Fire Alarm Systems Are Well-defined

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Fire Alarm Systems Are Well-defined - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    2.   The region of relatively uniform temperature and smoke density in a buoyant plume diverges at an angle of approximately _____ degrees.

    • A.

      A. 15

    • B.

      B. 22

    • C.

      C. 31

    • D.

      D. 66

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 22
    Explanation
    B – B.4.9.1

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  • 2. 

    1.   NFPA 72, 2016 no longer requires a basement smoke detector in a residence unless there is an intervening door between levels.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    B –NFPA 72, 2016, A.29.5.1

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  • 3. 

    3.   The so called “three foot rule” relates to _____.

    • A.

      A. the requirement to address the effects of HVAC systems on the performance of smoke detectors

    • B.

      B. the placement of pull stations from an exit discharge leading to an exit stairway

    • C.

      C. the placement of beam smoke detectors away from the highest point on the ceiling which is at least over 25 feet in height

    • D.

      D. the maximum distance permissible for detection necessary for under wing protection of aircraft hangers

    Correct Answer
    A. A. the requirement to address the effects of HVAC systems on the performance of smoke detectors
    Explanation
    A – B4.10

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  • 4. 

    5.   Working smoke alarms cut the risk of dying in a reported home structure by _____ percent.

    • A.

      A. 20

    • B.

      B. 40

    • C.

      C. 50

    • D.

      D. 75

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 50
    Explanation
    Working smoke alarms cut the risk of dying in a reported home structure by 50 percent. This means that having functioning smoke alarms in a home can significantly decrease the chances of fatalities in the event of a fire. Smoke alarms are designed to detect smoke and alert occupants, giving them valuable time to escape and seek safety. By providing an early warning, smoke alarms can greatly increase the likelihood of survival during a fire emergency.

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  • 5. 

    4. Smoke detectors shall not be placed within 12 inches of the ceiling on the wall or within 4 inches of the wall when placed on the ceiling.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    B – NFPA 72, 2016, A.29.8.3

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  • 6. 

    6.   The use of _____ ft./min flow velocity in the UL 268 and 217 smoke detector sensitivity tests for spot-type smoke detectors has led to the evolution of spot-type smoke detectors  that are optimized for that flow velocity.

    • A.

      A. 15

    • B.

      B. 30

    • C.

      C. 45

    • D.

      D. 60

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 30
    Explanation
    The use of 30 ft./min flow velocity in the UL 268 and 217 smoke detector sensitivity tests for spot-type smoke detectors has led to the evolution of spot-type smoke detectors that are optimized for that flow velocity. This means that these detectors have been designed and calibrated to perform at their best when subjected to a flow velocity of 30 ft./min. This flow velocity is considered to be the most effective for detecting smoke particles and ensuring accurate and reliable detection.

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  • 7. 

    7.   Flame detector sensitivity is usually rated by NRTLs by using a fire of what size using regular grade, unleaded gasoline?

    • A.

      A. 1.0 square foot

    • B.

      B. 3 square feet

    • C.

      C. A pan that is 3 in. wide x 3 in. long x 6 in. deep

    • D.

      D. Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1.0 square foot
    Explanation
    NRTLs rate flame detector sensitivity by using a fire of 1.0 square foot size using regular grade, unleaded gasoline. This means that the flame detector is tested and evaluated based on its ability to detect and respond to a fire of this specific size and fuel type. The use of a standardized fire size and fuel type allows for consistent and reliable testing of flame detector sensitivity across different models and manufacturers.

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  • 8. 

    8.   Planckian emissions are _____.

    • A.

      A. generated by gasoline fires

    • B.

      B. generated by Class E fires

    • C.

      C. the result of the thermal energy in the fuel mass

    • D.

      D. produced by any combustible solid

    Correct Answer
    C. C. the result of the thermal energy in the fuel mass
    Explanation
    Planckian emissions refer to the radiation emitted by a black body at a specific temperature. This type of emission is a result of the thermal energy present in the fuel mass. It is not specific to any particular type of fire or fuel source, such as gasoline fires or Class E fires. Additionally, Planckian emissions are not solely produced by combustible solids, as they can also be generated by liquids and gases.

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  • 9. 

    9.   The portion of the spectrum in which radiant energy-sensing detectors detect ultraviolet wavelengths is _____ microns.

    • A.

      A. 0.1 to 0.35

    • B.

      B. 0.35 to 0.75

    • C.

      C. 0.75 to 220

    • D.

      D. 3.5 to 7.5

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 0.1 to 0.35
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet wavelengths are detected by radiant energy-sensing detectors in the range of 0.1 to 0.35 microns.

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  • 10. 

    10.  A Class A system is one that _____.

    • A.

      A. the AHJ designated as such after a final inspection with no violations

    • B.

      B. insurance companies require in order to provide a discount on fire detection policies

    • C.

      C. utilizes a certain wiring scheme that is outlined in the Code

    • D.

      D. is installed only in Class A office occupancies as outlined in NFPA 101, The Life Safety Code.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. utilizes a certain wiring scheme that is outlined in the Code
    Explanation
    A Class A system is one that utilizes a certain wiring scheme that is outlined in the Code. This means that the system is installed in a way that allows for redundancy and ensures that all devices will continue to operate even if there is a break or fault in the wiring. This wiring scheme is outlined in the Code to ensure the reliability and effectiveness of the system in the event of a fire or emergency.

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  • 11. 

    11.  The term “immediately” used within the context of the Code is intended to mean _____.

    • A.

      A. this moment without delay

    • B.

      B. as quickly as other tasks permit you to take action safety

    • C.

      C. without unreasonable delay

    • D.

      D. the code doesn’t make this clear; it’s up to the AHJ to determine

    Correct Answer
    C. C. without unreasonable delay
    Explanation
    The term "immediately" used within the context of the Code is intended to mean without unreasonable delay. This means that action should be taken promptly and efficiently, but it does not necessarily require instantaneous action. The Code does not provide an exact timeframe for what constitutes "immediately", but it implies that there should not be any unnecessary or unreasonable delays in taking action. The determination of what is considered a reasonable delay may vary depending on the specific circumstances and the judgment of the Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ).

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  • 12. 

    12.  According to section 26.2.2.1, if an alarm signal cannot be reliably confirmed as a nuisance alarm, then it should not be immediately retransmitted unless such determination can be made.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    According to section 26.2.2.1, if an alarm signal cannot be reliably confirmed as a nuisance alarm, then it should be immediately retransmitted unless such determination can be made.

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  • 13. 

    13.  The phrase used in 26.2.6.1, “notified in writing,” includes correspondence that can be verified upon request but still does not permit email communications.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The phrase "notified in writing" in section 26.2.6.1 does not include email communications. Although correspondence that can be verified upon request is included, email communications are still not permitted.

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  • 14. 

    14.  A central station’s routine handling of a supervisory signal until the initiation of communications with a person designated by the subscriber should take _____.

    • A.

      A. a maximum of four minutes

    • B.

      B.    no longer than 90 seconds

    • C.

      C. a reasonable amount of time without exercising unnecessary delay

    • D.

      D. as little time as possible

    Correct Answer
    A. A. a maximum of four minutes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. a maximum of four minutes. This means that the central station should not take more than four minutes to handle a supervisory signal before initiating communication with the designated person. This ensures that any issues or emergencies are addressed in a timely manner and reduces the risk of delays in communication.

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  • 15. 

    1    5.   The term “dwelling unit” is defined and applies to occupancies other than one- and two-family dwellings. These are defined seperately.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the term "dwelling unit" is defined and applies to both one- and two-family dwellings as well as other occupancies. The question implies that the term only applies to occupancies other than one- and two-family dwellings, which is incorrect.

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