Quiz On Transplantation Of Tissue

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 350
Questions: 93 | Attempts: 158

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Tissue Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Another name of panniculectomy is 

    • A.

      Lipectomy

    • B.

      Mastectomy

    • C.

      Abdominoplasty

    • D.

      Liposuction

    Correct Answer
    C. Abdominoplasty
    Explanation
    Abdominoplasty is another name for panniculectomy. This procedure involves removing excess skin and fat from the abdomen to create a flatter and more toned appearance. It is often done after significant weight loss or pregnancy to address loose skin and weakened abdominal muscles. Lipectomy refers to the surgical removal of fat, mastectomy is the removal of breast tissue, and liposuction is a procedure to remove fat deposits from specific areas of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is abdominoplasty.

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  • 2. 

    Aesthetic surgery is performed to improve appearances, but not necessarily function.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Aesthetic surgery, also known as cosmetic surgery, focuses on enhancing a person's physical appearance rather than addressing functional issues. The primary goal of aesthetic surgery is to improve the overall look or symmetry of certain features, such as the face, body, or breasts. It may involve procedures like facelifts, breast augmentation, or liposuction. However, aesthetic surgery does not aim to correct or improve any functional problems or medical conditions. Therefore, the statement that aesthetic surgery is performed to improve appearances, but not necessarily function, is true.

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  • 3. 

    A tissue graft in which the donor and the recipient are the same species is called

    • A.

      Autograft

    • B.

      Allograft

    • C.

      Composite graft

    • D.

      Implant

    Correct Answer
    B. Allograft
    Explanation
    An allograft refers to a tissue graft where the donor and the recipient are of the same species. In this case, the correct answer is "allograft" because it specifically describes the situation where the donor and recipient are from the same species. Autograft, on the other hand, refers to a tissue graft where the donor and recipient are the same individual. Composite graft refers to a graft that includes multiple tissue types, while an implant refers to a foreign material placed in the body.

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  • 4. 

    The folding of tissue and securing it in place surgically is called

    • A.

      Eschar

    • B.

      Hypertrophic scar

    • C.

      Autograft

    • D.

      Plication

    Correct Answer
    D. Plication
    Explanation
    Plication refers to the surgical technique of folding and securing tissue in place. This procedure is commonly used to reduce the size or tighten a specific area of tissue. It involves folding the tissue over itself and then suturing or securing it in place. Plication can be performed on various types of tissue, such as muscles, skin, or organs, depending on the specific surgical need. This technique is often used in plastic surgery, urology, and general surgery to achieve desired outcomes.

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  • 5. 

    Xenograft is a skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A xenograft is a type of skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. However, the given statement is false.

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  • 6. 

    A biological graft composed of different types of tissue such as skin and muscle is called

    • A.

      Synthetic graft

    • B.

      Composite graft

    • C.

      Autograft

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Composite graft
    Explanation
    A composite graft is a biological graft composed of different types of tissue such as skin and muscle. Unlike a synthetic graft, which is man-made, a composite graft is made up of natural tissues. An autograft, on the other hand, refers to a graft taken from one part of the patient's body and transplanted to another part. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is composite graft.

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  • 7. 

    The surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual is called

    • A.

      Autograft

    • B.

      Biosynthetic

    • C.

      Allograft

    • D.

      Platoon

    Correct Answer
    A. Autograft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is autograft. Autograft refers to the surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual. This procedure is commonly used in various medical fields, such as plastic surgery and orthopedics, to repair or replace damaged or lost tissue. Autografts are preferred over other options like allografts (tissue from another individual) or biosynthetic materials because they have a lower risk of rejection and better long-term outcomes. Platoon and biosynthetic are unrelated terms and not relevant to the context of tissue transplantation.

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  • 8. 

    Photo damage is damage to the skin caused by ultraviolet light 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Photo damage refers to the damage caused to the skin as a result of exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light. UV light from the sun can cause various harmful effects on the skin, such as sunburn, premature aging, wrinkles, dark spots, and an increased risk of skin cancer. Therefore, it is true that photo damage is indeed caused by ultraviolet light.

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  • 9. 

