An Advanced Computer Hardware And Network Components Test

1. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

Authentication.

Recertification.

Accreditation.

Identification.

Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a subject and determining their eligibility to access certain information. It involves the use of credentials, such as usernames and passwords, biometric data, or security tokens, to confirm the subject's identity. By authenticating a subject, the system ensures that only authorized individuals can access the information and helps prevent unauthorized access or data breaches. Recertification refers to the periodic review and renewal of a subject's eligibility, accreditation is the process of certifying the competence or authority of an entity, and identification is the act of recognizing or establishing someone's identity.

Explanation

Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a subject and determining their eligibility to access certain information. It involves the use of credentials, such as usernames and passwords, biometric data, or security tokens, to confirm the subject's identity. By authenticating a subject, the system ensures that only authorized individuals can access the information and helps prevent unauthorized access or data breaches. Recertification refers to the periodic review and renewal of a subject's eligibility, accreditation is the process of certifying the competence or authority of an entity, and identification is the act of recognizing or establishing someone's identity.

2. A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a:

Virus.

Trojan horse.

Worm.

Bot.

A program that replicates by attaching itself to another program is known as a virus. Viruses are malicious software that can spread from one computer to another, often without the user's knowledge or consent. They can cause damage to files, steal personal information, and disrupt the normal functioning of a computer system. Unlike Trojan horses, worms, and bots, viruses specifically rely on attaching themselves to other programs in order to replicate and spread.

Explanation

A program that replicates by attaching itself to another program is known as a virus. Viruses are malicious software that can spread from one computer to another, often without the user's knowledge or consent. They can cause damage to files, steal personal information, and disrupt the normal functioning of a computer system. Unlike Trojan horses, worms, and bots, viruses specifically rely on attaching themselves to other programs in order to replicate and spread.

3. What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?

Vulnerability.

Threat.

Compromise.

Tunneling.

A threat refers to a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing a denial of service. It represents a potential danger or harm to a system or network. In the context of cybersecurity, threats can include various types of attacks such as hacking, malware, or social engineering. Therefore, threat is the most appropriate term to describe the given scenario.

Explanation

A threat refers to a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing a denial of service. It represents a potential danger or harm to a system or network. In the context of cybersecurity, threats can include various types of attacks such as hacking, malware, or social engineering. Therefore, threat is the most appropriate term to describe the given scenario.

4. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Tunneling

Identification spoofing.

Application-based attacks.

Second message encryption.

Tunneling is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the sender to bypass the firewall by hiding the rejected message within another message that is allowed. By doing so, the sender can successfully transmit the rejected message without being detected by the firewall.

Explanation

Tunneling is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the sender to bypass the firewall by hiding the rejected message within another message that is allowed. By doing so, the sender can successfully transmit the rejected message without being detected by the firewall.

5. What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message's header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?

Proxy.

Bastion host.

Packet filtering.

Intrusion detection.

Packet filtering is a type of firewall that uses a screening router and a set of rules to accept or reject messages based on information in the message's header, such as the source address, destination address, and port. This type of firewall examines each packet of data that passes through it and filters them based on the specified rules. It is an effective method for protecting a network by allowing or blocking specific types of traffic based on predefined criteria.

Explanation

Packet filtering is a type of firewall that uses a screening router and a set of rules to accept or reject messages based on information in the message's header, such as the source address, destination address, and port. This type of firewall examines each packet of data that passes through it and filters them based on the specified rules. It is an effective method for protecting a network by allowing or blocking specific types of traffic based on predefined criteria.

6. Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you

Know.

Have.

Need.

Read.

Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know. This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password, PIN, or answers to security questions. This method is commonly used in combination with other authentication factors, such as something the user has (like a smart card) or something the user is (like a fingerprint), to provide a higher level of security.

Explanation

Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know. This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password, PIN, or answers to security questions. This method is commonly used in combination with other authentication factors, such as something the user has (like a smart card) or something the user is (like a fingerprint), to provide a higher level of security.

7. What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

Degausser.

Degaussing.

Destroying.

Sanitizing.

Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes any data stored on the magnetic media, making it unrecoverable. Degaussing is commonly used for erasing data on magnetic tapes, hard drives, and other magnetic storage devices. It is a secure method of data destruction that ensures sensitive information cannot be accessed or recovered.

Explanation

Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes any data stored on the magnetic media, making it unrecoverable. Degaussing is commonly used for erasing data on magnetic tapes, hard drives, and other magnetic storage devices. It is a secure method of data destruction that ensures sensitive information cannot be accessed or recovered.

8. What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

0.0.0.120.

0.10.230.0.

131.10.230.0.

255.255.255.0.

The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to 0. In this case, the IP address 131.10.230.120 has a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are the network portion. Therefore, the network ID is obtained by setting the last 8 bits to 0, resulting in 131.10.230.0.

Explanation

The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to 0. In this case, the IP address 131.10.230.120 has a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are the network portion. Therefore, the network ID is obtained by setting the last 8 bits to 0, resulting in 131.10.230.0.

9. Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?

Information assurance officer (IAO).

Designated approval authority (DAA).

Information system security officer.

Information owner.

The information owner is responsible for the classification and declassification of information, including storage media that has been sanitized. They have the authority to determine the appropriate level of classification for the information and can declassify it when necessary. The Information Assurance Officer (IAO), Designated Approval Authority (DAA), and Information System Security Officer (ISSO) may have roles in the overall information security process, but the ultimate responsibility for declassifying storage media lies with the information owner.

Explanation

The information owner is responsible for the classification and declassification of information, including storage media that has been sanitized. They have the authority to determine the appropriate level of classification for the information and can declassify it when necessary. The Information Assurance Officer (IAO), Designated Approval Authority (DAA), and Information System Security Officer (ISSO) may have roles in the overall information security process, but the ultimate responsibility for declassifying storage media lies with the information owner.

10. What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

Destroying.

Degaussing.

Sanitizing.

Overwriting.

Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable and make the data irretrievable. This can be done by methods such as shredding, incineration, or crushing the media. Degaussing is the process of using a strong magnetic field to erase the data on the media. Sanitizing refers to the process of removing sensitive data from the media using various methods. Overwriting is the process of replacing existing data on the media with new data. However, destroying is the most effective method to ensure that the data cannot be recovered.

Explanation

Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable and make the data irretrievable. This can be done by methods such as shredding, incineration, or crushing the media. Degaussing is the process of using a strong magnetic field to erase the data on the media. Sanitizing refers to the process of removing sensitive data from the media using various methods. Overwriting is the process of replacing existing data on the media with new data. However, destroying is the most effective method to ensure that the data cannot be recovered.

11. Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?

Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).

Diffie and Hellman.

Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA).

Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH).

Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol because it is specifically designed for the purpose of securely exchanging cryptographic keys over an insecure communication channel. The algorithm allows two parties to agree on a shared secret key without actually transmitting the key itself, providing a secure method for establishing a shared secret key that can be used for encryption and decryption. RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH are also commonly used in public key cryptography, but they serve different purposes such as encryption, digital signatures, and key agreement.

