2f051 CDC 25 Ure

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  • 1/392 Questions

    (001) Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that could result in a fatal or serious injury, or damaged equipment?

    • Urgent.
    • Routine.
    • Emergency.
    • Time compliance.
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2f051 CDC 25 Ure - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?

    • Urgent.

    • Routine.

    • Emergency.

    • Critical hazard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent." This recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition that requires immediate attention and action. The urgency implies that there is a high risk or danger associated with the condition, and it needs to be addressed promptly to prevent any harm or further damage.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called

    • Manuals.

    • Pamphlets.

    • Instructions.

    • Operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Instructions.
    Explanation
    Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called "instructions." Instructions provide detailed guidance and procedures for carrying out specific tasks or operations. They outline the steps to be followed and provide clear direction on how to accomplish objectives. Manuals, pamphlets, and operating instructions may also contain guidance, but instructions specifically refer to publications that establish management standards and control the official business of the Air Force.

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  • 4. 

    (002) Who do you contact to gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)?

    • Squadron Records Monitor.

    • Flight Publications Monitor.

    • Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.

    • Squadron Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.
    Explanation
    To gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), one would contact the Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative. This individual is responsible for distributing technical orders within the squadron and would have the necessary information and access to provide access to ETIMS. The Squadron Records Monitor, Flight Publications Monitor, and Squadron Technical Order Distribution Office Representative do not have the specific role of granting access to ETIMS.

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  • 5. 

    (003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?

    • –51 degrees (°) Celsius (C).

    • –58° C.

    • –51° Fahrenheit (F).

    • –58° F.

    Correct Answer
    A. –58° F.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is –58° F. This is the freeze point for JP-8 jet fuel.

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  • 6. 

    (005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight?

    • AFMAN 48–153, Health Risk Assessment.

    • AFI 91–202, The US Air Force Mishap Prevention Program.

    • AFMAN 48–155, Occupational and Environmental Health Exposure Controls.

    • AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards. This directive requires the establishment of an effective safety program within the fuels flight. It provides guidelines and standards for occupational and environmental safety, fire protection, and health in the Air Force.

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  • 7. 

    (005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?

    • Falling.

    • Using hand tools.

    • Handling heavy equipment.

    • Striking against material or equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Falling.
    Explanation
    Falling is the main source of accidents that cause disabling injuries to office workers. This can include slips, trips, or falls from elevated surfaces such as stairs, ladders, or slippery floors. Falling accidents can result in serious injuries such as broken bones, sprains, or head injuries. It is important for office workers to be aware of their surroundings, use proper safety measures, and report any potential hazards to prevent these accidents from occurring.

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  • 8. 

    (005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?

    • 15

    • 20

    • 30

    • 35

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. It is necessary to wait for 30 minutes after filling the tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob, to determine the level of the fuel. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize in the tank, ensuring an accurate measurement of the fuel level.

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  • 9. 

    (005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, move out of the taxi path,

    • Slow down, and turn off the headlight.

    • Stop the vehicle, and leave the headlights on.

    • Slow down, and leave the headlights on.

    • Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.
    Explanation
    When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to stop the vehicle to ensure the safety of the aircraft and personnel. Turning off the headlights is necessary to prevent any glare or distraction for the pilots and ground crew. This ensures clear visibility for everyone involved and reduces the risk of accidents or mishaps.

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  • 10. 

    (005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should under no circumstances position it any closer than this minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft.

    • 5

    • 10

    • 25

    • 50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, it is important to maintain a safe distance from the aircraft to prevent any potential accidents or damage. The correct answer of 10 feet ensures that there is enough space between the vehicle and the aircraft to avoid any potential collisions or fuel spillage. This distance allows for safe maneuverability and accessibility while still maintaining a safe distance to protect the aircraft.

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  • 11. 

    (005) Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within this many feet of operating aircraft radar.

    • 100

    • 150

    • 200

    • 300

    Correct Answer
    A. 300
    Explanation
    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar. This is because the radar system emits powerful electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause a fire or explosion. By maintaining a distance of at least 300 feet, the risk of interference and accidents is minimized, ensuring the safety of both the aircraft and personnel involved in fuel servicing operations.

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  • 12. 

    What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes?

    • 10

    • 15

    • 25

    • 50

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance that should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes is 25 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential accidents or injuries. Being too close to the jet intakes can be extremely dangerous due to the high velocity of air and the potential for objects to be sucked into the intake. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance to avoid any potential hazards.

