Networking Components - Srickperry

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Networking Components - Srickperry - Quiz

Explore the evolution of bus architectures in computer systems with the Networking Components quiz by srickperry. Learn about ISA, MCA, VESA, EISA, PCI, and AGP, focusing on their... see morespeeds, bit architectures, and roles in network card compatibility. see less

2. PCI =

Explanation

PCI stands for Peripheral Component Interconnect. It is a computer bus that connects peripheral devices to the motherboard of a computer. This bus provides a high-speed data path between the CPU and peripheral devices such as graphics cards, network cards, and sound cards. The PCI standard has evolved over time, with newer versions offering faster data transfer rates and improved performance. Overall, PCI plays a crucial role in expanding the capabilities of a computer system by allowing various peripherals to communicate with the CPU efficiently.

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3. An ______ IDS will monitor activity, log any suspicious activity, and then take some form of corrective action. For example, if a system is doing a port scan on the network, the IDS may log the activity but also disconnect the system creating the suspicious action from the network.

Explanation

An active IDS refers to an intrusion detection system that actively monitors network activity, logs any suspicious behavior, and takes necessary corrective actions. In this case, if the system detects a port scan, it not only logs the activity but also disconnects the system responsible for the suspicious action from the network. This proactive approach ensures that potential threats are immediately addressed and mitigated to prevent any further damage or unauthorized access.

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4. A ______ intrusion detection system does not take any corrective action when suspicious activity has been identified. It will simply identify the activity and then log to file any information needed during an investigation. It does not take any corrective action.

Explanation

A passive intrusion detection system is designed to only identify and log suspicious activity without taking any corrective action. It is primarily used for monitoring and collecting information about potential security threats, allowing for further investigation and analysis. Unlike an active intrusion detection system, which may actively block or mitigate suspicious activity, a passive system focuses on passive observation and documentation.

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5. VESA =

Explanation

VESA stands for Video Electronics Standards Association. This organization is responsible for developing and promoting standards for the video and display industry. They create guidelines and specifications that ensure compatibility and interoperability between different video and display devices. VESA standards cover various aspects such as video resolutions, refresh rates, connectors, and mounting interfaces. By adhering to these standards, manufacturers can ensure that their products work seamlessly with other VESA-compliant devices, providing a consistent and reliable user experience.

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6. ISA =

Explanation

The correct answer is "Industry Standard Architecture". ISA stands for Industry Standard Architecture, which refers to a computer bus standard for IBM compatible computers. It was introduced by IBM in 1981 and was widely used until the mid-1990s. ISA allowed for the expansion of a computer system by adding additional hardware components such as sound cards, network cards, and modems. It used a 16-bit data bus and supported a maximum of 16 MB of memory. ISA was eventually superseded by newer bus standards like PCI.

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7. _____ refers to the space between the ceiling tiles and the floor located above them.

Explanation

This space is typically used to route power and network cables. It is important to use plenumgrade cables in this space because if there is a fire and you are not using plenumgrade cables, a toxin is given off that could be carried throughout the building, causing harm to individuals. Plenum-grade cabling uses a low-toxicity material for the jacket of the cable in case of fire.

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8. AUI = ____________ ________ ________

Explanation

Also called a Digital-Intel-Xerox (DIX) connector

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9. DIX = _____ _____ _____

Explanation

Also called an Attachment Unit Interface (AUI) connector.

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10. A _______ is the combination of a bridge and a router, and it makes the decision whether it needs to bridge the data or route the data according to the protocol being used.

Explanation

If the protocol is a nonroutable protocol such as NetBEUI, the data will be bridged. If the protocol is TCP/IP or IPX/SPX, the routing features of the brouter will be used.

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11. Cables are typically connected from the wall jack to the patch panel by a punch-down tool. There are a few standards for wiring patch panels;
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12. IDF =

Explanation

When wiring the network you will typically have the outside line coming into the building connect to a panel; this panel is known as the main distribution frame, or MDF. From the MDF you would typically connect to other panels, known as intermediate distribution frames (IDFs), which is what the workstations connect to. This hierarchy of MDF and IDF panels allows greater flexibility when rearranging the network at a later time.

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13. A ________ is a network connectivity device that is used to break the network down into multiple network segments.  It runs at layer 2, and is used to filter traffic by only forwarding traffic to the destination network segment.

