2f051 CDC 25 Ure

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2f051 CDC 25 Ure - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a

    • A.

      Technical order index.

    • B.

      Technical order catalog.

    • C.

      List of applicable publications (LOAP).

    • D.

      Numerical index and requirements tables (NI&RT).

    Correct Answer
    C. List of applicable publications (LOAP).
    Explanation
    A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a list of applicable publications (LOAP). This document provides a comprehensive list of all the technical orders that are relevant and applicable to the particular military system. It serves as a reference for personnel working on the system, ensuring that they have access to all the necessary technical information and instructions. The LOAP helps in organizing and managing the various technical orders associated with the military system, making it easier for personnel to locate and utilize the relevant documents.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause a severe or fatal injury?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Abbreviated.

    • C.

      Time compliance.

    • D.

      Methods and procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. Time compliance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Time compliance. Time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause severe or fatal injuries. These orders are time-sensitive and require immediate action to address the identified safety issue. TCTOs are typically issued for equipment or systems that pose a significant risk to personnel or the overall mission if not corrected promptly. They ensure that necessary corrective actions are taken within a specific timeframe to mitigate potential hazards and maintain a safe operating environment.

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  • 3. 

    (001) The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is

    • A.

      TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–5–15, AF Time Compliance Technical Order Process.

    • C.

      TO 00–5–18. Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System.

    • D.

      TO 00–5–3, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Life cycle Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00-5-1, AF Technical Order System. This is the technical order that provides the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs. It is specifically designed to outline the system for managing technical orders within the Air Force. The other options listed are related to different aspects of technical order management, such as time compliance and numbering systems, but they do not specifically address the procedures for reporting improvements.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?

    • A.

      AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log.

    • C.

      AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.
    Explanation
    The most likely form to use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies is AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply. This form is specifically designed for recommending changes to technical manuals and receiving replies regarding those recommendations. It would be the appropriate form to use when reporting deficiencies in TOs and suggesting changes or improvements to the manuals.

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  • 5. 

    (001) Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that could result in a fatal or serious injury, or damaged equipment?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Routine.

    • C.

      Emergency.

    • D.

      Time compliance.

    Correct Answer
    C. Emergency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Emergency." In this context, an emergency refers to a situation that poses a significant risk to human life or equipment. When a technical order (TO) deficiency has the potential to cause fatal or serious injuries or damage equipment, it is crucial to submit an emergency improvement recommendation. This ensures that immediate action is taken to address the issue and prevent any potential harm or damage.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Within how many hours is the responsible technical content manager required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    D. 48
    Explanation
    The responsible technical content manager is required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report within 48 hours. This means that they have two days to address the emergency improvement recommendation report and implement any necessary actions or changes. It is important for the manager to act promptly in order to resolve any technical issues or emergencies efficiently.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Routine.

    • C.

      Emergency.

    • D.

      Critical hazard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent." This recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition that requires immediate attention and action. The urgency implies that there is a high risk or danger associated with the condition, and it needs to be addressed promptly to prevent any harm or further damage.

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  • 8. 

    (001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Routine.

    • C.

      Emergency.

    • D.

      Critical hazard.

    Correct Answer
    B. Routine.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Routine. This is because routine technical order (TO) improvement recommendations are not urgent or critical hazards that require immediate attention. They are standard suggestions for improvement that do not pose any immediate danger or risk. Therefore, a reply within 45 days is considered reasonable for routine TO improvement recommendations.

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  • 9. 

    (001) These are considered specialized publications.

    • A.

      Journals.

    • B.

      Staff digests.

    • C.

      Technical orders.

    • D.

      Narrative summaries.

    Correct Answer
    C. Technical orders.
    Explanation
    Technical orders are considered specialized publications because they provide detailed instructions and information on specific technical subjects. They are typically used in industries such as aviation, military, and engineering, where precise procedures and guidelines are necessary. Technical orders contain specific technical information, such as maintenance procedures, repair instructions, and troubleshooting guides, which are not typically found in other publications like journals, staff digests, or narrative summaries. Therefore, technical orders are the correct answer as they are specifically designed to provide specialized technical information.

