Cist2413-MS Server Infrastructure (Midterm) ATC

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Cist2413-MS Server Infrastructure (Midterm) ATC - Quiz

CIST2413-MS Server Infrastructure(Midterm) ATC


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    DCs in Active Directory domains use __________, which means all DCs can update and replicate the directory database. .

    • A.

      virtualization

    • B.

      Clustering

    • C.

      Transitive trust

    • D.

      Multimaster replication

    Correct Answer
    D. Multimaster replication
    Explanation
    DCs in Active Directory domains use multimaster replication, which means all DCs can update and replicate the directory database. This means that any changes made on one DC are automatically replicated to all other DCs in the domain, ensuring consistency and availability of the directory database across the network. Multimaster replication allows for a distributed and decentralized approach to managing the directory, where multiple DCs can act as masters and participate in the replication process.

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  • 2. 

    Web Server differs from other editions in that it does not require ________________ for users.

    • A.

      client access licenses

    • B.

      Server Core

    • C.

      thin clients

    • D.

      transitive trusts

    Correct Answer
    A. client access licenses
    Explanation
    Web Server differs from other editions in that it does not require client access licenses for users. This means that users can access the web server without needing to purchase and install additional licenses. This can be beneficial for organizations that have a large number of users or need to provide access to a wide range of individuals without incurring additional costs for licenses.

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  • 3. 

    The minimum memory requirement for Windows Server 2008 is____________ .

    • A.

      512 MB RAM

    • B.

      1 GB RAM

    • C.

      2 GB RAM

    • D.

      3 GB RAM

    Correct Answer
    A. 512 MB RAM
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2008 requires a minimum of 512 MB RAM. This means that in order for the operating system to run properly, it needs at least this amount of memory. Having less than 512 MB RAM may result in performance issues or the inability to run certain applications.

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  • 4. 

    Instead of passing the result as text, PowerShell passes results as __________, which are data packages containing information applications and services can use and are compatible with .NET Framework.

    • A.

      Roles

    • B.

      .NET objects

    • C.

      features

    • D.

      domains

    Correct Answer
    B. .NET objects
    Explanation
    PowerShell passes results as .NET objects, which are data packages containing information that applications and services can use. These objects are compatible with the .NET Framework, allowing for seamless integration and interoperability between different technologies. By using .NET objects, PowerShell enables developers to leverage the full power and functionality of the .NET Framework in their scripts and automation tasks.

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  • 5. 

    __________________ stores information on objects such as users and groups on the network.

    • A.

      Active Directory Certificate Services

    • B.

      Active Directory Federation Services

    • C.

      Active Directory Domain Services

    • D.

      Active Directory Rights Management Services

    Correct Answer
    C. Active Directory Domain Services
    Explanation
    Active Directory Domain Services is a directory service provided by Microsoft that stores information on objects such as users and groups on the network. It allows administrators to manage and organize these objects in a hierarchical structure, providing centralized control and authentication for network resources. This service is essential for managing user accounts, assigning permissions, and enforcing security policies within a Windows domain environment.

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  • 6. 

    ____________ allows Microsoft to more quickly develop patches and updates.

    • A.

      Shared code

    • B.

      Domain Name System

    • C.

      Client access licenses

    • D.

      Attack surfaces

    Correct Answer
    A. Shared code
    Explanation
    Shared code allows Microsoft to more quickly develop patches and updates because it allows them to reuse code that has already been developed and tested. This means that they do not have to start from scratch every time they need to release a patch or update, saving them time and resources. By using shared code, Microsoft can focus on making necessary changes and improvements to the existing code, rather than starting the development process from the beginning. This streamlines the process and allows for faster release of patches and updates.

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  • 7. 

    ____________ prepares an installation of Windows for imaging and deployment by modifying a system to create a new SID and other unique information the next time it starts.

    • A.

      NTFS

    • B.

      OEM

    • C.

      SID

    • D.

      Sysprep

    Correct Answer
    D. Sysprep
    Explanation
    Sysprep (System Preparation) prepares an installation of Windows for imaging and deployment by modifying a system to create a new SID (Security Identifier) and other unique information the next time it starts. This process is crucial for deploying Windows operating systems across multiple machines, as it ensures that each machine has a unique identity and avoids conflicts. Sysprep allows for customization and configuration of the operating system before creating an image that can be deployed to other machines, saving time and effort in setting up each individual machine.

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  • 8. 

    ___________ require your input during installation, whereas an unattended installation uses answer files and scripts for automation and does not require you to be present.

    • A.

      Attended installations

    • B.

      Generalization

    • C.

      Modules

    • D.

      KMS clients

    Correct Answer
    A. Attended installations
    Explanation
    Attended installations require your input during installation, meaning that you need to be present and manually provide the necessary information or make selections. On the other hand, an unattended installation uses answer files and scripts for automation, eliminating the need for your presence. Therefore, an unattended installation does not require you to be present.

