2f051 CDC 25 Ure

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1. (216) The responsibility for managing the Government Purchase Card (GPC) program in a fuels management flight is the fuels

Explanation

The responsibility for managing the Government Purchase Card (GPC) program in a fuels management flight lies with the materiel control supervisor. This individual is responsible for overseeing the procurement and management of materials, including fuel, within the flight. They would be the most suitable person to handle the GPC program as they have the necessary knowledge and expertise in managing materials and ensuring proper procurement processes are followed. The mobility supervisor, training supervisor, and management team may have other responsibilities within the flight, but they would not specifically be responsible for managing the GPC program.

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2f051 CDC 25 Ure - Quiz

2. (819) All of the following conditions require the filter elements to be replaced on an R–19 filter separator unit except when

Explanation

The correct answer is 12 psid displayed on the DP gauge. This is because the question asks for the condition that does not require the filter elements to be replaced. The other conditions mentioned, such as 15 psid differential pressure and unsatisfactory performance, indicate that the filter elements should be replaced. However, when 12 psid is displayed on the DP gauge, it does not necessarily mean that the filter elements need to be replaced. Therefore, this condition does not require the filter elements to be replaced.

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3. (819) What should each R–20 surge suppressor precharge gauge indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

Each R-20 surge suppressor precharge gauge should indicate 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating.

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4. (217) Personnel selected by the fuels mobility supervisor to attend Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum retainability of

Explanation

Personnel selected by the fuels mobility supervisor to attend Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum retainability of 24 months. This means that individuals who are chosen for this training must commit to remaining in their position for at least 24 months after completing the training. This requirement ensures that the investment in training is not wasted and that the trained personnel can effectively utilize their skills in their role for a significant period of time.

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5. (217) Who is responsible for maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers, flight physicals, physiological training, and any other unique training requirements?

Explanation

The Fuels mobility supervisor is responsible for maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers, flight physicals, physiological training, and any other unique training requirements. They ensure that the necessary qualifications and training are up to date for all personnel involved in fuel management. The squadron training manager is responsible for overall training management, while the Fuels training supervisor focuses specifically on fuel-related training. The Fuel management team is responsible for the overall management of fuel operations, but not specifically for maintaining personnel listings and training requirements.

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6. (821) How many digits makeup the unit type code (UTC) that identifies personnel and equipment needed to support deployment requirements?

Explanation

The unit type code (UTC) is a unique identifier used to designate personnel and equipment required for deployment. The question asks how many digits make up the UTC. The correct answer is five because a UTC is typically composed of five alphanumeric characters.

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7. (217) The fuels mobility support element supervisor identifies fiscal year mobility support funding requirements to the

Explanation

The fuels mobility support element supervisor is responsible for identifying fiscal year mobility support funding requirements. This information needs to be communicated to the squadron commander, who is ultimately responsible for approving and allocating resources. Therefore, the correct answer is the squadron resource manager, as they are responsible for managing the squadron's resources and ensuring that the necessary funding is allocated for mobility support.

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8. (218) Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award of the 5 skill level except

Explanation

The correct answer is completion of a minimum of 12 months on-the-job training. This is because the question asks for an exception, and all the other options are listed as requirements for award of the 5 skill level. Therefore, completion of a minimum of 12 months on-the-job training is not a requirement for the award of the 5 skill level.

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9. (218) Who is responsible for maintaining Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) study material?

Explanation

The Fuels training supervisor is responsible for maintaining the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) study material.

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10. (401) An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to

Explanation

An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to allow the tank to breathe properly and to keep the vent unobstructed. This means that the vent cap allows for proper airflow in and out of the tank, ensuring that pressure does not build up and that any obstructions in the vent are prevented. This is important for the safe operation of the tank and to prevent any potential hazards.

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11. (401) What are the requirements for a military service station tank cleanout line?

Explanation

The correct answer is ¾-inch diameter; extending 12 inches above the grade. This size and height requirement ensures that the tank cleanout line is of sufficient size to allow for proper cleaning and maintenance of the military service station tank. A ¾-inch diameter allows for adequate flow and the 12-inch height above the grade ensures that the cleanout line is easily accessible for maintenance and inspection purposes.

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12. (401) What type automotive dispensing unit has two meters with one pump contained within its housing?

Explanation

A dual dispensing, single product automotive dispensing unit is a type of unit that has two meters and only one pump within its housing. This means that the unit is capable of dispensing the same product through two separate meters, allowing for simultaneous dispensing at different rates or to different locations. However, it can only dispense a single type of product, as indicated by the "single product" part of the answer.

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13. (401) What is the difference between the motors used in the self-contained automotive single dispensing and dual dispensing units?

Explanation

Dual dispensing motors have a higher horsepower rating compared to the motors used in single dispensing units. This means that dual dispensing motors are more powerful and capable of delivering a greater amount of force and torque. This higher horsepower rating allows dual dispensing units to handle larger volumes of fluid and operate more efficiently, making them suitable for applications that require a higher flow rate.

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14. (401) How many selectable fuel product pumps does each military service station master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) have the capacity to control?

Explanation

Each military service station master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) has the capacity to control 8 selectable fuel product pumps.

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15. (401) How many fuel-dispensing pumps can one master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) control with a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR)?

Explanation

One master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) can control a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR). Each SVIR can control up to 9 fuel-dispensing pumps. Therefore, the total number of fuel-dispensing pumps that can be controlled by the MVIR and SVIRs is 8 (SVIRs) multiplied by 9 (pumps per SVIR), which equals 72.

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16. (402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

Explanation

If excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts, the appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR) must be notified for product disposition. The QAR is responsible for ensuring the quality and compliance of products, so they need to be informed about any issues with contamination. The other options, such as the company who shipped the product, base fuels laboratory personnel, and area laboratory personnel, may also be involved in addressing the issue, but the primary responsibility lies with the QAR.

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17. (403) On the type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located on an aboveground operating storage tank on the

Explanation

The correct answer is "exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height." In a type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located outside of the tank at the necessary shut-off height. This ensures that the valve can be easily accessed and operated for shutting off the flow of water when the tank reaches a certain level. Placing the assembly on the exterior of the tank also prevents any potential interference or obstruction that may occur if it was located inside the tank.

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18. (403) What component is connected to the differential pressure transmitter on the type III hydrant system?

Explanation

The component connected to the differential pressure transmitter on the type III hydrant system is the Venturi. A Venturi is a tube with a narrow throat that creates a pressure difference when fluid flows through it. This pressure difference is measured by the differential pressure transmitter and used to determine the flow rate of the fluid. The Venturi is commonly used in fluid flow measurement systems due to its accuracy and reliability.

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19. (403) What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel, is completely solid-state with no moving parts, and indicates an emergency is occurring?

Explanation

An alarm annunciator is a type III hydrant system component that is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel. It is completely solid-state with no moving parts and is designed to indicate an emergency situation. When an emergency occurs, the alarm annunciator will activate and provide a visual or audible alarm to alert personnel. This component is crucial for ensuring that emergencies are promptly identified and appropriate actions can be taken.

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20. (403) On the type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump #2 were selected as the lead pump?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3, 4, 5, and 1. In a type III hydrant system, the pumps are arranged in a specific sequence to ensure proper water flow. If pump #2 is selected as the lead pump, the sequence of the other pumps would be 3, 4, 5, and 1. This sequence ensures that the water is pumped in the correct order and reaches the desired location efficiently.

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21. (404) What are the rated gallons per minute (gpm) pump capacity on the type IV hydrant system?

Explanation

The rated gallons per minute (gpm) pump capacity on the type IV hydrant system is 600. This means that the pump is capable of delivering water at a rate of 600 gallons per minute.

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22. (404) How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

Explanation

The correct answer is four tanks with each tank holding 50,000 gallons. This means that a total of four tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and each tank has a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

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23. (404) On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the “hot pad” if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

During a hot refueling operation on a type IV hydrant system, if a hose separates from the nozzle, a dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically. This mechanism is designed to prevent fuel from spilling onto the "hot pad." The dry break coupler acts as a valve that closes off the flow of fuel when the hose disconnects, ensuring that there is no leakage or spillage. This safety feature helps to minimize the risk of fire or accidents during refueling operations.

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24. (405) Since the type V hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is operating, inspections are performed every

Explanation

The type V hydrant system does not require constant monitoring while operating. Therefore, inspections are performed every three hours to ensure that the system is functioning properly and to address any potential issues in a timely manner. This frequency allows for regular checks without the need for constant manpower.

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25. (405) On the type V hydrant system, how many inches are the permanently installed stainless steel pantographs inside the hardened shelters?

Explanation

The permanently installed stainless steel pantographs inside the hardened shelters on the type V hydrant system are 3 inches.

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26. (406) During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the “hot pad?”

Explanation

During type IV hydrant system operations, the hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad." This role involves overseeing the entire hot refueling process, ensuring the safe and efficient transfer of fuel to the aircraft. The hot refueling supervisor coordinates with the hot refueling crewman and other personnel involved in the operation to ensure that the aircraft is positioned correctly on the designated area for refueling. They are responsible for maintaining safety protocols and ensuring that all necessary precautions are taken during the refueling process.

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27. (406) The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk Storage Summary, serves as a record for all

Explanation

The correct answer is "issues from and returns to bulk." The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk Storage Summary, serves as a record for both the issues from bulk and the returns to bulk. This means that it keeps track of both the fuel that is issued from the bulk storage and the fuel that is returned to the bulk storage.

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28. (406) A separate Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk Storage Summary, may be maintained for each fillstand meter at the discretion of the

Explanation

A separate Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk Storage Summary, may be maintained for each fillstand meter at the discretion of the fuels management team (FMT). This means that the FMT has the authority to decide whether or not to maintain a separate form for each fillstand meter. The squadron commander and fuels operations superintendent do not have the same level of discretion in this matter.