Explanation

A bridge is a network connectivity device that is used to break the network down into multiple network segments. It operates at layer 2 of the OSI model and is designed to filter traffic by only forwarding it to the destination network segment. Bridges help to improve network performance and efficiency by reducing network congestion and improving overall network speed. They are commonly used in local area networks (LANs) to connect different segments of the network and ensure efficient data transmission between them.

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14. A __________ hub is a hub that has uplink capabilities.

Explanation

A cascading hub is a hub that has uplink capabilities. This means that it can connect to another hub or switch to extend the network. The cascading hub acts as an intermediary device, allowing multiple devices to be connected and communicate with each other. It provides a pathway for data to flow between the devices connected to it and the rest of the network. By having uplink capabilities, the cascading hub enables the expansion and scalability of the network infrastructure.

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15. When a switch assigns the VLAN identification information to a packet, this is known as ________.

Explanation

When a switch assigns the VLAN identification information to a packet, it is known as tagging. Tagging involves adding a VLAN tag or VLAN header to the packet, which includes the VLAN ID. This allows the switch to differentiate and route the packet based on the assigned VLAN. Tagging is commonly used in VLAN implementations to separate and manage network traffic efficiently.

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16. An ________ _________ ________ is a security device that monitors system or network activity and then notifies the administrator of any suspicious activity.

Explanation

Intrusion detection systems are important devices that will complement other security devices such as firewalls. The IDS is an important device because it will notify you not only of suspicious activity against the firewall, but also of suspicious activity inside the network.

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17. PSTN =

Explanation

The correct answer is "public switched telephone network". PSTN stands for public switched telephone network, which refers to the global network of traditional landline telephones. It is a circuit-switched network that allows for voice communication between different telephone users. This network is operated by telecommunications providers and enables communication through the use of physical copper wires or fiber optic cables. The PSTN has been widely used for decades but is gradually being replaced by digital networks such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol).

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18. CSU/DSU =

Explanation

A channel service unit/data service unit (CSU/DSU) is either one device or a pair of devices that allows an organization to get a very-high-speed WAN connection from the telephone company, such as a T1 or T3 link. The CSU is used at the business end to get the connection to the WAN, and the DSU may be used at the provider’s end to allow the CSU to connect.

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19. A _______-based IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious behavior.

Explanation

A network-based IDS has the capability of monitoring the entire network and comparing that traffic to known malicious traffic patterns. When a match is found an alert can be triggered. Network-based IDSs can be software loaded on a system that monitors network traffic or can be a hardware device.

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20. ISDN=

Explanation

ISDN stands for integrated services digital network. It is a telecommunications network that allows the transmission of voice, data, video, and other network services over traditional copper telephone lines. ISDN provides a digital connection, which offers faster data transfer rates and better call quality compared to analog systems. It enables the integration of multiple services, such as telephone, fax, and internet, over a single network connection. ISDN has been widely used in the past for various applications, including video conferencing, telecommuting, and internet access.

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21. At which layer of the OSI model does the Router reside?

Explanation

The router resides at layer 3 of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data transmission and make decisions about how to direct traffic. They operate at a higher level than switches or hubs, which are typically found at layer 2 (data link layer) of the OSI model.

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22. This device is also known as a concentrator.

Explanation

A hub is a device that is commonly referred to as a concentrator. It is used to connect multiple devices in a network, allowing them to communicate with each other. A hub receives data packets from one device and broadcasts them to all other connected devices. It does not analyze or filter the data, making it a simple and less intelligent device compared to switches or routers. Therefore, the given answer "hub" is correct as it accurately describes a device that is also known as a concentrator.

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23. MDF =

Explanation

When wiring the network you will typically have the outside line coming into the building connect to a panel; this panel is known as the main distribution frame, or MDF. From the MDF you would typically connect to other panels, known as intermediate distribution frames (IDFs), which is what the workstations connect to. This hierarchy of MDF and IDF panels allows greater flexibility when rearranging
the network at a later time.

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24. A _______ is responsible for translating information from one format to another and can run at any layer of the OSI model, depending on what information it translates. A typical use is to ensure that systems in one environment can access information in another environment.

Explanation

For example, you want to make sure that your PC environment can access information on the company’s mainframe. As shown in the Figure, when the packet reaches the gateway, the gateway strips the packet down and repackages it so that it is understood on the other side of the gateway.

It is also important to note that when you configure TCP/IP and you configure the “default gateway” setting, you are pointing to the address of the router on the network. It really has nothing to do with an actual “gateway” device.

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25. What type of hub is this?