    A surgical procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and cut into quadrants before frozen section is called

    • A.

      Escharotomy

    • B.

      Fasciotomy

    • C.

      Moh's surgery

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Moh's surgery
    Explanation
    Moh's surgery is a surgical procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and cut into quadrants before frozen section. This technique allows for the precise removal of cancerous cells while sparing healthy tissue. It is commonly used for skin cancers, particularly those on the face and other sensitive areas where tissue preservation is crucial. Moh's surgery involves the removal of thin layers of tissue, which are immediately examined under a microscope to ensure complete removal of cancer cells. This process is repeated until no cancer cells are detected, resulting in a higher cure rate and minimal damage to surrounding healthy tissue.

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  • 10. 

    ______ is the drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure 

    • A.

      Ptosis

    • B.

      Undermine

    • C.

      Uptosis

    • D.

      Biosynthetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Ptosis
    Explanation
    Ptosis is the correct answer because it refers to the drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure. It is commonly used to describe the drooping of the eyelid, but can also be used to describe the drooping of other body parts or organs. The term "ptosis" is derived from the Greek word meaning "fall" or "falling." It is often caused by weakened or stretched muscles or tissues that are unable to properly support the structure, resulting in the characteristic drooping appearance.

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  • 11. 

    The skin is composed of how many layers?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The skin is composed of three layers: the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. The epidermis is the outermost layer and provides protection, the dermis is the middle layer and contains blood vessels, nerves, and hair follicles, and the subcutaneous tissue is the innermost layer and contains fat cells. These layers work together to protect the body, regulate temperature, and provide sensation.

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  • 12. 

    The skin is also called the ________ system.

    • A.

      Integumentary

    • B.

      Immune

    • C.

      Circulatory

    • D.

      Superficial

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Integumentary
    Explanation
    The skin is referred to as the integumentary system. This system includes the skin, hair, nails, and various glands. It serves as a protective barrier for the body, regulating body temperature, preventing water loss, and acting as a sensory organ. The integumentary system also plays a role in immune defense by housing immune cells and producing antimicrobial substances.

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  • 13. 

    What sharp instrument is utilized to dissect fine tissues for plastic surgery?

    • A.

      Tenotomy scissors

    • B.

      Bandage scissors

    • C.

      Mayo scissors

    • D.

      Long Meztenbaum scissors

    Correct Answer
    A. Tenotomy scissors
    Explanation
    Tenotomy scissors are commonly used in plastic surgery to dissect fine tissues. These scissors have a delicate, slender design with sharp, pointed blades that allow for precise cutting of tissues. They are specifically designed for delicate procedures such as plastic surgery, where fine tissues need to be dissected with accuracy and minimal damage. Tenotomy scissors are often used to create precise incisions and separate tissues during procedures like facelifts, rhinoplasty, and eyelid surgery. Their sharp blades and fine tips make them an ideal instrument for achieving optimal surgical outcomes in plastic surgery.

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  • 14. 

    A medical device used for removing single thickness skin grafts is called

    • A.

      Dermatome

    • B.

      Mesher

    • C.

      Debrider

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Dermatome
    Explanation
    A dermatome is a medical device specifically designed for removing single thickness skin grafts. It is used in surgical procedures to precisely cut thin layers of skin from a donor site for transplantation onto another area of the body. The other options, mesher and debrider, are not used for the same purpose as a dermatome.

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  • 15. 

    A graft knife is utilized to remove a partial-thickness skin graft. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A graft knife is not utilized to remove a partial-thickness skin graft. Instead, a dermatome or a surgical blade is typically used for this purpose. A graft knife is commonly used for splitting full-thickness skin grafts into thinner layers.

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  • 16. 

    Device used for aeration, allows graft to stretch, cuts diamond shaped holes in skin

    • A.

      Graft dermatome

    • B.

      Graft mesher

    • C.

      Power drill

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Graft mesher
    Explanation
    A graft mesher is a device used for aeration, stretching the graft, and cutting diamond-shaped holes in the skin. It is specifically designed for the purpose of meshing grafts, which helps in improving the graft's adherence to the recipient site and allows for better fluid drainage. The other options, such as a graft dermatome and power drill, do not serve the same purpose as a graft mesher and are not used for aeration or cutting diamond-shaped holes in the skin.