Explanation

Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol because it is specifically designed for the purpose of securely exchanging cryptographic keys over an insecure communication channel. The algorithm allows two parties to agree on a shared secret key without actually transmitting the key itself, providing a secure method for establishing a shared secret key that can be used for encryption and decryption. RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH are also commonly used in public key cryptography, but they serve different purposes such as encryption, digital signatures, and key agreement.

12. A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

At the core.

None are allowed.

Outside the base network.

De-militarized zone (DMZ).

A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a De-militarized zone (DMZ) to ensure security. A DMZ is a separate network segment that sits between the internal network and the external network (usually the internet). Placing the web-server in the DMZ allows it to be accessible to the public while also providing an additional layer of protection by isolating it from the internal network. This helps to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information and reduces the risk of potential attacks on the internal network.

Explanation

A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a De-militarized zone (DMZ) to ensure security. A DMZ is a separate network segment that sits between the internal network and the external network (usually the internet). Placing the web-server in the DMZ allows it to be accessible to the public while also providing an additional layer of protection by isolating it from the internal network. This helps to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information and reduces the risk of potential attacks on the internal network.

13. An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a:

Threat.

Vulnerability.

Compromise.

Risk.

If an information system on a network does not require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password, it would be considered a vulnerability. This means that there is a weakness in the system's security measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or cause harm to the network.

Explanation

If an information system on a network does not require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password, it would be considered a vulnerability. This means that there is a weakness in the system's security measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or cause harm to the network.

14. Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds

15 days.

30 days.

45 days.

90 days.

Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be continuous support for communication. This could be because longer deployments require ongoing communication to ensure coordination and effectiveness.

Explanation

Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be continuous support for communication. This could be because longer deployments require ongoing communication to ensure coordination and effectiveness.

15. What are a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

Public key cryptography.

Public key infrastructure (PKI).

Key distribution center.

Asymmetric key infrastructure.

Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers. It uses a pair of keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption, to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of the transmitted data. PKI also includes a certification authority (CA) that issues digital certificates to verify the authenticity of public keys. This infrastructure allows users to securely communicate and share information without prior knowledge or trust in each other.

Explanation

Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers. It uses a pair of keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption, to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of the transmitted data. PKI also includes a certification authority (CA) that issues digital certificates to verify the authenticity of public keys. This infrastructure allows users to securely communicate and share information without prior knowledge or trust in each other.

16. What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?

Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

Passwords, finger prints, or identification cards.

Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.

Something you know, something you have, or something are.

The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways to authenticate oneself, which are based on knowledge, possession, and biometric characteristics. "Something you know" refers to passwords or PINs that only the authorized person should know. "Something you have" refers to physical items like identification cards or tokens that the person possesses. "Something you are" refers to biometric characteristics like fingerprints, voiceprints, or retinal scans that are unique to the individual. These three factors provide a multi-factor authentication approach to enhance security.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways to authenticate oneself, which are based on knowledge, possession, and biometric characteristics. "Something you know" refers to passwords or PINs that only the authorized person should know. "Something you have" refers to physical items like identification cards or tokens that the person possesses. "Something you are" refers to biometric characteristics like fingerprints, voiceprints, or retinal scans that are unique to the individual. These three factors provide a multi-factor authentication approach to enhance security.

17. How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

2.

4.

6.

8.

The standard internet protocol, also known as IPv4, is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a group of 8 bits, and in IPv4, each octet represents a portion of the IP address. The IP address is composed of 4 octets, separated by periods, with each octet ranging from 0 to 255. This allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique IP addresses in IPv4. However, due to the increasing demand for IP addresses, the internet is transitioning to IPv6, which uses 128-bit addresses and can accommodate a significantly larger number of unique addresses.

Explanation

The standard internet protocol, also known as IPv4, is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a group of 8 bits, and in IPv4, each octet represents a portion of the IP address. The IP address is composed of 4 octets, separated by periods, with each octet ranging from 0 to 255. This allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique IP addresses in IPv4. However, due to the increasing demand for IP addresses, the internet is transitioning to IPv6, which uses 128-bit addresses and can accommodate a significantly larger number of unique addresses.

18. According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

1.

2.

3.

4.

According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is located at the first tier.

Explanation

According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is located at the first tier.

19. What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

Centralized.

Distributed.

Hierarchical.

Hybrid.

A network architecture that has a network management platform on one computer system at a location responsible for all network management duties is referred to as centralized. In this architecture, all network management tasks and responsibilities are concentrated in one central location, making it easier to monitor and control the network from a single point. This approach can provide better efficiency and control over the network management process. Distributed architecture, on the other hand, involves distributing network management tasks across multiple systems, hierarchical architecture involves organizing network management into multiple levels of control, and hybrid architecture combines elements of both centralized and distributed approaches.

Explanation

A network architecture that has a network management platform on one computer system at a location responsible for all network management duties is referred to as centralized. In this architecture, all network management tasks and responsibilities are concentrated in one central location, making it easier to monitor and control the network from a single point. This approach can provide better efficiency and control over the network management process. Distributed architecture, on the other hand, involves distributing network management tasks across multiple systems, hierarchical architecture involves organizing network management into multiple levels of control, and hybrid architecture combines elements of both centralized and distributed approaches.

20. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Configuration.

Performance.

Accounting.

Security.

The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to restrict unauthorized access to sensitive data and protect the network from cyber threats. This includes implementing firewalls, authentication protocols, encryption, and other security measures to ensure that only authorized users have access to the information.

Explanation

The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to restrict unauthorized access to sensitive data and protect the network from cyber threats. This includes implementing firewalls, authentication protocols, encryption, and other security measures to ensure that only authorized users have access to the information.

21. What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

Global area network (GAN).

Local area network (LAN).

Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

Wide area network. (WAN).

A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. It is designed to provide connectivity on a global scale, allowing organizations and individuals to communicate and share resources across vast distances. GANs typically utilize a combination of wired and wireless technologies to establish connections between networks, enabling seamless communication and data transfer on a global level.

Explanation

A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. It is designed to provide connectivity on a global scale, allowing organizations and individuals to communicate and share resources across vast distances. GANs typically utilize a combination of wired and wireless technologies to establish connections between networks, enabling seamless communication and data transfer on a global level.

22. What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force?

Hardware token.

Software token.

Common access card.

Identification (ID) key.

The primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force is the Common Access Card (CAC). The CAC is a smart card that contains an individual's digital identity and is used for authentication and access control to various systems and resources. It serves as a hardware token that securely stores the individual's PKI keys and certificates, providing a secure means of identification and access to sensitive information.

Explanation

The primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force is the Common Access Card (CAC). The CAC is a smart card that contains an individual's digital identity and is used for authentication and access control to various systems and resources. It serves as a hardware token that securely stores the individual's PKI keys and certificates, providing a secure means of identification and access to sensitive information.