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  • 13. 

    (005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area except

    • Transfer operations.

    • Fill stand operations.

    • Base service station issues.

    • Commercial pipeline receipts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fill stand operations.
    Explanation
    During electrical storms, it is important to prioritize safety and minimize any potential risks. Transfer operations, base service station issues, and commercial pipeline receipts may continue with proper precautions in place. However, fill stand operations involve the use of electrical equipment and can pose a higher risk during electrical storms. Hence, they should not continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area.

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  • 14. 

    (005) This condition can exist and you do not have to stop cryogenic production.

    • When electrical storms are within 1 nautical mile.

    • When electric storms are within 3 nautical miles.

    • When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles.

    • When electrical storms are within 7 nautical miles.

    Correct Answer
    A. When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles.
    Explanation
    When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles, it is considered safe to continue cryogenic production. This distance allows for a reasonable buffer zone to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. If the storms are within 1, 3, or 7 nautical miles, the risk of lightning strikes and other hazardous conditions may be too high, necessitating a halt in production.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Which base agency determines hearing protection requirements for cryogenic operations?

    • Civil engineering.

    • Fuels management flight.

    • Environmental Protection Agency.

    • Bioenvironmental engineering services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental engineering services.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental engineering services determine hearing protection requirements for cryogenic operations. This is because cryogenic operations involve working with extremely low temperatures, which can pose a risk to hearing. Bioenvironmental engineering services are responsible for assessing and managing occupational health hazards, including noise exposure, in order to protect the health and safety of personnel.

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  • 16. 

    (005) What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?

    • 15 minutes.

    • 30 minutes.

    • 45 minutes.

    • 1 hour.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 hour.
    Explanation
    The minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building is 1 hour. This means that these walls are designed to withstand fire for at least 1 hour, providing a barrier to prevent the spread of fire and protect the laboratory and other areas of the building.

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  • 17. 

    (005) What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?

    • Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire.

    • Contact the base interior electric shop.

    • Locate a water-type fire extinguisher.

    • Disable the circuit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disable the circuit.
    Explanation
    When fighting an electrical fire, the first thing you should do is to disable the circuit. This is important because electricity can fuel the fire and make it more dangerous. By cutting off the power source, you can prevent the fire from spreading and reduce the risk of electrocution. Once the circuit is disabled, you can then proceed with other appropriate actions such as using a fire extinguisher or contacting the base interior electric shop for further assistance.

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  • 18. 

    (006) To detect pollutant releases, monitor underground storage tanks every

    • 15 days.

    • 30 days.

    • 45 days.

    • 60 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days.
    Explanation
    To detect pollutant releases, it is recommended to monitor underground storage tanks every 30 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and detection of any potential leaks or releases of pollutants. Monitoring at shorter intervals, such as every 15 days, may be too frequent and not necessary in most cases. On the other hand, monitoring at longer intervals, such as every 45 or 60 days, may increase the risk of missing potential releases and allowing pollutants to spread without timely detection. Therefore, monitoring every 30 days strikes a balance between regular monitoring and efficiency.

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  • 19. 

    (006) To observe environmental pollution precautions, check dikes for deterioration

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weekly.
    Explanation
    To observe environmental pollution precautions, it is necessary to regularly check dikes for deterioration. Checking them on a daily basis might be too frequent and time-consuming, while checking them on a monthly or semiannual basis might not provide enough oversight to prevent potential pollution incidents. Therefore, checking dikes for deterioration on a weekly basis strikes a balance between ensuring regular maintenance and not being overly burdensome.

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  • 20. 

    (007) Which of the following base agencies should the fuels management team (FMT) coordinate with to obtain equipment needed for entering toxic environments?

    • Wing safety.

    • Spill response team.

    • Base civil engineering.

    • Environmental protection committee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing safety.
    Explanation
    The fuels management team (FMT) needs to coordinate with wing safety to obtain equipment needed for entering toxic environments. This is because wing safety is responsible for ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel in hazardous situations, including the provision of necessary equipment and training for working in toxic environments. The spill response team may also be involved in dealing with hazardous materials, but their focus is primarily on responding to and mitigating spills rather than providing equipment. Base civil engineering is responsible for infrastructure and construction projects, while the environmental protection committee is concerned with environmental regulations and compliance.

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  • 21. 

    (007) To which outside agency should the fuels management team (FMT) forward their mishap reports?

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • Defense Logistics Agency Energy (DLA-Energy).

    • Air Force Petroleum Agency Office (AFPA).

    • Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The fuels management team (FMT) should forward their mishap reports to the Major command (MAJCOM). This is because the MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple subordinate units within a specific geographic area or functional area. By sending the mishap reports to the MAJCOM, the FMT ensures that the information reaches the appropriate higher-level authority for review and action.

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  • 22. 

    (008) Joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the technician and the Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section

    • Daily.

    • Annually.

    • Monthly.

    • Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    The joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the technician and the Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section annually. This means that the inventories are done once a year.

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  • 23. 

    (201) Comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD) is the responsibility of the

    • Air Force Petroleum Agency.

    • Defense Logistics Agency Energy.

    • General Services Administration (GSA).

    • Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Logistics Agency Energy.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency Energy. The Defense Logistics Agency Energy is responsible for providing comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD). They ensure that the DOD has access to reliable and secure energy resources, including petroleum, fuel, and other energy-related products. They also manage the distribution and storage of energy resources for the DOD, ensuring that they are readily available when needed. The Air Force Petroleum Agency, General Services Administration (GSA), and Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions may have roles in energy support, but the primary responsibility lies with the Defense Logistics Agency Energy.

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  • 24. 

    (203) Which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) function key is used to enter a home station aircraft request in the FMD logsheet?

    • F2.

    • F3.

    • F4.

    • F6.

    Correct Answer
    A. F2.
    Explanation
    The F2 function key is used to enter a home station aircraft request in the FMD logsheet.

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  • 25. 

    (204) Which Fuels ManagerDefense (FMD) window allows operators to create a tabular list of up 20 tanks?

    • Graphic.

    • Tank Group.

    • Tank Detail.

    • Real-Time Reports.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tank Group.
    Explanation
    The Fuels Manager Defense (FMD) window that allows operators to create a tabular list of up to 20 tanks is the Tank Group window. This window allows operators to organize and manage multiple tanks in a group, providing a convenient way to view and manipulate data for those tanks. The Tank Group window is specifically designed for creating and managing groups of tanks, while the other options listed (Graphic, Tank Detail, and Real-Time Reports) do not have this functionality.

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  • 26. 

    (207) When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, what is entered in the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block?

    • Vehicle license plate number.

    • Vehicle registration number.

    • The word “Temporary”.

    • The word “Rental”.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle license plate number.
    Explanation
    When encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block is filled with the vehicle license plate number. This is because the license plate number uniquely identifies each vehicle and is used for registration and identification purposes.

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  • 27. 

    (208) All of the following items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except

    • Standard Form (SF) 91, Fuel Summary.

    • Air Force Form 1232, Bulk Fuel Issue/Defuel Summary.

    • Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Fuel Sales Slip.

    • Air Force Technical Order (TO) Form 422, Differential Pressure Log.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form (SF) 91, Fuel Summary.
    Explanation
    Each servicing clipboard must contain all of the listed items except the Standard Form (SF) 91, Fuel Summary. This means that the SF 91, Fuel Summary, is not required to be included in the servicing clipboard. The other three items, Air Force Form 1232, Bulk Fuel Issue/Defuel Summary, Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Fuel Sales Slip, and Air Force Technical Order (TO) Form 422, Differential Pressure Log, must be included in the servicing clipboard.

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  • 28. 

    (209) Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels

    • Controllers.

    • Management team.

    • Information service center superintendent.

    • Service center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Controllers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "controllers." In the context of radio transmission discipline, the term "controllers" refers to the fuels controllers. They are responsible for maintaining discipline and ensuring proper communication over the radio net. The other options, such as the management team, information service center superintendent, and service center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), are not specifically mentioned in relation to radio transmission discipline.

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  • 29. 

    (210) What sampling device is primarily used to obtain samples from barrels for visual examination?

    • Bacon bomb sampler.

    • In-line sampler.

    • Tube thief.

    • Drum thief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drum thief.
    Explanation
    A drum thief is a sampling device primarily used to obtain samples from barrels for visual examination. It is designed to extract a sample from a barrel without disturbing the contents or introducing any contaminants. The drum thief consists of a long tube with a sharp cutting edge at one end and a handle at the other end. By inserting the cutting edge into the barrel, the user can collect a sample for inspection without compromising the integrity of the remaining contents.

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  • 30. 

    (210) Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank?

    • Tube thief.

    • Drum thief.

    • Bacon bomb sampler.

    • Weighted bottle sampler.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacon bomb sampler.
    Explanation
    The bacon bomb sampler is the correct answer because it is the only sampling device mentioned that has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank. The tube thief, drum thief, and weighted bottle sampler do not have this feature.