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29. (406) During the last 30 minutes of a fuel transfer operation, contact should be established between the transfer and receiving points every

Explanation

During the last 30 minutes of a fuel transfer operation, it is important to establish contact between the transfer and receiving points every 10 minutes. This is necessary to ensure smooth communication and coordination between the two points during the critical phase of the operation. Establishing contact at regular intervals allows for the timely exchange of information and any necessary adjustments to be made, ensuring the safe and efficient transfer of fuel.

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30. (406) What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R–12 Refueler’s defuel pump?

Explanation

The maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R-12 Refueler's defuel pump is 300.

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31. (406) How frequently should types III, IV, and V hydrant systems be flushed?

Explanation

Types III, IV, and V hydrant systems should be flushed on a monthly basis. Flushing these systems regularly helps to remove any sediment or debris that may accumulate in the pipes, ensuring that the hydrant system remains in optimal working condition. Flushing also helps to prevent clogging and maintain water flow, which is crucial in case of emergencies. Quarterly, semiannual, or annual flushing may not be sufficient to keep the hydrant systems clean and functional, making monthly flushing the most appropriate and effective option.

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32. (406) Fuels management and base civil engineering/water fuels and systems maintenance (CE/WFSM) personnel develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the system’s

Explanation

Fuels management and base civil engineering/water fuels and systems maintenance (CE/WFSM) personnel develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the system's type. This means that the type of hydrant system determines the specific instructions for flushing it. The rated capacity and number of control valves may be important factors to consider, but they are not the primary basis for developing the operating instructions.

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33. (406) What position should the pump selector switch be placed in when performing flushing operations on a type III, IV, or V system?

Explanation

During flushing operations on a type III, IV, or V system, the pump selector switch should be placed in the "Flush" position. This is because the purpose of flushing is to clean out any impurities or debris from the system, and the "Flush" position allows the pump to circulate water or cleaning solution through the system to achieve this. Placing the switch in any other position, such as "Off," "Idle," or "Auto," would not facilitate the flushing process effectively.

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34. (406) What must be activated until the fuel level drops below the float valve reservoir when emptying through the bottom-loading valve of a mobile refueling unit (MRU)?

Explanation

The override button must be activated until the fuel level drops below the float valve reservoir when emptying through the bottom-loading valve of a mobile refueling unit (MRU). This button allows the operator to manually control the fuel flow and override any automatic shut-off mechanisms.

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35. (406) Operation of the product recovery system and water drain system will be constantly attended by a qualified fuels operator and/or

Explanation

The correct answer is a liquid fuels maintenance technician. This is because the operation of the product recovery system and water drain system requires specialized knowledge and expertise in handling liquid fuels. A liquid fuels maintenance technician would have the necessary skills and training to attend to these systems and ensure their proper functioning. Utilities personnel may not have the specific knowledge required for handling liquid fuels, and contract maintenance personnel or preventive maintenance technicians may not have the specific expertise in maintaining and operating these particular systems.

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36. (406) Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

Explanation

Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations. This means that the disposal of these mixtures should comply with the guidelines and regulations set by the local government, the state government, and the federal government. This ensures that the disposal process is carried out in an environmentally responsible manner, preventing any potential harm to the environment and ensuring compliance with all applicable laws and regulations at different levels of government.

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37. (407) When inspecting automated tank-gauging (ATG) systems, what pounds per square inch (psi) pressure range should the nitrogen cylinder regulator setting indicate?

Explanation

The nitrogen cylinder regulator setting for inspecting automated tank-gauging (ATG) systems should indicate a pressure range of 20 to 25 pounds per square inch (psi).

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38. (407) How often should emergency switches be tested for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized?

Explanation

Emergency switches should be tested for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized on a monthly basis. This regular testing ensures that the emergency switches are functioning correctly and can be relied upon in case of an emergency. Testing them frequently helps to identify any potential issues or malfunctions, allowing for timely repairs or replacements to be made. Monthly testing also aligns with standard maintenance practices to ensure the overall safety and effectiveness of the emergency switches.

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39. (408) How long are completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report, retained by fuels management?

Explanation

Completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report, are retained by fuels management for a period of three years. This allows for a sufficient amount of time to keep records of fuel system inspections and discrepancies for future reference and analysis.

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40. (408) When should the Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report?

Explanation

The Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent should review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report on a monthly basis. This regular review allows them to stay updated on any discrepancies or issues with the fuel system and take appropriate actions to address them. Reviewing the report monthly ensures that any potential problems are identified and resolved in a timely manner, maintaining the efficiency and safety of the fuel system operations.

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41. (408) What personnel are responsible for completing the “Maintenance Status” column, on page 2 of the AFTO Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report?

Explanation

The personnel responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on page 2 of the AFTO Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report are the Water & fuels systems maintenance personnel.

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42. (409) When manually gauging a storage tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied to the steel tape?

Explanation

Fuel-finding paste should be applied 3 inches above and below the estimated product depth on the steel tape when manually gauging a storage tank. This allows for a more accurate measurement of the fuel level in the tank.

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43. (409) When manually gauging a storage tank, how many identical gauge readings must be obtained to ensure an accurate gauge reading?

Explanation

To ensure an accurate gauge reading when manually gauging a storage tank, two identical gauge readings must be obtained. This is because having two identical readings helps to confirm the consistency and reliability of the gauge. If the two readings differ significantly, it indicates a potential error in the measurement, and further readings may be required to obtain an accurate gauge reading. However, two identical readings provide a good indication of the tank's level and help minimize the chances of errors or discrepancies.

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44. (411) Between what hours are physical inventories of active fuel storage tanks normally taken?

Explanation

Physical inventories of active fuel storage tanks are normally taken between 2400 and 0800. This time frame is chosen because it is during the late night and early morning hours when there is typically less activity and fewer people present at the storage facility. This allows for a more accurate and efficient inventory count to be conducted without interruption or interference.

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45. (411) How often should active storage fuel tanks be inventoried?

Explanation

Active storage fuel tanks should be inventoried daily to ensure accurate monitoring of fuel levels and prevent any shortages or overflows. Daily inventory allows for timely detection of any leaks, theft, or other issues that may arise, ensuring the safety and efficient operation of the storage tanks. Regular inventory also helps in maintaining accurate records, facilitating effective fuel management and planning.

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46. (412) Heat can be transferred in cryotainers using these three methods.

Explanation

Heat can be transferred in cryotainers through three methods: conduction, convection, and radiation. Conduction occurs when heat is transferred through direct contact between objects or substances. Convection involves the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves. These three methods are commonly used in cryotainers to ensure efficient heat transfer and maintain the desired temperature levels.

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47. (412) Cryotainer convection heat transfer from a cryotainer’s outer tank to the inner tank is nonexistent because the

Explanation

The correct answer is "air has been removed from the annular space." This is because the annular space refers to the space between the outer tank and the inner tank of the cryotainer. By removing the air from this space, convection heat transfer is minimized or eliminated, as air is a poor conductor of heat. This helps to maintain the desired temperature inside the cryotainer and prevent heat exchange between the inner and outer tanks.

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48. (412) What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?

Explanation

Cryotainers are containers used to store cryogenic liquids at extremely low temperatures. The two gauges that are permanently installed on cryotainers are pressure and quantity gauges. The pressure gauge measures the pressure inside the cryotainer, which is important to ensure safe operation and prevent over-pressurization. The quantity gauge, on the other hand, measures the amount or level of cryogenic liquid present in the cryotainer, allowing users to monitor and manage the amount of liquid available. These two gauges are essential for maintaining the proper functioning and safety of cryotainers.

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49. (412) The purpose of the portable vacuum gauge on a cryogenic storage tank is to check the

Explanation

The portable vacuum gauge on a cryogenic storage tank is used to check the vacuum in the annular space. The annular space refers to the space between the inner tank and the outer tank of the storage tank. Maintaining a vacuum in this space is important as it helps to minimize heat transfer and maintain the low temperature required for cryogenic storage. The vacuum gauge allows operators to monitor the vacuum level and ensure that it is within the desired range for proper storage and insulation.

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50. (413) When inspecting cryotainers, you find a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose. This indicates the

Explanation

The heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of the LOX/LIN transfer hose suggests that there is a leak in the inner hose. When the inner hose is damaged or worn out, it can allow the liquid oxygen or liquid nitrogen to escape, causing the outer hose to freeze. Therefore, the inner hose needs to be replaced to prevent further leaks and ensure the safe transfer of the cryogenic liquids.

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51. (414) Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt?

Explanation

During a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, the procedure that is only accomplished is testing for odor. This is important because liquid oxygen is odorless, but it can support combustion, so any presence of an unusual odor could indicate contamination or a leak. Testing for odor helps to ensure the safety and quality of the liquid oxygen being received. The other procedures mentioned, such as monitoring for leaks, checking the receiving tank's ullage, and verifying the DD Form 250, may also be important during a LOX receipt, but they are not exclusive to this process.

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52. (416) How many days should pass before you perform vacuum checks on cryotainers?

Explanation

The correct answer is 180 because performing vacuum checks on cryotainers is necessary to ensure their proper functioning and prevent any potential leaks or malfunctions. However, conducting these checks too frequently can be time-consuming and inefficient. Therefore, waiting for 180 days before performing vacuum checks strikes a balance between ensuring the cryotainers' safety and optimizing the maintenance process.

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53. (416) The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the

Explanation

The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the oil seal between the piston and inside casting of the pump chambers. This is because the oil seal ensures that there is no leakage of air or gas from the pump chambers, allowing the pump to create a high vacuum. Without a proper seal, the pump would not be able to maintain the desired level of vacuum, reducing its effectiveness. The size of the cryotainer, temperature within the annular space, and circular motion of the shaft and pistons may have an impact on the overall performance of the pump, but the oil seal is the critical factor for its effectiveness.