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  • 17. 

    A rhytidectomy is?

    • A.

      Scar revision

    • B.

      Face lift

    • C.

      Breast enhancement

    • D.

      Nose job

    Correct Answer
    B. Face lift
    Explanation
    A rhytidectomy, also known as a face lift, is a surgical procedure performed to tighten and remove excess skin on the face and neck. It helps to reduce the appearance of wrinkles, sagging skin, and other signs of aging, resulting in a more youthful and rejuvenated appearance. This procedure does not involve scar revision, breast enhancement, or a nose job.

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  • 18. 

    During a lower lid blepharoplasty, initial incision is made

    • A.

      Subciliary region

    • B.

      Supraciliary

    • C.

      Cornea of eye

    • D.

      Canthi of eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Subciliary region
    Explanation
    During a lower lid blepharoplasty, the initial incision is made in the subciliary region. This is the area located just below the lower eyelashes. Making the incision in this region allows the surgeon to access the underlying tissues and remove any excess skin or fat that may be causing drooping or puffiness in the lower eyelids. By placing the incision in the subciliary region, the resulting scar will be well hidden within the natural creases of the lower eyelid, providing a more aesthetically pleasing outcome for the patient.

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  • 19. 

    Mentoplasty is augmentation of 

    • A.

      Cheeks

    • B.

      Forehead

    • C.

      Lips

    • D.

      Chin

    Correct Answer
    D. Chin
    Explanation
    Mentoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves the augmentation or reshaping of the chin. This procedure is performed to enhance the appearance of the chin by making it more proportionate to the rest of the facial features. It can involve adding an implant to increase the size of the chin or reshaping the existing bone to achieve the desired outcome. Mentoplasty is not related to the augmentation of cheeks, forehead, or lips, making "chin" the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    When performing a breast augmentation with an implant, surgeon creates a pocket under the 

    • A.

      Pectoralis minor

    • B.

      Pectoralis major

    • C.

      Trapezius

    • D.

      Rectus

    Correct Answer
    B. Pectoralis major
    Explanation
    When performing a breast augmentation with an implant, the surgeon creates a pocket under the pectoralis major muscle. This muscle is located in the chest area and is commonly used in breast augmentation surgeries because it provides good coverage for the implant, resulting in a more natural-looking outcome. Placing the implant under the pectoralis major muscle also helps to minimize the risk of complications such as implant visibility or rippling.

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  • 21. 

    During the removal of superficial lesion the skin edges are retracted with:

    • A.

      Army navy retractor

    • B.

      Beckman self retaining retractor

    • C.

      Double/single prong skin hook

    • D.

      Gelpi self-retaining retractor

    Correct Answer
    C. Double/single prong skin hook
    Explanation
    During the removal of a superficial lesion, the skin edges need to be retracted to provide better visibility and access to the lesion. This can be achieved using various instruments. One such instrument is the double/single prong skin hook. It has prongs that can be inserted into the skin to hold and retract the edges, allowing the surgeon to perform the procedure effectively. The other options mentioned, such as the army navy retractor, beckman self-retaining retractor, and gelpi self-retaining retractor, are also commonly used for retraction in different surgical procedures, but they may not be specifically designed for superficial lesion removal.

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  • 22. 

    During an open brow lift a ____ is used to elevate the periosteum off the cranium to the level of superior orbital rim

    • A.

      Rigid cannulas

    • B.

      Periosteal elevator

    • C.

      Smith curette

    • D.

      Pituitary

    Correct Answer
    B. Periosteal elevator
    Explanation
    During an open brow lift procedure, a periosteal elevator is used to lift the periosteum (the thin layer of connective tissue covering the bone) off the cranium, bringing it to the level of the superior orbital rim. This instrument allows the surgeon to create the necessary space and access to perform the lift effectively. Rigid cannulas, Smith curette, and pituitary are not typically used for this purpose, making the periosteal elevator the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    When performing an otoplasty, the incision is made in the _____ area. 

    • A.

      Lower jaw

    • B.

