Clinical Microbiology Hardest Exam! Quiz

48 Questions | Attempts: 230

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Clinical Microbiology Hardest Exam! Quiz - Quiz

Are you ready for this Clinical Microbiology most challenging exam quiz? There are many bacteria, parasites, and viruses that attack the body in a person’s life. A microbiologist is responsible for taking samples from a patient and examining them to know the root cause of illness and come up with a diagnosis as to what one is ailing from and how to treat it. This quiz will test your understanding of some microbiology facts and act as a refresher to know what to read on.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Staphylococcus is...
    • A. 

      Facultatively aerobic

    • B. 

      Facultatively anaerobic

    • C. 

      Obligate aerobe

    • D. 

      Obligate anaerobe

  • 2. 
    Name one Invasin used by Vibrio Cholerae and Shigella dysenteriae
    • A. 

      Neuraminidase

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • C. 

      Collagenase

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 3. 
    All of the following are Invasins used by Clostridium perfringens EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Collagenase that breaks down the framework of muscles, which facilitates gas gangrene

    • B. 

      Streptokinase that convrt plasminogen to plasmin

    • C. 

      Phospholipases that hydrolyze phospholipids in cell membranes by removal of polar head groups

    • D. 

      Hyaluronidase that attacks the interstitial cement of connective tissue by depolymerizing hyaluronic acid

  • 4. 
    Where is Staphylococcus epidermidis found?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Ear

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx

    • F. 

      Small intestine

    • G. 

      Colon

    • H. 

      Distal urethra

    • I. 

      Vagina

  • 5. 
    Where is Bacteroides found?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Ear

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx

    • F. 

      Small intestine

    • G. 

      Colon

    • H. 

      Distal Urethra

    • I. 

      Vagina

  • 6. 
    Where is Staph aureus found?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Outer ear

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx

    • F. 

      Small intestine

    • G. 

      Large intestine

    • H. 

      Distal urethra

    • I. 

      Vagina

  • 7. 
    Where is Lactobacillus usually found?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Ear

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx

    • F. 

      Small intestine

    • G. 

      Colon

    • H. 

      Distal urethra

    • I. 

      Vagina

  • 8. 
    Where does Pseudomonas normally cause infection?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Outer ear

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx

    • F. 

      Small intestine

    • G. 

      Colon

    • H. 

      Distal urethra

    • I. 

      Vagina

  • 9. 
    Where does Streptococcus pneumonia normally cause infection?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Outer ear

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx

    • F. 

      Small intestine

    • G. 

      Large intestine

    • H. 

      Distal urethra

    • I. 

      Vagina

  • 10. 
    Which requires anaerobic coverage in the colon?
    • A. 

      Bacteroides

    • B. 

      Clostridium

    • C. 

      Fusobacterium

    • D. 

      Peptostreptococcus

    • E. 

      Corynebacterium

    • F. 

      Pseudomonas

    • G. 

      Enterobacteriacae

  • 11. 
    Which requires anaerobic coverage in the small intestine?
    • A. 

      Lactobacillus

    • B. 

      Fusobacterium

    • C. 

      Peptostreptococcus

    • D. 

      Clostridium

    • E. 

      E. Coli

    • F. 

      Bacteroides

    • G. 

      Enterococcus

  • 12. 
    Which requires Anaerobic coverage in the oropharynx?
    • A. 

      Eikenella corrodens

    • B. 

      Peptostreptococcus

    • C. 

      Moraxella Catarrhalis

    • D. 

      Fusobacterium

    • E. 

      Bacteroides

    • F. 

      Actinomyces

    • G. 

      Viridans Strep

  • 13. 
    What is a common cause of infection in the nasopharynx?
    • A. 

      Staph aureus

    • B. 

      Strep pneumonia

    • C. 

      Staph epidermidis

    • D. 

      Haemophilus

    • E. 

      Niesseria

  • 14. 
    What commonly cause infection in the small intestine?
    • A. 

      Bacteroides

    • B. 

      Enterococcus

    • C. 

      Fusobacterium

    • D. 

      Peptostreptococcus

    • E. 

      Candidia

    • F. 

      Clostridium

    • G. 

      Enterobacteriacae

  • 15. 
    What are the common causes of infection in the oropharynx?
    • A. 

      Moraxella catarrhalis

    • B. 

      Viridans strep

    • C. 

      Actinomyces

    • D. 

      Neisseria

    • E. 

      Staph aureus

    • F. 

      Strep Pyogenes

    • G. 

      Strep pneumoniae

    • H. 