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  • 10. 

    (001) Which type of AF publication includes instructions and manuals?

    • A.

      Standard.

    • B.

      Technical.

    • C.

      Recurring.

    • D.

      Specialized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard.
    Explanation
    Standard AF publications typically include instructions and manuals. These publications are designed to provide standardized procedures and guidelines for various tasks and operations within the Air Force. They serve as a reference for personnel to ensure consistency and efficiency in their duties. Technical publications, on the other hand, focus on specific technical information and procedures related to equipment and systems. Recurring publications cover routine and regularly updated information, while specialized publications are specific to certain areas or functions within the Air Force.

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  • 11. 

    (001) An example of a directive standard publication is a

    • A.

      Bulletin.

    • B.

      Pamphlet.

    • C.

      Staff digest.

    • D.

      Supplement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supplement.
    Explanation
    A supplement is an example of a directive standard publication because it is a document that provides additional information or updates to an existing publication or set of guidelines. It is typically used to clarify or expand upon specific topics or procedures. Unlike a bulletin, pamphlet, or staff digest, a supplement is specifically designed to supplement or enhance the information provided in another publication.

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  • 12. 

    (001) Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called

    • A.

      Manuals.

    • B.

      Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Instructions.

    • D.

      Operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Instructions.
    Explanation
    Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called "instructions." Instructions provide detailed guidance and procedures for carrying out specific tasks or operations. They outline the steps to be followed and provide clear direction on how to accomplish objectives. Manuals, pamphlets, and operating instructions may also contain guidance, but instructions specifically refer to publications that establish management standards and control the official business of the Air Force.

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  • 13. 

    (001) Which type of standard publication contains step-by-step directives telling how to accomplish specific tasks or operations?

    • A.

      Manuals.

    • B.

      Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Instructions.

    • D.

      Technical orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals.
    Explanation
    Manuals are a type of standard publication that provide step-by-step directives on how to accomplish specific tasks or operations. They are comprehensive guides that offer detailed instructions and guidance, making them suitable for individuals who need specific instructions to complete a task. Pamphlets are usually shorter and provide general information, while instructions may not be as comprehensive. Technical orders, on the other hand, are specific to the military and provide detailed instructions for maintenance, repair, and operation of military equipment. Therefore, manuals are the most appropriate type of standard publication for step-by-step directives.

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  • 14. 

    (001) Publications that announce policies and prescribe procedures within a single manager’s area of authority are called

    • A.

      Bulletins.

    • B.

      Supplements.

    • C.

      Branch notices.

    • D.

      Operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operating instructions.
    Explanation
    Publications that announce policies and prescribe procedures within a single manager's area of authority are called operating instructions. Operating instructions provide detailed guidance and instructions on how to carry out specific tasks or operations within a specific department or area of responsibility. They are typically used to ensure consistency, efficiency, and compliance with established policies and procedures. Bulletins, supplements, and branch notices may also contain important information, but they are not specifically focused on providing instructions for carrying out tasks within a manager's area of authority.

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  • 15. 

    (001) To find a chapter or section heading in a specific publication, you would first look in the

    • A.

      Chapter index.

    • B.

      Table of contents.

    • C.

      Publication index.

    • D.

      Alphabetical index.

    Correct Answer
    B. Table of contents.
    Explanation
    To find a specific chapter or section heading in a publication, you would first look in the table of contents. The table of contents provides a list of all the chapters or sections in the publication, along with their corresponding page numbers. This allows the reader to easily navigate and locate the desired information within the publication. The chapter index, publication index, and alphabetical index may provide different types of information or organization, but the table of contents specifically lists the chapters or sections in the publication.

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  • 16. 

    (002) Who do you contact to gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)?

    • A.

      Squadron Records Monitor.

    • B.

      Flight Publications Monitor.

    • C.

      Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.

    • D.