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  • 9. 

    You should use the  _________ function in the ImageX command to add images or drive contents to an existing WIM file.

    • A.

      Append

    • B.

      Packet

    • C.

      Add

    • D.

      UDP

    Correct Answer
    A. Append
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Append". In the ImageX command, the "Append" function is used to add images or drive contents to an existing WIM file. This allows for the expansion of the WIM file by adding new data to it without having to recreate the entire file.

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  • 10. 

    _____________ validates licensed software products by creating a unique installation ID based on a hashed hardware serial numbers and a product key.

    • A.

      Volume licensing

    • B.

      Product activation

    • C.

      Retail licensing

    • D.

      OEM licensing

    Correct Answer
    B. Product activation
    Explanation
    Product activation is the process of validating licensed software products by creating a unique installation ID based on a hashed hardware serial number and a product key. This ensures that the software is being used on authorized devices and helps prevent unauthorized copying or distribution of the software.

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  • 11. 

    A ________ is a group of networks spread across different geographic areas.

    • A.

      Hub

    • B.

      LAN

    • C.

      Bridge

    • D.

      WAN

    Correct Answer
    D. WAN
    Explanation
    A WAN (Wide Area Network) is a group of networks spread across different geographic areas. It is a type of network that connects multiple LANs (Local Area Networks) together over a large geographical distance. Unlike LANs, which are limited to a small area like a building or campus, WANs can span across cities, countries, or even continents. WANs are typically used by organizations to connect their branches or offices located in different locations, allowing them to share resources, communicate, and access centralized services.

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  • 12. 

    ________________ are represented by either a 1 or a 0. 1 represents "on," or "true," and 0 represents "off," or "false."

    • A.

      Headers

    • B.

      Binary numbers

    • C.

      Hubs

    • D.

      Frames

    Correct Answer
    B. Binary numbers
    Explanation
    Binary numbers are a numerical system that uses only two digits, 1 and 0. In this system, 1 represents "on" or "true," while 0 represents "off" or "false." Binary numbers are commonly used in computer systems to represent and manipulate data.

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  • 13. 

    A _________ is a group of networks spread across different geographic areas.

    • A.

      Hub

    • B.

      LAN

    • C.

      Bridge

    • D.

      WAN

    Correct Answer
    D. WAN
    Explanation
    A WAN (Wide Area Network) is a group of networks spread across different geographic areas. It is a network that connects multiple local area networks (LANs) over a large geographical area, such as cities or countries. Unlike a LAN, which is limited to a small area, a WAN allows for the sharing of resources and communication between different locations.

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  • 14. 

    ________ allow you to deploy a DC that allows only specific account data to be read from the server.

    • A.

      VM guests

    • B.

      VM hosts

    • C.

      RODCs

    • D.

      SIDs

    Correct Answer
    C. RODCs
    Explanation
    RODCs (Read-Only Domain Controllers) allow you to deploy a DC (Domain Controller) that only allows specific account data to be read from the server. RODCs are a type of domain controller that holds a read-only copy of the Active Directory database. They are typically deployed in locations with low physical security or unreliable network connections. RODCs help to protect the data by preventing any modifications to the Active Directory database and only allowing read access to specific account data. This ensures that sensitive information is not compromised in case the RODC is compromised.

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  • 15. 

    _________ addresses allow clients on the same subnet to communicate without DHCP or manual configuration.

    • A.

      CIDR

    • B.

      Ethernet

    • C.

      APIPA

    • D.

      NIC

    Correct Answer
    C. APIPA
    Explanation
    APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Addressing. It is a feature in Windows operating systems that allows clients on the same subnet to communicate with each other without the need for DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) or manual configuration. When a client is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it automatically assigns itself an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254, allowing for local communication within the same network.

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  • 16. 

    A(n) ____________ tunnel allows two IPv6 computers to communicate with one another when they are connected on the same IPv4 network.

    • A.

      Router-to-router

    • B.

      Host-to-router and router-to-host

    • C.

      ISATAP

    • D.

      host-to-host

    Correct Answer
    D. host-to-host
  • 17. 

    A __________________ indicates that the command should change its default behavior.

    • A.

      subnet

    • B.

      Repeater

    • C.

      Command-line switch

    • D.

      Node

    Correct Answer
    C. Command-line switch
    Explanation
    A command-line switch is used to modify the default behavior of a command. It allows the user to provide additional instructions or parameters to the command, which can alter the way it operates. By using a command-line switch, the user can customize the command's behavior according to their specific requirements.

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  • 18. 

    By exchanging messages when a client powers on or connects to a network, __________ automatically configures the client's IP address information on the basis of administrator-defined configurations on a DHCP server.

    • A.

      UDP

    • B.

      BOOTP

    • C.

      DNS

    • D.