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54. (417) For how many weeks is the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, Aviator Breathing Oxygen Servicing Trailer Log, kept after it is filled in completely?

Explanation

The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, Aviator Breathing Oxygen Servicing Trailer Log, is kept for two weeks after it is filled in completely. This suggests that the form is used to track the servicing of the oxygen trailer and is retained for a limited period for record-keeping purposes.

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55. (417) The specific time interval between supervisor reviews of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, may be determined by the

Explanation

The correct answer is Major Command (MAJCOM). The specific time interval between supervisor reviews of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, is determined by the Major Command. This means that the higher-level command, which oversees multiple wings and squadrons, has the authority to set the time interval for these reviews. The Wing commander, Squadron Commander, and Fuels Management Flight Commander do not have the authority to determine this interval.

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56. (417) What symbol is annotated on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Cont), to represent a required special inspection is due?

Explanation

The correct answer is red dash. On the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, a red dash symbol is annotated to represent that a required special inspection is due. This symbol is used to indicate that the equipment needs to undergo a specific inspection or maintenance procedure for safety or operational reasons. The red dash serves as a visual reminder to personnel that the equipment requires attention and should not be used until the inspection has been completed.

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57. (417) This symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, is used to indicate an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment.

Explanation

The correct answer is red diagonal. On the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, a red diagonal symbol is used to indicate an unsatisfactory condition that exists but is not dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment. This symbol serves as a visual warning to personnel that there is an issue with the equipment that needs attention or repair. The red diagonal is a clear indication that the equipment may not be fully functional or in optimal condition, but it does not pose an immediate danger to the user.

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58. (417) What Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form acts as a permanent record of maintenance actions on equipment designated by a major command (MAJCOM)?

Explanation

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data, acts as a permanent record of maintenance actions on equipment designated by a major command (MAJCOM). This form is used to document important information such as modifications, repairs, and inspections that have been performed on the equipment. It serves as a valuable resource for future reference and helps in tracking the maintenance history of the equipment.

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59. (418) Who is required to conduct a monthly cryogenic storage facility inspection with the cryogenic supervisor?

Explanation

The Fuels Management Team is required to conduct a monthly cryogenic storage facility inspection with the cryogenic supervisor. This suggests that the Fuels Management Team has the necessary expertise and knowledge to assess the cryogenic storage facility and ensure its proper functioning. The other options, such as Water & Fuels Systems Maintenance, Squadron commander, and Storage technician, may not have the specific training or responsibilities related to cryogenic storage facility inspections.

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60. (601) What is the gallon capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6,000. This means that the gallon capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank is 6,000 gallons.

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61. (601) The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is powered by this amount of volts alternating current (AC) outside power supply.

Explanation

The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is powered by a 110-volt alternating current (AC) outside power supply with a capacity of 20 amperes.

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62. (602) During normal operation, both dual brake air pressure gauge pointers on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler should register equal air pressure between

Explanation

During normal operation, both dual brake air pressure gauge pointers on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler should register equal air pressure between 90 and 135 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that the air pressure for both brakes should be within this range for the refueler to operate properly.

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63. (602) The brake system on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler will automatically apply parking brakes when the

Explanation

The correct answer is that the brake system on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler will automatically apply parking brakes when the air pressure drops below 30 to 40 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that if the air pressure in the brake system falls below the specified range, the parking brakes will be engaged automatically to prevent the vehicle from rolling or moving. This safety feature ensures that the vehicle remains stationary and secure when the air pressure is insufficient to maintain proper braking functionality.

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64. (602) What is the maximum number of US gallons that can register on the meter of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler?

Explanation

The maximum number of US gallons that can register on the meter of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler is 99,999. This means that the meter can measure up to 99,999 gallons of fuel.

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65. (603) Use the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler when the temperature is

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 degrees Fahrenheit (°F). The reason for using the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler at this temperature is because ether starting aids are typically used in colder temperatures to assist in starting diesel engines. Since 40 degrees Fahrenheit is relatively cold, the ether starting aid would be necessary to ensure the engine starts smoothly.

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66. (604) What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute (rpm), for LOW FLOW servicing operations on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler?

Explanation

The desired engine speed for LOW FLOW servicing operations on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler is 1,000±50 rpm. This means that the engine should ideally run at 1,000 revolutions per minute, with a tolerance of plus or minus 50 rpm. This specific engine speed is likely recommended for low flow operations to ensure optimal performance and efficiency while carrying out refueling tasks.

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67. (001) Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that could result in a fatal or serious injury, or damaged equipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Emergency." In this context, an emergency refers to a situation that poses a significant risk to human life or equipment. When a technical order (TO) deficiency has the potential to cause fatal or serious injuries or damage equipment, it is crucial to submit an emergency improvement recommendation. This ensures that immediate action is taken to address the issue and prevent any potential harm or damage.

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68. (604) At what gallons per minute (gpm) maximum rate can you fill the tank on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler using the bottom loading system?

Explanation

The maximum rate at which the tank on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler can be filled using the bottom loading system is 600 gallons per minute (gpm).

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69. (001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Urgent." This recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition that requires immediate attention and action. The urgency implies that there is a high risk or danger associated with the condition, and it needs to be addressed promptly to prevent any harm or further damage.

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70. (605) What is the maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling nozzle pressure used with the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit?

Explanation

The maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling nozzle pressure used with the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit is 55. This means that the fueling nozzle pressure should not exceed 55 psi when using this particular unit.

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71. (605) What should you do if condensation is discovered in the air filter of the Beta-International R–12 Hydrant Servicing unit?

Explanation

If condensation is discovered in the air filter of the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, the correct action to take is to drain the condensation. Condensation in the air filter can restrict airflow and potentially cause damage to the engine. By draining the condensation, the air filter can function properly and prevent any potential issues.

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72. (606) What precharge pounds per square inch (psi) pressure reading should be indicated on the Kovatch R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit surge suppressor pressure gauges while the surge suppressor service valves are open?

Explanation

The surge suppressor pressure gauges on the Kovatch R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit should indicate a precharge pressure reading of 90 ± 5 psi when the surge suppressor service valves are open.

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73. (001) Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called

Explanation

Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called "instructions." Instructions provide detailed guidance and procedures for carrying out specific tasks or operations. They outline the steps to be followed and provide clear direction on how to accomplish objectives. Manuals, pamphlets, and operating instructions may also contain guidance, but instructions specifically refer to publications that establish management standards and control the official business of the Air Force.

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74. (607) The sump tank full indicator on the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit will illuminate when the sump tank is approximately this full.

Explanation

The sump tank full indicator on the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit will illuminate when the sump tank is approximately 75 percent full. This means that when the tank reaches this level, the indicator will alert the user that the tank is almost completely filled.

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75. (002) Who do you contact to gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)?

Explanation

To gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), one would contact the Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative. This individual is responsible for distributing technical orders within the squadron and would have the necessary information and access to provide access to ETIMS. The Squadron Records Monitor, Flight Publications Monitor, and Squadron Technical Order Distribution Office Representative do not have the specific role of granting access to ETIMS.

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76. (608) Check to ensure the sump tank on the Beta International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit is below ⅔ full prior to performing a defueling operation to

Explanation

The correct answer is to prevent the sump tank from overfilling. Checking to ensure that the sump tank is below ⅔ full before performing a defueling operation is important to prevent the tank from reaching its maximum capacity and potentially overflowing. This precaution helps to maintain the proper functioning of the hydrant servicing unit and avoid any potential hazards or damage that may occur due to overfilling.

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77. (608) Prior to fuel service using the Kovatch R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, ensure that the truck’s air pressure is above this pounds per square inch (psi).

Explanation

Prior to fuel service using the Kovatch R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, it is important to ensure that the truck's air pressure is above 90 pounds per square inch (psi). This is necessary to ensure that the unit operates effectively and safely during the fuel service process.

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78. (608) During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, the deadman switch must be re-activated, to prevent automatic shutdown, every

Explanation

During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, the deadman switch must be re-activated every 2 minutes to prevent automatic shutdown.

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79. (609) What is the gallon capacity of the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit storage tank?

Explanation

The gallon capacity of the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit storage tank is 1,200.

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80. (609) What C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit component allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations?

Explanation

The vent valve is the component that allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations. It ensures that air can flow in and out of the tank, preventing any pressure build-up or vacuum formation. This is important for maintaining the integrity and safety of the tank during these operations. The other options, such as the float level sensor, bottom loading interlock, and emergency/bottom loading valve, do not perform this specific function of allowing the tank to breathe.

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81. (003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?

Explanation

The correct answer is –58° F. This is the freeze point for JP-8 jet fuel.

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82. (005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards. This directive requires the establishment of an effective safety program within the fuels flight. It provides guidelines and standards for occupational and environmental safety, fire protection, and health in the Air Force.

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83. (610) When receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit, the tank fill rate should not exceed

Explanation

The correct answer is 100 gpm. When receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit, the tank fill rate should not exceed 100 gallons per minute (gpm).

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84. (005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?

Explanation

Falling is the main source of accidents that cause disabling injuries to office workers. This can include slips, trips, or falls from elevated surfaces such as stairs, ladders, or slippery floors. Falling accidents can result in serious injuries such as broken bones, sprains, or head injuries. It is important for office workers to be aware of their surroundings, use proper safety measures, and report any potential hazards to prevent these accidents from occurring.

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85. (005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30. It is necessary to wait for 30 minutes after filling the tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob, to determine the level of the fuel. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize in the tank, ensuring an accurate measurement of the fuel level.

