Networking Components - Srickperry

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Networking Components - Srickperry - Quiz

Chapter 3


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An old bus architecture that runs at 8 MHz and supports 8- or 16-bit cards.

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      MCA

    • C.

      VESA

    • D.

      EISA

    • E.

      PCI

    • F.

      AGP

    • G.

      PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    A. ISA
    Explanation
    ISA = Industry Standard Architecture

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  • 2. 

    Was built by IBM and has a 32-bit architecture that runs at 10 MHz.

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      MCA

    • C.

      VESA

    • D.

      EISA

    • E.

      PCI

    • F.

      AGP

    • G.

      PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    B. MCA
    Explanation
    MCA = Microchannel Architecture

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  • 3. 

    At the time ran at the system speed (which was around 33 MHz); it has a 32-bit architecture.

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      MCA

    • C.

      VESA

    • D.

      EISA

    • E.

      PCI

    • F.

      AGP

    • G.

      PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    C. VESA
    Explanation
    VESA = Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA, also know as VESA local bus, or VLB)

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  • 4. 

    Is the upgrade to ISA that supports 32-bit cards running at 8 MHz.

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      MCA

    • C.

      VESA

    • D.

      EISA

    • E.

      PCI

    • F.

      AGP

    • G.

      PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    D. EISA
    Explanation
    EISA = Extended Industry Standard Architecture

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  • 5. 

    Is the popular bus architecture today for adding cards to the system. Runs at 33 MHz and has a 32-bit or 64-bit bus architecture. Most network cards today are this architecture.

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      MCA

    • C.

      VESA

    • D.

      EISA

    • E.

      PCI

    • F.

      AGP

    • G.

      PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    E. PCI
    Explanation
    PCI = Peripheral Component Interconnect

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  • 6. 

    Is the new graphics standard that runs at 66 MHz and is used by video cards.

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      MCA

    • C.

      VESA

    • D.

      EISA

    • E.

      PCI

    • F.

      AGP

    • G.

      PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    F. AGP
    Explanation
    AGP = Advanced Graphics Port

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  • 7. 

    This is the bus architecture used in laptop computers. It has a 16-bit architecture that runs at 33 MHz.

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      MCA

    • C.

      VESA

    • D.

      EISA

    • E.

      PCI

    • F.

      AGP

    • G.

      PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    G. PCMCIA
    Explanation
    PCMCIA = Personal Computer Memory Card Industry Association

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  • 8. 

    AUI = ____________ ________ ________

    Correct Answer
    attachment unit interface
    Explanation
    Also called a Digital-Intel-Xerox (DIX) connector

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  • 9. 

    DIX = _____ _____ _____

    Correct Answer
    Digital Intel Xerox
    Digital-Intel-Xerox
    Explanation
    Also called an Attachment Unit Interface (AUI) connector.

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  • 10. 

    A thinnet segment cannot be attached directly to the BNC connector on the network adapter; it must use a T-connector.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A thinnet segment cannot be attached directly to the BNC connector on the network adapter because it requires the use of a T-connector. This connector is necessary to connect the thinnet cable to the network adapter, allowing for proper communication and data transmission. Without the T-connector, the thinnet segment would not be able to establish a connection with the network adapter and therefore would not function correctly.

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  • 11. 

    This device is also known as a concentrator.

    Correct Answer
    hub
    Explanation
    A hub is a device that is commonly referred to as a concentrator. It is used to connect multiple devices in a network, allowing them to communicate with each other. A hub receives data packets from one device and broadcasts them to all other connected devices. It does not analyze or filter the data, making it a simple and less intelligent device compared to switches or routers. Therefore, the given answer "hub" is correct as it accurately describes a device that is also known as a concentrator.

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  • 12. 

    A __________ hub is a hub that has uplink capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    cascading
    Explanation
    A cascading hub is a hub that has uplink capabilities. This means that it can connect to another hub or switch to extend the network. The cascading hub acts as an intermediary device, allowing multiple devices to be connected and communicate with each other. It provides a pathway for data to flow between the devices connected to it and the rest of the network. By having uplink capabilities, the cascading hub enables the expansion and scalability of the network infrastructure.

