(216) The responsibility for managing the Government Purchase Card...
(819) All of the following conditions require the filter elements to...
(819) What should each R–20 surge suppressor precharge gauge...
(217) Personnel selected by the fuels mobility supervisor to attend...
(217) Who is responsible for maintaining a current listing of all...
(821) How many digits makeup the unit type code (UTC) that identifies...
(217) The fuels mobility support element supervisor identifies fiscal...
(218) Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award...
(218) Who is responsible for maintaining Weighted Airman Promotion...
(401) An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to
(401) What are the requirements for a military service station tank...
(401) What type automotive dispensing unit has two meters with one...
(401) What is the difference between the motors used in the...
(401) How many selectable fuel product pumps does each military...
(401) How many fuel-dispensing pumps can one master vehicle...
(402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive...
(403) On the type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the...
(403) What component is connected to the differential pressure...
(403) What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the...
(403) On the type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the...
(404) What are the rated gallons per minute (gpm) pump capacity on the...
(404) How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how...
(404) On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from...
(405) Since the type V hydrant system is not required to be manned...
(405) On the type V hydrant system, how many inches are the...
(406) During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for...
(406) The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk Storage...
(406) A separate Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk...
(406) During the last 30 minutes of a fuel transfer operation, contact...
(406) What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the...
(406) How frequently should types III, IV, and V hydrant systems be...
(406) Fuels management and base civil engineering/water fuels and...
(406) What position should the pump selector switch be placed in when...
(406) What must be activated until the fuel level drops below the...
(406) Operation of the product recovery system and water drain system...
(406) Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be...
(407) When inspecting automated tank-gauging (ATG) systems, what...
(407) How often should emergency switches be tested for proper...
(408) How long are completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms...
(408) When should the Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and...
(408) What personnel are responsible for completing the “Maintenance...
(409) When manually gauging a storage tank, where should fuel-finding...
(409) When manually gauging a storage tank, how many identical gauge...
(411) Between what hours are physical inventories of active fuel...
(411) How often should active storage fuel tanks be inventoried?
(412) Heat can be transferred in cryotainers using these three...
(412) Cryotainer convection heat transfer from a cryotainer’s outer...
(412) What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?
(412) The purpose of the portable vacuum gauge on a cryogenic storage...
(413) When inspecting cryotainers, you find a heavy freeze spot on the...
(414) Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen...
(416) How many days should pass before you perform vacuum checks on...
(416) The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the
(417) For how many weeks is the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form...
(417) The specific time interval between supervisor reviews of the Air...
(417) What symbol is annotated on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO)...
(417) This symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244,...
(417) What Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form acts as a permanent...
(418) Who is required to conduct a monthly cryogenic storage facility...
(601) What is the gallon capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank?
(601) The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is powered...
(602) During normal operation, both dual brake air pressure gauge...
(602) The brake system on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler will...
(602) What is the maximum number of US gallons that can register on...
(603) Use the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler...
(604) What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute...
(001) Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a...
(604) At what gallons per minute (gpm) maximum rate can you fill the...
(001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests...
(605) What is the maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of...
(605) What should you do if condensation is discovered in the air...
(606) What precharge pounds per square inch (psi) pressure reading...
(001) Publications that set up management standards and control the...
(607) The sump tank full indicator on the Beta-Freightliner R-12...
(002) Who do you contact to gain access to the Enhanced Technical...
(608) Check to ensure the sump tank on the Beta International R-12...
(608) Prior to fuel service using the Kovatch R-12 Hydrant Servicing...
(608) During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12...
(609) What is the gallon capacity of the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing...
(609) What C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit component allows the tank...
(003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?
(005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be...
(610) When receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing...
(005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling...
(005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting...
(611) You are hot refueling an aircraft equipped with refuel...
(611) Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak...
(005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a...
(613) What type of special servicing operation involves simultaneously...
(005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should...
(005) Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within this...
(615) The refueling vehicle engine should not be allowed to operate...
What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front...
(616) Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to
(617) Who is normally tasked to observe and record filter separator...
(005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical...
(005) This condition can exist and you do not have to stop cryogenic...
(005) Which base agency determines hearing protection requirements for...
(619) What automated data collection system is used for aircraft...
(005) What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls...
(620) The fuels preventive maintenance supervisor is responsible to...
(005) What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?
(620) Who directs the maintenance and inspection frequency of war...
(620) Who must perform a walk around inspection before each vehicle is...