23. What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

Broker.

Clients.

Map console.

Domain manager.

The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the domain manager. The domain manager is responsible for managing and organizing the various components of the system, including brokers, clients, and the map console. It acts as a central hub for coordinating and monitoring the system's activities, ensuring efficient and effective management of the automated report tracking process.

Explanation

The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the domain manager. The domain manager is responsible for managing and organizing the various components of the system, including brokers, clients, and the map console. It acts as a central hub for coordinating and monitoring the system's activities, ensuring efficient and effective management of the automated report tracking process.

24. Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

Certificate policy manager.

Registration authority.

Certificate authority.

Certificate repository.

The certificate authority (CA) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI). The CA is the trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals, organizations, or devices after verifying their identity. It ensures the integrity and security of the certificate issuance process. The CA also manages the certificate lifecycle, including renewal and revocation. The certificate authority plays a crucial role in PKI by providing the necessary trust and security for secure communication and authentication.

Explanation

The certificate authority (CA) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI). The CA is the trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals, organizations, or devices after verifying their identity. It ensures the integrity and security of the certificate issuance process. The CA also manages the certificate lifecycle, including renewal and revocation. The certificate authority plays a crucial role in PKI by providing the necessary trust and security for secure communication and authentication.

25. What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

Media access control address.

Network server name.

Subnet mask address.

Node serial number.

The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. This address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination. The MAC address is typically a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is hard-coded into the NIC by the manufacturer.

Explanation

The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. This address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination. The MAC address is typically a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is hard-coded into the NIC by the manufacturer.

26. What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Fault parameters.

Tolerance parameters.

Low-level software alarms.

Low-level hardware alarms.

Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected behavior. When errors exceed the tolerance parameters, it indicates a fault or abnormal behavior that needs to be addressed. Therefore, tolerance parameters help in identifying and distinguishing between normal errors and errors caused by faults.

Explanation

Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected behavior. When errors exceed the tolerance parameters, it indicates a fault or abnormal behavior that needs to be addressed. Therefore, tolerance parameters help in identifying and distinguishing between normal errors and errors caused by faults.

27. What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

Get.

Set.

Trap.

GetNext.

The correct answer is "Get." In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the Get message is used to request specific instances of management information from a network device. It allows the SNMP manager to retrieve information such as the value of a particular variable or the status of a specific device.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Get." In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the Get message is used to request specific instances of management information from a network device. It allows the SNMP manager to retrieve information such as the value of a particular variable or the status of a specific device.

28. How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network

2-10.

10-50.

50-250.

250-1,000.

The correct answer is 250-1,000. This range suggests that a multi-server high-speed backbone network can accommodate a significant number of users. It implies that the network has the capacity to handle a large volume of traffic and support a substantial user base. The range also indicates that the network is designed to be scalable, allowing for growth and expansion as the number of users increases.

Explanation

The correct answer is 250-1,000. This range suggests that a multi-server high-speed backbone network can accommodate a significant number of users. It implies that the network has the capacity to handle a large volume of traffic and support a substantial user base. The range also indicates that the network is designed to be scalable, allowing for growth and expansion as the number of users increases.

29. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

Network management software.

Intrusion detection devices.

Vulnerability scanners.

Firewalls.

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that conduct thorough examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that could potentially lead to security breaches. These scanners are specifically designed to detect vulnerabilities in software, hardware, and network configurations. They perform comprehensive scans to identify potential security risks and provide detailed reports on the weaknesses found. This allows organizations to proactively address these vulnerabilities and strengthen their overall security posture.

Explanation

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that conduct thorough examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that could potentially lead to security breaches. These scanners are specifically designed to detect vulnerabilities in software, hardware, and network configurations. They perform comprehensive scans to identify potential security risks and provide detailed reports on the weaknesses found. This allows organizations to proactively address these vulnerabilities and strengthen their overall security posture.

30. What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

Internetwork.

Intranetwork.

Homogeneous network.

Heterogeneous network.

A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software technologies from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. This allows for interoperability between different systems and enables communication and data exchange between them.

Explanation

A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software technologies from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. This allows for interoperability between different systems and enables communication and data exchange between them.

31. What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

Internetwork.

Intranetwork.

Homogeneous network.

Heterogeneous network.

A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and equipment in the network are from the same source and are designed to work seamlessly together. This can simplify network management and troubleshooting, as there is a consistent and unified system in place.

Explanation

A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and equipment in the network are from the same source and are designed to work seamlessly together. This can simplify network management and troubleshooting, as there is a consistent and unified system in place.

32. How many users are in a multi-server network?

2-10.

10-50.

50-250.

250-1,000.

The correct answer is 50-250. This range suggests that a multi-server network typically consists of a moderate number of users. Having too few users (2-10) would not require multiple servers, while having too many users (250-1,000) would likely require more servers than a typical multi-server network. Therefore, the range of 50-250 strikes a balance between the need for multiple servers and the size of the user base.

Explanation

The correct answer is 50-250. This range suggests that a multi-server network typically consists of a moderate number of users. Having too few users (2-10) would not require multiple servers, while having too many users (250-1,000) would likely require more servers than a typical multi-server network. Therefore, the range of 50-250 strikes a balance between the need for multiple servers and the size of the user base.

33. What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

Broker.

Clients.

Probes.

Consoles.

The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a central hub for communication between the various components of the system, including the domain managers. It maintains information about the availability and status of the domain managers, allowing other components to easily access and interact with them.

Explanation

The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a central hub for communication between the various components of the system, including the domain managers. It maintains information about the availability and status of the domain managers, allowing other components to easily access and interact with them.

34. Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered

Classified.

Volatile.

Sensitive.

Sanitized.

Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered sensitive. This is because sensitive storage media, such as non-volatile memory, is designed to retain data even when the power supply is disconnected. This is in contrast to volatile storage media, which loses data when power is removed. Sensitive storage media is commonly used in devices where data persistence is crucial, such as hard drives, solid-state drives, and flash memory.

Explanation

Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered sensitive. This is because sensitive storage media, such as non-volatile memory, is designed to retain data even when the power supply is disconnected. This is in contrast to volatile storage media, which loses data when power is removed. Sensitive storage media is commonly used in devices where data persistence is crucial, such as hard drives, solid-state drives, and flash memory.

35. What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

Degaussing.

Overwriting.

Formatting.

Deleting.

Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media because it completely erases all data by demagnetizing the media. This process ensures that the data cannot be recovered or accessed by any means. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting do not completely remove the data and can be reversed or recovered with specialized tools or techniques. Therefore, degaussing is the most effective method for ensuring data security and privacy.

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media because it completely erases all data by demagnetizing the media. This process ensures that the data cannot be recovered or accessed by any means. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting do not completely remove the data and can be reversed or recovered with specialized tools or techniques. Therefore, degaussing is the most effective method for ensuring data security and privacy.