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86. (611) You are hot refueling an aircraft equipped with refuel high-level shutoff valves. When should the valves be checked for proper operation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "At the beginning of the hot refueling operation." This is because checking the refuel high-level shutoff valves at the beginning ensures that they are functioning properly before fueling the aircraft. It is important to ensure the valves are in good working condition to prevent any fuel spillage or other safety hazards during the refueling process. Checking the valves before starting the operation allows for any necessary maintenance or repairs to be done before fueling begins.

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87. (611) Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak occurs during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

In the event of a fire or fuel leak during a hot refueling operation, the first action to initiate should be to stop the fuel flow. This is crucial to prevent the further escalation of the fire or leak. Stopping the fuel flow will help minimize the potential danger and allow for a safer environment to address the situation.

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88. (005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, move out of the taxi path,

Explanation

When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to stop the vehicle to ensure the safety of the aircraft and personnel. Turning off the headlights is necessary to prevent any glare or distraction for the pilots and ground crew. This ensures clear visibility for everyone involved and reduces the risk of accidents or mishaps.

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89. (613) What type of special servicing operation involves simultaneously refueling an aircraft while other maintenance activities take place?

Explanation

Concurrent servicing is the type of special servicing operation that involves simultaneously refueling an aircraft while other maintenance activities take place. This means that the aircraft can be refueled while other tasks, such as inspections or repairs, are being carried out. This allows for efficient use of time and resources, as multiple activities can be performed simultaneously, reducing downtime for the aircraft.

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90. (005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should under no circumstances position it any closer than this minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft.

Explanation

When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, it is important to maintain a safe distance from the aircraft to prevent any potential accidents or damage. The correct answer of 10 feet ensures that there is enough space between the vehicle and the aircraft to avoid any potential collisions or fuel spillage. This distance allows for safe maneuverability and accessibility while still maintaining a safe distance to protect the aircraft.

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91. (005) Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within this many feet of operating aircraft radar.

Explanation

Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar. This is because the radar system emits powerful electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause a fire or explosion. By maintaining a distance of at least 300 feet, the risk of interference and accidents is minimized, ensuring the safety of both the aircraft and personnel involved in fuel servicing operations.

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92. (615) The refueling vehicle engine should not be allowed to operate more than this many minutes during in-shelter refueling operations if the aircraft entry doors are closed.

Explanation

During in-shelter refueling operations, it is important to limit the operation of the refueling vehicle engine to prevent the accumulation of harmful gases inside the shelter. If the aircraft entry doors are closed, the engine should not be allowed to operate for more than 20 minutes. This ensures that the air quality inside the shelter remains safe and prevents any potential risks or hazards.

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93. What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes?

Explanation

The minimum safe distance that should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes is 25 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential accidents or injuries. Being too close to the jet intakes can be extremely dangerous due to the high velocity of air and the potential for objects to be sucked into the intake. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance to avoid any potential hazards.

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94. (616) Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to

Explanation

The correct answer is single hydrant servicing units equipped with two refueling hoses. This is because the question is asking for the option that does not have multiple refueling source restrictions. The other options, such as MH-2 series hosecarts, R-11 mobile refueling units, and Air Force owned and operated fuel-servicing equipment, may have restrictions on multiple refueling sources. However, single hydrant servicing units equipped with two refueling hoses do not have these restrictions, as they are designed to efficiently refuel aircraft from a single hydrant system.

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95. (617) Who is normally tasked to observe and record filter separator differential pressure (DP) and flow rates?

Explanation

Fuels quality control personnel are responsible for observing and recording filter separator differential pressure (DP) and flow rates. This task falls under their purview as they are in charge of ensuring the quality and efficiency of fuel systems. Vehicle operators, storage personnel, and the NCOIC of Fuels Compliance may have other responsibilities related to fuel management, but monitoring and recording DP and flow rates is specifically assigned to fuels quality control personnel.

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96. (005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area except

Explanation

During electrical storms, it is important to prioritize safety and minimize any potential risks. Transfer operations, base service station issues, and commercial pipeline receipts may continue with proper precautions in place. However, fill stand operations involve the use of electrical equipment and can pose a higher risk during electrical storms. Hence, they should not continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area.

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97. (005) This condition can exist and you do not have to stop cryogenic production.

Explanation

When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles, it is considered safe to continue cryogenic production. This distance allows for a reasonable buffer zone to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. If the storms are within 1, 3, or 7 nautical miles, the risk of lightning strikes and other hazardous conditions may be too high, necessitating a halt in production.

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98. (005) Which base agency determines hearing protection requirements for cryogenic operations?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental engineering services determine hearing protection requirements for cryogenic operations. This is because cryogenic operations involve working with extremely low temperatures, which can pose a risk to hearing. Bioenvironmental engineering services are responsible for assessing and managing occupational health hazards, including noise exposure, in order to protect the health and safety of personnel.

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99. (619) What automated data collection system is used for aircraft billing information?

Explanation

The correct answer is Automated point of sale device (APOSD). This system is used for collecting aircraft billing information. It is a device that automates the process of recording sales transactions and collecting payment for services or products. It is specifically designed for point of sale transactions and is commonly used in industries such as retail and hospitality.

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100. (005) What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?

Explanation

The minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building is 1 hour. This means that these walls are designed to withstand fire for at least 1 hour, providing a barrier to prevent the spread of fire and protect the laboratory and other areas of the building.

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101. (620) The fuels preventive maintenance supervisor is responsible to this individual for the technical supervision of operators’ equipment inspection and maintenance?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels distribution supervisor. The fuels preventive maintenance supervisor is responsible for the technical supervision of operators' equipment inspection and maintenance. The individual who oversees this role and provides guidance and direction is the fuels distribution supervisor. They are responsible for ensuring that all equipment is properly maintained and inspected, and that any issues are addressed in a timely manner. The fuels distribution supervisor works closely with the preventive maintenance supervisor to ensure the smooth operation of the fuels management system.

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102. (005) What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?

Explanation

When fighting an electrical fire, the first thing you should do is to disable the circuit. This is important because electricity can fuel the fire and make it more dangerous. By cutting off the power source, you can prevent the fire from spreading and reduce the risk of electrocution. Once the circuit is disabled, you can then proceed with other appropriate actions such as using a fire extinguisher or contacting the base interior electric shop for further assistance.

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103. (620) Who directs the maintenance and inspection frequency of war reserve material (WRM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM). Major commands are responsible for directing the maintenance and inspection frequency of war reserve material (WRM). They have the authority and oversight to ensure that the WRM is properly maintained and inspected to meet operational requirements. The MAJCOMs play a crucial role in managing and coordinating the maintenance and inspection efforts for WRM across their respective commands.

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104. (620) Who must perform a walk around inspection before each vehicle is used?

Explanation

The correct answer is the vehicle operator. The walk around inspection is a crucial step to ensure the vehicle's safety and identify any potential issues before it is used. The vehicle operator is responsible for conducting this inspection, which involves checking the tires, lights, brakes, and other important components of the vehicle. By performing this inspection, the vehicle operator can help prevent accidents and ensure that the vehicle is in proper working condition.

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105. (006) To detect pollutant releases, monitor underground storage tanks every

Explanation

To detect pollutant releases, it is recommended to monitor underground storage tanks every 30 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and detection of any potential leaks or releases of pollutants. Monitoring at shorter intervals, such as every 15 days, may be too frequent and not necessary in most cases. On the other hand, monitoring at longer intervals, such as every 45 or 60 days, may increase the risk of missing potential releases and allowing pollutants to spread without timely detection. Therefore, monitoring every 30 days strikes a balance between regular monitoring and efficiency.

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106. (620) What should you do if a frayed bonding cable is found during the operator maintenance check?

Explanation

If a frayed bonding cable is found during the operator maintenance check, the appropriate action to take is to repair the bonding cable. This means fixing the frayed portion of the cable so that it is in proper working condition. This is the most efficient and cost-effective solution as it avoids the need to replace the entire cable or remove the equipment from service. Reporting the finding to refueling maintenance may also be necessary to ensure proper documentation and follow-up actions.

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107. (006) To observe environmental pollution precautions, check dikes for deterioration

Explanation

To observe environmental pollution precautions, it is necessary to regularly check dikes for deterioration. Checking them on a daily basis might be too frequent and time-consuming, while checking them on a monthly or semiannual basis might not provide enough oversight to prevent potential pollution incidents. Therefore, checking dikes for deterioration on a weekly basis strikes a balance between ensuring regular maintenance and not being overly burdensome.

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108. (621) Which item is not recorded on a new AF Form 1807, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report (Fuel Servicing Vehicles)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Discrepancies completed from the old form." On a new AF Form 1807, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report (Fuel Servicing Vehicles), discrepancies completed from the old form are not recorded. This means that any discrepancies that were previously identified and resolved on the old form do not need to be recorded again on the new form. The purpose of the new form is to track any new defective conditions, overdue inspections, or discrepancies that are still open.

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109. (621) When performing monthly checks using the AF Form 1807, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report (Fuel Servicing Vehicles), which item is checked for leaks and damage and to ensure the dust cover is in place?

Explanation

When performing monthly checks using the AF Form 1807, the bottom loading system is checked for leaks and damage and to ensure the dust cover is in place. The bottom loading system is an important component of fuel servicing vehicles, and it is crucial to ensure its proper functioning and maintenance to prevent any leaks or damage that could compromise the safety and efficiency of the vehicle.

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110. (007) Which of the following base agencies should the fuels management team (FMT) coordinate with to obtain equipment needed for entering toxic environments?

Explanation

The fuels management team (FMT) needs to coordinate with wing safety to obtain equipment needed for entering toxic environments. This is because wing safety is responsible for ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel in hazardous situations, including the provision of necessary equipment and training for working in toxic environments. The spill response team may also be involved in dealing with hazardous materials, but their focus is primarily on responding to and mitigating spills rather than providing equipment. Base civil engineering is responsible for infrastructure and construction projects, while the environmental protection committee is concerned with environmental regulations and compliance.

