibiotics targeting Haemophilus influenzae is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Which of the following corticosteroid doses is most potent?

    • A.

      Methylprednisolone 8 mg

    • B.

      Triamcinolone 10 mg

    • C.

      Prednisone 15 mg

    • D.

      Hydrocortisone 18 mg

    Correct Answer
    C. Prednisone 15 mg
    Explanation
    Prednisone 15 mg is the most potent corticosteroid dose among the given options. Potency refers to the strength or effectiveness of a drug. Prednisone is a synthetic corticosteroid that has a higher potency compared to the other options, such as methylprednisolone, triamcinolone, and hydrocortisone. The higher the dose of prednisone, the more potent it is in terms of its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. Therefore, in this case, the 15 mg dose of prednisone is the most potent corticosteroid option.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Clinical findings characteristic of asthma include all of the following except:

    • A.

      A recurrent spasmodic cough that is worse at night

    • B.

      Recurrent shortness of breath and chest tightness with exercise

    • C.

      A congested cough that is worse during the day

    • D.

      Wheezing with and without associated respiratory infections.

    Correct Answer
    C. A congested cough that is worse during the day
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A congested cough that is worse during the day." This is because a congested cough is not typically associated with asthma. Asthma is characterized by recurrent spasmodic cough, shortness of breath and chest tightness with exercise, and wheezing with or without respiratory infections. However, a congested cough is more commonly associated with conditions such as the common cold or sinusitis.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    A potential adverse effect from ICS use is:

    • A.

      Oral candidiasis

    • B.

      Tachycardia

    • C.

      Weight Loss

    • D.

      Insomnia

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral candidiasis
    Explanation
    Oral candidiasis is a potential adverse effect from the use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS). ICS can suppress the immune response in the mouth, leading to an overgrowth of candida, a type of fungus that causes oral thrush. This condition is characterized by the development of white, creamy patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, and other areas of the mouth. It can cause discomfort, difficulty in swallowing, and altered taste sensation. Regular oral hygiene, such as rinsing the mouth after using ICS, can help prevent oral candidiasis.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Which of the following best describes the mechanism of transmission in an atypical pneumonia?

    • A.

      Microaspiration

    • B.

      Respiratory droplet

    • C.

      Surface contamination

    • D.

      Aerosolized contaminated water

    Correct Answer
    B. Respiratory droplet
    Explanation
    Respiratory droplet transmission is the best description for the mechanism of transmission in an atypical pneumonia. This means that the infection is spread through respiratory droplets that are expelled when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. These droplets can then be inhaled by others in close proximity, leading to the spread of the infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Modifying factors for increased P. aeruginosa risk include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Corticosteroid use

    • B.

      Structural lung disease

    • C.

      Malnutrition

    • D.

      Day-care attendance

    Correct Answer
    D. Day-care attendance
    Explanation
    Day-care attendance is not a modifying factor for increased P. aeruginosa risk. P. aeruginosa is a bacterium that can cause infections in individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying health conditions. Corticosteroid use, structural lung disease, and malnutrition are all factors that can weaken the immune system and increase the risk of P. aeruginosa infection. However, day-care attendance does not directly impact the immune system or increase the risk of P. aeruginosa infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    According to the ATS/IDSA guidelines, what is the usual length of antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of CAP for outpatients?

    • A.

      Less than 5 days

    • B.

      5-7 days

    • C.

      7-10 days

    • D.

      10-14 days

    Correct Answer
    B. 5-7 days
    Explanation
    According to the ATS/IDSA guidelines, the usual length of antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of CAP (Community-Acquired Pneumonia) for outpatients is 5-7 days. This means that patients with CAP who are not hospitalized typically require a course of antibiotics for a duration of 5 to 7 days to effectively treat the infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Which of the following is consistent with the NAEPP comment on the use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) for a child with asthma?

    • A.

      The potential but small risk of delayed growth with ICS is well balanced by their effectiveness.

    • B.

      ICS should be used only if leukotriene modifiers fail to control asthma.

    • C.

      Permanent growth stunting is consistently noted in children using ICS

    • D.

      Leukotriene modifiers are equal in therapeutic effect to the use of a long-acting beta2 agonist.