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  • 31. 

    (210) Which sampling device is used for sampling tankers and barges?

    • Tube thief.

    • In-line sampler.

    • Bacon bomb sampler.

    • Weighted bottle sampler.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weighted bottle sampler.
    Explanation
    The weighted bottle sampler is used for sampling tankers and barges. This device is specifically designed to collect samples from large storage tanks and vessels. The sampler is lowered into the tank or barge and the weighted bottom ensures that it sinks to the desired depth. Once at the desired depth, the sampler is opened, allowing the sample to flow in. This method ensures that a representative sample is collected from different levels of the tank or barge, providing an accurate representation of the contents.

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  • 32. 

    (210) Which of these is not a light hydrocarbon contaminant that may be found in liquid oxygen (LOX)?

    • Methane.

    • Propane.

    • Acetylene.

    • Solvents.

    Correct Answer
    A. Solvents.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is solvents. Solvents are not considered light hydrocarbon contaminants that may be found in liquid oxygen (LOX). Light hydrocarbon contaminants typically include methane, propane, and acetylene, which can pose a safety hazard when present in LOX. However, solvents are not typically found in LOX and are not considered as common contaminants in this context.

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  • 33. 

    (210) Inert solids including rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are known as

    • Biological contaminants.

    • Particulate matter.

    • Precipitates.

    • Oxides.

    Correct Answer
    A. Particulate matter.
    Explanation
    Inert solids such as rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are referred to as particulate matter. This term is used to describe solid particles suspended in a gas or liquid. These particles can be of various sizes and originate from different sources. In the context of the question, particulate matter is the most appropriate term to describe these types of contaminants.

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  • 34. 

    (210) Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents and sent to the area lab every

    • 30 days.

    • 60 days.

    • 90 days.

    • 120 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90 days because samples from the liquid oxygen storage tank are taken every 90 days to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the quality and composition of the liquid oxygen over time.

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  • 35. 

    (211) Unless otherwise specified, all samples of aviation fuels submitted to off-base laboratories are a minimum of

    • 1 gallon (gal).

    • 2 gals.

    • 3 gals.

    • 5 gals.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 gals.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 gals. This means that unless there is a specific instruction stating otherwise, all samples of aviation fuels that are sent to off-base laboratories should be a minimum of 2 gallons in quantity. This is likely because a larger sample size is needed for accurate testing and analysis of the fuel properties.

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  • 36. 

    (213) Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste petroleum product category?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Turbine engine oil is categorized as a recoverable and waste petroleum product in category 4.

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  • 37. 

    (213) Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered a minimum of how many times prior to re-issue to aircraft?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered a minimum of two times prior to re-issue to aircraft. Filtering the product twice ensures that any contaminants or impurities that may have been introduced during the reclaiming process are removed, reducing the risk of contamination when the product is used again.

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  • 38. 

    (214) The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the

    • Top of the hydrometer.

    • Bottom of the cylinder.

    • Bottom of the hydrometer.

    • Point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale.

    Correct Answer
    A. Point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale.
    Explanation
    The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids. The hydrometer is used to determine the API gravity by measuring the buoyancy of the liquid. The point at which the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale indicates the specific gravity of the liquid, which can then be used to calculate the API gravity.

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  • 39. 

    (214) To obtain meaningful results with a bottle method analysis, the vacuum must read in excess of how many inches of mercury?

    • 20

    • 25

    • 27

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
    Explanation
    In order to obtain meaningful results with a bottle method analysis, the vacuum must read in excess of 20 inches of mercury. This means that the vacuum pressure needs to be higher than 20 inches of mercury in order for the analysis to yield accurate and reliable results.

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  • 40. 

    (214) What device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor when conducting a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method?

    • Metal syringe.

    • Vacuum flask.

    • Roto-Vap flask.

    • Industrial syringe.

    Correct Answer
    A. Metal syringe.
    Explanation
    A metal syringe is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor when conducting a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method. This is because a metal syringe is durable and can withstand the harsh conditions of the field. It is also able to accurately extract the residual fuel without contamination, ensuring accurate results for the analysis.

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  • 41. 

    (214) How long should matched weight filters be placed in a dessicator after drying?

    • 15 minutes.

    • 30 minutes.

    • 45 minutes.