(006) To detect pollutant releases, monitor underground storage tanks...
(620) What should you do if a frayed bonding cable is found during the...
(006) To observe environmental pollution precautions, check dikes for...
(621) Which item is not recorded on a new AF Form 1807, Operator’s...
(621) When performing monthly checks using the AF Form 1807,...
(007) Which of the following base agencies should the fuels management...
(801) How many fighter aircraft is the R–14C fuel-servicing module...
(007) To which outside agency should the fuels management team (FMT)...
(008) Joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the...
(801) Up to what flow rate can fuel be pumped through one, 2-inch...
(201) Comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD)...
(802) The R–22 pumping unit is not authorized to be used alone for...
(802) The purpose of the float valve on the R–22 trailer-mounted...
(203) Which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) function key is used to enter a...
(802) When setting up the R–22, how many sections of 25-foot hose...
(802) All of the following procedures should be accomplished when...
(204) Which Fuels ManagerDefense (FMD) window allows operators to...
(803) How often should the filter elements in the FFU–15E filter...
(803) When preparing the FFU–15E filter separator for shipment,...
(207) When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for rental...
(208) All of the following items must be contained in each servicing...
(209) Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is...
(210) What sampling device is primarily used to obtain samples from...
(806) The secondary purpose of the PMU–27M air-transportable...
(210) Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that...
(210) Which sampling device is used for sampling tankers and barges?
(806) The JFDEK unit type code (UTC) kit is equipped with this number...
(806) When preparing the PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted...
(210) Which of these is not a light hydrocarbon contaminant that may...
(210) Inert solids including rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers...
(210) Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be...
(807) What is the rated capacity of the filter separator on the aerial...
(211) Unless otherwise specified, all samples of aviation fuels...
(807) How many filter elements are in the aerial delivery and...
(808) Fuel bladders are made of this type fabric.
(808) Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladders come...
(213) Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste...
(809) The forward area manifold (FAM) cart is capable of servicing up...
(213) Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be...
(810) For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are...
(214) The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum...
(811) At how many gallons per minute (gpm) is the Tactical Automated...
(812) At what maximum rate can an R–19 filter separator unit filter...
(214) To obtain meaningful results with a bottle method analysis, the...
(214) What device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter...
(214) How long should matched weight filters be placed in a dessicator...
(214) What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory...
(214) When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory...
(814) How many feet of communications wire is each R–20...
(814) How many skid-mounted fillstand assemblies are included in the...
(214) Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not...
(815) Manually set the throttle control to this revolution per minute...
(816) When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment,...
(214) Refractometers used for fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII)...
(214) When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis,...
(818) What grade of oil should you use when changing the engine oil on...
(818) How often should the water slug valve test be performed on the...
(818) Inspect the sight flow indicators on a portable additive...
(818) The PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling...
(215) Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for...
(818) What form may be used to document the inspection of fuel...
(215) Who in the fuels management flight is responsible for...
(819) How often should the sump tank on an R–19 filter separator...
(404) How many aircraft (depending on the type) can be simultaneously...
(001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order...
(605) The Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit’s defueling...
(813) What R–20 component will illuminate when the servicing...
(406) What two valves on the type III hydrant system combine to bleed...
(410) What key on the tank control unit (TCU) is used to access the...
(603) At least how many pounds per square inch (psi) must the air...
(001) Which type of AF publication includes instructions and manuals?
(003) Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than
(610) When receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing...
(005) Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than...
(618) The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip can...
(620) All assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be...
(007) Which outside agency acts as the Air Force’s Service Control...
(801) Which types of fuel can be used to operate the engine on the...
(803) At what flow rate is the FFU–15E filter separator capable of...
(211) What form is used to identify fuel samples for shipment?
(212) A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are
(214) Electrical continuity tests must be performed on lab filtration...
(214) What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between...
(216) When making a telephone purchase, Government Purchase Card (GPC)...
(217) Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area...
(821) Who is responsible for working with the major command (MAJCOM)...
(401) What is the minimum gallon capacity for a fuel storage tank used...
(402) What component activates the desired product pump on the...
(405) The deadman control valve on the type V hydrant system operates...
(406) The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702, Petroleum...
(408) A system on standby status should be inspected at least
(413) Pressure gauges on liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN)...
(416) The discharged air from the air purge unit on a storage tank is...
(418) How often should you check fire extinguishers that are in...
(001) A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a...
(001) Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions...