Naplex Exam Trivia Questions: Quiz!

48 Questions | Total Attempts: 371

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Naplex Exam Trivia Questions: Quiz!

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following insulin products has the most rapid onset of action, with the option of administering immediately after completing a meal?
    • A. 

      Insulin detemir

    • B. 

      Insulin glargine

    • C. 

      Insulin lispro

    • D. 

      Insulin NPH

    • E. 

      Insulin regular

  • 2. 
    Due to a renal protection mechanism, the drug class of choice for B.E.'s hypertension is:
    • A. 

      Beta-Blocker

    • B. 

      Loop diuretic

    • C. 

      Thiazide diuretic

    • D. 

      Alpha-adrenergic blocker

    • E. 

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

  • 3. 
    Which of the following medications on the medication list, in this case, can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
    • A. 

      Propranolol

    • B. 

      Albuterol

    • C. 

      Acarbose

    • D. 

      Prednisone

    • E. 

      Aspirin

  • 4. 
    A 64-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes is receiving enalapril, chlorthalidone, and metformin. She now presents to the emergency room with a 2-week history of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. The ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 140bpm. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is normal. After controlling the ventricular rate, the medical team decides to leave the patient in atrial fibrillation and initiate appropriate therapy to reduce the risk of stroke. Which of the following orders is the optimal antithrombotic therapy for this patient?
    • A. 

      Aspirin 325 mg daily

    • B. 

      Clopidogrel 75 mg daily

    • C. 

      Enoxaparin 1 mg/kg every 12 hours

    • D. 

      Warfarin titrated to an INR 2.0–3.0

    • E. 

      No antithrombotic therapy is indicated for this patient.

  • 5. 
    When one starts pramlintide, the prandial insulin dose should be decreased by 50% because of a significant risk of?
    • A. 

      Hypoglycemia

    • B. 

      Excessive weight gain

    • C. 

      Worsening renal function

    • D. 

      Nausea

    • E. 

      Injection-site reactions

  • 6. 
    Uniform dispersion of insulin suspensions can be obtained by:
    • A. 

      Vigorously shaking the vial

    • B. 

      Rolling the vial gently between the hands

    • C. 

      Warming the vial in a microwave

    • D. 

      Packing the vial in dry ice

    • E. 

      Keeping the vial at room temperature (68-75ºF)

  • 7. 
    One of the most common adverse drug events caused by B.E.'s oral antidiabetic agent is:
    • A. 

      Flatulence

    • B. 

      Hypoglycemia

    • C. 

      Renal failure

    • D. 

      Hyperglycemia

    • E. 

      Weight gain

  • 8. 
    The use of insulin in a woman with GDM helps reduce the incidence of which complication in the fetus?
    • A. 

      Macrosomia

    • B. 

      Cystic fibrosis

    • C. 

      Deafness

    • D. 

      "Soft bones"

    • E. 

      Eczema

  • 9. 
    J. T. is a 20-year-old male patient who is admitted to the hospital for diabetic ketoacidosis. He has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, and his family reports that he has gone without his prescription insulin for several days. He is nonresponsive and has an arterial pH of 6.9, so he is sent to the medical intensive care unit. Which of the following is the insulin formulation and route of choice for treating J. T.?
    • A. 

      IM regular insulin

    • B. 

      IV regular insulin

    • C. 

      SC glargine insulin

    • D. 

      IV glargine insulin

    • E. 

      SC aspart insulin

  • 10. 
    Nocturnal hypoglycemia resulting in rebound hyperglycemia in type 1 DM is termed:
    • A. 

      Honeymoon period

    • B. 

      Somogyi effect

    • C. 

      Dawn phenomenon

    • D. 

      Hyperglycemic phase

    • E. 

      Insulin resistance syndrome

  • 11. 
    Adverse drug events reported for pioglitazone (Actos), a thiazolidinedione, include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Exacerbation of CHF

    • B. 

      Resumption of ovulation

    • C. 

      Edema

    • D. 

      Upper respiratory infection (URI)

    • E. 

      Megaloblastic anemia

  • 12. 
    When discussing medical nutrition therapy for diabetes, patients should be advised to
    • A. 

      Limit carbohydrates to less than 10% of daily calories.

    • B. 

      Consume protein as 60% of caloric intake if renal function is not reduced.