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  • 13. 

    One disadvantage of using a hub is that it leads to a lot of unneeded traffic and contention across the entire network that will slow network performance.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A hub sends the signal to all ports on the hub. This means that, if you have a 24-port hub linked to another 24-port hub and a workstation sends data to another workstation, the data will be sent to all 48 ports on the network. This leads to a lot of unneeded traffic and contention across the
    entire network that will slow network performance. A solution would be to use a switch, which is the subject of an upcoming discussion!

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  • 14. 

    Hubs are used in Ethernet environments, whereas Token Ring environments use MAUs.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hubs and MAUs are both used in networking environments, but they are specific to different types of networks. Hubs are used in Ethernet environments, where they act as a central connection point for multiple devices. They receive data from one device and then broadcast it to all other devices connected to the hub. On the other hand, MAUs (Media Access Units) are used in Token Ring environments. They provide the physical connection between devices in a Token Ring network, allowing them to transmit data in a controlled manner. Therefore, the statement that hubs are used in Ethernet environments and MAUs are used in Token Ring environments is true.

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  • 15. 

    What type of hub is this?

    Correct Answer
    hybrid
    Explanation
    A hybrid hub is a hub that can use many different types of cables in addition to UTP cabling. A hybrid hub usually is cabled using thinnet or thicknet Ethernet along with popular cable types such as twisted-pair cabling.

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  • 16. 

    MAU = ________ _________ ________

    Correct Answer
    multistation access unit
    multi-station access unit
    Explanation
    A multistation access unit (MAU) is a device to which multiple workstations are connected in order to communicate on a Token Ring network. A MAU is a hub-type device for Token Ring networks. Like an active hub, a MAU regenerates the signal when it reaches the MAU.

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  • 17. 

    The MAU allows for a physical star topology but is logically a bus topology because it cycles through all ports in order to simulate a bus.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The MAU allows for a physical star topology but is logically a RING topology because it cycles through all ports in order to simulate a ring.

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  • 18. 

    MAUs don't have collision indicators because you can't have collisions on a Token Ring network.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Token Ring networks use a token passing mechanism where only one device can transmit data at a time. Each device on the network waits for its turn to transmit, eliminating the possibility of collisions. Therefore, collision indicators are not necessary in Token Ring networks as collisions cannot occur. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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  • 19. 

    MAUs don't use an uplink port?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Another major difference with a MAU is that MAUs don’t actually use an uplink port. With Token Ring, there is a logical ring within the MAU, and when you connect to another MAU, you must complete a full ring structure again. Therefore, you will notice on the Token Ring MAU that it has a ring-in port and a ring-out port. When you wish to connect two MAUs together, you must ring out of the first MAU and, with that cable, ring in to the second MAU.

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  • 20. 

    At which OSI layer does the hub run at?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    • G.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Hubs run at layer 1 because they work with the electrical signal.

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  • 21. 

    At which OSI layer does the repeater run at?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    • G.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Repeaters work with the electrical signal. Therefore it is considered a layer 1 device.

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  • 22. 

    A ________ is a network connectivity device that is used to break the network down into multiple network segments.  It runs at layer 2, and is used to filter traffic by only forwarding traffic to the destination network segment.

    Correct Answer
    bridge
    Explanation
    A bridge is a network connectivity device that is used to break the network down into multiple network segments. It operates at layer 2 of the OSI model and is designed to filter traffic by only forwarding it to the destination network segment. Bridges help to improve network performance and efficiency by reducing network congestion and improving overall network speed. They are commonly used in local area networks (LANs) to connect different segments of the network and ensure efficient data transmission between them.

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  • 23. 

    Which layer does a Bridge run at?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    • G.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Since a bridge works with a MAC address, and the MAC is a component of layer 2 of the OSI model, the bridge runs at layer 2 of the OSI model.

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  • 24. 