      Squadron Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.
    Explanation
    To gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), one would contact the Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative. This individual is responsible for distributing technical orders within the squadron and would have the necessary information and access to provide access to ETIMS. The Squadron Records Monitor, Flight Publications Monitor, and Squadron Technical Order Distribution Office Representative do not have the specific role of granting access to ETIMS.

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  • 17. 

    (002) When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you locate a technical order (TO) when only the TO series is known by typing the

    • A.

      Series in the ―TO Date‖ block.

    • B.

      Title in the ―Stock Number‖ block.

    • C.

      Series number in the ―TO number‖ block.

    • D.

      Title in the ―Word Search on Title‖ block.

    Correct Answer
    C. Series number in the ―TO number‖ block.
    Explanation
    When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you can locate a technical order (TO) by typing the series number in the "TO number" block. This suggests that the system is designed to search for TOs based on their specific series numbers, rather than other information such as the TO date, stock number, or title.

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  • 18. 

    (002) Which block would you enter the form or publication title in when searching by title for an electronic standard publication on the Air Force e-Publishing website?

    • A.

      Find it.

    • B.

      Search Products.

    • C.

      Advance Search.

    • D.

      Electronic Publications.

    Correct Answer
    B. Search Products.
    Explanation
    You would enter the form or publication title in the "Search Products" block when searching by title for an electronic standard publication on the Air Force e-Publishing website.

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  • 19. 

    (003) What characteristic refers to how easy a liquid changes into a vapor state?

    • A.

      Volatility.

    • B.

      Viscosity.

    • C.

      Boiling point.

    • D.

      Vapor pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Volatility.
    Explanation
    Volatility refers to the characteristic of how easily a liquid changes into a vapor state. It is a measure of the tendency of a substance to vaporize. Substances with high volatility evaporate quickly and easily, while substances with low volatility evaporate slowly. Volatility is influenced by factors such as temperature, pressure, and intermolecular forces.

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  • 20. 

    (003) This term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize.

    • A.

      Volatility.

    • B.

      Fire point.

    • C.

      Flash point.

    • D.

      Boiling point.

    Correct Answer
    D. Boiling point.
    Explanation
    The term "boiling point" refers to the temperature at which a liquid begins to vaporize actively. It is the point where the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the atmospheric pressure, causing the liquid to rapidly convert into a gas. The other options, volatility, fire point, and flash point, are not directly related to the temperature at which a liquid starts to vaporize. Volatility refers to how easily a substance evaporates, while fire point and flash point are temperatures at which a liquid gives off enough vapor to ignite or produce a flash, respectively.

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  • 21. 

    (003) Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than

    • A.

      100 degrees (°) Fahrenheit (F).

    • B.

      120° F.

    • C.

      140° F.

    • D.

      150° F.

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 degrees (°) Fahrenheit (F).
    Explanation
    Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than 100 degrees Fahrenheit (F). Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance can vaporize and ignite when exposed to an open flame or heat source. Therefore, if a liquid has a flash point higher than 100 degrees Fahrenheit, it means that it requires a higher temperature to ignite, making it less prone to catching fire easily compared to liquids with lower flash points.

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  • 22. 

    (003) What is the minimum flash point of JP–5 jet fuel?

    • A.

      –20 degrees () Fahrenheit (F).

    • B.

      –40° F.

    • C.

      100° F.

    • D.

      140° F.

    Correct Answer
    D. 140° F.
    Explanation
    JP-5 jet fuel is a type of aviation fuel used by the military. The flash point of a fuel is the lowest temperature at which it can vaporize to form an ignitable mixture in air. In the case of JP-5 jet fuel, the minimum flash point is 140°F. This means that the fuel will not ignite unless the temperature reaches or exceeds 140°F. It is important to know the flash point of a fuel as it helps determine its safety during storage, handling, and transportation.

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  • 23. 

    (003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?

    • A.

      –51 degrees (°) Celsius (C).

    • B.

      –58° C.

    • C.

      –51° Fahrenheit (F).

    • D.

      –58° F.

    Correct Answer
    D. –58° F.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is –58° F. This is the freeze point for JP-8 jet fuel.

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  • 24. 