Explanation

A hybrid hub is a hub that can use many different types of cables in addition to UTP cabling. A hybrid hub usually is cabled using thinnet or thicknet Ethernet along with popular cable types such as twisted-pair cabling.

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26. ____-based intrusion detection systems monitor the local system for suspicious activity.

Explanation

A host-based IDS is typically a piece of software installed on the system and can only monitor activity on the system the IDS was installed on.

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27. AGP =

Explanation

The correct answer is "advanced graphics port" because AGP stands for Advanced Graphics Port. AGP is a high-speed point-to-point channel for attaching a video card to a computer's motherboard. It was commonly used in the late 1990s and early 2000s to provide faster and more efficient communication between the graphics card and the rest of the system. AGP allowed for improved graphics performance and was eventually replaced by PCI Express.

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28. MCA =

Explanation

The correct answer is Microchannel Architecture. MCA stands for Microchannel Architecture, which is a proprietary 32-bit bus architecture developed by IBM in the late 1980s. It was designed as a replacement for the ISA bus and offered higher performance and improved features such as bus mastering and plug-and-play capabilities. However, MCA was not widely adopted by other manufacturers and eventually lost out to the more popular and open standard, PCI.

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29. A wireless access point (WAP) is also known as a _____.

Explanation

A wireless access point (WAP) is also known as a cell because it functions as a central hub for wireless communication within a specific area or "cell." It allows devices to connect to a wireless network and access the internet or other network resources. Similar to how cells in a biological organism work together to form tissues and organs, multiple WAPs can be deployed in a network to provide coverage across a larger area, creating a seamless wireless experience for users.

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30. EISA =

Explanation

The correct answer is "extended industry standard architecture." EISA stands for extended industry standard architecture, which refers to a computer bus standard that extends the capabilities of the original IBM PC/XT and PC/AT architectures. It was developed in the late 1980s as a backward-compatible enhancement to the ISA bus, allowing for faster data transfer rates and support for more devices. EISA was widely used in the early 1990s before being replaced by newer bus standards like PCI.

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31. One disadvantage of using a hub is that it leads to a lot of unneeded traffic and contention across the entire network that will slow network performance.

Explanation

A hub sends the signal to all ports on the hub. This means that, if you have a 24-port hub linked to another 24-port hub and a workstation sends data to another workstation, the data will be sent to all 48 ports on the network. This leads to a lot of unneeded traffic and contention across the
entire network that will slow network performance. A solution would be to use a switch, which is the subject of an upcoming discussion!

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32. It is a best practice to use switches whenever possible because of the increase in performance over a standard hub. The bandwidth with a standard hub is shared by all users connected to the hub; however, with a switch, all users get the full network bandwidth. For example, a 100 Mbps network with a 24-port hub and 24 PCs allows each user to have 100/24 Mbps bandwidth; with a switch, however, each user would have a full 100 Mbps bandwidth.

Explanation

Using switches instead of standard hubs is considered a best practice because it improves performance. In a standard hub, the bandwidth is shared among all connected users, resulting in slower speeds for each user. However, with a switch, each user gets the full network bandwidth, which leads to faster and more efficient data transmission. This is demonstrated in the example provided, where a 100 Mbps network with a 24-port hub and 24 PCs would give each user only 100/24 Mbps bandwidth, whereas with a switch, each user would have the full 100 Mbps bandwidth.

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33. Hubs are used in Ethernet environments, whereas Token Ring environments use MAUs.

Explanation

Hubs and MAUs are both used in networking environments, but they are specific to different types of networks. Hubs are used in Ethernet environments, where they act as a central connection point for multiple devices. They receive data from one device and then broadcast it to all other devices connected to the hub. On the other hand, MAUs (Media Access Units) are used in Token Ring environments. They provide the physical connection between devices in a Token Ring network, allowing them to transmit data in a controlled manner. Therefore, the statement that hubs are used in Ethernet environments and MAUs are used in Token Ring environments is true.

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34. PCMCIA =

Explanation

PCMCIA stands for Personal Computer Memory Card Industry Association. This association was responsible for developing standards for memory cards used in personal computers. The acronym PCMCIA is commonly used to refer to the type of memory card that follows these standards.

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35. MAU = ________ _________ ________

Explanation

A multistation access unit (MAU) is a device to which multiple workstations are connected in order to communicate on a Token Ring network. A MAU is a hub-type device for Token Ring networks. Like an active hub, a MAU regenerates the signal when it reaches the MAU.

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36. MAUs don't have collision indicators because you can't have collisions on a Token Ring network.