      Temporal

    • C.

      Postauricular

    • D.

      Preauricular

    Correct Answer
    C. Postauricular
    Explanation
    In an otoplasty, the procedure involves reshaping the ears to improve their appearance or position. The correct answer, postauricular, refers to the area behind the ear. This is where the incision is typically made during the surgery. By making the incision in the postauricular area, the surgeon can access the cartilage of the ear and make the necessary adjustments to achieve the desired results.

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  • 24. 

    In laser resurfacing, wet towels are placed around the surgical site to _____.

    • A.

      Reduce the risk of igniting the alcohol prep

    • B.

      Reduce the risk of thermal damage to other tissue

    • C.

      Protect the patient from possible retinal damage

    • D.

      Protect the ST from the heat of the laser

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduce the risk of thermal damage to other tissue
    Explanation
    Wet towels are placed around the surgical site in laser resurfacing to reduce the risk of thermal damage to other tissue. The wet towels act as a barrier between the laser and the surrounding tissue, helping to dissipate heat and prevent it from spreading to areas beyond the intended treatment site. This helps to protect the surrounding healthy tissue from potential damage caused by the heat generated by the laser during the procedure.

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  • 25. 

    Grafts that are raised from the donor site but are not severed free are called _____ grafts. 

    • A.

      Pedicle

    • B.

      Free

    • C.

      Progressive

    • D.

      Split-thickness

    Correct Answer
    A. Pedicle
    Explanation
    Grafts that are raised from the donor site but are not severed free are called pedicle grafts. In this type of graft, the tissue remains attached to its blood supply and is transferred to the recipient site while still connected to the donor site. This allows for a greater chance of successful graft survival as the blood supply is maintained.

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  • 26. 

    The procedure performed to remove excess skin and adipose tissue from the abdominal wall is called a?

    • A.

      Rhtidectomy

    • B.

      Panniculectomy

    • C.

      Blepharoplasty

    • D.

      Mentoplasty

    Correct Answer
    B. Panniculectomy
    Explanation
    A panniculectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of excess skin and adipose tissue from the abdominal wall. This procedure is typically performed to address issues such as sagging skin and fat deposits in the lower abdomen. Unlike a tummy tuck, which also involves tightening the underlying muscles, a panniculectomy focuses solely on removing the excess skin and fat. It is commonly done for patients who have lost a significant amount of weight or have excess skin due to pregnancy or aging.

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  • 27. 

    Skin grafts that consist of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis are called _____ grafts?

    • A.

      Pedicle

    • B.

      Split-thickness

    • C.

      Full-thickness

    • D.

      Composite

    Correct Answer
    B. Split-thickness
    Explanation
    Split-thickness grafts consist of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. This type of graft is commonly used in skin transplantation procedures, as it allows for faster healing and reduces the risk of complications compared to full-thickness grafts. Split-thickness grafts are typically harvested from the donor site using a dermatome, and they can be meshed to cover a larger area. Overall, split-thickness grafts provide a good balance between graft survival and functional and cosmetic outcomes.

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  • 28. 

    Which layer contains follicles, sweat glands and nerve fibers?

    • A.

      Dermis

    • B.

      Epidermis

    • C.

      Subcutaneous layer

    • D.

      Cutaneous layer

    Correct Answer
    A. Dermis
    Explanation
    The dermis is the correct answer because it is the layer of skin that contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve fibers. The dermis is located beneath the epidermis, which is the outermost layer of the skin. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, is below the dermis and consists of fat cells. The term "cutaneous layer" is not commonly used to refer to a specific layer of the skin.

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  • 29. 

    The layer of tissue that contains blood vessels for the regulation of body temperature is the:

    • A.

      Subcutaneous

    • B.

      Adipose

    • C.

      Epidermal

    • D.

      Dermal

    Correct Answer
    D. Dermal
    Explanation
    The dermal layer of tissue contains blood vessels that help regulate body temperature. These blood vessels can dilate or constrict to release or conserve heat, respectively. The dermal layer is located beneath the epidermis and provides support and nourishment to the skin. It also houses other structures such as hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.

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  • 30. 