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111. (801) How many fighter aircraft is the R–14C fuel-servicing module equipped with enough hose to service at the same time?

Explanation

The R-14C fuel-servicing module is equipped with enough hose to service two fighter aircraft at the same time.

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112. (007) To which outside agency should the fuels management team (FMT) forward their mishap reports?

Explanation

The fuels management team (FMT) should forward their mishap reports to the Major command (MAJCOM). This is because the MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple subordinate units within a specific geographic area or functional area. By sending the mishap reports to the MAJCOM, the FMT ensures that the information reaches the appropriate higher-level authority for review and action.

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113. (008) Joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the technician and the Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section

Explanation

The joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the technician and the Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section annually. This means that the inventories are done once a year.

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114. (801) Up to what flow rate can fuel be pumped through one, 2-inch overwing nozzle on the R–14C fuel-servicing module?

Explanation

The correct answer is 100 gallons per minute (gpm). This means that fuel can be pumped through one, 2-inch overwing nozzle on the R-14C fuel-servicing module at a maximum rate of 100 gallons per minute.

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115. (201) Comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD) is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency Energy. The Defense Logistics Agency Energy is responsible for providing comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD). They ensure that the DOD has access to reliable and secure energy resources, including petroleum, fuel, and other energy-related products. They also manage the distribution and storage of energy resources for the DOD, ensuring that they are readily available when needed. The Air Force Petroleum Agency, General Services Administration (GSA), and Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions may have roles in energy support, but the primary responsibility lies with the Defense Logistics Agency Energy.

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116. (802) The R–22 pumping unit is not authorized to be used alone for direct aircraft servicing because it has no installed

Explanation

The R-22 pumping unit is not authorized to be used alone for direct aircraft servicing because it has no installed filter separator. A filter separator is an essential component in the servicing process as it helps remove contaminants and impurities from the fuel, ensuring that only clean fuel is supplied to the aircraft. Without a filter separator, there is a risk of fuel contamination, which can lead to engine damage or failure. Therefore, it is necessary to have a filter separator installed when using the R-22 pumping unit for aircraft servicing.

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117. (802) The purpose of the float valve on the R–22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly is to

Explanation

The purpose of the float valve on the R-22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly is to fill the engine tank. This valve is responsible for regulating the flow of fuel into the engine tank, ensuring that it is filled to the appropriate level. By controlling the fuel supply, the float valve helps to maintain a consistent and reliable fuel source for the engine, ensuring optimal performance and functionality.

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118. (203) Which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) function key is used to enter a home station aircraft request in the FMD logsheet?

Explanation

The F2 function key is used to enter a home station aircraft request in the FMD logsheet.

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119. (802) When setting up the R–22, how many sections of 25-foot hose should be used to connect the R–22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly to the FFU–15E?

Explanation

To set up the R-22, three sections of 25-foot hose should be used to connect the R-22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly to the FFU-15E.

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120. (802) All of the following procedures should be accomplished when preparing the R–22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly for shipment except

Explanation

When preparing the R-22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly for shipment, it is important to drain all fuel from the R-22 piping, disconnect and drain all hose assemblies, and clean the unit thoroughly to remove dirt and debris. However, draining all oil from the engine is not necessary for shipment preparation.

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121. (204) Which Fuels ManagerDefense (FMD) window allows operators to create a tabular list of up 20 tanks?

Explanation

The Fuels Manager Defense (FMD) window that allows operators to create a tabular list of up to 20 tanks is the Tank Group window. This window allows operators to organize and manage multiple tanks in a group, providing a convenient way to view and manipulate data for those tanks. The Tank Group window is specifically designed for creating and managing groups of tanks, while the other options listed (Graphic, Tank Detail, and Real-Time Reports) do not have this functionality.

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122. (803) How often should the filter elements in the FFU–15E filter separator be replaced?

Explanation

The correct answer is when the differential pressure reaches 20 psi or every three years, whichever comes first. This means that the filter elements should be replaced either when the differential pressure reaches 20 psi or after three years of operation, whichever happens first. This ensures that the filter separator continues to function effectively and maintain the desired pressure levels.

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123. (803) When preparing the FFU–15E filter separator for shipment, complete all of the following procedures except

Explanation

When preparing the FFU-15E filter separator for shipment, it is important to complete certain procedures. These include draining all fuel from the unit, installing dust caps on all fittings, and cleaning the unit thoroughly to remove dirt and debris. However, removing the filter elements is not necessary during the shipment preparation process.

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124. (207) When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, what is entered in the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block?

Explanation

When encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block is filled with the vehicle license plate number. This is because the license plate number uniquely identifies each vehicle and is used for registration and identification purposes.

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125. (208) All of the following items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except

Explanation

Each servicing clipboard must contain all of the listed items except the Standard Form (SF) 91, Fuel Summary. This means that the SF 91, Fuel Summary, is not required to be included in the servicing clipboard. The other three items, Air Force Form 1232, Bulk Fuel Issue/Defuel Summary, Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Fuel Sales Slip, and Air Force Technical Order (TO) Form 422, Differential Pressure Log, must be included in the servicing clipboard.

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126. (209) Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels

Explanation

The correct answer is "controllers." In the context of radio transmission discipline, the term "controllers" refers to the fuels controllers. They are responsible for maintaining discipline and ensuring proper communication over the radio net. The other options, such as the management team, information service center superintendent, and service center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), are not specifically mentioned in relation to radio transmission discipline.

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127. (210) What sampling device is primarily used to obtain samples from barrels for visual examination?

Explanation

A drum thief is a sampling device primarily used to obtain samples from barrels for visual examination. It is designed to extract a sample from a barrel without disturbing the contents or introducing any contaminants. The drum thief consists of a long tube with a sharp cutting edge at one end and a handle at the other end. By inserting the cutting edge into the barrel, the user can collect a sample for inspection without compromising the integrity of the remaining contents.

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128. (806) The secondary purpose of the PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system’s pump assembly is servicing

Explanation

The secondary purpose of the PMU-27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system's pump assembly is to service small aircraft. This means that the pump assembly is designed and used specifically for refueling small aircraft, rather than large aircraft, ground equipment, or emergency generators.

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129. (210) Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank?

Explanation

The bacon bomb sampler is the correct answer because it is the only sampling device mentioned that has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank. The tube thief, drum thief, and weighted bottle sampler do not have this feature.

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130. (210) Which sampling device is used for sampling tankers and barges?

Explanation

The weighted bottle sampler is used for sampling tankers and barges. This device is specifically designed to collect samples from large storage tanks and vessels. The sampler is lowered into the tank or barge and the weighted bottom ensures that it sinks to the desired depth. Once at the desired depth, the sampler is opened, allowing the sample to flow in. This method ensures that a representative sample is collected from different levels of the tank or barge, providing an accurate representation of the contents.

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131. (806) The JFDEK unit type code (UTC) kit is equipped with this number of 500-gallon sealed drums.

Explanation

The JFDEK unit type code (UTC) kit is equipped with four 500-gallon sealed drums.

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132. (806) When preparing the PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system for shipment, complete all of the following steps except

Explanation

When preparing the PMU-27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system for shipment, all of the mentioned steps should be completed except for removing the filter elements from the filter separator. This step is not necessary as the filter elements should remain in place to ensure proper filtration during transportation.

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133. (210) Which of these is not a light hydrocarbon contaminant that may be found in liquid oxygen (LOX)?

Explanation

The correct answer is solvents. Solvents are not considered light hydrocarbon contaminants that may be found in liquid oxygen (LOX). Light hydrocarbon contaminants typically include methane, propane, and acetylene, which can pose a safety hazard when present in LOX. However, solvents are not typically found in LOX and are not considered as common contaminants in this context.

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134. (210) Inert solids including rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are known as

Explanation

Inert solids such as rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are referred to as particulate matter. This term is used to describe solid particles suspended in a gas or liquid. These particles can be of various sizes and originate from different sources. In the context of the question, particulate matter is the most appropriate term to describe these types of contaminants.

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135. (210) Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents and sent to the area lab every

Explanation

The correct answer is 90 days because samples from the liquid oxygen storage tank are taken every 90 days to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the quality and composition of the liquid oxygen over time.

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136. (807) What is the rated capacity of the filter separator on the aerial delivery and dispensing system (ADDS)?

Explanation

The rated capacity of the filter separator on the aerial delivery and dispensing system (ADDS) is 300 gallons per minute (gpm). This means that the filter separator is designed to handle a flow rate of 300 gpm, ensuring efficient filtration and separation of contaminants from the fuel being delivered and dispensed.

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137. (211) Unless otherwise specified, all samples of aviation fuels submitted to off-base laboratories are a minimum of

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 gals. This means that unless there is a specific instruction stating otherwise, all samples of aviation fuels that are sent to off-base laboratories should be a minimum of 2 gallons in quantity. This is likely because a larger sample size is needed for accurate testing and analysis of the fuel properties.

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138. (807) How many filter elements are in the aerial delivery and dispensing system’s (ADDS) filter separator?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 because the aerial delivery and dispensing system's (ADDS) filter separator contains three filter elements.

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139. (808) Fuel bladders are made of this type fabric.

Explanation

Fuel bladders are made of single-ply nylon fabric because it is lightweight, durable, and resistant to fuel and chemical exposure. Nylon is a strong synthetic material that can withstand the pressure and stress of holding fuel without tearing or leaking. Additionally, single-ply construction ensures that the bladder remains flexible and easy to handle. Rubber impregnated fabric may not provide the same level of durability and resistance, while double-ply epoxy coated and high impact, multi-weave carbon fiber fabrics are not commonly used for fuel bladders due to their higher cost and specific applications in other industries.