Explanation

Token Ring networks use a token passing mechanism where only one device can transmit data at a time. Each device on the network waits for its turn to transmit, eliminating the possibility of collisions. Therefore, collision indicators are not necessary in Token Ring networks as collisions cannot occur. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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37. A thinnet segment cannot be attached directly to the BNC connector on the network adapter; it must use a T-connector.

Explanation

A thinnet segment cannot be attached directly to the BNC connector on the network adapter because it requires the use of a T-connector. This connector is necessary to connect the thinnet cable to the network adapter, allowing for proper communication and data transmission. Without the T-connector, the thinnet segment would not be able to establish a connection with the network adapter and therefore would not function correctly.

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38. 1 - What does a network interface card add to a computer's functionality?

Explanation

A network interface card (NIC) adds the capability to communicate with other computers across a network medium. This means that the computer can connect to other devices, such as servers or other computers, and exchange data or access shared resources. The NIC acts as the interface between the computer and the network, allowing it to send and receive data packets. Without a NIC, the computer would not be able to connect to a network and would be limited to local functionality only.

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39. 19. Which of the following layers does a gateway run at (select the best answer)?

Explanation

A gateway can run at any layer of the OSI model depending on what it is translating. It is very popular in the networking world that layers 4,5,6, and 7 are used, but be aware that the gateway could run at any layer.

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40.  8. Which network component is used to extend the distance the signal can travel by regenerating the signal?

Explanation

A repeater is a network component that is used to extend the distance the signal can travel by regenerating the signal. It receives the signal, amplifies it, and then retransmits it to the next segment of the network. This helps to overcome signal degradation and allows the signal to travel further without loss of quality. Unlike a passive hub, switch, or router, which primarily facilitate communication between devices, a repeater specifically focuses on boosting the signal strength to extend its reach.

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41. Virtual LANs (VLANs) are a feature of special switches, known as __________ switches, which allow the administrator to group ports on a switch to a "virtual LAN." When a port is configured for a particular VLAN, it is unable to communicate with systems that are not on that VLAN without the use of a routing device such as a router. This is similar to the fact that, if we had two physical networks, a machine cannot send data from one network to the other without the use of a router.

Explanation

Managed switches are special switches that have the capability to create and manage VLANs. By grouping ports on a switch to a "virtual LAN," the administrator can control the communication between devices on different VLANs. When a port is configured for a particular VLAN, it is isolated from other VLANs and can only communicate with devices within the same VLAN. This is similar to how a machine in one physical network cannot send data to another network without the use of a router. Therefore, the correct answer is "managed."

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42. 15. Which networking feature allows you to group ports on a switch to create a broadcast domain?

Explanation

VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) is a networking feature that allows you to group ports on a switch to create a broadcast domain. VLANs enable the segmentation of a network into multiple virtual networks, allowing different devices to communicate with each other as if they were on the same physical network. By grouping ports together, VLANs provide enhanced security, improved performance, and better network management by isolating traffic and reducing broadcast traffic.

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43. MAUs don't use an uplink port?

Explanation

Another major difference with a MAU is that MAUs don’t actually use an uplink port. With Token Ring, there is a logical ring within the MAU, and when you connect to another MAU, you must complete a full ring structure again. Therefore, you will notice on the Token Ring MAU that it has a ring-in port and a ring-out port. When you wish to connect two MAUs together, you must ring out of the first MAU and, with that cable, ring in to the second MAU.

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44. Which layer does a Bridge run at?

Explanation

Since a bridge works with a MAC address, and the MAC is a component of layer 2 of the OSI model, the bridge runs at layer 2 of the OSI model.

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45.  16. Which layer of the OSI model does a router run at?

Explanation

A router operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination. They make decisions based on routing protocols and maintain routing tables to efficiently direct traffic. Therefore, Layer 3 is the correct answer for the layer at which a router operates.

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46. This layer switch doesn't associate the port with the VLAN, but the MAC addresses of systems are associated with the VLAN. The network administrator is responsible for listing all the MAC addresses for each VLAN on the switch. When a packet is sent by a system and reaches the switch, the switch tags the packet as being a member of the VLAN, and it will be sent only to other systems in the VLAN. The benefit of this layer switches is that, because the MAC address is associated with the VLAN, it doesn't matter what port the system is plugged into. This is a great feature for laptop users who typically roam around on the network—they will always be a member of the same VLAN unless the switch is reconfigured.

