An Advanced Computer Hardware And Network Components Test

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information? 

    • Authentication.
    • Recertification.
    • Accreditation.
    • Identification.
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About This Quiz

Below is an advanced computer hardware and network components test that is perfect for any person who is beginning their lessons on computers. The quiz below is designed for all of you out there that want to test out what they have understood so far. Feel like you are up to the challenge? Do give it a shot and get to see just how well you do.

An Advanced Computer Hardware And Network Components Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network

    • 2-10.

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 250-1,000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 250-1,000. This range suggests that a multi-server high-speed backbone network can accommodate a significant number of users. It implies that the network has the capacity to handle a large volume of traffic and support a substantial user base. The range also indicates that the network is designed to be scalable, allowing for growth and expansion as the number of users increases.

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  • 3. 

     What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall? 

    • Tunneling

    • Identification spoofing.

    • Application-based attacks.

    • Second message encryption.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling
    Explanation
    Tunneling is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the sender to bypass the firewall by hiding the rejected message within another message that is allowed. By doing so, the sender can successfully transmit the rejected message without being detected by the firewall.

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  • 4. 

    A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network? 

    • At the core.

    • None are allowed.

    • Outside the base network.

    • De-militarized zone (DMZ).

    Correct Answer
    A. De-militarized zone (DMZ).
    Explanation
    A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a De-militarized zone (DMZ) to ensure security. A DMZ is a separate network segment that sits between the internal network and the external network (usually the internet). Placing the web-server in the DMZ allows it to be accessible to the public while also providing an additional layer of protection by isolating it from the internal network. This helps to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information and reduces the risk of potential attacks on the internal network.

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  • 5. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • Global area network (GAN).

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • Wide area network. (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN).
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. It is designed to provide connectivity on a global scale, allowing organizations and individuals to communicate and share resources across vast distances. GANs typically utilize a combination of wired and wireless technologies to establish connections between networks, enabling seamless communication and data transfer on a global level.

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  • 6. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A computer network requires at least two computers to establish a connection and exchange information. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, making it impossible to create a network. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is two.

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  • 7. 

    What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message’s header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port? 

    • Proxy.

    • Bastion host.

    • Packet filtering.

    • Intrusion detection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Packet filtering.
    Explanation
    Packet filtering is a type of firewall that uses a screening router and a set of rules to accept or reject messages based on information in the message's header, such as the source address, destination address, and port. This type of firewall examines each packet of data that passes through it and filters them based on the specified rules. It is an effective method for protecting a network by allowing or blocking specific types of traffic based on predefined criteria.

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  • 8. 

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • Internetwork.

    • Intranetwork.

    • Homogeneous network.

    • Heterogeneous network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Homogeneous network.
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and equipment in the network are from the same source and are designed to work seamlessly together. This can simplify network management and troubleshooting, as there is a consistent and unified system in place.

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  • 9. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • Internetwork.

    • Intranetwork.

    • Homogeneous network.

    • Heterogeneous network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heterogeneous network.
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software technologies from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. This allows for interoperability between different systems and enables communication and data exchange between them.

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  • 10. 

    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

    • 2-10.

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10.
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale collaborations or file sharing among a limited number of users. These networks are decentralized, meaning that each user has equal authority and can directly communicate with other users. As the number of users increases, the network may become less efficient and harder to manage, which is why larger networks often use client-server models instead.

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  • 11. 

    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • 0.0.0.120.

    • 0.10.230.0.

    • 131.10.230.0.

    • 255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    A. 131.10.230.0.
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to 0. In this case, the IP address 131.10.230.120 has a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are the network portion. Therefore, the network ID is obtained by setting the last 8 bits to 0, resulting in 131.10.230.0.

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  • 12. 

    A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a: 

    • virus.

    • Trojan horse.

    • worm.

    • Bot.

    Correct Answer
    A. virus.
    Explanation
    A program that replicates by attaching itself to another program is known as a virus. Viruses are malicious software that can spread from one computer to another, often without the user's knowledge or consent. They can cause damage to files, steal personal information, and disrupt the normal functioning of a computer system. Unlike Trojan horses, worms, and bots, viruses specifically rely on attaching themselves to other programs in order to replicate and spread.

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  • 13. 

    Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol? 

    • Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).

    • Diffie and Hellman.

    • Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA).

    • Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH).

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffie and Hellman.
    Explanation
    Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol because it is specifically designed for the purpose of securely exchanging cryptographic keys over an insecure communication channel. The algorithm allows two parties to agree on a shared secret key without actually transmitting the key itself, providing a secure method for establishing a shared secret key that can be used for encryption and decryption. RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH are also commonly used in public key cryptography, but they serve different purposes such as encryption, digital signatures, and key agreement.

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  • 14. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information? 

    • Configuration.

    • Performance.

    • Accounting.

    • Security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security.
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to restrict unauthorized access to sensitive data and protect the network from cyber threats. This includes implementing firewalls, authentication protocols, encryption, and other security measures to ensure that only authorized users have access to the information.

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  • 15. 

    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you 

    • know.

    • have.

    • need.

    • read.

    Correct Answer
    A. know.
    Explanation
    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know. This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password, PIN, or answers to security questions. This method is commonly used in combination with other authentication factors, such as something the user has (like a smart card) or something the user is (like a fingerprint), to provide a higher level of security.

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  • 16. 

    An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a: 

    • threat.

    • vulnerability.

    • compromise.

    • Risk.

    Correct Answer
    A. vulnerability.
    Explanation
    If an information system on a network does not require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password, it would be considered a vulnerability. This means that there is a weakness in the system's security measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or cause harm to the network.

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  • 17. 

    What are a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers? 

    • Public key cryptography.

    • Public key infrastructure (PKI).

    • Key distribution center.

    • Asymmetric key infrastructure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Public key infrastructure (PKI).
    Explanation
    Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers. It uses a pair of keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption, to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of the transmitted data. PKI also includes a certification authority (CA) that issues digital certificates to verify the authenticity of public keys. This infrastructure allows users to securely communicate and share information without prior knowledge or trust in each other.

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  • 18. 

    What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force? 

    • Hardware token.

    • Software token.

    • Common access card.

    • Identification (ID) key.

    Correct Answer
    A. Common access card.
    Explanation
    The primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force is the Common Access Card (CAC). The CAC is a smart card that contains an individual's digital identity and is used for authentication and access control to various systems and resources. It serves as a hardware token that securely stores the individual's PKI keys and certificates, providing a secure means of identification and access to sensitive information.

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  • 19. 

    What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service? 

    • Vulnerability.

    • Threat.

    • Compromise.

    • Tunneling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat.
    Explanation
    A threat refers to a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing a denial of service. It represents a potential danger or harm to a system or network. In the context of cybersecurity, threats can include various types of attacks such as hacking, malware, or social engineering. Therefore, threat is the most appropriate term to describe the given scenario.

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  • 20. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information? 

    • Get.

    • Set.

    • Trap.

    • GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Get.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Get." In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the Get message is used to request specific instances of management information from a network device. It allows the SNMP manager to retrieve information such as the value of a particular variable or the status of a specific device.

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  • 21. 

    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

    • Centralized.

    • Distributed.

    • Hierarchical.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized.
    Explanation
    A network architecture that has a network management platform on one computer system at a location responsible for all network management duties is referred to as centralized. In this architecture, all network management tasks and responsibilities are concentrated in one central location, making it easier to monitor and control the network from a single point. This approach can provide better efficiency and control over the network management process. Distributed architecture, on the other hand, involves distributing network management tasks across multiple systems, hierarchical architecture involves organizing network management into multiple levels of control, and hybrid architecture combines elements of both centralized and distributed approaches.

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  • 22. 

    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

    • Broker.

    • Clients.

    • Map console.

    • Domain manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain manager.
    Explanation
    The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the domain manager. The domain manager is responsible for managing and organizing the various components of the system, including brokers, clients, and the map console. It acts as a central hub for coordinating and monitoring the system's activities, ensuring efficient and effective management of the automated report tracking process.

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  • 23. 

    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

    • Destroying.

    • Degaussing.

    • Sanitizing.

    • Overwriting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying.
    Explanation
    Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable and make the data irretrievable. This can be done by methods such as shredding, incineration, or crushing the media. Degaussing is the process of using a strong magnetic field to erase the data on the media. Sanitizing refers to the process of removing sensitive data from the media using various methods. Overwriting is the process of replacing existing data on the media with new data. However, destroying is the most effective method to ensure that the data cannot be recovered.

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  • 24. 

    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system? 

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization to operate (ATO).
    Explanation
    To permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system, the required documentation is an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This means that the organization or individual has been granted permission to operate on the GIG system. The ATO indicates that the necessary security controls and measures have been implemented to ensure the system's integrity, confidentiality, and availability. It signifies that the system has undergone a thorough assessment and has been deemed compliant with the required standards and regulations. The ATO is a crucial document that allows organizations or individuals to connect and access the GIG system securely.

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  • 25. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • Media access control address.

    • Network server name.

    • Subnet mask address.

    • Node serial number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address.
    Explanation
    The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. This address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination. The MAC address is typically a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is hard-coded into the NIC by the manufacturer.

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  • 26. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • 2.

    • 4.

    • 6.

    • 8.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol, also known as IPv4, is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a group of 8 bits, and in IPv4, each octet represents a portion of the IP address. The IP address is composed of 4 octets, separated by periods, with each octet ranging from 0 to 255. This allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique IP addresses in IPv4. However, due to the increasing demand for IP addresses, the internet is transitioning to IPv6, which uses 128-bit addresses and can accommodate a significantly larger number of unique addresses.

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  • 27. 

    How many users are in a single-server network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-50.
    Explanation
    A single-server network typically refers to a network where all the network resources are managed by a single server. In such a network, the number of users can vary, but it is generally recommended to have between 10 to 50 users. This range ensures that the server can handle the workload efficiently without being overwhelmed. Having too few users may underutilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users may lead to performance issues and decreased efficiency. Therefore, 10-50 users is considered an optimal range for a single-server network.

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  • 28. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • 2-10.

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50-250.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50-250. This range suggests that a multi-server network typically consists of a moderate number of users. Having too few users (2-10) would not require multiple servers, while having too many users (250-1,000) would likely require more servers than a typical multi-server network. Therefore, the range of 50-250 strikes a balance between the need for multiple servers and the size of the user base.

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  • 29. 

    Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?

    • Information assurance officer (IAO).

    • Designated approval authority (DAA).

    • Information system security officer.

    • Information owner.

    Correct Answer
    A. Information owner.
    Explanation
    The information owner is responsible for the classification and declassification of information, including storage media that has been sanitized. They have the authority to determine the appropriate level of classification for the information and can declassify it when necessary. The Information Assurance Officer (IAO), Designated Approval Authority (DAA), and Information System Security Officer (ISSO) may have roles in the overall information security process, but the ultimate responsibility for declassifying storage media lies with the information owner.

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  • 30. 

    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field? 

    • Degausser.

    • Degaussing.

    • Destroying.

    • Sanitizing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing.
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes any data stored on the magnetic media, making it unrecoverable. Degaussing is commonly used for erasing data on magnetic tapes, hard drives, and other magnetic storage devices. It is a secure method of data destruction that ensures sensitive information cannot be accessed or recovered.

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  • 31. 

    What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?

    • Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)". This is because the question is asking for the name of the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system, and SISSU is a comprehensive list of requirements that covers various aspects such as security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability. The other options mentioned are specific processes or repositories related to information technology in the Department of Defense, but they do not represent the consolidated list of requirements.

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  • 32. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

    • Enterprise network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise network.
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in different cities or even around the world. This network is designed to support the communication and data sharing needs of a large organization or enterprise. It provides a secure and reliable infrastructure for employees to access resources, applications, and data no matter where they are located. Unlike a local area network (LAN) or a metropolitan area network (MAN) which are limited to a specific geographical area, an enterprise network spans across multiple locations and enables seamless connectivity and collaboration. A multi-server high-speed backbone network is not specific to connecting geographically dispersed offices, and a LAN or MAN may not have the necessary scale or capabilities to support a large enterprise.

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  • 33. 

    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers? 

    • Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • Connection statistics.

    • Protocol statistics.

    • Node discovery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
    Explanation
    Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics provide information about the performance and reliability of the MAC layer, including any errors or issues that may be occurring at the physical layer. By monitoring the MAC node statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot any physical layer problems that may be affecting network performance.

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  • 34. 

    What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self? 

    • Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

    • Passwords, finger prints, or identification cards.

    • Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.

    • Something you know, something you have, or something are.

    Correct Answer
    A. Something you know, something you have, or something are.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways to authenticate oneself, which are based on knowledge, possession, and biometric characteristics. "Something you know" refers to passwords or PINs that only the authorized person should know. "Something you have" refers to physical items like identification cards or tokens that the person possesses. "Something you are" refers to biometric characteristics like fingerprints, voiceprints, or retinal scans that are unique to the individual. These three factors provide a multi-factor authentication approach to enhance security.

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  • 35. 

    What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)? 

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer, Denial of authorization to operation (DATO), signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). This means that the system has been denied the necessary authorization to operate and connect to the GIG, indicating that it does not meet the required security standards or has failed to comply with the necessary regulations and protocols. As a result, the system is prohibited from accessing and connecting to the GIG.

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  • 36. 

    What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations? 

    • Network management software.

    • Intrusion detection devices.

    • Vulnerability scanners.

    • Firewalls.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability scanners.
    Explanation
    Vulnerability scanners are network devices that conduct thorough examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that could potentially lead to security breaches. These scanners are specifically designed to detect vulnerabilities in software, hardware, and network configurations. They perform comprehensive scans to identify potential security risks and provide detailed reports on the weaknesses found. This allows organizations to proactively address these vulnerabilities and strengthen their overall security posture.

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  • 37. 

    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 

    • 15 days.

    • 30 days.

    • 45 days.

    • 90 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days.
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be continuous support for communication. This could be because longer deployments require ongoing communication to ensure coordination and effectiveness.

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  • 38. 

    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called? 

    • Homogeneous network.

    • Internetwork.

    • Intranetwork.

    • Local area network (LAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Intranetwork.
    Explanation
    A privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called an intranetwork. This type of network is designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely share resources and communicate with one another. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), which refers to a network that covers a small geographical area like an office building or campus. A homogeneous network, on the other hand, refers to a network where all the devices and systems use the same protocol or technology.

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  • 39. 

    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is located at the first tier.

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  • 40. 

    What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault? 

    • Fault parameters.

    • Tolerance parameters.

    • Low-level software alarms.

    • Low-level hardware alarms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tolerance parameters.
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected behavior. When errors exceed the tolerance parameters, it indicates a fault or abnormal behavior that needs to be addressed. Therefore, tolerance parameters help in identifying and distinguishing between normal errors and errors caused by faults.

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  • 41. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager? 

    • Get.

    • Set.

    • Trap.

    • GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trap.
    Explanation
    A trap message is an unsolicited message sent from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Traps are typically sent when there is a significant change in the network, such as an error or a failure. The manager can then take appropriate actions based on the information received in the trap message.

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  • 42. 

    Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates? 

    • Certificate policy manager.

    • Registration authority.

    • Certificate authority.

    • Certificate repository.

    Correct Answer
    A. Certificate authority.
    Explanation
    The certificate authority (CA) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI). The CA is the trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals, organizations, or devices after verifying their identity. It ensures the integrity and security of the certificate issuance process. The CA also manages the certificate lifecycle, including renewal and revocation. The certificate authority plays a crucial role in PKI by providing the necessary trust and security for secure communication and authentication.

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  • 43. 

    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

    • AFPD 33–1.

    • AFI 33–112.

    • AFI 33–115v1.

    • AFI 29–2603v2.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33–115v1.
    Explanation
    AFI 33–115v1 provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG).

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  • 44. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information? 

    • Get.

    • Set.

    • Trap.

    • GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set." The Set message is used in SNMP to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the management station to change the values of variables on the managed devices. It is commonly used for configuration and control purposes in network management.

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  • 45. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted-decimal number 96?

    • 01100000.

    • 01100110.

    • 00001100.

    • 10000001.

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000.
    Explanation
    The dotted-decimal number 96 is converted to its binary equivalent, which is 01100000.

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  • 46. 

    Who provides an uninterrupted flow of mission-critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency? 

    • Open system standards teams.

    • Combat integrated system teams.

    • Initial communications support teams.

    • Sustained communications support teams.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustained communications support teams.
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support teams provide an uninterrupted flow of mission-critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and maintained, allowing for the continuous transmission of important information during critical situations.

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  • 47. 

    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base-level customers?

    • Network control center (NCC).

    • Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • Network operations center (NOSC).

    • Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC).
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base-level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring its availability and security. The NCC is the central point of contact for network-related issues and coordinates with other entities to resolve them. It plays a critical role in maintaining the integrity and functionality of the network for base-level customers.

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  • 48. 

    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

    • Session.

    • Transport.

    • Presentation.

    • Application.

    Correct Answer
    A. Session.
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols require a reliable and established session between the network management system and the managed devices, which is why they operate above the Session layer.

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  • 49. 

    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers? 

    • Broker.

    • Clients.

    • Probes.

    • Consoles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker.
    Explanation
    The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a central hub for communication between the various components of the system, including the domain managers. It maintains information about the availability and status of the domain managers, allowing other components to easily access and interact with them.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 04, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    James Ciccone
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