36. What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?

Identification spoofing and tunneling.

Tunneling and application-based attacks.

Second message encryption and identification spoofing.

Application-based attacks and second message encryption.

Tunneling and application-based attacks are examples of network attacks that can bypass the firewall. Tunneling involves encapsulating one network protocol within another to bypass security measures. Application-based attacks exploit vulnerabilities in specific applications or services to gain unauthorized access. Both of these attacks can evade the firewall's protection and compromise the network's security.

Explanation

Tunneling and application-based attacks are examples of network attacks that can bypass the firewall. Tunneling involves encapsulating one network protocol within another to bypass security measures. Application-based attacks exploit vulnerabilities in specific applications or services to gain unauthorized access. Both of these attacks can evade the firewall's protection and compromise the network's security.

37. What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

Homogeneous network.

Internetwork.

Intranetwork.

Local area network (LAN).

A privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called an intranetwork. This type of network is designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely share resources and communicate with one another. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), which refers to a network that covers a small geographical area like an office building or campus. A homogeneous network, on the other hand, refers to a network where all the devices and systems use the same protocol or technology.

Explanation

A privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called an intranetwork. This type of network is designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely share resources and communicate with one another. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), which refers to a network that covers a small geographical area like an office building or campus. A homogeneous network, on the other hand, refers to a network where all the devices and systems use the same protocol or technology.

38. What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

Local area network (LAN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

Enterprise network.

An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in different cities or even around the world. This network is designed to support the communication and data sharing needs of a large organization or enterprise. It provides a secure and reliable infrastructure for employees to access resources, applications, and data no matter where they are located. Unlike a local area network (LAN) or a metropolitan area network (MAN) which are limited to a specific geographical area, an enterprise network spans across multiple locations and enables seamless connectivity and collaboration. A multi-server high-speed backbone network is not specific to connecting geographically dispersed offices, and a LAN or MAN may not have the necessary scale or capabilities to support a large enterprise.

Explanation

An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in different cities or even around the world. This network is designed to support the communication and data sharing needs of a large organization or enterprise. It provides a secure and reliable infrastructure for employees to access resources, applications, and data no matter where they are located. Unlike a local area network (LAN) or a metropolitan area network (MAN) which are limited to a specific geographical area, an enterprise network spans across multiple locations and enables seamless connectivity and collaboration. A multi-server high-speed backbone network is not specific to connecting geographically dispersed offices, and a LAN or MAN may not have the necessary scale or capabilities to support a large enterprise.

39. What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).

Protocol analyzer.

Network root router.

Windows advanced server.

A protocol analyzer is a device that provides the capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture and analyze network traffic, allowing network administrators and developers to troubleshoot network issues, monitor network performance, and develop and test network protocols and applications. It helps in identifying and resolving network problems, optimizing network performance, and ensuring the smooth functioning of digital communications.

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a device that provides the capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture and analyze network traffic, allowing network administrators and developers to troubleshoot network issues, monitor network performance, and develop and test network protocols and applications. It helps in identifying and resolving network problems, optimizing network performance, and ensuring the smooth functioning of digital communications.

40. What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

AFPD 33–1.

AFI 33–112.

AFI 33–115v1.

AFI 29–2603v2.

AFI 33–115v1 provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG).

Explanation

AFI 33–115v1 provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG).

41. What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

Get.

Set.

Trap.

GetNext.

The correct answer is "Set." The Set message is used in SNMP to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the management station to change the values of variables on the managed devices. It is commonly used for configuration and control purposes in network management.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Set." The Set message is used in SNMP to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the management station to change the values of variables on the managed devices. It is commonly used for configuration and control purposes in network management.

42. What is the binary equivalent to the dotted-decimal number 96?

01100000.

01100110.

00001100.

10000001.

The dotted-decimal number 96 is converted to its binary equivalent, which is 01100000.

Explanation

The dotted-decimal number 96 is converted to its binary equivalent, which is 01100000.

43. What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

Primary domain controller (PDC).

Backup domain controller.

Manager.

Agent.

The correct answer is "Agent." In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) network, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent is installed on the managed devices and communicates with the management system, providing information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. The agent acts as an intermediary between the management system and the network devices, allowing for effective network monitoring and management.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Agent." In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) network, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent is installed on the managed devices and communicates with the management system, providing information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. The agent acts as an intermediary between the management system and the network devices, allowing for effective network monitoring and management.

44. What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

Global area network (GAN).

Local area network (LAN).

Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

Wide area network. (WAN).

A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) that are limited to a specific area, WANs allow for the connection of multiple LANs over a larger distance. This enables organizations with multiple locations in different cities or countries to communicate and share resources effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is wide area network (WAN).

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) that are limited to a specific area, WANs allow for the connection of multiple LANs over a larger distance. This enables organizations with multiple locations in different cities or countries to communicate and share resources effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is wide area network (WAN).

45. What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

Get.

Set.

Trap.

GetNext.

The GetNext SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to request the next set of information from the SNMP agent in a sequence. It is useful when the manager needs to retrieve a large amount of data in a more efficient manner, as it reduces the number of requests and responses required.

Explanation

The GetNext SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to request the next set of information from the SNMP agent in a sequence. It is useful when the manager needs to retrieve a large amount of data in a more efficient manner, as it reduces the number of requests and responses required.

46. What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

The correct answer is Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR). This is because the EITDR serves as the central database for registering all systems and applications within an organization. It is responsible for maintaining records and information related to security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability. The EITDR ensures that all systems and applications meet the necessary requirements and standards for efficient operation within the organization.

Explanation

The correct answer is Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR). This is because the EITDR serves as the central database for registering all systems and applications within an organization. It is responsible for maintaining records and information related to security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability. The EITDR ensures that all systems and applications meet the necessary requirements and standards for efficient operation within the organization.

47. How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

2-10.

10-50.

50-250.

250-1,000.

In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale collaborations or file sharing among a limited number of users. These networks are decentralized, meaning that each user has equal authority and can directly communicate with other users. As the number of users increases, the network may become less efficient and harder to manage, which is why larger networks often use client-server models instead.

Explanation

In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale collaborations or file sharing among a limited number of users. These networks are decentralized, meaning that each user has equal authority and can directly communicate with other users. As the number of users increases, the network may become less efficient and harder to manage, which is why larger networks often use client-server models instead.

48. How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

24.

48.

64.

128.

An internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. The subnet mask is used to divide an IPv6 address into network and host portions. In IPv6, the first 64 bits represent the network prefix, while the remaining 64 bits are used for the host identifier. This allows for a large number of unique addresses and supports hierarchical addressing and routing.

Explanation

An internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. The subnet mask is used to divide an IPv6 address into network and host portions. In IPv6, the first 64 bits represent the network prefix, while the remaining 64 bits are used for the host identifier. This allows for a large number of unique addresses and supports hierarchical addressing and routing.

49. What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?

Blue.

Orange.

Purple.