    The "Rule of nines" refers to what?

    • A.

      A way to assess the body surface area affected by burns

    • B.

      Option 2

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. A way to assess the body surface area affected by burns
    Explanation
    The "Rule of nines" is a method used to estimate the percentage of body surface area that has been affected by burns. It divides the body into regions that represent 9% or multiples of 9% of the total body surface area. This rule helps healthcare professionals quickly assess the severity and extent of burn injuries, which is crucial for determining treatment plans and predicting outcomes.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a dermatome?

    • A.

      Multiple single use blades may be required for multiple grafts

    • B.

      A dermatome can be powered by electricity or nitrogen

    • C.

      A dermatome blade can be safely loaded while the dermatome is connected to power

    • D.

      The dermatome can be adjusted to fit different widths and thicknesses

    Correct Answer
    C. A dermatome blade can be safely loaded while the dermatome is connected to power
    Explanation
    A dermatome blade should not be loaded while the dermatome is connected to power because it can cause injury or damage to the blade or the dermatome itself. Loading the blade should only be done when the dermatome is disconnected from power to ensure safety.

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  • 32. 

    Anticoagulant given for antagonistic effect on heparin is 

    • A.

      Dicumarol

    • B.

      Coumadin sodium

    • C.

      Protamine sulfate

    • D.

      Dipaxin

    Correct Answer
    C. Protamine sulfate
    Explanation
    Protamine sulfate is given as an antagonist to heparin because it has the ability to neutralize the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Heparin is commonly used as an anticoagulant medication to prevent blood clotting, but in some cases, it may need to be reversed quickly. Protamine sulfate works by binding to heparin molecules and forming a stable complex, thereby preventing heparin from exerting its anticoagulant effects. This makes protamine sulfate an effective option for reversing the effects of heparin in situations where it is necessary to restore normal blood clotting.

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  • 33. 

    What are 4 chambers of heart?

    • A.

      Rt atrium; pulmonary artery, superior vena cava; lt ventricle

    • B.

      Rt atrium, rt ventricle; lt atrium, circumflex

    • C.

      Rt atrium, rt ventrical; lt atrium, lt ventricle

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Rt atrium, rt ventrical; lt atrium, lt ventricle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "rt atrium, rt ventrical; lt atrium, lt ventricle". This answer correctly identifies the four chambers of the heart: the right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, which is then pumped into the right ventricle. The right ventricle then pumps the blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. The oxygenated blood is then returned to the left atrium, which pumps it into the left ventricle. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping the oxygenated blood throughout the rest of the body.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure

    • A.

      Bronchoscopy

    • B.

      Mediastinoscopy

    • C.

      Thorascopy

    • D.

      Anterior mediastinoscopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchoscopy
    Explanation
    Bronchoscopy is not considered a sterile procedure because it involves the insertion of a bronchoscope into the airways to visualize and diagnose conditions such as lung infections or tumors. While precautions are taken to minimize the risk of infection, the procedure does not require a completely sterile environment like the other options listed. Mediastinoscopy, thoracoscopy, and anterior mediastinoscopy are all invasive procedures that require a sterile environment to prevent the introduction of pathogens into the body.

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  • 35. 

    Coronary arteries arise form the 

    • A.

      Aorta

    • B.

      Vena cava

    • C.

      Left ventricle

    • D.

      Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta
    Explanation
    Coronary arteries are the blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. They arise from the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The aorta is responsible for delivering oxygenated blood to the coronary arteries, allowing them to supply the heart with the necessary nutrients and oxygen for proper functioning.

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  • 36. 

    The innermost layer of the heart is called the 

    • A.

      Epicardium

    • B.

      Endocardium

    • C.

      Visceral pericardium

    • D.

      Both A & C

    Correct Answer
    B. Endocardium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is endocardium. The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart. It is a smooth, thin layer that lines the chambers of the heart and covers the heart valves. It consists of endothelial cells and connective tissue. The endocardium helps to prevent blood clotting and provides a smooth surface for blood flow through the heart. The epicardium, on the other hand, is the outermost layer of the heart, and the visceral pericardium is the inner layer of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

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  • 37. 

    The pericardium

    • A.