    • 60 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 minutes.
    Explanation
    Weight filters should be placed in a dessicator after drying for 30 minutes. This duration allows the filters to fully dry and reach equilibrium with the surrounding environment, ensuring accurate and consistent measurements. Placing them for a shorter duration may result in residual moisture affecting the weight, while leaving them for longer could lead to over-drying and potential changes in weight due to absorption of moisture from the atmosphere. Therefore, 30 minutes is the recommended time for achieving optimal results.

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  • 42. 

    (214) What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?

    • Zinc chloride.

    • Phthalic anhydride.

    • Sodium fluorescein.

    • Methanesulfonic acid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium fluorescein.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sodium fluorescein. Sodium fluorescein is used as the dye for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad. It is a fluorescent dye that is commonly used in various applications, including in the detection of leaks and cracks in engines. Its fluorescence properties allow for easy detection and visualization of any leaks or defects in the engine, making it an ideal choice for the AEL detector pad.

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  • 43. 

    (214) When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) water analysis method how much fuel should pass through the test pad?

    • One gallon (gal).

    • One quart (qt).

    • 600 milliliters (ml).

    • 300 ml.

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 ml.
    Explanation
    When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) water analysis method, only 300 ml of fuel should pass through the test pad. This amount is specified as the correct answer.

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  • 44. 

    (214) Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required

    • For new probes.

    • If the probe has been cleaned in the past 48 hours.

    • When the probe has been stored in a sealed package.

    • When the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached. This means that if the conductivity meter can be calibrated or reset to zero while the probe is still connected, there is no need to clean the probe before conducting conductivity testing. This implies that the meter can accurately measure conductivity even with the probe attached, eliminating the need for cleaning.

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  • 45. 

    (214) Refractometers used for fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis should be calibrated

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Prior to first use.

    • Daily or when changing test water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily or when changing test water.
    Explanation
    Refractometers used for fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis should be calibrated daily or when changing test water. This is because refractometers measure the refractive index of a substance, which can be affected by various factors such as temperature, impurities, and changes in the composition of the substance being tested. Calibrating the refractometer daily or when changing test water ensures accurate and reliable measurements, allowing for precise analysis of the FSII in fuel systems and preventing potential issues related to icing.

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  • 46. 

    (214) When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for

    • One minute.

    • Three minutes.

    • Five minutes.

    • Six minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Five minutes.
    Explanation
    During a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for five minutes. Shaking the mixture for this duration ensures thorough mixing and allows any water present in the fuel to separate and settle at the bottom of the funnel. This is important as the FSII analysis aims to determine the effectiveness of the fuel in preventing icing in the fuel system, and a proper mixture is necessary for accurate results.

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  • 47. 

    (215) Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the caution tag program?

    • Fuels laboratory noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • Fuels information service center superintendent.

    • Compliance and environmental superintendent.

    • Fuel management team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuels laboratory noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
    Explanation
    The Fuels laboratory noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) is responsible for administering the caution tag program in a fuels management flight. This role involves overseeing the tagging of equipment or areas that require caution due to potential hazards or maintenance requirements. They ensure that caution tags are properly implemented and followed by personnel to maintain safety and compliance with regulations.

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  • 48. 

    (215) Who in the fuels management flight is responsible for maintaining the keys to the quality control (QC) hold box?

    • Fuel management team.

    • Fuels laboratory personnel.

    • Fuels service center personnel.

    • Fuels information service center superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuels laboratory personnel.
    Explanation
    Fuels laboratory personnel are responsible for maintaining the keys to the quality control (QC) hold box in the fuels management flight. This indicates that the fuels laboratory personnel have the authority and responsibility to access and secure the QC hold box, which is likely used to store important documents or samples related to fuel quality control. The other options, such as the fuel management team, fuels service center personnel, and fuels information service center superintendent, do not specifically mention this responsibility.

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  • 49. 

    (216) The responsibility for managing the Government Purchase Card (GPC) program in a fuels management flight is the fuels

    • Materiel control supervisor.

    • Mobility supervisor.

    • Training supervisor.

    • Management team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Materiel control supervisor.
    Explanation
    The responsibility for managing the Government Purchase Card (GPC) program in a fuels management flight lies with the materiel control supervisor. This individual is responsible for overseeing the procurement and management of materials, including fuel, within the flight. They would be the most suitable person to handle the GPC program as they have the necessary knowledge and expertise in managing materials and ensuring proper procurement processes are followed. The mobility supervisor, training supervisor, and management team may have other responsibilities within the flight, but they would not specifically be responsible for managing the GPC program.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 21, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    USAFPOL
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