Yellow.

Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

Explanation

Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

50. What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?

A. Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).

Accreditation.

Certification.

Accreditation is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. It signifies that the system has met all the necessary requirements and has been assessed and evaluated to ensure its compliance with security standards and controls. Accreditation is an important step in the certification and accreditation process, which involves assessing and approving the security posture of an information system before it can be authorized to operate.

Explanation

Accreditation is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. It signifies that the system has met all the necessary requirements and has been assessed and evaluated to ensure its compliance with security standards and controls. Accreditation is an important step in the certification and accreditation process, which involves assessing and approving the security posture of an information system before it can be authorized to operate.

51. What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

10.

29.

30.

33.

The correct answer is 33 because it is stated in the question that the series of Air Force instructions that covers communications and information is being asked for. Out of the given options, 33 is the only number that falls within the series range. The other options (10, 29, and 30) do not pertain to the specific series mentioned in the question.

Explanation

The correct answer is 33 because it is stated in the question that the series of Air Force instructions that covers communications and information is being asked for. Out of the given options, 33 is the only number that falls within the series range. The other options (10, 29, and 30) do not pertain to the specific series mentioned in the question.

52. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

Session.

Transport.

Presentation.

Application.

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols require a reliable and established session between the network management system and the managed devices, which is why they operate above the Session layer.

Explanation

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols require a reliable and established session between the network management system and the managed devices, which is why they operate above the Session layer.

53. What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?

Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

Neighbor probe.

Containment probe.

System information probe.

A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network and gather information about their connectivity status. By collecting this information, a neighbor probe helps in identifying the devices connected to a network and their relationships, enabling efficient network management and troubleshooting.

Explanation

A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network and gather information about their connectivity status. By collecting this information, a neighbor probe helps in identifying the devices connected to a network and their relationships, enabling efficient network management and troubleshooting.

54. What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS).

Combat integrated systems.

Theater deployable communications (TDC).

Integrated communications access package (ICAP).

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). This program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base.

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). This program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base.

55. The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?

6.

7.

8.

9.

The Air Force requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long. This is likely because longer passwords are generally more secure and harder to guess or crack. A longer password provides a greater number of possible combinations, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the network. By setting a minimum length requirement of 9 characters, the Air Force aims to enhance the security of their network and protect sensitive information.

Explanation

The Air Force requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long. This is likely because longer passwords are generally more secure and harder to guess or crack. A longer password provides a greater number of possible combinations, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the network. By setting a minimum length requirement of 9 characters, the Air Force aims to enhance the security of their network and protect sensitive information.

56. What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a variety of attacks without an information system owner's knowledge?

Virus.

Trojan horse.

Worm.

Bot.

A bot is a type of malicious logic that can form large networks, known as botnets, without the knowledge of the information system owner. These botnets can be used to launch a variety of attacks, such as distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks or spam campaigns. Bots typically infect computers and then communicate with a command and control server, allowing the attacker to remotely control and coordinate the actions of the infected machines. This makes bots a powerful tool for cybercriminals to carry out attacks without the owner's knowledge.

Explanation

A bot is a type of malicious logic that can form large networks, known as botnets, without the knowledge of the information system owner. These botnets can be used to launch a variety of attacks, such as distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks or spam campaigns. Bots typically infect computers and then communicate with a command and control server, allowing the attacker to remotely control and coordinate the actions of the infected machines. This makes bots a powerful tool for cybercriminals to carry out attacks without the owner's knowledge.

57. What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?

Token.

Public key.

Private key.

Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

Public key encryption is a cryptographic method that uses a pair of keys, a public key and a private key. The public key is used to encrypt the message, while the private key is used to decrypt it. Only the recipient possesses the private key, ensuring that only they can decrypt the encrypted message. Therefore, using a public key to encrypt a message ensures that it can only be decrypted by the intended recipient.

Explanation

Public key encryption is a cryptographic method that uses a pair of keys, a public key and a private key. The public key is used to encrypt the message, while the private key is used to decrypt it. Only the recipient possesses the private key, ensuring that only they can decrypt the encrypted message. Therefore, using a public key to encrypt a message ensures that it can only be decrypted by the intended recipient.

58. Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?

Defense Information System Agency (DISA).

Air Force Communication Agency (AFCA).

Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT).

Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) must approve all information protection tools prior to their use. This agency is responsible for overseeing and managing the information security practices within the United States Air Force. They have the authority to review and evaluate the effectiveness and suitability of information protection tools before they are implemented. By doing so, HQ USAF ensures that the tools meet the necessary security standards and align with the Air Force's information protection policies and procedures.

Explanation

Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) must approve all information protection tools prior to their use. This agency is responsible for overseeing and managing the information security practices within the United States Air Force. They have the authority to review and evaluate the effectiveness and suitability of information protection tools before they are implemented. By doing so, HQ USAF ensures that the tools meet the necessary security standards and align with the Air Force's information protection policies and procedures.

59. What type of malicious logic can become active in an information system without the need to infect a file?

Virus.

Trojan horse.

Worm.

Bot.

A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active in an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses or Trojan horses, worms can spread and replicate themselves without attaching to a host file. They typically exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols or operating systems to spread from one computer to another. Once active, worms can cause significant damage by consuming network bandwidth, slowing down systems, or even deleting files.

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active in an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses or Trojan horses, worms can spread and replicate themselves without attaching to a host file. They typically exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols or operating systems to spread from one computer to another. Once active, worms can cause significant damage by consuming network bandwidth, slowing down systems, or even deleting files.

60. What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?

Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

The correct answer is "Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)". This is because the question is asking for the name of the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system, and SISSU is a comprehensive list of requirements that covers various aspects such as security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability. The other options mentioned are specific processes or repositories related to information technology in the Department of Defense, but they do not represent the consolidated list of requirements.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)". This is because the question is asking for the name of the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system, and SISSU is a comprehensive list of requirements that covers various aspects such as security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability. The other options mentioned are specific processes or repositories related to information technology in the Department of Defense, but they do not represent the consolidated list of requirements.

61. What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?

Inactive.

Reactive.

Interactive.

Proactive.

When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is being conducted at a proactive level. This means that the network is being actively monitored and analyzed in order to identify and address potential issues before they escalate into larger problems. The proactive approach allows for timely intervention and problem resolution, helping to ensure the smooth functioning of the network.

Explanation

When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is being conducted at a proactive level. This means that the network is being actively monitored and analyzed in order to identify and address potential issues before they escalate into larger problems. The proactive approach allows for timely intervention and problem resolution, helping to ensure the smooth functioning of the network.

62. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

7.

14.

19.

21.

The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and insights regarding the performance and functioning of your network. With such a comprehensive set of categories, you can obtain a detailed understanding of various aspects of your network's performance, enabling you to make informed decisions and troubleshoot any issues effectively.