      Is a sac surrounding the heart

    • B.

      Has an outer layer called the parietal pericardium

    • C.

      Has an inner layer called the epicardium

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Has an outer layer called the parietal pericardium
    Explanation
    The pericardium is a sac that surrounds the heart and protects it from external damage. It has two layers, the outer layer called the parietal pericardium and the inner layer called the epicardium. These layers provide additional support and cushioning to the heart, ensuring its proper functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is "all the above."

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  • 38. 

    The color of arteries are:

    • A.

      Purple

    • B.

      Dark red

    • C.

      Blue

    • D.

      Bright red

    Correct Answer
    D. Bright red
    Explanation
    Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the rest of the body. The bright red color of arteries is due to the fact that they contain oxygen-rich blood. Oxygenated blood appears bright red because it contains a high concentration of oxygen-bound hemoglobin, which gives it a vibrant red color.

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  • 39. 

    Abdominal aorta bifurcates into the:

    • A.

      Pulmonary arteries

    • B.

      Femoral arteries

    • C.

      Right and left common iliac arteries

    • D.

      Internal and external iliac arteries

    Correct Answer
    C. Right and left common iliac arteries
    Explanation
    The abdominal aorta is the largest artery in the abdominal cavity. It supplies oxygenated blood to the lower limbs and organs in the abdominal and pelvic regions. After descending through the abdomen, the abdominal aorta bifurcates (divides) into two branches known as the right and left common iliac arteries. These arteries further divide into internal and external iliac arteries, which supply blood to the pelvis, hips, and lower limbs. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs, while the femoral arteries supply blood to the thighs.

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  • 40. 

    A substance that prevents blood from clotting is called a(n):

    • A.

      Anticoagulant

    • B.

      Coagulant

    • C.

      Serum

    • D.

      Antibody

    Correct Answer
    A. Anticoagulant
    Explanation
    An anticoagulant is a substance that inhibits the formation of blood clots. It works by interfering with the blood clotting process, preventing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which is necessary for clot formation. This helps to prevent the formation of dangerous blood clots that can block blood vessels and lead to serious medical conditions such as deep vein thrombosis or stroke. Therefore, anticoagulants are commonly used in medical treatments to prevent clotting in patients with certain conditions or during surgeries.

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  • 41. 

    Hemostasis can best be defined as:

    • A.

      Preventing or delaying the formation of blood clots

    • B.

      Stopping the bleeding

    • C.

      The state of chemical balance between the cell and its environment

    • D.

      Conduction of electricity by means of ions

    Correct Answer
    B. Stopping the bleeding
    Explanation
    Hemostasis refers to the process of stopping bleeding. It involves a series of complex mechanisms that work together to prevent excessive blood loss from damaged blood vessels. This includes the constriction of blood vessels, formation of platelet plugs, and blood clotting. By stopping the bleeding, hemostasis helps maintain the integrity of the circulatory system and prevents further harm to the body.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following techniques protects the heart on cardiopulmonary bypass form damage?

    • A.

      Hyperthermia

    • B.

      Hypothermia

    • C.

      Tachycardia

    • D.

      Bradicardia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypothermia
    Explanation
    Hypothermia is the correct answer because it is a technique used during cardiopulmonary bypass to protect the heart from damage. By lowering the body temperature, the heart's metabolic demands are reduced, which can help prevent injury and improve outcomes. Hypothermia slows down the heart rate and decreases oxygen consumption, allowing the heart to tolerate the temporary halt of blood flow during bypass surgery. This technique has been shown to be effective in minimizing heart damage and preserving cardiac function.

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  • 43. 

    What do you use to clamp the pump line?

    • A.

      Cooley clamp

    • B.

      Aortic clamp

    • C.

      Pump clamp

    • D.

      Chest retractor

    Correct Answer
    C. Pump clamp
    Explanation
    A pump clamp is used to clamp the pump line. It is a device that securely holds the pump line in place, preventing any leakage or disconnection during the pumping process. This clamp ensures the smooth and uninterrupted flow of fluids through the pump line, maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the pumping system.

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  • 44. 

    Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?

    • A.