      Haemophilus influenz

    • I. 

      Bacteroides

  • 16. 
    Which commonly cause infection in the colon?
    • A. 

      Bacterioides

    • B. 

      Clostridium

    • C. 

      Enterobacteriaceae

    • D. 

      Enterococcus

    • E. 

      Fusobacterium

    • F. 

      Peptostreptococcus

    • G. 

      Lactobacillus

    • H. 

      Corynebacterium

    • I. 

      Mycobacterium

    • J. 

      Candidia

  • 17. 
    What commonly causes infection in the distal urethra?
    • A. 

      Gardnerella vaginalis

    • B. 

      Enterobacteriaceae

    • C. 

      Enterococcus

    • D. 

      Mycoplasma

    • E. 

      Ureaplasma

    • F. 

      Candidia

    • G. 

      Bacterioides

    • H. 

      Neisseria

  • 18. 
    Where is Corynebacterium found?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Ear

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx

    • F. 

      Small intestine

    • G. 

      Colon

    • H. 

      Distal Urethra

    • I. 

      Vagina

  • 19. 
    Which of the following cause premature dissociation of peptidyl-tRNA from the ribosome?
    • A. 

      Glycylcyclines

    • B. 

      Macrolides

    • C. 

      Mupirocin

    • D. 

      Rifampin

    • E. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • F. 

      Clindamycin

    • G. 

      Streptogramins

    • H. 

      Linezolid

    • I. 

      Ketolides

    • J. 

      Aminoglycosides

    • K. 

      Tetracyclines

  • 20. 
    How does Mupirocin function?
    • A. 

      Binds to 23s rRNA of 50s Subunit, inhibiting the formation of ribosome mRNA complex

    • B. 

      Blocks ribosomal exit tunnel, terminating peptide synthesis

    • C. 

      Inhibits isoleucine synthetase, preventing it from binding to tRNA to be incorporated into the peptie chairn

    • D. 

      Irreversibly binds 50s subunit, inhibiting peptidyl transferase

    • E. 

      Binds to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, interrupting elongation of protein synthesis

  • 21. 
    How does Linezolid function?
    • A. 

      Binds to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site

    • B. 

      Binds to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, interrupting elongation of protein synthesis

    • C. 

      Reversibly binds the 23s rRNA of the 50s subunit, inhibiting the formation of the ribosome-mRNA complex

    • D. 

      Reversibly binds the 50s subunit inhibiting translocatio of tRNA from A site to P site

  • 22. 
    How do Macrolides function?
    • A. 

      Binds to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, interrupting elongation of protein synthesis

    • B. 

      Reversibly bind the 50s subunit, preventing peptidyl transferase activity, inhibiting the translocation of tRNA from A site to P site

    • C. 

      Prevents peptide bond formation during elongation

    • D. 

      Binds to RNA Polymerase inhibiting the initiation of trasncription

  • 23. 
    How do Clindamycin and other Lincosamides function?
    • A. 

      Binds to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, interrupting elongation of protein synthesis

    • B. 

      Irreversibly binds the 50s subunit preventing peptide bond formation during elongation

    • C. 

      Reversibly bind the 50s subunit, inhibiting translocation of tRNA from A site to P site, causing premature dissociation of the peptidyl-tRNA from the ribosome

    • D. 

      Energy dependent, sometimes irreversible finding to the 30s subunit, disrupting the formation of ribosome-mRNA complex. causing errors in translation, and blocks translocation

  • 24. 
    How do Streptogramins work?
    • A. 

      Irreversibly bind to the 50s subunit . Group A prevents peptide bond formation during elongation. Group B causes premature dissociation of peptidyl-tRNA from the ribosome

    • B. 

      Binds to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, interrupting elongation of protein synthesis

    • C. 

      Binds to 30s, sometimes irreversibly, disrupting the formation of ribosome-mRNA complex, causes errors in translation, and blocks translocation

    • D. 

      Reversibly binds to the 23s rRNA of the 50s subunit, inhibiting the formation of the ribosome-mRNA complex

  • 25. 
    How do Ketolides function?
    • A. 

      Blocks the ribosomal exit tunnel, thus terminating peptide synthesis

    • B. 

      Binds to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, interrupting elongation of protein synthesis

    • C. 

      Reversibly binds to the 23s rRNA of the 50s subunit, inhibiting the formation of the ribosome-mRNA complex

    • D. 

      Binds to the 50s subunit, inhibiting translocation of tRNA from A site to P site, causing premature dissociation of peptidyl-tRNA from the ribosome

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