Explanation

The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and insights regarding the performance and functioning of your network. With such a comprehensive set of categories, you can obtain a detailed understanding of various aspects of your network's performance, enabling you to make informed decisions and troubleshoot any issues effectively.

63. Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

Tuning.

Analyzing.

Gathering.

Monitoring.

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves the continuous tracking and observation of activities on the network. This function of performance management allows for the collection of historical data, which can then be analyzed and used for tuning and analyzing network performance. Gathering, on the other hand, refers to the initial collection of data, while analyzing focuses on interpreting and making sense of the collected data. Monitoring is specifically geared towards tracking and observing network activities over time.

Explanation

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves the continuous tracking and observation of activities on the network. This function of performance management allows for the collection of historical data, which can then be analyzed and used for tuning and analyzing network performance. Gathering, on the other hand, refers to the initial collection of data, while analyzing focuses on interpreting and making sense of the collected data. Monitoring is specifically geared towards tracking and observing network activities over time.

64. What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

Global area network (GAN).

Local area network (LAN).

Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

Wide area network. (WAN).

A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically used in homes, offices, or schools to connect computers and other devices together. LANs are characterized by high data transfer rates and low latency, making them ideal for sharing resources and communicating within a small area. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) that cover larger areas such as cities or countries, LANs are designed for local use and are usually privately owned and operated.

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically used in homes, offices, or schools to connect computers and other devices together. LANs are characterized by high data transfer rates and low latency, making them ideal for sharing resources and communicating within a small area. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) that cover larger areas such as cities or countries, LANs are designed for local use and are usually privately owned and operated.

65. How many users are in a single-server network?

2-10

10-50.

50-250.

250-1,000.

A single-server network typically refers to a network where all the network resources are managed by a single server. In such a network, the number of users can vary, but it is generally recommended to have between 10 to 50 users. This range ensures that the server can handle the workload efficiently without being overwhelmed. Having too few users may underutilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users may lead to performance issues and decreased efficiency. Therefore, 10-50 users is considered an optimal range for a single-server network.

Explanation

A single-server network typically refers to a network where all the network resources are managed by a single server. In such a network, the number of users can vary, but it is generally recommended to have between 10 to 50 users. This range ensures that the server can handle the workload efficiently without being overwhelmed. Having too few users may underutilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users may lead to performance issues and decreased efficiency. Therefore, 10-50 users is considered an optimal range for a single-server network.

66. What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?

Personnel that continue to misuse the network by surfing the web.

Access to the network through backdoors left by system administrators.

Network-connected desktop systems with modems that make calls to the public-switched network.

Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network.

One of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks is network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network. This is because modems can provide an entry point for attackers to gain unauthorized access to the internal network. Attackers can exploit the modem connection to bypass security measures and gain control over the network, potentially leading to data breaches, unauthorized access, and other security incidents.

Explanation

One of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks is network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network. This is because modems can provide an entry point for attackers to gain unauthorized access to the internal network. Attackers can exploit the modem connection to bypass security measures and gain control over the network, potentially leading to data breaches, unauthorized access, and other security incidents.

67. What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?

Compound events, alarm, and trend.

Compound events, problems, and network.

Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.

Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

The correct answer is "Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events." This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three types of notifications in the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS). Compound events refer to events that are composed of multiple individual events, problems refer to issues or errors in the system, and symptomatic events refer to events that indicate symptoms of a larger problem.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events." This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three types of notifications in the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS). Compound events refer to events that are composed of multiple individual events, problems refer to issues or errors in the system, and symptomatic events refer to events that indicate symptoms of a larger problem.

68. Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?

700.

701.

711.

712.

The correct answer is 711. The question is asking for the standard form used to annotate sanitized storage media. Out of the given options, 711 is the correct choice.

Explanation

The correct answer is 711. The question is asking for the standard form used to annotate sanitized storage media. Out of the given options, 711 is the correct choice.

69. What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system?

Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

Authorization to operate (ATO).

Interim authorization to test (IATT).

To permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system, the required documentation is an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This means that the organization or individual has been granted permission to operate on the GIG system. The ATO indicates that the necessary security controls and measures have been implemented to ensure the system's integrity, confidentiality, and availability. It signifies that the system has undergone a thorough assessment and has been deemed compliant with the required standards and regulations. The ATO is a crucial document that allows organizations or individuals to connect and access the GIG system securely.

Explanation

To permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system, the required documentation is an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This means that the organization or individual has been granted permission to operate on the GIG system. The ATO indicates that the necessary security controls and measures have been implemented to ensure the system's integrity, confidentiality, and availability. It signifies that the system has undergone a thorough assessment and has been deemed compliant with the required standards and regulations. The ATO is a crucial document that allows organizations or individuals to connect and access the GIG system securely.

70. What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

Management.

Private.

Directory.

Experimental.

The correct answer is "Private." In the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure, the private area is reserved for vendors to define their own label and leaf objects that are associated with specific manufactured equipment. This allows vendors to customize and add specific management capabilities to their equipment within the SNMP framework.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Private." In the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure, the private area is reserved for vendors to define their own label and leaf objects that are associated with specific manufactured equipment. This allows vendors to customize and add specific management capabilities to their equipment within the SNMP framework.

71. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Fault management server.

Network management server.

Performance management server.

Security management server.

A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring, controlling, and optimizing network performance, ensuring that all network devices are functioning properly and efficiently. This server allows network administrators to identify and resolve network issues, manage network resources, and ensure smooth network operations. It plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining a network infrastructure, enhancing overall network efficiency and productivity.

Explanation

A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring, controlling, and optimizing network performance, ensuring that all network devices are functioning properly and efficiently. This server allows network administrators to identify and resolve network issues, manage network resources, and ensure smooth network operations. It plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining a network infrastructure, enhancing overall network efficiency and productivity.

72. What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

Inactive.

Interactive.

Proactive.

Reactive.

When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This level involves actively engaging with the network and its components to identify and resolve issues. It requires direct interaction and intervention from the network manager to address problems and ensure smooth functioning of the network.

Explanation

When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This level involves actively engaging with the network and its components to identify and resolve issues. It requires direct interaction and intervention from the network manager to address problems and ensure smooth functioning of the network.

73. What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

1

2

3

10

A computer network requires at least two computers to establish a connection and exchange information. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, making it impossible to create a network. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is two.

Explanation

A computer network requires at least two computers to establish a connection and exchange information. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, making it impossible to create a network. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is two.

74. What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses?

Proxy.

Bastion host.

Packet filtering.

Intrusion detection.

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses. Packet filtering involves examining the headers of data packets as they pass through a network and determining whether to allow or block them based on predetermined rules. By setting up rules to filter out packets with inappropriate or unauthorized source or destination addresses, packet filtering can effectively prevent access from these addresses without requiring additional hardware or software. Proxy servers and bastion hosts can also be used for network security, but they may be more complex and expensive to implement compared to packet filtering. Intrusion detection systems are designed to detect and respond to unauthorized access attempts, but they do not directly prevent inappropriate network addresses.