    It is a best practice to use switches whenever possible because of the increase in performance over a standard hub. The bandwidth with a standard hub is shared by all users connected to the hub; however, with a switch, all users get the full network bandwidth. For example, a 100 Mbps network with a 24-port hub and 24 PCs allows each user to have 100/24 Mbps bandwidth; with a switch, however, each user would have a full 100 Mbps bandwidth.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Using switches instead of standard hubs is considered a best practice because it improves performance. In a standard hub, the bandwidth is shared among all connected users, resulting in slower speeds for each user. However, with a switch, each user gets the full network bandwidth, which leads to faster and more efficient data transmission. This is demonstrated in the example provided, where a 100 Mbps network with a 24-port hub and 24 PCs would give each user only 100/24 Mbps bandwidth, whereas with a switch, each user would have the full 100 Mbps bandwidth.

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  • 25. 

    Virtual LANs (VLANs) are a feature of special switches, known as __________ switches, which allow the administrator to group ports on a switch to a “virtual LAN.” When a port is configured for a particular VLAN, it is unable to communicate with systems that are not on that VLAN without the use of a routing device such as a router. This is similar to the fact that, if we had two physical networks, a machine cannot send data from one network to the other without the use of a router.

    Correct Answer
    managed
    Explanation
    Managed switches are special switches that have the capability to create and manage VLANs. By grouping ports on a switch to a "virtual LAN," the administrator can control the communication between devices on different VLANs. When a port is configured for a particular VLAN, it is isolated from other VLANs and can only communicate with devices within the same VLAN. This is similar to how a machine in one physical network cannot send data to another network without the use of a router. Therefore, the correct answer is "managed."

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  • 26. 

    This layer switch implements what is known as port switching. Port switching means that the network administrator associates the ports on the switch as being members of a particular VLAN. With port switching, you need to ensure that you are satisfied with the fact that if you move a computer from one port to another, the system may become a member of a different VLAN, because the port is the member of the VLAN, not the network card connected to it. This layer of switches do offer benefits; they are great for increasing security and isolation. They also allow an administrator to move a system to a new VLAN by reconfiguring the port for the new VLAN. The benefit is that there is no need to move the system physically.

    • A.

      Layer 1

    • B.

      Layer 2

    • C.

      Layer 3

    Correct Answer
    A. Layer 1
  • 27. 

    This layer switch doesn’t associate the port with the VLAN, but the MAC addresses of systems are associated with the VLAN. The network administrator is responsible for listing all the MAC addresses for each VLAN on the switch. When a packet is sent by a system and reaches the switch, the switch tags the packet as being a member of the VLAN, and it will be sent only to other systems in the VLAN. The benefit of this layer switches is that, because the MAC address is associated with the VLAN, it doesn’t matter what port the system is plugged into. This is a great feature for laptop users who typically roam around on the network—they will always be a member of the same VLAN unless the switch is reconfigured.

    • A.

      Layer 1

    • B.

      Layer 2

    • C.

      Layer 3

    Correct Answer
    B. Layer 2
    Explanation
    Layer 2 switches are responsible for associating MAC addresses with VLANs. When a packet reaches the switch, it tags the packet as a member of a specific VLAN based on the MAC address. This allows the switch to send the packet only to other systems in the same VLAN, regardless of the port the system is connected to. This feature is particularly beneficial for laptop users who move around on the network, as they will always remain a member of the same VLAN unless the switch is reconfigured.

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  • 28. 

    This layer switch bases membership to a VLAN on the subnet ID of this layer's address of a packet. With this layer's switches, the workstations do not actually belong to the VLAN, but the packets that are being sent do belong, because they have the source address information which contains the network ID in them.

    • A.

      Layer 1

    • B.

      Layer 2

    • C.

      Layer 3

    Correct Answer
    C. Layer 3
    Explanation
    Layer 3 switches, also known as routing switches, base membership to a VLAN on the subnet ID of the layer's address of a packet. Unlike Layer 2 switches, where workstations directly belong to the VLAN, Layer 3 switches consider the packets being sent as belonging to the VLAN. This is because the packets contain source address information that includes the network ID. Layer 3 switches use this information to route packets between different subnets and VLANs, allowing for more efficient and flexible network communication.

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  • 29. 