    (004) Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?

    • A.

      Reduces the concentration of oxygen.

    • B.

      Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact.

    • C.

      Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.

    • D.

      Builds up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area.

    Correct Answer
    C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.
    Explanation
    Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. It is a cryogenic liquid that can cause severe frostbite or tissue damage upon contact due to its extremely low temperature. It can also displace oxygen in a confined space, leading to a reduced concentration of oxygen. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up tremendous pressure, posing a hazard. However, it does not have a reaction with oil, grease, and jet fuel that would cause it to burn or explode.

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  • 25. 

    (005) Much time and expense are involved in investigating and

    • A.

      Solving accidents.

    • B.

      Reporting accidents.

    • C.

      Validating accidents.

    • D.

      Discovering accidents.

    Correct Answer
    B. Reporting accidents.
    Explanation
    The given question is asking for the activity that requires a significant amount of time and money. Investigating and solving accidents may involve a considerable amount of resources, but the emphasis is on the process of reporting accidents. Reporting accidents involves gathering information, documenting the incident, and submitting official reports, which can be a time-consuming and costly process. Therefore, reporting accidents is the correct answer.

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  • 26. 

    (005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight?

    • A.

      AFMAN 48–153, Health Risk Assessment.

    • B.

      AFI 91–202, The US Air Force Mishap Prevention Program.

    • C.

      AFMAN 48–155, Occupational and Environmental Health Exposure Controls.

    • D.

      AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards. This directive requires the establishment of an effective safety program within the fuels flight. It provides guidelines and standards for occupational and environmental safety, fire protection, and health in the Air Force.

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  • 27. 

    (005) Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, how often must the fuels safety monitor brief all personnel on safety matters?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, the fuels safety monitor is required to brief all personnel on safety matters twice a year, or semiannually. This ensures that personnel are regularly updated and informed about safety protocols and procedures in relation to fuel safety. Regular briefings help to minimize the risk of accidents and promote a safe working environment for all personnel involved in fuel-related operations.

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  • 28. 

    (005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?

    • A.

      Falling.

    • B.

      Using hand tools.

    • C.

      Handling heavy equipment.

    • D.

      Striking against material or equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Falling.
    Explanation
    Falling is the main source of accidents that cause disabling injuries to office workers. This can include slips, trips, or falls from elevated surfaces such as stairs, ladders, or slippery floors. Falling accidents can result in serious injuries such as broken bones, sprains, or head injuries. It is important for office workers to be aware of their surroundings, use proper safety measures, and report any potential hazards to prevent these accidents from occurring.

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  • 29. 

    (005) For safety measures, all Air Force electrical equipment must have

    • A.

      Grounded plugs.

    • B.

      Single insulation.

    • C.

      Double insulation.

    • D.

      Explosion-proof plugs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grounded plugs.
    Explanation
    For safety reasons, all Air Force electrical equipment must have grounded plugs. This is because grounding helps to prevent electrical shock and reduces the risk of electrical fires. Grounded plugs have a third prong that connects to the ground wire in the electrical system, providing a safe path for any excess electrical current to flow into the ground. This helps to protect both the equipment and the individuals using it from potential harm. Single insulation, double insulation, and explosion-proof plugs do not provide the same level of safety as grounded plugs.

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  • 30. 

    (005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. It is necessary to wait for 30 minutes after filling the tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob, to determine the level of the fuel. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize in the tank, ensuring an accurate measurement of the fuel level.

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  • 31. 

    (005) What is the maximum allowable speed when driving a special-purpose vehicle on the flight line?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    When driving a special-purpose vehicle on the flight line, the maximum allowable speed is 10. This speed limit is in place to ensure the safety of personnel and aircraft on the flight line. Driving at a slower speed allows for better control and reaction time in case of any emergencies or unexpected situations. It also reduces the risk of accidents and damage to equipment. Therefore, it is important to adhere to this speed limit while operating a special-purpose vehicle on the flight line.

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  • 32. 

    (005) Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?

    • A.

      "Follow Me"‖ trucks.

    • B.