Explanation

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses. Packet filtering involves examining the headers of data packets as they pass through a network and determining whether to allow or block them based on predetermined rules. By setting up rules to filter out packets with inappropriate or unauthorized source or destination addresses, packet filtering can effectively prevent access from these addresses without requiring additional hardware or software. Proxy servers and bastion hosts can also be used for network security, but they may be more complex and expensive to implement compared to packet filtering. Intrusion detection systems are designed to detect and respond to unauthorized access attempts, but they do not directly prevent inappropriate network addresses.

75. Who provides an uninterrupted flow of mission-critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

Open system standards teams.

Combat integrated system teams.

Initial communications support teams.

Sustained communications support teams.

Sustained communications support teams provide an uninterrupted flow of mission-critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and maintained, allowing for the continuous transmission of important information during critical situations.

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams provide an uninterrupted flow of mission-critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and maintained, allowing for the continuous transmission of important information during critical situations.

76. What is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key?

Token.

Public key.

Private key.

Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

A public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key. This certificate is issued by a trusted third party, known as a Certificate Authority (CA), and is used to verify the authenticity and integrity of digital communications. It ensures that the public key belongs to the user and provides a secure way to exchange encrypted information.

Explanation

A public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key. This certificate is issued by a trusted third party, known as a Certificate Authority (CA), and is used to verify the authenticity and integrity of digital communications. It ensures that the public key belongs to the user and provides a secure way to exchange encrypted information.

77. What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)?

Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

The correct answer is the Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP). This process is used by the Department of Defense to certify and accredit information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG). It ensures that these systems meet the necessary security requirements and can effectively operate within the Department of Defense's network. The DIACAP process includes steps such as system identification, validation, certification, and accreditation.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP). This process is used by the Department of Defense to certify and accredit information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG). It ensures that these systems meet the necessary security requirements and can effectively operate within the Department of Defense's network. The DIACAP process includes steps such as system identification, validation, certification, and accreditation.

78. What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)?

Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

Authorization to operate (ATO).

Interim authorization to test (IATT).

The correct answer, Denial of authorization to operation (DATO), signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). This means that the system has been denied the necessary authorization to operate and connect to the GIG, indicating that it does not meet the required security standards or has failed to comply with the necessary regulations and protocols. As a result, the system is prohibited from accessing and connecting to the GIG.

Explanation

The correct answer, Denial of authorization to operation (DATO), signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). This means that the system has been denied the necessary authorization to operate and connect to the GIG, indicating that it does not meet the required security standards or has failed to comply with the necessary regulations and protocols. As a result, the system is prohibited from accessing and connecting to the GIG.

79. Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?

Open system standards teams.

Combat integrated system teams.

Initial communications support teams.

Sustained communications support teams.

Initial communications support teams provide a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities. They are responsible for establishing and maintaining the initial communications infrastructure in a military operation, ensuring that forces on the ground can communicate effectively with each other and with higher command. These teams play a crucial role in enabling coordination and information sharing among the different units involved in the operation.

Explanation

Initial communications support teams provide a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities. They are responsible for establishing and maintaining the initial communications infrastructure in a military operation, ensuring that forces on the ground can communicate effectively with each other and with higher command. These teams play a crucial role in enabling coordination and information sharing among the different units involved in the operation.

80. Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

Centralized, hybrid and distributed.

Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.

Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.

The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a single entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or layers, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater flexibility and scalability.

Explanation

The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a single entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or layers, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater flexibility and scalability.

81. What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of single approval authority and security policy?

Enclave.

Bastion.

Circuits.

Base.

An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are connected by one or more internal networks. These environments are under the control of a single approval authority and adhere to a specific security policy. The term "enclave" is commonly used in the context of secure computing environments, where sensitive data or critical systems are isolated and protected from external threats.

Explanation

An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are connected by one or more internal networks. These environments are under the control of a single approval authority and adhere to a specific security policy. The term "enclave" is commonly used in the context of secure computing environments, where sensitive data or critical systems are isolated and protected from external threats.

82. The two ways key establishment can occur are key

Transfer and agreement.

Transfer and interchange.

Generation and agreement.

Generation and interchange.

Key establishment can occur through two methods: transfer and agreement. In the transfer method, a pre-existing key is transferred from one entity to another securely. This ensures that both entities have access to the same key for secure communication. In the agreement method, entities generate a shared key through a secure protocol, where they agree upon a common key without directly transferring it. This shared key is then used for secure communication. Therefore, the correct answer is transfer and agreement, as both methods are valid ways of establishing a key.

Explanation

Key establishment can occur through two methods: transfer and agreement. In the transfer method, a pre-existing key is transferred from one entity to another securely. This ensures that both entities have access to the same key for secure communication. In the agreement method, entities generate a shared key through a secure protocol, where they agree upon a common key without directly transferring it. This shared key is then used for secure communication. Therefore, the correct answer is transfer and agreement, as both methods are valid ways of establishing a key.

83. What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures?

Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).

Accreditation.

Certification.

Certification refers to the comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to determine the extent to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures. It is a process that ensures the system meets the necessary security requirements and is deemed suitable for use. The other options, such as DIACAP, POA&M, and Accreditation, are related to the certification process but do not specifically refer to the evaluation and validation of an IS.

Explanation

Certification refers to the comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to determine the extent to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures. It is a process that ensures the system meets the necessary security requirements and is deemed suitable for use. The other options, such as DIACAP, POA&M, and Accreditation, are related to the certification process but do not specifically refer to the evaluation and validation of an IS.

84. What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base-level customers?

Network control center (NCC).

Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

Network operations center (NOSC).

Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base-level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring its availability and security. The NCC is the central point of contact for network-related issues and coordinates with other entities to resolve them. It plays a critical role in maintaining the integrity and functionality of the network for base-level customers.

Explanation

The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base-level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring its availability and security. The NCC is the central point of contact for network-related issues and coordinates with other entities to resolve them. It plays a critical role in maintaining the integrity and functionality of the network for base-level customers.

85. What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

Centralized.

Distributed.

Hierarchical.

Hybrid.

Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for controlling and managing the entire network, while the client systems are used for accessing and utilizing network resources. This hierarchical structure allows for efficient network management and control, as well as easy scalability and expansion of the network.

Explanation

Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for controlling and managing the entire network, while the client systems are used for accessing and utilizing network resources. This hierarchical structure allows for efficient network management and control, as well as easy scalability and expansion of the network.

86. What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

Get.

Set.

Trap.

GetNext.

A trap message is an unsolicited message sent from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Traps are typically sent when there is a significant change in the network, such as an error or a failure. The manager can then take appropriate actions based on the information received in the trap message.

Explanation

A trap message is an unsolicited message sent from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Traps are typically sent when there is a significant change in the network, such as an error or a failure. The manager can then take appropriate actions based on the information received in the trap message.

87. What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

Connection statistics.

Protocol statistics.

Node discovery.

Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics provide information about the performance and reliability of the MAC layer, including any errors or issues that may be occurring at the physical layer. By monitoring the MAC node statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot any physical layer problems that may be affecting network performance.

Explanation

Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics provide information about the performance and reliability of the MAC layer, including any errors or issues that may be occurring at the physical layer. By monitoring the MAC node statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot any physical layer problems that may be affecting network performance.

88. Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

Monitoring and analyzing.

Monitoring and replacing.

Monitoring and tuning.

Analyzing and tuning.

Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. Monitoring refers to the continuous tracking and measuring of performance metrics to identify any issues or deviations from desired performance. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments or optimizations to improve the performance of the system or process. Therefore, monitoring and tuning are the two separate functional categories involved in performance management.

Explanation

Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. Monitoring refers to the continuous tracking and measuring of performance metrics to identify any issues or deviations from desired performance. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments or optimizations to improve the performance of the system or process. Therefore, monitoring and tuning are the two separate functional categories involved in performance management.

89. What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Proxy.

Bastion host.

Packet filtering.

Intrusion detection.

A bastion host is a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. It acts as a gateway between the secure and insecure networks and provides a secure entry point for accessing the secure network. The bastion host is hardened and heavily secured to protect against unauthorized access and attacks. It can also provide additional security features such as authentication, authorization, and logging.

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. It acts as a gateway between the secure and insecure networks and provides a secure entry point for accessing the secure network. The bastion host is hardened and heavily secured to protect against unauthorized access and attacks. It can also provide additional security features such as authentication, authorization, and logging.

90. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Media access control (MAC)

Connection statistics.

Protocol statistics.

Node discovery.

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is the process of identifying and mapping all the devices on a network. This allows the protocol analyzer to gather information about the network topology and the devices connected to it. By running node discovery, the protocol analyzer can provide a comprehensive view of the network and enable more accurate analysis of network traffic.

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is the process of identifying and mapping all the devices on a network. This allows the protocol analyzer to gather information about the network topology and the devices connected to it. By running node discovery, the protocol analyzer can provide a comprehensive view of the network and enable more accurate analysis of network traffic.

91. What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?

Token.

Public key.

Private key.

Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is a crucial component of asymmetric encryption, where a public key is used to encrypt the data, and the corresponding private key is used for decryption. Only the holder of the private key can decrypt the encrypted files, ensuring secure communication and data protection.

Explanation

A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is a crucial component of asymmetric encryption, where a public key is used to encrypt the data, and the corresponding private key is used for decryption. Only the holder of the private key can decrypt the encrypted files, ensuring secure communication and data protection.

92. What process, along with AFI 33–210, Air Force Certification and Accreditation (C&A) Program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification & accreditation (C&A)?

Information technology (IT) lean reengineering.

Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP).

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

93. How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways does the Air Force possess?

15.

16.

32.

36.

The Air Force possesses 16 non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways.

Explanation

The Air Force possesses 16 non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways.

94. What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

Media access control (MAC)

Connection statistics.

Protocol statistics.

Node discovery.

Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This information helps in analyzing the network performance, identifying bottlenecks, and optimizing the network resources. By monitoring connection statistics, network administrators can track the number of active connections, measure the amount of data transmitted, and identify any potential issues or congestion points in the network.

Explanation

Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This information helps in analyzing the network performance, identifying bottlenecks, and optimizing the network resources. By monitoring connection statistics, network administrators can track the number of active connections, measure the amount of data transmitted, and identify any potential issues or congestion points in the network.

95. What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

Object identifier.

Network device map.

Network protocol list.

Management information base.

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It is a database that stores information about the devices on a network, such as their configuration, status, and performance. MIB allows network administrators to monitor and manage network devices by providing a standardized way to access and retrieve information from these devices. It is an essential component of network management systems and plays a crucial role in monitoring and troubleshooting network issues.

Explanation

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It is a database that stores information about the devices on a network, such as their configuration, status, and performance. MIB allows network administrators to monitor and manage network devices by providing a standardized way to access and retrieve information from these devices. It is an essential component of network management systems and plays a crucial role in monitoring and troubleshooting network issues.

96. What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?

Intrusion detection system (IDS).

De-militarized zone (DMZ).

Vulnerability scanner.

Firewall.

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access, misuse, and attacks on a network or system. IDS monitors network traffic and analyzes it for any signs of malicious activity, such as unauthorized access attempts or abnormal behavior. It alerts the system administrators or security personnel when it detects any suspicious activity, allowing them to take appropriate actions to protect the network or system.

Explanation

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access, misuse, and attacks on a network or system. IDS monitors network traffic and analyzes it for any signs of malicious activity, such as unauthorized access attempts or abnormal behavior. It alerts the system administrators or security personnel when it detects any suspicious activity, allowing them to take appropriate actions to protect the network or system.

97. What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

Connection statistics.

Protocol statistics.

Node discovery.

Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing the protocol statistics, one can gather data on how efficiently the network is being used and identify any errors or issues that may be occurring within that specific protocol. Media access control (MAC) node statistics, connection statistics, and node discovery may provide other types of information, but they do not specifically focus on network utilization and frame errors related to a specific protocol.

Explanation

Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing the protocol statistics, one can gather data on how efficiently the network is being used and identify any errors or issues that may be occurring within that specific protocol. Media access control (MAC) node statistics, connection statistics, and node discovery may provide other types of information, but they do not specifically focus on network utilization and frame errors related to a specific protocol.

98. What regulation covers remanence security?

AFPD 33–2.

AFSSI 8580.

AFSSI 5020.

AFI 33–115v1.

AFSSI 8580 is the correct answer because it is the regulation that covers remanence security.

Explanation

AFSSI 8580 is the correct answer because it is the regulation that covers remanence security.

99. What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

0.0.0.120.

0.10.230.0.

131.10.230.0.

255.255.255.0.

The host id refers to the portion of the IP address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address is given as 131.10.230.120/24, where /24 indicates that the first 24 bits are the network portion and the remaining 8 bits are the host portion. Therefore, the host id would be 0.0.0.120, as it represents the host portion of the IP address.

Explanation

The host id refers to the portion of the IP address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address is given as 131.10.230.120/24, where /24 indicates that the first 24 bits are the network portion and the remaining 8 bits are the host portion. Therefore, the host id would be 0.0.0.120, as it represents the host portion of the IP address.

100. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?

Intrusion detection.

Packet filtering.

Bastion host.

Proxy.

A bastion host is a type of firewall that generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes. This means that it keeps a record of all network activities, allowing administrators to review and analyze them for any signs of unauthorized access or suspicious behavior. By generating these audit trails, a bastion host helps in detecting and preventing potential intrusions into the network.

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes. This means that it keeps a record of all network activities, allowing administrators to review and analyze them for any signs of unauthorized access or suspicious behavior. By generating these audit trails, a bastion host helps in detecting and preventing potential intrusions into the network.