    Correct Answer
    A. The potential but small risk of delayed growth with ICS is well balanced by their effectiveness.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the potential risk of delayed growth with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) is outweighed by their effectiveness in treating asthma. This implies that the benefits of using ICS for a child with asthma are greater than the potential side effect of delayed growth.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Compared with albuterol, levalbuterol (Xopenex) has:

    • A.

      A different mechanism of action

    • B.

      The ability potentially to provide greater bronchodilation with a lower dose

    • C.

      An anti-inflammatory effect similar to that of an inhaled corticosteroid.

    • D.

      A contraindication to use in elderly people

    Correct Answer
    B. The ability potentially to provide greater bronchodilation with a lower dose
    Explanation
    Levalbuterol (Xopenex) has the ability potentially to provide greater bronchodilation with a lower dose compared to albuterol. This means that it may be more effective in opening up the airways and relieving symptoms of bronchospasm at a lower dosage. This can be beneficial as it may reduce the risk of side effects associated with higher doses of medication.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    According to the GOLD COPD guidelines, the goal of inhaled corticosteroid use in stage III or severe COPD is to:

    • A.

      Minimize the risk of repeated exacerbations

    • B.

      Improve cough function

    • C.

      Reverse alveolar hypertrophy

    • D.

      Help mobilize secretions

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimize the risk of repeated exacerbations
    Explanation
    The goal of inhaled corticosteroid use in stage III or severe COPD is to minimize the risk of repeated exacerbations. Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used in the management of COPD to reduce airway inflammation and prevent exacerbations. By minimizing the risk of exacerbations, these medications can help improve the overall quality of life for individuals with COPD and reduce the need for hospitalizations and emergency room visits. Improving cough function, reversing alveolar hypertrophy, and helping mobilize secretions are not specific goals of inhaled corticosteroid therapy in COPD.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    According to the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) COPD guidelines, which of the following medications is indicated for all COPD stages?

    • A.

      Short-acting inhaled bronchodilator

    • B.

      Inhaled corticosteroid

    • C.

      Mucolytic agent

    • D.

      Theophylline

    Correct Answer
    A. Short-acting inhaled bronchodilator
    Explanation
    According to the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) COPD guidelines, a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator is indicated for all stages of COPD. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, making it easier for individuals with COPD to breathe. Short-acting bronchodilators provide immediate relief and are commonly used as rescue medications for COPD symptoms. They are recommended for all stages of COPD as they can help improve airflow and relieve symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. Other medications like inhaled corticosteroids, mucolytic agents, and theophylline may be indicated for specific stages or as add-on therapies, but a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator is universally recommended.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    Which of the following characteristics applies to macrolides?

    • A.

      Consistent activity against DRSP

    • B.

      Contraindicated in pregnancy

    • C.

      Effective against atypical pathogens

    • D.

      Unstable in the presence of beta-lactamase

    Correct Answer
    C. Effective against atypical pathogens
    Explanation
    Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that are effective against atypical pathogens. Atypical pathogens are bacteria that do not follow the usual patterns of infection and are often resistant to other types of antibiotics. Macrolides work by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria, making them effective against atypical pathogens. They are commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, where atypical pathogens are often involved. Macrolides are not consistently active against DRSP (drug-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae), they are not contraindicated in pregnancy, and they are not unstable in the presence of beta-lactamase.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    The primary mechanism of antimicrobial resistance of H. influenzae is through the organism's

    • A.

      Beta-lactamase production

    • B.

      Hypertrophy of cell membrane

    • C.

      Alteration in protein-binding sites

    • D.

      Failure of DNA gyrase reversal

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta-lactamase production
    Explanation
    The primary mechanism of antimicrobial resistance in H. influenzae is through the organism's beta-lactamase production. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme that inactivates beta-lactam antibiotics, which are commonly used to treat bacterial infections. By producing beta-lactamase, H. influenzae can break down these antibiotics and render them ineffective. This mechanism allows the bacteria to survive and continue to cause infections even in the presence of beta-lactam antibiotics.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    The mechanism of resistance of DRSP is through the cell's:

    • A.

      Beta-lactamase production

    • B.

      Hypertrophy of cell membrane

    • C.

      Alteration in protein-binding sites

    • D.