      Refueling units.

    • C.

      Fire trucks.

    • D.

      Tugs.

    Correct Answer
    A. "Follow Me"‖ trucks.
    Explanation
    "Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft because their primary function is to guide and direct aircraft on the ground. They are responsible for leading aircraft to and from parking areas, taxiways, and runways. Their role is crucial in ensuring the safe movement of aircraft on the ground, and therefore, other vehicles, such as refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs, must yield to them.

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  • 33. 

    (005) What does a flashing red and green light signal from the control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?

    • A.

      General warning, use extreme caution.

    • B.

      Return to starting point.

    • C.

      Safe to cross.

    • D.

      Stop.

    Correct Answer
    A. General warning, use extreme caution.
    Explanation
    A flashing red and green light signal from the control tower signifies a general warning and indicates that the moving vehicle on the flight line should exercise extreme caution. This signal alerts the vehicle operator to be aware of potential hazards or dangers in the area and to proceed with caution to ensure safety.

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  • 34. 

    (005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, move out of the taxi path,

    • A.

      Slow down, and turn off the headlight.

    • B.

      Stop the vehicle, and leave the headlights on.

    • C.

      Slow down, and leave the headlights on.

    • D.

      Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.
    Explanation
    When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to stop the vehicle to ensure the safety of the aircraft and personnel. Turning off the headlights is necessary to prevent any glare or distraction for the pilots and ground crew. This ensures clear visibility for everyone involved and reduces the risk of accidents or mishaps.

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  • 35. 

    (005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should under no circumstances position it any closer than this minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      25

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, it is important to maintain a safe distance from the aircraft to prevent any potential accidents or damage. The correct answer of 10 feet ensures that there is enough space between the vehicle and the aircraft to avoid any potential collisions or fuel spillage. This distance allows for safe maneuverability and accessibility while still maintaining a safe distance to protect the aircraft.

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  • 36. 

    (005) Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within this many feet of operating aircraft radar.

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      150

    • C.

      200

    • D.

      300

    Correct Answer
    D. 300
    Explanation
    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar. This is because the radar system emits powerful electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause a fire or explosion. By maintaining a distance of at least 300 feet, the risk of interference and accidents is minimized, ensuring the safety of both the aircraft and personnel involved in fuel servicing operations.

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  • 37. 

    (005) A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction is classified in this spill category.

    • A.

      Class I.

    • B.

      Class II.

    • C.

      Class III.

    • D.

      Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I.
    Explanation
    A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction is classified as Class I. This means that the spill is small and can be easily contained and cleaned up. Class I spills pose minimal risk to the environment and can typically be managed without any significant impact.

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  • 38. 

    (005) Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction?

    • A.

      Class I.

    • B.

      Class II.

    • C.

      Class III.

    • D.

      Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    B. Class II.
    Explanation
    Class II fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction. This means that a Class II fuel spill is relatively small and can be contained within a limited area. It is important to properly classify fuel spills in order to determine the appropriate response and containment measures.

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  • 39. 

    (005) Which class of fuel spill should be declared as a ground accident?

    • A.

      I.

    • B.

      II.

    • C.

      III.

    • D.

      IV.

    Correct Answer
    C. III.
    Explanation
    Fuel spills can occur in different environments, such as in the air or on the ground. In this question, the correct answer is III, which suggests that a class of fuel spill should be declared as a ground accident. This means that if a fuel spill occurs on the ground, it should be considered a ground accident rather than an accident that occurred in the air or any other environment.

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  • 40. 

    (005) Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in these decibel ranges.

    • A.

      40 to 90.

    • B.

      80 to 100.

    • C.

      90 to 110.

    • D.

      110 to 130.

    Correct Answer
    D. 110 to 130.
    Explanation
    Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in the range of 110 to 130 decibels. This range indicates that the noise produced by aircraft can be quite loud and potentially harmful to human hearing. It is important for individuals working in or living near airports to be aware of these noise levels and take necessary precautions to protect their hearing.

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  • 41. 