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140. (808) Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladders come in all sizes except

Explanation

Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladders come in various sizes, including 3 inch, 5 inch, and 7½ inch. However, they do not come in the size of 6½ inch.

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141. (213) Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste petroleum product category?

Explanation

Turbine engine oil is categorized as a recoverable and waste petroleum product in category 4.

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142. (809) The forward area manifold (FAM) cart is capable of servicing up to how many receiver aircraft at one time?

Explanation

The correct answer is Three. The forward area manifold (FAM) cart is capable of servicing up to three receiver aircraft at one time. This means that the FAM cart has the capacity to provide fuel, hydraulic fluid, or other necessary services to three aircraft simultaneously.

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143. (213) Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered a minimum of how many times prior to re-issue to aircraft?

Explanation

Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered a minimum of two times prior to re-issue to aircraft. Filtering the product twice ensures that any contaminants or impurities that may have been introduced during the reclaiming process are removed, reducing the risk of contamination when the product is used again.

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144. (810) For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 to 25 psig. When shipping cryotainers by air, the inner tanks need to be pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure. The range of 15 to 25 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) is the appropriate pressure to maintain the integrity of the cryotainers during air shipment. This pressure range ensures that the tanks are adequately pressurized to prevent any damage or leaks during transportation.

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145. (214) The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids. The hydrometer is used to determine the API gravity by measuring the buoyancy of the liquid. The point at which the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale indicates the specific gravity of the liquid, which can then be used to calculate the API gravity.

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146. (811) At how many gallons per minute (gpm) is the Tactical Automated Service Station (TASS) capable of delivering fuel?

Explanation

The Tactical Automated Service Station (TASS) is capable of delivering fuel at a rate of 10 gallons per minute (gpm).

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147. (812) At what maximum rate can an R–19 filter separator unit filter fuel individually?

Explanation

The correct answer is 600 gpm. This means that the R-19 filter separator unit can filter fuel individually at a maximum rate of 600 gallons per minute.

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148. (214) To obtain meaningful results with a bottle method analysis, the vacuum must read in excess of how many inches of mercury?

Explanation

In order to obtain meaningful results with a bottle method analysis, the vacuum must read in excess of 20 inches of mercury. This means that the vacuum pressure needs to be higher than 20 inches of mercury in order for the analysis to yield accurate and reliable results.

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149. (214) What device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor when conducting a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method?

Explanation

A metal syringe is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor when conducting a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method. This is because a metal syringe is durable and can withstand the harsh conditions of the field. It is also able to accurately extract the residual fuel without contamination, ensuring accurate results for the analysis.

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150. (214) How long should matched weight filters be placed in a dessicator after drying?

Explanation

Weight filters should be placed in a dessicator after drying for 30 minutes. This duration allows the filters to fully dry and reach equilibrium with the surrounding environment, ensuring accurate and consistent measurements. Placing them for a shorter duration may result in residual moisture affecting the weight, while leaving them for longer could lead to over-drying and potential changes in weight due to absorption of moisture from the atmosphere. Therefore, 30 minutes is the recommended time for achieving optimal results.

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151. (214) What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sodium fluorescein. Sodium fluorescein is used as the dye for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad. It is a fluorescent dye that is commonly used in various applications, including in the detection of leaks and cracks in engines. Its fluorescence properties allow for easy detection and visualization of any leaks or defects in the engine, making it an ideal choice for the AEL detector pad.

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152. (214) When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) water analysis method how much fuel should pass through the test pad?

Explanation

When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) water analysis method, only 300 ml of fuel should pass through the test pad. This amount is specified as the correct answer.

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153. (814) How many feet of communications wire is each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform equipped?

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communications wire.

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154. (814) How many skid-mounted fillstand assemblies are included in the fuels operational readiness capability equipment (FORCE) system?

Explanation

The question asks about the number of skid-mounted fillstand assemblies included in the fuels operational readiness capability equipment (FORCE) system. The correct answer is "Two." This means that there are two skid-mounted fillstand assemblies included in the system.

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155. (214) Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required

Explanation

The correct answer is when the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached. This means that if the conductivity meter can be calibrated or reset to zero while the probe is still connected, there is no need to clean the probe before conducting conductivity testing. This implies that the meter can accurately measure conductivity even with the probe attached, eliminating the need for cleaning.

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156. (815) Manually set the throttle control to this revolution per minute (rpm) setting when performing fuel-servicing operations with an R–18 pumping unit.

Explanation

When performing fuel-servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should be manually set to 2,250 revolutions per minute (rpm). This specific rpm setting is necessary for the efficient and effective operation of the unit during fuel-servicing tasks.

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157. (816) When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the

Explanation

When preparing the R-20 filter separator unit for shipment, it is necessary to drain all components except the surge suppressors. Surge suppressors are not required to be drained as they do not contain any fluids that could potentially leak or cause damage during transportation. The sump tank, control valves, and micronic filter, on the other hand, need to be drained to prevent any leakage or contamination during shipment.

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158. (214) Refractometers used for fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis should be calibrated

Explanation

Refractometers used for fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis should be calibrated daily or when changing test water. This is because refractometers measure the refractive index of a substance, which can be affected by various factors such as temperature, impurities, and changes in the composition of the substance being tested. Calibrating the refractometer daily or when changing test water ensures accurate and reliable measurements, allowing for precise analysis of the FSII in fuel systems and preventing potential issues related to icing.

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159. (214) When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for

Explanation

During a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for five minutes. Shaking the mixture for this duration ensures thorough mixing and allows any water present in the fuel to separate and settle at the bottom of the funnel. This is important as the FSII analysis aims to determine the effectiveness of the fuel in preventing icing in the fuel system, and a proper mixture is necessary for accurate results.

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160. (818) What grade of oil should you use when changing the engine oil on an R–14C?

Explanation

The correct answer is Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) 30. This is the recommended grade of oil to use when changing the engine oil on an R-14C. The SAE 30 oil is suitable for moderate temperatures and provides good lubrication for the engine. It is important to use the correct grade of oil to ensure optimal performance and longevity of the engine.

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161. (818) How often should the water slug valve test be performed on the FFU–15E filter separator?

Explanation

The water slug valve test should be performed on the FFU-15E filter separator on a monthly basis. This test is necessary to ensure that the valve is functioning properly and is not blocked or obstructed by any debris or sediment. Performing this test regularly helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the filter separator in removing water from the system.

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162. (818) Inspect the sight flow indicators on a portable additive injector daily for

Explanation

The correct answer is to inspect the sight flow indicators on a portable additive injector daily for cracked or broken glass. This is important because if the glass is cracked or broken, it could affect the visibility of the flow indicators and make it difficult to monitor the proper operation of the injector. Additionally, cracked or broken glass could also lead to leaks or corrosion, which could further impact the performance and safety of the injector. Therefore, regularly checking for cracked or broken glass is necessary to ensure the functionality and integrity of the sight flow indicators.

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163. (818) The PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system’s hoses are inspected daily for all of the following except

Explanation

The PMU-27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system's hoses are inspected daily for cracking, worn spots, and deterioration. However, loose mountings are not part of the inspection process.

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164. (215) Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the caution tag program?

Explanation

The Fuels laboratory noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) is responsible for administering the caution tag program in a fuels management flight. This role involves overseeing the tagging of equipment or areas that require caution due to potential hazards or maintenance requirements. They ensure that caution tags are properly implemented and followed by personnel to maintain safety and compliance with regulations.

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165. (818) What form may be used to document the inspection of fuel bladders?

Explanation

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data, may be used to document the inspection of fuel bladders. This form is specifically designed to record significant historical data related to the aircraft, including inspections and maintenance activities. It serves as a comprehensive record that can be used for future reference and analysis. The other options, such as AF Form 503, AF Form 664, and AFTO Form 26D, do not specifically pertain to documenting the inspection of fuel bladders.

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166. (215) Who in the fuels management flight is responsible for maintaining the keys to the quality control (QC) hold box?

Explanation

Fuels laboratory personnel are responsible for maintaining the keys to the quality control (QC) hold box in the fuels management flight. This indicates that the fuels laboratory personnel have the authority and responsibility to access and secure the QC hold box, which is likely used to store important documents or samples related to fuel quality control. The other options, such as the fuel management team, fuels service center personnel, and fuels information service center superintendent, do not specifically mention this responsibility.

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167. (819) How often should the sump tank on an R–19 filter separator unit be drained?

Explanation

The sump tank on an R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily. This is necessary to remove any accumulated water, sediment, or other contaminants that may have collected in the tank. Regular drainage helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the filter separator unit, ensuring that it functions properly and continues to provide clean and filtered fuel.

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168. (404) How many aircraft (depending on the type) can be simultaneously hot refueled in about 8 to 12 minutes when using the type IV hydrant system?

Explanation

The type IV hydrant system allows for simultaneous hot refueling of two aircraft in about 8 to 12 minutes.

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169. (001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?

Explanation

The most likely form to use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies is AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply. This form is specifically designed for recommending changes to technical manuals and receiving replies regarding those recommendations. It would be the appropriate form to use when reporting deficiencies in TOs and suggesting changes or improvements to the manuals.

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170. (605) The Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit’s defueling pump is capable of defueling at this gallon per minute (gpm) rate.

Explanation

The correct answer is 300. This means that the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit's defueling pump is capable of defueling at a rate of 300 gallons per minute (gpm).

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171. (813) What R–20 component will illuminate when the servicing platform has communicated with the lead pumping unit within the past five minutes?

Explanation

The communication active indicator is the R-20 component that will illuminate when the servicing platform has communicated with the lead pumping unit within the past five minutes. This indicator is designed to provide a visual confirmation that communication between the platform and pumping unit is active and functioning properly.

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172. (406) What two valves on the type III hydrant system combine to bleed the pressure down to 75 pounds per square inch (psi) when the lead pump stops?

Explanation

The pressure control valve and the defuel/flush valve are the two valves on the type III hydrant system that combine to bleed the pressure down to 75 psi when the lead pump stops. The pressure control valve regulates the pressure in the system, while the defuel/flush valve is used to drain fuel from the system or flush it with water. By opening both of these valves, the pressure in the system can be safely reduced to the desired level.

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173. (410) What key on the tank control unit (TCU) is used to access the main menu when obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank gauging (ATG)?

Explanation

The key on the tank control unit (TCU) that is used to access the main menu when obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank gauging (ATG) is ESC. This key is commonly used as the "escape" key in computer systems and is often used to exit or cancel a current operation and return to a previous menu or screen. In this case, pressing the ESC key on the TCU allows the user to access the main menu and navigate through different options for obtaining product measurement readings.

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174. (603) At least how many pounds per square inch (psi) must the air pressure be before driving the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler?

Explanation

The air pressure must be at least 90 pounds per square inch (psi) before driving the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler.

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175. (001) Which type of AF publication includes instructions and manuals?

Explanation

Standard AF publications typically include instructions and manuals. These publications are designed to provide standardized procedures and guidelines for various tasks and operations within the Air Force. They serve as a reference for personnel to ensure consistency and efficiency in their duties. Technical publications, on the other hand, focus on specific technical information and procedures related to equipment and systems. Recurring publications cover routine and regularly updated information, while specialized publications are specific to certain areas or functions within the Air Force.

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176. (003) Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than

Explanation

Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than 100 degrees Fahrenheit (F). Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance can vaporize and ignite when exposed to an open flame or heat source. Therefore, if a liquid has a flash point higher than 100 degrees Fahrenheit, it means that it requires a higher temperature to ignite, making it less prone to catching fire easily compared to liquids with lower flash points.

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177. (610) When receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit, the manhole cover must be left open if the fill rate exceeds how many gallons per minute (gpm)?

Explanation

If the fill rate exceeds 100 gallons per minute (gpm) when receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit, the manhole cover must be left open.

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178. (005) Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than this many feet from fill stands.

Explanation

Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than 25 feet from fill stands. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel in case of emergencies. Placing the switches at a sufficient distance allows for quick and easy access to shut down the system in case of a hazardous situation, such as a fire or a gas leak. It also helps to prevent accidental activation of the switches, reducing the risk of unnecessary shutdowns.

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179. (618) The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip can be used to record all of the following transactions except

Explanation

The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip is a document used to record various transactions related to energy sales within the Department of Defense. It is used for consolidated issues, recording jettisoned fuel, and replacement-in-kind transactions. However, it is not used for transfers to storage. This means that the form cannot be used to document the movement of energy to a storage location.

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180. (620) All assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be inspected at least once every

Explanation

All assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be inspected at least once every 7 days. This ensures that any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of accidents or disruptions in fuel servicing operations. Regular inspections also help to maintain the vehicles and equipment in optimal working condition, prolonging their lifespan and reducing the likelihood of breakdowns. By conducting inspections every 7 days, any necessary repairs or maintenance can be carried out in a timely manner, ensuring the safe and efficient operation of the fuel servicing vehicles and equipment.

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181. (007) Which outside agency acts as the Air Force’s Service Control Point (SCP)?

Explanation

The Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) acts as the Air Force's Service Control Point (SCP). The AFPA is responsible for managing and providing petroleum, oil, and lubricant (POL) support to the Air Force. As the SCP, the AFPA coordinates and controls the distribution, storage, and supply of POL products to meet the needs of the Air Force. This includes ensuring the availability of fuel and other petroleum products for aircraft, vehicles, and other equipment used by the Air Force. The AFPA plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of the Air Force by ensuring a reliable and efficient supply of POL products.

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182. (801) Which types of fuel can be used to operate the engine on the R–14C fuel-servicing module?fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline.

Explanation

The correct answer is Jet fuel and diesel fuel. The R-14C fuel-servicing module can operate using both jet fuel and diesel fuel as types of fuel. Gasoline is not mentioned as a compatible fuel for this specific module.

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183. (803) At what flow rate is the FFU–15E filter separator capable of filtering petroleum fuels?

Explanation

The FFU-15E filter separator is capable of filtering petroleum fuels at a flow rate of 600 gallons per minute (gpm). This means that it can effectively remove impurities and contaminants from petroleum fuels at a high rate, making it suitable for applications that require a large volume of fuel to be filtered quickly.

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184. (211) What form is used to identify fuel samples for shipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO Form 475, Fuels and Lubricant Sample. This form is used to identify fuel samples for shipment.

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185. (212) A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are

Explanation

A 100 mesh strainer is designed to remove particles that are 150 microns or larger. The term "100 mesh" refers to the number of openings per linear inch in the strainer. In this case, there are 100 openings per inch, and each opening is 150 microns in size. Therefore, any particles that are smaller than 150 microns will be able to pass through the openings of the strainer, while particles that are 150 microns or larger will be caught and removed.

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186. (214) Electrical continuity tests must be performed on lab filtration equipment

Explanation

Electrical continuity tests are necessary to ensure that the lab filtration equipment is functioning properly and that there are no electrical faults or interruptions. Performing these tests on a monthly basis allows for regular monitoring and identification of any potential issues that may arise over time. This frequency strikes a balance between ensuring equipment safety and efficiency without being too frequent or infrequent.

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187. (214) What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading is 24 hours. This means that the sample can be collected and stored for up to 24 hours before the conductivity reading is taken.

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188. (216) When making a telephone purchase, Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders should inform vendors to include all of the following information on a shipping document except

Explanation

When making a telephone purchase, Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders should inform vendors to include all of the following information on a shipping document except the GPC account number. The cardholder's name, telephone number, and the term "Government-wide Purchase Card" are all important pieces of information that should be included on the shipping document. However, the GPC account number is not necessary to include on the shipping document as it is already provided during the purchase process.

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189. (217) Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel should be scheduled at least how many days before the due date?

Explanation

Flight physicals and physiological training are important for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel to ensure their readiness and safety. Scheduling these activities at least 45 days before the due date allows sufficient time for any necessary medical evaluations, training, and paperwork to be completed. This timeframe ensures that any potential issues or deficiencies can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of delays or complications in the personnel's ability to perform their duties effectively.

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190. (821) Who is responsible for working with the major command (MAJCOM) to determine fuel requirements at a deployed location?

Explanation

The Senior Fuels member is responsible for working with the major command (MAJCOM) to determine fuel requirements at a deployed location. They have the expertise and knowledge in fuel management to assess the needs and coordinate with the MAJCOM to ensure adequate fuel supply for operations.

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191. (401) What is the minimum gallon capacity for a fuel storage tank used at a military service station?

Explanation

The minimum gallon capacity for a fuel storage tank used at a military service station is 5,000 gallons. This capacity ensures that there is enough fuel to meet the demands of the military service station and provide fuel for vehicles and equipment. A smaller capacity would not be sufficient to meet the needs of the station, while a larger capacity may not be necessary and could result in wasted space and resources.

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192. (402) What component activates the desired product pump on the automated fuels service station (AFSS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vehicle identification reader (VIR). The VIR component activates the desired product pump on the automated fuels service station (AFSS). It is responsible for reading the vehicle's identification information and initiating the pump to dispense the fuel requested by the customer.

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193. (405) The deadman control valve on the type V hydrant system operates using

Explanation

The deadman control valve on the type V hydrant system operates using fuel pressure. This means that the valve is controlled and activated by the pressure of the fuel, rather than by electricity, air pressure, or mechanical techniques. Fuel pressure is used as the primary mechanism to control and regulate the flow of fuel in the hydrant system, ensuring safe and efficient operation.

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194. (406) The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702, Petroleum Daily Receipt Summary Sheet, is prepared to cover the 24-hour duty day that runs from

Explanation

The correct answer is 2400 to 2400. This means that the DLA Energy Form 702 covers a 24-hour duty day that starts at midnight (2400 hours) and ends at the following midnight (also 2400 hours). This ensures that all petroleum receipts during the entire day are accounted for on the form.

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195. (408) A system on standby status should be inspected at least

Explanation

A system on standby status should be inspected at least monthly because regular inspections ensure that the system is functioning properly and can be relied upon when needed. Monthly inspections allow for timely identification and resolution of any issues or malfunctions, preventing potential failures or downtime. This frequency strikes a balance between ensuring the system's readiness and minimizing the resources and time required for inspections.

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196. (413) Pressure gauges on liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) cryotainer containers are calibrated

Explanation

The pressure gauges on liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) cryotainer containers are calibrated annually. This means that the gauges are checked and adjusted for accuracy once every year. Calibrating the gauges ensures that they provide accurate measurements of the pressure inside the containers, which is crucial for maintaining the safety and efficiency of the cryotainer system. Regular calibration helps to identify any deviations or inaccuracies in the gauges, allowing for timely adjustments or replacements if necessary.

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197. (416) The discharged air from the air purge unit on a storage tank is heated to

Explanation

The discharged air from the air purge unit on a storage tank is heated to 350 °F. This temperature is likely chosen to ensure that any moisture or impurities in the air are effectively removed. Heating the air to a high temperature helps to evaporate and remove any water vapor or contaminants present in the air, ensuring that the tank remains clean and dry. A higher temperature, such as 400 °F, may cause unnecessary energy consumption and could potentially damage the equipment, while a lower temperature, such as 250 °F, may not effectively remove all moisture and impurities. Therefore, 350 °F is a suitable temperature for the air purge unit.

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198. (418) How often should you check fire extinguishers that are in cryogenic storage facilities for any blockages and pressure?

Explanation

Fire extinguishers in cryogenic storage facilities should be checked for any blockages and pressure on a monthly basis. This regular inspection ensures that the fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of an emergency. Monthly checks help to identify any potential issues or blockages that could hinder the extinguisher's effectiveness. It is important to maintain the functionality of fire extinguishers in cryogenic storage facilities to ensure the safety of the facility and its occupants.

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199. (001) A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a

Explanation

A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a list of applicable publications (LOAP). This document provides a comprehensive list of all the technical orders that are relevant and applicable to the particular military system. It serves as a reference for personnel working on the system, ensuring that they have access to all the necessary technical information and instructions. The LOAP helps in organizing and managing the various technical orders associated with the military system, making it easier for personnel to locate and utilize the relevant documents.

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200. (001) Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause a severe or fatal injury?

Explanation

The correct answer is Time compliance. Time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause severe or fatal injuries. These orders are time-sensitive and require immediate action to address the identified safety issue. TCTOs are typically issued for equipment or systems that pose a significant risk to personnel or the overall mission if not corrected promptly. They ensure that necessary corrective actions are taken within a specific timeframe to mitigate potential hazards and maintain a safe operating environment.

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(216) The responsibility for managing the Government Purchase Card...
(819) All of the following conditions require the filter elements to...
(819) What should each R–20 surge suppressor precharge gauge...
(217) Personnel selected by the fuels mobility supervisor to attend...
(217) Who is responsible for maintaining a current listing of all...
(821) How many digits makeup the unit type code (UTC) that identifies...
(217) The fuels mobility support element supervisor identifies fiscal...
(218) Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award...
(218) Who is responsible for maintaining Weighted Airman Promotion...
(401) An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to
(401) What are the requirements for a military service station tank...
(401) What type automotive dispensing unit has two meters with one...
(401) What is the difference between the motors used in the...
(401) How many selectable fuel product pumps does each military...
(401) How many fuel-dispensing pumps can one master vehicle...
(402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive...
(403) On the type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the...
(403) What component is connected to the differential pressure...
(403) What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the...
(403) On the type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the...
(404) What are the rated gallons per minute (gpm) pump capacity on the...
(404) How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how...
(404) On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from...
(405) Since the type V hydrant system is not required to be manned...
(405) On the type V hydrant system, how many inches are the...
(406) During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for...
(406) The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk Storage...
(406) A separate Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233, Bulk...
(406) During the last 30 minutes of a fuel transfer operation, contact...
(406) What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the...
(406) How frequently should types III, IV, and V hydrant systems be...
(406) Fuels management and base civil engineering/water fuels and...
(406) What position should the pump selector switch be placed in when...
(406) What must be activated until the fuel level drops below the...
(406) Operation of the product recovery system and water drain system...
(406) Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be...
(407) When inspecting automated tank-gauging (ATG) systems, what...
(407) How often should emergency switches be tested for proper...
(408) How long are completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms...
(408) When should the Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and...
(408) What personnel are responsible for completing the “Maintenance...
(409) When manually gauging a storage tank, where should fuel-finding...
(409) When manually gauging a storage tank, how many identical gauge...
(411) Between what hours are physical inventories of active fuel...
(411) How often should active storage fuel tanks be inventoried?
(412) Heat can be transferred in cryotainers using these three...
(412) Cryotainer convection heat transfer from a cryotainer’s outer...
(412) What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?
(412) The purpose of the portable vacuum gauge on a cryogenic storage...
(413) When inspecting cryotainers, you find a heavy freeze spot on the...
(414) Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen...
(416) How many days should pass before you perform vacuum checks on...
(416) The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the
(417) For how many weeks is the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form...
(417) The specific time interval between supervisor reviews of the Air...
(417) What symbol is annotated on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO)...
(417) This symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244,...
(417) What Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form acts as a permanent...
(418) Who is required to conduct a monthly cryogenic storage facility...
(601) What is the gallon capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank?
(601) The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is powered...
(602) During normal operation, both dual brake air pressure gauge...
(602) The brake system on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler will...
(602) What is the maximum number of US gallons that can register on...
(603) Use the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler...
(604) What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute...
(001) Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a...
(604) At what gallons per minute (gpm) maximum rate can you fill the...
(001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests...
(605) What is the maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of...
(605) What should you do if condensation is discovered in the air...
(606) What precharge pounds per square inch (psi) pressure reading...
(001) Publications that set up management standards and control the...
(607) The sump tank full indicator on the Beta-Freightliner R-12...
(002) Who do you contact to gain access to the Enhanced Technical...
(608) Check to ensure the sump tank on the Beta International R-12...
(608) Prior to fuel service using the Kovatch R-12 Hydrant Servicing...
(608) During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12...
(609) What is the gallon capacity of the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing...
(609) What C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit component allows the tank...
(003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?
(005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be...
(610) When receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing...
(005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling...
(005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting...
(611) You are hot refueling an aircraft equipped with refuel...
(611) Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak...
(005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a...
(613) What type of special servicing operation involves simultaneously...
(005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should...
(005) Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within this...
(615) The refueling vehicle engine should not be allowed to operate...
What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front...
(616) Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to
(617) Who is normally tasked to observe and record filter separator...
(005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical...
(005) This condition can exist and you do not have to stop cryogenic...
(005) Which base agency determines hearing protection requirements for...
(619) What automated data collection system is used for aircraft...
(005) What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls...
(620) The fuels preventive maintenance supervisor is responsible to...
(005) What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?
(620) Who directs the maintenance and inspection frequency of war...
(620) Who must perform a walk around inspection before each vehicle is...
(006) To detect pollutant releases, monitor underground storage tanks...
(620) What should you do if a frayed bonding cable is found during the...
(006) To observe environmental pollution precautions, check dikes for...
(621) Which item is not recorded on a new AF Form 1807, Operator’s...
(621) When performing monthly checks using the AF Form 1807,...
(007) Which of the following base agencies should the fuels management...
(801) How many fighter aircraft is the R–14C fuel-servicing module...
(007) To which outside agency should the fuels management team (FMT)...
(008) Joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the...
(801) Up to what flow rate can fuel be pumped through one, 2-inch...
(201) Comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD)...
(802) The R–22 pumping unit is not authorized to be used alone for...
(802) The purpose of the float valve on the R–22 trailer-mounted...
(203) Which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) function key is used to enter a...
(802) When setting up the R–22, how many sections of 25-foot hose...
(802) All of the following procedures should be accomplished when...
(204) Which Fuels ManagerDefense (FMD) window allows operators to...
(803) How often should the filter elements in the FFU–15E filter...
(803) When preparing the FFU–15E filter separator for shipment,...
(207) When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for rental...
(208) All of the following items must be contained in each servicing...
(209) Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is...
(210) What sampling device is primarily used to obtain samples from...
(806) The secondary purpose of the PMU–27M air-transportable...
(210) Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that...
(210) Which sampling device is used for sampling tankers and barges?
(806) The JFDEK unit type code (UTC) kit is equipped with this number...
(806) When preparing the PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted...
(210) Which of these is not a light hydrocarbon contaminant that may...
(210) Inert solids including rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers...
(210) Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be...
(807) What is the rated capacity of the filter separator on the aerial...
(211) Unless otherwise specified, all samples of aviation fuels...
(807) How many filter elements are in the aerial delivery and...
(808) Fuel bladders are made of this type fabric.
(808) Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladders come...
(213) Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste...
(809) The forward area manifold (FAM) cart is capable of servicing up...
(213) Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be...
(810) For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are...
(214) The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum...
(811) At how many gallons per minute (gpm) is the Tactical Automated...
(812) At what maximum rate can an R–19 filter separator unit filter...
(214) To obtain meaningful results with a bottle method analysis, the...
(214) What device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter...
(214) How long should matched weight filters be placed in a dessicator...
(214) What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory...
(214) When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory...
(814) How many feet of communications wire is each R–20...
(814) How many skid-mounted fillstand assemblies are included in the...
(214) Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not...
(815) Manually set the throttle control to this revolution per minute...
(816) When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment,...
(214) Refractometers used for fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII)...
(214) When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis,...
(818) What grade of oil should you use when changing the engine oil on...
(818) How often should the water slug valve test be performed on the...
(818) Inspect the sight flow indicators on a portable additive...
(818) The PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling...
(215) Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for...
(818) What form may be used to document the inspection of fuel...
(215) Who in the fuels management flight is responsible for...
(819) How often should the sump tank on an R–19 filter separator...
(404) How many aircraft (depending on the type) can be simultaneously...
(001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order...
(605) The Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit’s defueling...
(813) What R–20 component will illuminate when the servicing...
(406) What two valves on the type III hydrant system combine to bleed...
(410) What key on the tank control unit (TCU) is used to access the...
(603) At least how many pounds per square inch (psi) must the air...
(001) Which type of AF publication includes instructions and manuals?
(003) Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than
(610) When receiving ground fuel with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing...
(005) Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than...
(618) The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip can...
(620) All assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be...
(007) Which outside agency acts as the Air Force’s Service Control...
(801) Which types of fuel can be used to operate the engine on the...
(803) At what flow rate is the FFU–15E filter separator capable of...
(211) What form is used to identify fuel samples for shipment?
(212) A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are
(214) Electrical continuity tests must be performed on lab filtration...
(214) What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between...
(216) When making a telephone purchase, Government Purchase Card (GPC)...
(217) Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area...
(821) Who is responsible for working with the major command (MAJCOM)...
(401) What is the minimum gallon capacity for a fuel storage tank used...
(402) What component activates the desired product pump on the...
(405) The deadman control valve on the type V hydrant system operates...
(406) The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702, Petroleum...
(408) A system on standby status should be inspected at least
(413) Pressure gauges on liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN)...
(416) The discharged air from the air purge unit on a storage tank is...
(418) How often should you check fire extinguishers that are in...
(001) A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a...
(001) Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions...
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