Explanation

Layer 2 switches are responsible for associating MAC addresses with VLANs. When a packet reaches the switch, it tags the packet as a member of a specific VLAN based on the MAC address. This allows the switch to send the packet only to other systems in the same VLAN, regardless of the port the system is connected to. This feature is particularly beneficial for laptop users who move around on the network, as they will always remain a member of the same VLAN unless the switch is reconfigured.

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47.  12. Which type of network component enables each device to have the full bandwidth of the medium when transmitting?

Explanation

Switching is a fairly involved process that allows the device to have the full bandwidth when transmitting.
The Transceiver is incorrect because a transceiver is the connection point on a NIC and does not allow for multiple users to send data through the transceiver. The bandwidth on the transceiver is dedicated to the PC in which the NIC is installed.
The Hub is incorrect because the bandwidth is divided among all used ports on the hub.
The Repeater is incorrect because it does not split bandwidth, inasmuch as it is used only to receive signals on one cable and regenerate the signal on another cable.

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48. There are two popular types of ISDN connections:  Which one is a 128 Kbps connection that is made up of two 64 Kbps channels (known as B-channels) and one 16 Kbps control channel (known as a D-channel).

Explanation

The correct answer is Basic rate interface (BRI). BRI is a type of ISDN connection that consists of two 64 Kbps B-channels and one 16 Kbps D-channel, resulting in a total bandwidth of 128 Kbps. This type of connection is commonly used for small businesses and residential users who require a moderate amount of bandwidth for voice and data communication. On the other hand, Primary rate interface (PRI) is a higher capacity ISDN connection that typically includes 23 B-channels and one 64 Kbps D-channel, providing a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps.

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49. 2 - In order for a NIC to interact with the computer, what needs to be installed?

Explanation

A driver is necessary to be installed in order for a NIC (Network Interface Card) to interact with the computer. The driver is a software that enables communication between the NIC and the computer. It allows the computer's operating system to recognize and utilize the features and functionality of the NIC, facilitating the transmission and reception of data between the computer and the network. Without the driver, the NIC would not be able to establish a connection or communicate effectively with the computer.

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50. 24. How many B-channels are in a BRI ISDN connection?

Explanation

A BRI ISDN (Basic Rate Interface Integrated Services Digital Network) connection typically consists of two B-channels and one D-channel. The B-channels are used for carrying voice, data, and video traffic, while the D-channel is used for signaling and control purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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51. 17. Which networking device routes data used by a routable protocol but bridges data for nonroutable protocols?

Explanation

A brouter is a networking device that combines the functions of a router and a bridge. It routes data for routable protocols, such as IP, while bridging data for nonroutable protocols, such as Ethernet. This allows the brouter to efficiently handle different types of network traffic and seamlessly connect different types of networks.

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52. 4. When troubleshooting to find out why a network card will not connect to the network, which of the following would you check first?

Explanation

When troubleshooting a network card that will not connect to the network, checking the link light should be the first step. The link light indicates whether the network card is receiving a signal from the network. If the link light is not lit or is blinking, it suggests that there may be an issue with the physical connection between the network card and the network cable. By checking the link light, you can quickly determine if there is a problem with the physical connection, allowing you to proceed with further troubleshooting steps if necessary.

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53.  13. When data is sent to a system on a switch, the data is sent to what port(s)?

Explanation

When data is sent to a system on a switch, it is only sent to the port of the destination system. This means that the switch will forward the data directly to the specific port where the intended recipient device is connected. It will not be broadcasted to all ports on the switch or any uplinked hubs.

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54. 3 If a card has the capability to connect to more than one kind of medium, you might have to set which of the following in order to ensure connectivity?

Explanation

The transceiver-type setting is required for network adapters that are capable of attaching to more than one media type. Typical cards of this nature include Ethernet cards that have both twisted-pair and coaxial connectors. This is one of the more common oversights in configuring a NIC and renders the card nonfunctional if configured for the wrong media connection. To alleviate this problem, some cards of this type have an auto setting that causes the card to search for the transceiver that has media connected to it. From a troubleshooting point of view, you should be prepared for the auto setting not to be working, and you may need to manually specify the transceiver type.

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55. 14. Which layer of the OSI model does a bridge run at?

Explanation

Because a bridge works with MAC addresses, it is considered a layer-2 device.

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56. At which OSI layer does the hub run at?

Explanation

Hubs run at layer 1 because they work with the electrical signal.

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57. Which OSI layer does a Switch run at?

Explanation

A switch operates at the Data Link Layer, which is Layer 2 of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between nodes on a network. Switches use MAC addresses to forward data packets to the correct destination. They create and maintain a table of MAC addresses to make forwarding decisions. By operating at Layer 2, switches can efficiently manage network traffic and improve network performance.

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58. 24. How many B-channels are in a BRI ISDN connection?

Explanation

A BRI ISDN connection typically consists of two B-channels. BRI stands for Basic Rate Interface, and it is a type of ISDN connection that is commonly used for residential and small business applications. Each B-channel can carry a separate voice or data call, allowing for simultaneous communication on both channels. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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59. 7. Which of the following types of hubs does not regenerate the signal and therefore is not a repeater?

Explanation

A passive hub does not regenerate the signal and therefore is not a repeater. Unlike active and switching hubs, which amplify and regenerate the signal, a passive hub simply allows the signal to pass through without any amplification or regeneration. Therefore, it does not actively participate in the signal regeneration process, making it different from the other types of hubs mentioned.

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60.  11. When data is sent to a system on a hub, the data is sent to which port(s) on the hub?

Explanation

When data is sent to a system on a hub, it is broadcasted to all ports on the immediate hub and any linked hubs. This means that the data is sent to every device connected to the hub, ensuring that the intended destination system receives the data. This broadcast method allows for efficient communication within the network, as all devices connected to the hub can receive the data simultaneously.

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61. There are two popular types of ISDN connections:  Which one is a 1.55 Mbps connection that is made up of twenty-three 64 Kbps channels (B-channels) and one 64 Kbps D-channel for signaling and control information.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Primary rate interface (PRI)". PRI is a type of ISDN connection that provides a higher data transmission rate compared to Basic rate interface (BRI). It consists of twenty-three 64 Kbps B-channels for data transmission and one 64 Kbps D-channel for signaling and control information. This configuration allows for a total bandwidth of 1.55 Mbps, making it suitable for larger organizations or high-demand applications that require faster data transfer speeds.

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62.  6. What is an AUI connector?

Explanation

An AUI connector is a 15-pin D female connector. With an external transceiver, the actual media connection is made external to the NIC using a small device that attaches via an extension cable. These types of connections use an adapter unit interface (AUI) connector, also called a Digital-Intel-Xerox (DIX) connector, on the back of the NIC. The AUI connector is a female 15-pin D-connector that looks very much like a joystick port.

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63. This enterprise-capable switch feature is a feature that allows the switch to send a copy of data that reaches certain ports to the mirrored, or monitored, port.

Explanation

Port monitoring allows an administrator to plug his/her workstation into the port that the copy of the data is being sent to, and monitor the network traffic.

Port mirroring is an important feature of a switch because by default the switch filters traffic by only sending the data to the port that the destination system resides on. The switch’s filtering feature will prevent the monitoring of traffic, and as a result the administrator will have to enable port mirroring (monitoring) and specify the port that receives the copy of data.

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64.  10. Which network device is used to connect systems together in a Token Ring environment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Multistation access unit. In a Token Ring environment, a Multistation access unit (MSAU) is used to connect systems together. MSAU acts as a central hub that allows multiple devices to connect to the Token Ring network. It provides a shared medium for communication and manages the token passing process, ensuring that only one device can transmit data at a time.

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65. This enterprise-capable switch feature runs at layer 2 and is designed to prevent loops on a network that could occur if you connect a number of switches together.

Explanation

Having a loop on the network could cause the network to go down and creates instability in the switches. To prevent this, STP was designed. STP is a protocol that looks at all of the ports used to create a loop and then places one of those ports in a blocking state so that no data traffic can pass through the port. Once the port is in a blocking state, the loop is broken and the network becomes more stable. The fact that the port is in a blocking state instead of being disabled means that if one of the other links go down, then the port is transitioned into a forwarding state automatically. When a port is in a forwarding state, it is allowed to send and receive data on the port.

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66. This layer switch implements what is known as port switching. Port switching means that the network administrator associates the ports on the switch as being members of a particular VLAN. With port switching, you need to ensure that you are satisfied with the fact that if you move a computer from one port to another, the system may become a member of a different VLAN, because the port is the member of the VLAN, not the network card connected to it. This layer of switches do offer benefits; they are great for increasing security and isolation. They also allow an administrator to move a system to a new VLAN by reconfiguring the port for the new VLAN. The benefit is that there is no need to move the system physically.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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67. An old bus architecture that runs at 8 MHz and supports 8- or 16-bit cards.

Explanation

ISA = Industry Standard Architecture

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68. Is the new graphics standard that runs at 66 MHz and is used by video cards.

Explanation

AGP = Advanced Graphics Port

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69. The MAU allows for a physical star topology but is logically a bus topology because it cycles through all ports in order to simulate a bus.

Explanation

The MAU allows for a physical star topology but is logically a RING topology because it cycles through all ports in order to simulate a ring.

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70.  9. Which type of hub enables more than one type of cable or medium to connect to it?

Explanation

A hybrid hub enables more than one type of cable or medium to connect to it. This means that it can accommodate different types of connections, such as Ethernet, USB, or fiber optic cables. Unlike passive hubs, which simply pass along signals without any processing, and active hubs, which amplify and regenerate signals, a hybrid hub offers versatility by supporting multiple types of connections. This makes it a convenient choice in situations where different types of cables or mediums need to be used simultaneously.

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71. At which OSI layer does the repeater run at?

Explanation

Repeaters work with the electrical signal. Therefore it is considered a layer 1 device.

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72. This enterprise-capable switch feature is a feature on Cisco switches that allows you to connect the switches together and then assign one of the ports as a _____ port. This port is the port that is used to carry VLAN traffic to the other switch. VLANs are allowed to contain ports as members that are from multiple switches. If data is destined for all systems in the VLAN, the VLAN identification information is added to the data packet and then the switch sends the packet out of this port. When another switch receives the packet, it checks the VLAN identification information and then sends the data to all of its ports that are a member of that particular VLAN.

Explanation

The trunk port is the port that is used to carry VLAN traffic to the other switch. VLANs are allowed to contain ports as members that are from multiple switches. If data is destined for all systems in the VLAN, the VLAN identification information is added to the data packet and then the switch sends the packet out the trunk port. When another switch receives the packet, it checks the VLAN identification information and then sends the data to all of its ports that are a member of that particular VLAN.

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73. 22. Which of the following devices is used to connect to digital phone lines?

Explanation

An ISDN modem is used for digital communication over digital or conventional phone lines.

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74. This is the bus architecture used in laptop computers. It has a 16-bit architecture that runs at 33 MHz.

Explanation

PCMCIA = Personal Computer Memory Card Industry Association

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75. This enterprise-capable switch feature is called "Tagging".

Explanation

When a switch assigns the VLAN identification information to a packet, this is known as tagging. Two popular protocols for tagging are the Inter-Switch Link (ISL)and the IEEE 802.1Q protocol.

ISL is the Cisco proprietary protocol for tagging packets and associating them with a particular VLAN on older switches, while 802.1Q is the IEEE standard for VLAN trunking. Newer Cisco and Juniper Networks switches use 802.1Q as the tagging method.

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76. Is the upgrade to ISA that supports 32-bit cards running at 8 MHz.

Explanation

EISA = Extended Industry Standard Architecture

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77. This layer switch bases membership to a VLAN on the subnet ID of this layer's address of a packet. With this layer's switches, the workstations do not actually belong to the VLAN, but the packets that are being sent do belong, because they have the source address information which contains the network ID in them.

Explanation

Layer 3 switches, also known as routing switches, base membership to a VLAN on the subnet ID of the layer's address of a packet. Unlike Layer 2 switches, where workstations directly belong to the VLAN, Layer 3 switches consider the packets being sent as belonging to the VLAN. This is because the packets contain source address information that includes the network ID. Layer 3 switches use this information to route packets between different subnets and VLANs, allowing for more efficient and flexible network communication.

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78. Is the popular bus architecture today for adding cards to the system. Runs at 33 MHz and has a 32-bit or 64-bit bus architecture. Most network cards today are this architecture.

Explanation

PCI = Peripheral Component Interconnect

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79. 20. Which type of device is responsible for connecting dissimilar networking environments together?

Explanation

A gateway is a type of device that connects dissimilar networking environments together. It acts as an interface between different networks, allowing data to flow between them. Unlike routers, which connect networks of the same type, gateways are designed to connect networks with different protocols or architectures. Therefore, a gateway is the correct answer for this question.

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80. Was built by IBM and has a 32-bit architecture that runs at 10 MHz.

Explanation

MCA = Microchannel Architecture

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81. At the time ran at the system speed (which was around 33 MHz); it has a 32-bit architecture.

Explanation

VESA = Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA, also know as VESA local bus, or VLB)

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82. This enterprise-capable switch feature allows the administrator to associate the MAC address of the system that will connect to the port. The administrator can also specify that if a system with a different MAC address connects to the port, the port is to be automatically disabled.