    Which OSI layer does a Switch run at?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    • G.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    A switch operates at the Data Link Layer, which is Layer 2 of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between nodes on a network. Switches use MAC addresses to forward data packets to the correct destination. They create and maintain a table of MAC addresses to make forwarding decisions. By operating at Layer 2, switches can efficiently manage network traffic and improve network performance.

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  • 30. 

    This enterprise-capable switch feature runs at layer 2 and is designed to prevent loops on a network that could occur if you connect a number of switches together.

    • A.

      Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

    • B.

      Trunking

    • C.

      ISL and 802.1Q

    • D.

      Port Mirroring

    • E.

      Port Authentication

    • F.

      Content Switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
    Explanation
    Having a loop on the network could cause the network to go down and creates instability in the switches. To prevent this, STP was designed. STP is a protocol that looks at all of the ports used to create a loop and then places one of those ports in a blocking state so that no data traffic can pass through the port. Once the port is in a blocking state, the loop is broken and the network becomes more stable. The fact that the port is in a blocking state instead of being disabled means that if one of the other links go down, then the port is transitioned into a forwarding state automatically. When a port is in a forwarding state, it is allowed to send and receive data on the port.

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  • 31. 

    This enterprise-capable switch feature is a feature on Cisco switches that allows you to connect the switches together and then assign one of the ports as a _____ port. This port is the port that is used to carry VLAN traffic to the other switch. VLANs are allowed to contain ports as members that are from multiple switches. If data is destined for all systems in the VLAN, the VLAN identification information is added to the data packet and then the switch sends the packet out of this port. When another switch receives the packet, it checks the VLAN identification information and then sends the data to all of its ports that are a member of that particular VLAN.

    • A.

      Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

    • B.

      Trunking

    • C.

      ISL and 802.1Q

    • D.

      Port Mirroring

    • E.

      Port Authentication

    • F.

      Content Switch

    Correct Answer
    B. Trunking
    Explanation
    The trunk port is the port that is used to carry VLAN traffic to the other switch. VLANs are allowed to contain ports as members that are from multiple switches. If data is destined for all systems in the VLAN, the VLAN identification information is added to the data packet and then the switch sends the packet out the trunk port. When another switch receives the packet, it checks the VLAN identification information and then sends the data to all of its ports that are a member of that particular VLAN.

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  • 32. 

    This enterprise-capable switch feature is called "Tagging".

    • A.

      Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

    • B.

      Trunking

    • C.

      ISL and 802.1Q

    • D.

      Port Mirroring

    • E.

      Port Authentication

    • F.

      Content Switch

    Correct Answer
    C. ISL and 802.1Q
    Explanation
    When a switch assigns the VLAN identification information to a packet, this is known as tagging. Two popular protocols for tagging are the Inter-Switch Link (ISL)and the IEEE 802.1Q protocol.

    ISL is the Cisco proprietary protocol for tagging packets and associating them with a particular VLAN on older switches, while 802.1Q is the IEEE standard for VLAN trunking. Newer Cisco and Juniper Networks switches use 802.1Q as the tagging method.

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  • 33. 

    When a switch assigns the VLAN identification information to a packet, this is known as ________.

    Correct Answer
    tagging
    Explanation
    When a switch assigns the VLAN identification information to a packet, it is known as tagging. Tagging involves adding a VLAN tag or VLAN header to the packet, which includes the VLAN ID. This allows the switch to differentiate and route the packet based on the assigned VLAN. Tagging is commonly used in VLAN implementations to separate and manage network traffic efficiently.

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  • 34. 

    This enterprise-capable switch feature is a feature that allows the switch to send a copy of data that reaches certain ports to the mirrored, or monitored, port.

    • A.

      Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

    • B.

      Trunking

    • C.

      ISL and 802.1Q

    • D.

      Port Mirroring

    • E.

      Port Authentication

    • F.

      Content Switch

    Correct Answer
    D. Port Mirroring
    Explanation
    Port monitoring allows an administrator to plug his/her workstation into the port that the copy of the data is being sent to, and monitor the network traffic.