    What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      25

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 25
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance that should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes is 25 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential accidents or injuries. Being too close to the jet intakes can be extremely dangerous due to the high velocity of air and the potential for objects to be sucked into the intake. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance to avoid any potential hazards.

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  • 42. 

    (005) At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft’s operating jet is considered safe?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      200

    Correct Answer
    D. 200
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance behind an aircraft's operating jet is considered to be 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential hazards, such as being exposed to the jet blast or being struck by debris. Maintaining this distance allows for a safe environment for both the aircraft and the people around it.

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  • 43. 

    (005) In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, how many feet will signs be posted from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      75

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      200

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, signs will be posted 50 feet away from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits. This distance ensures that the signs are visible and easily readable, serving as a clear indication of the presence of fuel storage areas and potential hazards.

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  • 44. 

    (005) When color-coding piping systems, what color is used as a primary warning for all flammable gases and liquids?

    • A.

      Red.

    • B.

      Black.

    • C.

      Green.

    • D.

      Yellow.

    Correct Answer
    D. Yellow.
    Explanation
    Yellow is used as a primary warning color for all flammable gases and liquids when color-coding piping systems. This color is commonly associated with caution and danger, making it an effective way to alert individuals about the presence of flammable substances. Using yellow as a warning color helps to ensure the safety of workers and prevent accidents or mishaps in industrial settings.

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  • 45. 

    (005) How often should fill stand emergency shutdown switches be tested for proper operation while the system is operating?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly.
    Explanation
    Emergency shutdown switches should be tested for proper operation while the system is operating on a monthly basis. This regular testing ensures that the switches are functioning correctly and can effectively shut down the system in case of an emergency. Testing them more frequently, such as daily or weekly, may not be necessary and could disrupt the system's normal operation. However, testing them less frequently, such as semiannually, may increase the risk of a malfunction going unnoticed for an extended period of time.

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  • 46. 

    (005) Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than this many feet from fill stands.

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than 25 feet from fill stands. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel in case of emergencies. Placing the switches at a sufficient distance allows for quick and easy access to shut down the system in case of a hazardous situation, such as a fire or a gas leak. It also helps to prevent accidental activation of the switches, reducing the risk of unnecessary shutdowns.

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  • 47. 

    (005) Fire reporting telephone stations must be located within how many feet of all fixed fueling points?

    • A.

      150

    • B.

      250

    • C.

      300

    • D.

      500

    Correct Answer
    C. 300
    Explanation
    Fire reporting telephone stations must be located within 300 feet of all fixed fueling points. This is important because in the event of a fire or emergency at a fueling point, immediate communication is crucial for a quick response. Having fire reporting telephone stations within close proximity ensures that emergency services can be contacted promptly, allowing for a faster and more effective response to the situation.

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  • 48. 

    (005) What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?

    • A.

      561 gallons.

    • B.

      661 gallons.

    • C.

      561 barrels.

    • D.

      661 barrels.

    Correct Answer
    B. 661 gallons.
    Explanation
    The minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area is 661 gallons. This means that any storage tank with a capacity equal to or greater than 661 gallons would need to have a dike area. A dike area is a containment structure that is built around the storage tank to prevent spills or leaks from spreading and causing environmental damage.

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  • 49. 

    (005) Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed how many feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    B. 50
    Explanation
    Danger signs should be placed 50 feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area. This is important to ensure the safety of individuals in the vicinity of the tank truck and to alert them of potential hazards. Placing the signs at this distance allows for adequate visibility and warning for anyone approaching the area.

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  • 50. 

    (005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area except

    • A.

      Transfer operations.

    • B.

      Fill stand operations.

    • C.

      Base service station issues.

    • D.

      Commercial pipeline receipts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fill stand operations.
    Explanation
    During electrical storms, it is important to prioritize safety and minimize any potential risks. Transfer operations, base service station issues, and commercial pipeline receipts may continue with proper precautions in place. However, fill stand operations involve the use of electrical equipment and can pose a higher risk during electrical storms. Hence, they should not continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 21, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    USAFPOL
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