      9-0 or 10-0 polypropylene

    • B.

      6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene

    • C.

      6-0 or 7-0 chromic gut

    • D.

      2-0 or 7-0 PDS

    Correct Answer
    B. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
    Explanation
    6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG. Polypropylene is a non-absorbable synthetic suture material that provides good tensile strength and durability, making it suitable for vascular anastomosis. The smaller size (6-0 or 7-0) is chosen to minimize trauma to the vessels and ensure a secure and leak-proof anastomosis.

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  • 45. 

    A pacemaker is implanted to provide electrical stimulation to the heart to 

    • A.

      Increase a slow heart rate

    • B.

      Stabilize a normal heart rate with a cardiac arrythmia

    • C.

      Decrease a high heart rate

    • D.

      Repair a non-life-threatening sysrhythmia

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase a slow heart rate
    Explanation
    A pacemaker is a medical device that is implanted to provide electrical stimulation to the heart. This electrical stimulation helps regulate the heart rate and ensures that it beats at a normal and healthy rhythm. In the case of a slow heart rate, the pacemaker is used to increase the heart rate and bring it back to a normal level. Therefore, the correct answer is "increase a slow heart rate."

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  • 46. 

    Tachycardia is fast heart rate, usually more than ____ beats per minute.

    • A.

      120

    • B.

      70

    • C.

      80

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    A. 120
    Explanation
    Tachycardia is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate. In this case, the correct answer is 120 beats per minute. Tachycardia typically refers to a heart rate that exceeds the normal range, which is usually around 60-100 beats per minute. Therefore, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute would be considered fast and indicative of tachycardia.

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  • 47. 

    ______ is the most common incision used for surgical procedures of the heart and great vessels in the thoracic cavity. 

    • A.

      Transverse sternotomy

    • B.

      Median sternotomy

    • C.

      Anterolateral thoractomy

    • D.

      Posterolateral thoracotomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Median sternotomy
    Explanation
    The most common incision used for surgical procedures of the heart and great vessels in the thoracic cavity is the median sternotomy. This incision involves making a vertical cut along the midline of the sternum, allowing for direct access to the heart and great vessels. It provides a clear and direct view of the surgical area and allows for easy closure after the procedure. Other incisions mentioned, such as transverse sternotomy, anterolateral thoracotomy, and posterolateral thoracotomy, are less commonly used for these types of procedures.

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  • 48. 

    The intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels is knows as

    • A.

      Angiography

    • B.

      Angioplasty

    • C.

      Angioscopy

    • D.

      Arthrectomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Angioscopy
    Explanation
    Angioscopy is the correct answer because it refers to the intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels. Angiography is a different procedure that involves the use of X-rays and contrast dye to visualize blood vessels. Angioplasty is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels. Arthrectomy is the surgical removal of plaque or clots from an artery. Therefore, angioscopy is the most appropriate term for the given description.

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  • 49. 

    Cardioplegia solution is used to

    • A.

      Stop the heart's pumping action

    • B.

      Reverse effect of heparin

    • C.

      Prevent blood clots

    • D.

      Treat ventricular arrhythmias

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the heart's pumping action
    Explanation
    Cardioplegia solution is used to stop the heart's pumping action during cardiac surgery. It is a specialized solution that is infused into the heart to induce a temporary state of cardiac arrest. This allows the surgeon to perform delicate procedures on the heart without the interference of the heart's natural pumping action. Once the surgery is complete, the cardioplegia solution is removed and the heart is restarted, resuming its normal pumping function.

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  • 50. 

    Orthotropic transplantation

    • A.

      Involves replacing one heart with another

    • B.

      Involves the insertion of a second (donor) heart into the recipient

    • C.

      Involves bypassing the coronary arteries

    Correct Answer
    A. Involves replacing one heart with another
    Explanation
    Orthotropic transplantation involves replacing one heart with another. This means that the recipient's damaged or diseased heart is removed and replaced with a healthy heart from a donor. This procedure is typically performed in cases of end-stage heart failure where other treatment options have failed. The new heart is connected to the recipient's blood vessels and the patient's immune system may require medication to prevent rejection of the transplanted heart.

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