    Port mirroring is an important feature of a switch because by default the switch filters traffic by only sending the data to the port that the destination system resides on. The switch’s filtering feature will prevent the monitoring of traffic, and as a result the administrator will have to enable port mirroring (monitoring) and specify the port that receives the copy of data.

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  • 35. 

    This enterprise-capable switch feature allows the administrator to associate the MAC address of the system that will connect to the port. The administrator can also specify that if a system with a different MAC address connects to the port, the port is to be automatically disabled.

    • A.

      Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

    • B.

      Trunking

    • C.

      ISL and 802.1Q

    • D.

      Port Mirroring

    • E.

      Port Authentication

    • F.

      Content Switch

    Correct Answer
    E. Port Authentication
    Explanation
    Port authentication will help increase the security of the network by allowing only authorized systems to connect to the network—a critical feature of any switch!

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  • 36. 

    This enterprise-capable switch feature is designed for optimizing data delivery to clients by incorporating features to improve performance such as data caching or load balancing features on the switch.

    • A.

      Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

    • B.

      Trunking

    • C.

      ISL and 802.1Q

    • D.

      Port Mirroring

    • E.

      Port Authentication

    • F.

      Content Switch

    Correct Answer
    F. Content Switch
    Explanation
    Here is an example of how the switch can load-balance traffic: if you connect two servers into the switch, the switch creates a virtual server using a virtual IP, and when a request comes in to the virtual IP, the switch then forwards the request to one of the servers connected to the switch. The result is that the load is balanced across both servers and performance is increased.

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  • 37. 

    At which layer of the OSI model does the Router reside?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    • G.

      7

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The router resides at layer 3 of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data transmission and make decisions about how to direct traffic. They operate at a higher level than switches or hubs, which are typically found at layer 2 (data link layer) of the OSI model.

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  • 38. 

    A _______ is the combination of a bridge and a router, and it makes the decision whether it needs to bridge the data or route the data according to the protocol being used.

    Correct Answer
    brouter
    Explanation
    If the protocol is a nonroutable protocol such as NetBEUI, the data will be bridged. If the protocol is TCP/IP or IPX/SPX, the routing features of the brouter will be used.

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  • 39. 

    A _______ is responsible for translating information from one format to another and can run at any layer of the OSI model, depending on what information it translates. A typical use is to ensure that systems in one environment can access information in another environment.

    Correct Answer
    gateway
    Explanation
    For example, you want to make sure that your PC environment can access information on the company’s mainframe. As shown in the Figure, when the packet reaches the gateway, the gateway strips the packet down and repackages it so that it is understood on the other side of the gateway.

    It is also important to note that when you configure TCP/IP and you configure the “default gateway” setting, you are pointing to the address of the router on the network. It really has nothing to do with an actual “gateway” device.

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  • 40. 

    An ________ _________ ________ is a security device that monitors system or network activity and then notifies the administrator of any suspicious activity.

    Correct Answer
    intrusion detection system
    Explanation
    Intrusion detection systems are important devices that will complement other security devices such as firewalls. The IDS is an important device because it will notify you not only of suspicious activity against the firewall, but also of suspicious activity inside the network.

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  • 41. 

    ____-based intrusion detection systems monitor the local system for suspicious activity.

    Correct Answer
    host
    Explanation
    A host-based IDS is typically a piece of software installed on the system and can only monitor activity on the system the IDS was installed on.

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  • 42. 

    A _______-based IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious behavior.

    Correct Answer
    network
    Explanation
    A network-based IDS has the capability of monitoring the entire network and comparing that traffic to known malicious traffic patterns. When a match is found an alert can be triggered. Network-based IDSs can be software loaded on a system that monitors network traffic or can be a hardware device.

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  • 43. 

    An ______ IDS will monitor activity, log any suspicious activity, and then take some form of corrective action. For example, if a system is doing a port scan on the network, the IDS may log the activity but also disconnect the system creating the suspicious action from the network.

    Correct Answer
    active
    Explanation
    An active IDS refers to an intrusion detection system that actively monitors network activity, logs any suspicious behavior, and takes necessary corrective actions. In this case, if the system detects a port scan, it not only logs the activity but also disconnects the system responsible for the suspicious action from the network. This proactive approach ensures that potential threats are immediately addressed and mitigated to prevent any further damage or unauthorized access.