    • C. 

      increase fiber intake to two times that of the recommended daily allowance

    • D. 

      limit cholesterol to less than 50 mg/day

    • E. 

      Include carbohydrates as 45–60% of total caloric intake daily.

  • 13. 
    What is the principal drug-related problem in this patient's medication record?
    • A. 

      Insulin therapy is not indicated for persons with type 2 DM

    • B. 

      Therapeutic duplication of sulfonylurea therapy

    • C. 

      Potential decrease of BG due to drug-drug interaction between phenytoin and tolazamide

    • D. 

      Potential increase of BG due to drug-drug interaction between glimepiride and itraconazole

    • E. 

      Use of an ACE inhibitor for hypertension in type 2 DM

  • 14. 
    Which of the following best describes the site and mechanism of action of acarbose in diabetes?
    • A. 

      Within the liver to impair glucose release

    • B. 

      Within the pancreas to increase insulin production

    • C. 

      Within the muscles and fat to decrease insulin resistance

    • D. 

      Within the stomach to slow gastric emptying

    • E. 

      Within the intestine to impair carbohydrate absorption

  • 15. 
    Insulin dosing is adjusted based on the following parameters: I. Liver function test results II. Dietary intake III. Physical activity/exercise IV. Blood glucose levels V. Ophthalmic examinations
    • A. 

      I only

    • B. 

      II only

    • C. 

      I and II only

    • D. 

      II, III, and IV only

    • E. 

      I, II, and V only

  • 16. 
    Prediabetes is a risk factor for which of the following? I. Future type 1 diabetes II. Future type 2 diabetes III. Ketoacidosis IV. Cardiovascular disease
    • A. 

      II only

    • B. 

      II and III

    • C. 

      II and IV

    • D. 

      II, III, and IV

    • E. 

      IV only

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is an indication that a patient is developing a long-term complication from diabetes mellitus?
    • A. 

      Tachycardia

    • B. 

      Glucosuria

    • C. 

      Leukocytosis

    • D. 

      Proteinuria

    • E. 

      Tinnitus

  • 18. 
    The American Diabetes Association recommends annual urine assays to screen for the presence and quantity of _____________ in the urine.
    • A. 

      Albumin

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Insulin

    • D. 

      Ketones

    • E. 

      Nitrites

  • 19. 
    Of the following types of insulin, which can be administered intravenously?
    • A. 

      Glargine

    • B. 

      Lente

    • C. 

      Regular

    • D. 

      Ultralente

    • E. 

      NPH

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is a potentially fatal adverse drug event of Glucophage?
    • A. 

      Weight gain

    • B. 

      Frequent urination

    • C. 

      Diarrhea

    • D. 

      Lactic acidosis

    • E. 

      Angioedema

  • 21. 
    Persons on insulin therapy should be advised to rotate their injection sites for the following reason:
    • A. 

      Reduces the risk of infection

    • B. 

      Reduces the risk of lipoatrophy

    • C. 

      Reduces the risk of lipohypertrophy

    • D. 

      Reduces the risk of generalized myalgia

    • E. 

      This advice is outdated due to the use of human insulin

  • 22. 
    Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents is a micronized formulation?
    • A. 

      Micronase

    • B. 

      Glynase

    • C. 

      Glucotrol XL

    • D. 

      Amaryl

    • E. 

      Orinase

  • 23. 
    When mixing rapid- or short-acting insulin with intermediate- or long-acting insulin, which insulin in the list below should be drawn up first?
    • A. 

      Regular

    • B. 

      NPH

    • C. 

      Lente

    • D. 

      Ultralente

    • E. 

      Glargine

  • 24. 
    Metformin should be withheld for 48 hours prior to any procedure requiring the use of parenteral iodinated contrast media due to the potential for this adverse drug event:
    • A. 

      Optic neuritis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Lactic acidosis

    • D. 

      Purple toe syndrome

    • E. 

      Tinnitus

  • 25. 
    Commercially available insulin (as of May 2005) may be administered by which of the following routes? I. Intravenously II. Subcutaneously III. Via inhalation IV. Transdermally V. Sublingually
    • A. 

      I only

    • B. 

      II only

    • C. 

      I and II only

    • D. 

      II, III, and IV only

    • E. 

      II, III, and IV only

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