      DHCP

    Correct Answer
    D. DHCP
    Explanation
    DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration settings to devices on a network. When a client powers on or connects to a network, it sends a DHCP request to a DHCP server. The DHCP server then responds with an IP address and other configuration information based on the settings defined by the network administrator. This allows the client to automatically configure its IP address without manual intervention.

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  • 19. 

    A _______ ___ is the amount of time a client keeps an IP address before releasing it.

    • A.

      binding time value

    • B.

      Lease duration

    • C.

      Renewal time value

    • D.

      Scope option

    Correct Answer
    B. Lease duration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "lease duration". In a client-server network setup, when a client requests an IP address from a server, it is assigned a lease duration, which is the amount of time the client can use that IP address before it needs to renew or release it. This lease duration ensures that IP addresses are efficiently managed and not held indefinitely by clients that no longer need them.

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  • 20. 

    The DHCP database is based on the ______ storage engine.

    • A.

      DNS

    • B.

      UDP

    • C.

      OEM

    • D.

      JET

    Correct Answer
    D. JET
    Explanation
    The correct answer is JET. JET stands for Joint Engine Technology and it is a database engine used by Microsoft. It is commonly used for the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) database storage. JET provides a reliable and efficient way to store and retrieve data for DHCP servers.

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  • 21. 

    Microsoft recommends using a(n) _____  rule for splitting scopes between two servers for fault tolerance.

    • A.

      50/50

    • B.

      70/30

    • C.

      80/20

    • D.

      90/10

    Correct Answer
    C. 80/20
    Explanation
    Microsoft recommends using an 80/20 rule for splitting scopes between two servers for fault tolerance. This means that one server will handle 80% of the workload while the other server handles 20%. This distribution helps ensure that if one server fails, the other server can still handle the majority of the workload, providing fault tolerance and minimizing downtime.

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  • 22. 

    Windows Server 2008 performs an automated backup of the DHCP database every ______minutes to the %systemroot%\systemroot\dhcp\backup directory by default.

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    D. 60
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2008 performs an automated backup of the DHCP database every 60 minutes to the %systemroot%\systemroot\dhcp\backup directory by default. This means that the DHCP database is automatically backed up every hour to ensure that any changes or updates made to the database are saved and can be restored if needed. This regular backup frequency helps to prevent data loss and ensures the availability and reliability of the DHCP service.

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  • 23. 

    Entering the ______________ command issues the DHCPRelease message to the server currently holding the IP address lease for a client

    • A.

      Netsh

    • B.

      Ipconfig /release

    • C.

      ipconfig /all

    • D.

      ipconfig /activate

    Correct Answer
    B. Ipconfig /release
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ipconfig /release". This command is used to release the IP address lease for a client. When this command is entered, it sends a DHCPRelease message to the server that currently holds the IP address lease for the client. This allows the client to release the IP address and request a new one from the DHCP server if needed.

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  • 24. 

    The ___________ is currently made up of 13 servers that provide referrals to all the top-level domains.

    • A.

      Top-level domain

    • B.

      second-level domain

    • C.

      subdomain

    • D.

      Root domain

    Correct Answer
    D. Root domain
    Explanation
    The root domain is currently made up of 13 servers that provide referrals to all the top-level domains. These servers are responsible for maintaining the authoritative information about the top-level domains and directing DNS queries to the appropriate name servers for each domain. The root domain is the highest level in the DNS hierarchy and serves as the starting point for resolving domain names.

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  • 25. 

    If your Server Core installation is a member of a domain, you can use ____________ to apply the DNS suffix.

    • A.

      Zone transfer

    • B.

      Group Policy

    • C.

      Stub zone

    • D.

      Root hint

    Correct Answer
    B. Group Policy
    Explanation
    If your Server Core installation is a member of a domain, you can use Group Policy to apply the DNS suffix. Group Policy allows you to centrally manage and configure settings for multiple computers in a domain. By configuring the DNS suffix through Group Policy, you can ensure that all Server Core installations in the domain have the same DNS suffix applied, simplifying network configuration and management.

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  • 26. 

    When the DNS role is installed on an Internet-connected server, it configures the IP addresses for referral servers for the root domain. These servers are known as _____________.

    • A.

      Slave servers

    • B.

      Resource records

    • C.

      Stub zones

    • D.

      root hints

    Correct Answer
    D. root hints
    Explanation
    When the DNS role is installed on an Internet-connected server, it configures the IP addresses for referral servers for the root domain. These servers are known as root hints.

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  • 27. 

    A(n)  _______________ is the zone that is authoritative for a specific domain and its name records.

    • A.

      Secondary DNS zone

    • B.

      Alias zone

    • C.

      Alternative zone

    • D.

      Primary DNS zone

    Correct Answer
    D. Primary DNS zone
    Explanation
    A primary DNS zone is the zone that is authoritative for a specific domain and its name records. This means that it is responsible for storing and providing information about the domain's DNS records, such as IP addresses associated with domain names. Other DNS servers can query the primary DNS zone to obtain this information and provide it to clients when requested.

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