      Failure of DNA gyrase reversal

    Correct Answer
    C. Alteration in protein-binding sites
    Explanation
    The resistance mechanism of DRSP (Drug-Resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae) involves altering the sites where proteins bind. This alteration prevents drugs from effectively binding to their target proteins, reducing their effectiveness against DRSP infections. Unlike beta-lactamase production or hypertrophy of the cell membrane, which are mechanisms seen in other bacteria, DRSP primarily relies on this alteration to evade the effects of antibiotics.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    Which of the following is a quality of respiratory fluoroquinolones?

    • A.

      Activity against drug-resistant S. pneumoniae

    • B.

      Poor activity against atypical pathogens

    • C.

      Predominantly hepatic route of elimination

    • D.

      Absence of photosensitizing action

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity against drug-resistant S. pneumoniae
    Explanation
    Respiratory fluoroquinolones have the quality of activity against drug-resistant S. pneumoniae. This means that these antibiotics are effective in treating infections caused by S. pneumoniae strains that have developed resistance to other types of antibiotics. This is an important quality as drug-resistant strains of S. pneumoniae can cause serious respiratory infections, and having an antibiotic that can effectively treat these infections is crucial for patient care.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    What treatment of CAP for a 58-year-old woman who has a dry cough, headache, malaise, no recent antimicrobial use, and no comorbidity who takes no medication?

    • A.

      Clarithromycin

    • B.

      Amoxicillin

    • C.

      Levofloxacin

    • D.

      Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

    Correct Answer
    A. Clarithromycin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Clarithromycin. This is because the patient is a 58-year-old woman with symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), including a dry cough, headache, and malaise. Clarithromycin is a suitable choice for treating CAP in this patient because it covers the most common pathogens responsible for CAP, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. Additionally, the patient has no recent antimicrobial use and no comorbidities, which makes clarithromycin an appropriate first-line choice for treatment.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    What treatment of CAP for a 69-year-old man with heart failure and DM II?

    • A.

      Respiratory fluoroquinolone

    • B.

      Amoxicillin with a beta-lactamase inhibitor

    • C.

      Cephalosporin

    • D.

      A macrolide

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory fluoroquinolone
    Explanation
    The correct answer is respiratory fluoroquinolone. This is because a 69-year-old man with heart failure and DM II is at a higher risk of complications from community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Respiratory fluoroquinolones, such as levofloxacin or moxifloxacin, have broad-spectrum activity against the most common pathogens causing CAP, including atypical organisms. They are recommended as first-line treatment in patients with comorbidities, like heart failure and diabetes mellitus type II, due to their efficacy and ability to cover a wide range of potential pathogens.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    What CAP treatment for a 78-year-old woman with COPD?

    • A.

      Clindamycin

    • B.

      High-dose amoxicillin with a macrolide

    • C.

      Nitrofurantoin

    • D.

      Ceftriaxone

    Correct Answer
    B. High-dose amoxicillin with a macrolide
    Explanation
    High-dose amoxicillin with a macrolide is the correct answer for the treatment of CAP (community-acquired pneumonia) in a 78-year-old woman with COPD. This combination is recommended as first-line therapy for CAP in older adults with comorbidities such as COPD. Amoxicillin provides coverage against the most common pathogens responsible for CAP, while the addition of a macrolide (such as azithromycin or clarithromycin) helps to cover atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophila. This combination is effective in treating the infection and reducing the risk of complications in this patient population.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    What CAP treatment for a 46-year-old well woman who cannot take a macrolide?

    • A.

      Clarithromycin

    • B.

      Amoxicillin

    • C.

      Doxycycline

    • D.

      Fosfomycin

    Correct Answer
    C. Doxycycline
    Explanation
    Doxycycline is the correct answer because it is a tetracycline antibiotic that can be used as an alternative to macrolides in the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is effective against a wide range of bacteria and is commonly used when macrolides cannot be taken. Amoxicillin is not typically used for CAP treatment, and fosfomycin is not commonly used for respiratory infections. Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic, so it is not suitable for a patient who cannot take macrolides.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    What treatment for CAP for a 42-year-old man with no comorbidity and no recent antimicrobial use?

    • A.

      Azithromycin

    • B.

      Cefpodoxime

    • C.

      Trimethoprim-sulfamthoxazole

    • D.

      Ciprofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. Azithromycin
    Explanation
    Azithromycin is the correct answer for the treatment of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) in a 42-year-old man with no comorbidity and no recent antimicrobial use. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against the most common pathogens causing CAP, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. It is recommended as a first-line treatment for CAP in otherwise healthy individuals without risk factors for drug-resistant pathogens. Cefpodoxime, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and ciprofloxacin are alternative treatment options for CAP but are not the preferred choice in this specific case.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Which of the following characteristics is most often found in patients with emphysema?

    • A.

      Alpha-1 antiprotease deficiency

    • B.

      Enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole

    • C.

      Alveolar fibrosis

    • D.

      Hypertrophy of the larger airways

    Correct Answer
    B. Enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole
    Explanation
    Patients with emphysema often exhibit enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole. Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease characterized by the destruction of alveolar walls, leading to the formation of larger air spaces. This results in a decrease in the surface area available for gas exchange and impaired lung function. Alpha-1 antiprotease deficiency is a genetic condition that can contribute to the development of emphysema, but it is not the most common characteristic found in patients. Alveolar fibrosis and hypertrophy of the larger airways are not typically associated with emphysema.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    Which of the following characteristics is found in the early stages of chronic bronchitis?

    • A.

      Enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole

    • B.

      Excessive mucus production

    • C.

      Alveolar fibrosis

    • D.

      Dyspnea at rest

    Correct Answer
    B. Excessive mucus production
    Explanation
    Excessive mucus production is a characteristic found in the early stages of chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and irritation of the bronchial tubes, leading to excessive production of mucus. This excessive mucus can cause coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. Over time, if left untreated, chronic bronchitis can progress to more severe symptoms such as dyspnea at rest, but in the early stages, excessive mucus production is a key characteristic. Enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole is seen in emphysema, alveolar fibrosis is seen in conditions like pulmonary fibrosis, and dyspnea at rest is a later symptom of chronic bronchitis.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    After inhaled corticosteroid or leukotriene modifier therapy is initiated, clinical effects are usually seen: 

    • A.

      On the first day of use

    • B.

      Within 1-2 weeks

    • C.

      In about 3-4 weeks

    • D.

      In about 1-2 months

    Correct Answer
    B. Within 1-2 weeks
    Explanation
    After initiating inhaled corticosteroid or leukotriene modifier therapy, it usually takes about 1-2 weeks to see the clinical effects. This means that the medication starts to have an impact on the symptoms or condition being treated within this time frame. It is important to note that individual responses may vary, and some patients may experience the effects sooner or later than the average timeframe mentioned.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    According to the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program Expert Panel Report-3 (NAEPPEPR-3) guidelines, which of the following is not a risk for asthma death?

    • A.

      Hospitalization or an emergency department visit for asthma in the past month

    • B.

      Current use of systemic corticosteroids or recent withdrawal from systemic corticosteroids

    • C.

      Difficulty perceiving airflow obstruction or its severity

    • D.

      Rural residence

    Correct Answer
    D. Rural residence
    Explanation
    According to the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program Expert Panel Report-3 (NAEPPEPR-3) guidelines, rural residence is not considered a risk factor for asthma death. The guidelines mention that hospitalization or an emergency department visit for asthma in the past month, current use of systemic corticosteroids or recent withdrawal from systemic corticosteroids, and difficulty perceiving airflow obstruction or its severity are all risk factors for asthma death. However, rural residence is not listed as a risk factor in the guidelines.

    Rate this question:

  • 50. 

    In the treatment of asthma, leukotriene receptor antagonists should be used as:

    • A.

      Long-acting bronchodilators

    • B.

      Inflammatory inhibitors

    • C.

      Rescue drugs

    • D.

      Intervention in acute inflammation

    Correct Answer
    B. Inflammatory inhibitors
    Explanation
    Leukotriene receptor antagonists should be used as inflammatory inhibitors in the treatment of asthma. These medications work by blocking the action of leukotrienes, which are inflammatory substances that contribute to the symptoms of asthma. By inhibiting inflammation, leukotriene receptor antagonists help to reduce airway swelling and mucus production, making it easier for individuals with asthma to breathe. They are not considered to be long-acting bronchodilators, rescue drugs, or interventions in acute inflammation.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 11, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Ctichy84
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.