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  • 44. 

    A ______ intrusion detection system does not take any corrective action when suspicious activity has been identified. It will simply identify the activity and then log to file any information needed during an investigation. It does not take any corrective action.

    Correct Answer
    passive
    Explanation
    A passive intrusion detection system is designed to only identify and log suspicious activity without taking any corrective action. It is primarily used for monitoring and collecting information about potential security threats, allowing for further investigation and analysis. Unlike an active intrusion detection system, which may actively block or mitigate suspicious activity, a passive system focuses on passive observation and documentation.

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  • 45. 

    A wireless access point (WAP) is also known as a _____.

    Correct Answer
    cell
    Explanation
    A wireless access point (WAP) is also known as a cell because it functions as a central hub for wireless communication within a specific area or "cell." It allows devices to connect to a wireless network and access the internet or other network resources. Similar to how cells in a biological organism work together to form tissues and organs, multiple WAPs can be deployed in a network to provide coverage across a larger area, creating a seamless wireless experience for users.

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  • 46. 

    PSTN =

    Correct Answer
    public switched telephone network
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "public switched telephone network". PSTN stands for public switched telephone network, which refers to the global network of traditional landline telephones. It is a circuit-switched network that allows for voice communication between different telephone users. This network is operated by telecommunications providers and enables communication through the use of physical copper wires or fiber optic cables. The PSTN has been widely used for decades but is gradually being replaced by digital networks such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol).

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  • 47. 

    CSU/DSU =

    Correct Answer
    channel service unit/data service unit
    channel service unit / data service unit
    channel service unit data service unit
    Explanation
    A channel service unit/data service unit (CSU/DSU) is either one device or a pair of devices that allows an organization to get a very-high-speed WAN connection from the telephone company, such as a T1 or T3 link. The CSU is used at the business end to get the connection to the WAN, and the DSU may be used at the provider’s end to allow the CSU to connect.

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  • 48. 

    ISDN=

    Correct Answer
    integrated services digital network
    Explanation
    ISDN stands for integrated services digital network. It is a telecommunications network that allows the transmission of voice, data, video, and other network services over traditional copper telephone lines. ISDN provides a digital connection, which offers faster data transfer rates and better call quality compared to analog systems. It enables the integration of multiple services, such as telephone, fax, and internet, over a single network connection. ISDN has been widely used in the past for various applications, including video conferencing, telecommuting, and internet access.

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  • 49. 

    There are two popular types of ISDN connections:  Which one is a 128 Kbps connection that is made up of two 64 Kbps channels (known as B-channels) and one 16 Kbps control channel (known as a D-channel).

    • A.

      Basic rate interface (BRI)

    • B.

      Primary rate interface (PRI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic rate interface (BRI)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Basic rate interface (BRI). BRI is a type of ISDN connection that consists of two 64 Kbps B-channels and one 16 Kbps D-channel, resulting in a total bandwidth of 128 Kbps. This type of connection is commonly used for small businesses and residential users who require a moderate amount of bandwidth for voice and data communication. On the other hand, Primary rate interface (PRI) is a higher capacity ISDN connection that typically includes 23 B-channels and one 64 Kbps D-channel, providing a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps.

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  • 50. 

    There are two popular types of ISDN connections:  Which one is a 1.55 Mbps connection that is made up of twenty-three 64 Kbps channels (B-channels) and one 64 Kbps D-channel for signaling and control information.

    • A.

      Basic rate interface (BRI)

    • B.

      Primary rate interface (PRI)

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary rate interface (PRI)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Primary rate interface (PRI)". PRI is a type of ISDN connection that provides a higher data transmission rate compared to Basic rate interface (BRI). It consists of twenty-three 64 Kbps B-channels for data transmission and one 64 Kbps D-channel for signaling and control information. This configuration allows for a total bandwidth of 1.55 Mbps, making it suitable for larger organizations or high-demand applications that require faster data transfer speeds.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 07, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Srickperry
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