Explanation

Port authentication will help increase the security of the network by allowing only authorized systems to connect to the network—a critical feature of any switch!

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83. This enterprise-capable switch feature is designed for optimizing data delivery to clients by incorporating features to improve performance such as data caching or load balancing features on the switch.

Explanation

Here is an example of how the switch can load-balance traffic: if you connect two servers into the switch, the switch creates a virtual server using a virtual IP, and when a request comes in to the virtual IP, the switch then forwards the request to one of the servers connected to the switch. The result is that the load is balanced across both servers and performance is increased.

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84. Match 'em
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Match the following:
PCI =
An ______ IDS will monitor activity, log any suspicious activity, and...
A ______ intrusion detection system does not take any corrective...
VESA =
ISA =
_____ refers to the space between the ceiling tiles and the floor...
AUI = ____________ ________ ________
DIX = _____ _____ _____
A _______ is the combination of a bridge and a router, and it makes...
Cables are typically connected from the wall jack to the patch panel...
IDF =
A ________ is a network connectivity device that is used to break the...
A __________ hub is a hub that has uplink capabilities.
When a switch assigns the VLAN identification information to a packet,...
An ________ _________ ________ is a security device that monitors...
PSTN =
CSU/DSU =
A _______-based IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious behavior.
ISDN=
At which layer of the OSI model does the Router reside?
This device is also known as a concentrator.
MDF =
A _______ is responsible for translating information from one format...
What type of hub is this?
____-based intrusion detection systems monitor the local system for...
AGP =
MCA =
A wireless access point (WAP) is also known as a _____.
EISA =
One disadvantage of using a hub is that it leads to a lot of unneeded...
It is a best practice to use switches whenever possible because of the...
Hubs are used in Ethernet environments, whereas Token Ring...
PCMCIA =
MAU = ________ _________ ________
MAUs don't have collision indicators because you can't have...
A thinnet segment cannot be attached directly to the BNC connector on...
1 - What does a network interface card add to a computer's...
19. Which of the following layers does a gateway run at (select the...
 8. Which network component is used to extend the distance the...
Virtual LANs (VLANs) are a feature of special switches, known as...
15. Which networking feature allows you to group ports on a switch to...
MAUs don't use an uplink port?
Which layer does a Bridge run at?
 16. Which layer of the OSI model does a router run at?
This layer switch doesn't associate the port with the VLAN, but the...
 12. Which type of network component enables each device to have...
There are two popular types of ISDN connections:  Which one is a...
2 - In order for a NIC to interact with the computer, what needs to be...
24. How many B-channels are in a BRI ISDN connection?
17. Which networking device routes data used by a routable protocol...
4. When troubleshooting to find out why a network card will not...
 13. When data is sent to a system on a switch, the data is sent...
3 If a card has the capability to connect to more than one kind of...
14. Which layer of the OSI model does a bridge run at?
At which OSI layer does the hub run at?
Which OSI layer does a Switch run at?
24. How many B-channels are in a BRI ISDN connection?
7. Which of the following types of hubs does not regenerate the signal...
 11. When data is sent to a system on a hub, the data is sent to...
There are two popular types of ISDN connections:  Which one is a...
 6. What is an AUI connector?
This enterprise-capable switch feature is a feature that allows the...
 10. Which network device is used to connect systems together in...
This enterprise-capable switch feature runs at layer 2 and is designed...
This layer switch implements what is known as port switching. Port...
An old bus architecture that runs at 8 MHz and supports 8- or 16-bit...
Is the new graphics standard that runs at 66 MHz and is used by video...
The MAU allows for a physical star topology but is logically a bus...
 9. Which type of hub enables more than one type of cable or...
At which OSI layer does the repeater run at?
This enterprise-capable switch feature is a feature on Cisco switches...
22. Which of the following devices is used to connect to digital phone...
This is the bus architecture used in laptop computers. It has a 16-bit...
This enterprise-capable switch feature is called "Tagging".
Is the upgrade to ISA that supports 32-bit cards running at 8 MHz.
This layer switch bases membership to a VLAN on the subnet ID of this...
Is the popular bus architecture today for adding cards to the system....
20. Which type of device is responsible for connecting dissimilar...
Was built by IBM and has a 32-bit architecture that runs at 10 MHz.
At the time ran at the system speed (which was around 33 MHz); it has...
This enterprise-capable switch feature allows the administrator to...
This enterprise-capable switch feature is designed for optimizing data...
Match 'em
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