Quiz On Transplantation Of Tissue

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1. A tissue graft in which the donor and the recipient are the same species is called

Explanation

An allograft refers to a tissue graft where the donor and the recipient are of the same species. In this case, the correct answer is "allograft" because it specifically describes the situation where the donor and recipient are from the same species. Autograft, on the other hand, refers to a tissue graft where the donor and recipient are the same individual. Composite graft refers to a graft that includes multiple tissue types, while an implant refers to a foreign material placed in the body.

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About This Quiz
Transplant Immunology Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz explores key concepts in tissue transplantation, including types of grafts and surgical techniques. It assesses understanding of terms like allograft, xenograft, and procedures like panniculectomy, enhancing... see moreknowledge relevant for medical professionals. see less

2. Match the following
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3. Which self-retaining retractor is used during aortofemoral bypass procedure?

Explanation

The Weitlaner self-retaining retractor is commonly used during aortofemoral bypass procedures. This retractor has sharp, curved prongs that can be adjusted to different angles and positions, allowing for optimal exposure and access to the surgical site. The prongs are self-retaining, meaning they can hold the tissue and maintain the desired position without the need for constant manual holding by the surgical team. This retractor is a popular choice for aortofemoral bypass procedures due to its versatility and effectiveness in providing clear visualization and access to the operative field.

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4. The folding of tissue and securing it in place surgically is called

Explanation

Plication refers to the surgical technique of folding and securing tissue in place. This procedure is commonly used to reduce the size or tighten a specific area of tissue. It involves folding the tissue over itself and then suturing or securing it in place. Plication can be performed on various types of tissue, such as muscles, skin, or organs, depending on the specific surgical need. This technique is often used in plastic surgery, urology, and general surgery to achieve desired outcomes.

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5. Xenograft is a skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. 

Explanation

A xenograft is a type of skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. However, the given statement is false.

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6. Cardioplegia solution is used to

Explanation

Cardioplegia solution is used to stop the heart's pumping action during cardiac surgery. It is a specialized solution that is infused into the heart to induce a temporary state of cardiac arrest. This allows the surgeon to perform delicate procedures on the heart without the interference of the heart's natural pumping action. Once the surgery is complete, the cardioplegia solution is removed and the heart is restarted, resuming its normal pumping function.

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7. The surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual is called

Explanation

The correct answer is autograft. Autograft refers to the surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual. This procedure is commonly used in various medical fields, such as plastic surgery and orthopedics, to repair or replace damaged or lost tissue. Autografts are preferred over other options like allografts (tissue from another individual) or biosynthetic materials because they have a lower risk of rejection and better long-term outcomes. Platoon and biosynthetic are unrelated terms and not relevant to the context of tissue transplantation.

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8. Skin grafts that consist of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis are called _____ grafts?

Explanation

Split-thickness grafts consist of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. This type of graft is commonly used in skin transplantation procedures, as it allows for faster healing and reduces the risk of complications compared to full-thickness grafts. Split-thickness grafts are typically harvested from the donor site using a dermatome, and they can be meshed to cover a larger area. Overall, split-thickness grafts provide a good balance between graft survival and functional and cosmetic outcomes.

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9. Which layer contains follicles, sweat glands and nerve fibers?

Explanation

The dermis is the correct answer because it is the layer of skin that contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve fibers. The dermis is located beneath the epidermis, which is the outermost layer of the skin. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, is below the dermis and consists of fat cells. The term "cutaneous layer" is not commonly used to refer to a specific layer of the skin.

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10. A closed system of blood vessels that transports blood away from the heart to the body's tissue and back to the heart refers to the 

Explanation

The peripheral vascular system refers to the closed system of blood vessels that transport blood away from the heart to the body's tissues and back to the heart. This system includes the arteries, which carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the tissues, and the veins, which carry deoxygenated blood from the tissues back to the heart. The peripheral vascular system is responsible for delivering nutrients and oxygen to the tissues and removing waste products.

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11. Photo damage is damage to the skin caused by ultraviolet light 

Explanation

Photo damage refers to the damage caused to the skin as a result of exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light. UV light from the sun can cause various harmful effects on the skin, such as sunburn, premature aging, wrinkles, dark spots, and an increased risk of skin cancer. Therefore, it is true that photo damage is indeed caused by ultraviolet light.

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12. The "Rule of nines" refers to what?

Explanation

The "Rule of nines" is a method used to estimate the percentage of body surface area that has been affected by burns. It divides the body into regions that represent 9% or multiples of 9% of the total body surface area. This rule helps healthcare professionals quickly assess the severity and extent of burn injuries, which is crucial for determining treatment plans and predicting outcomes.

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13. ______ is the drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure 

Explanation

Ptosis is the correct answer because it refers to the drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure. It is commonly used to describe the drooping of the eyelid, but can also be used to describe the drooping of other body parts or organs. The term "ptosis" is derived from the Greek word meaning "fall" or "falling." It is often caused by weakened or stretched muscles or tissues that are unable to properly support the structure, resulting in the characteristic drooping appearance.

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14. After exposure of the femoral artery, the surgeon will want to ____ the artery and will ask for a _____

Explanation

After exposure of the femoral artery, the surgeon will want to isolate the artery and will ask for a right angle. A right angle is a surgical instrument that is commonly used to clamp or occlude blood vessels during surgical procedures. By isolating the femoral artery with a right angle, the surgeon can control the blood flow and prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure.

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15. With which instrument is an arrteriotomy initiated?

Explanation

An arteriotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in an artery. The most common instrument used to initiate an arteriotomy is a #11 blade on a #7 handle. This combination provides a sharp and precise cutting edge, allowing the surgeon to make a clean incision in the artery. Metz scissors, pott scissors, and tentomy scissors are not typically used for initiating an arteriotomy.

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16. Microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and wastes between blood and tissue fluid around the cells are known as 

Explanation

Capillaries are microscopic vessels that are responsible for exchanging nutrients and wastes between the blood and the tissue fluid around the cells. They have thin walls that allow for the exchange of substances such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nutrients. Capillaries are found throughout the body and are essential for maintaining proper functioning of tissues and organs.

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17. Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel?

Explanation

A taper needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel because it has a sharp point that allows for precise and controlled penetration of the vessel walls. The taper shape of the needle also helps in creating a secure and tight closure, minimizing the risk of bleeding or leakage. Additionally, the taper needle is designed to minimize tissue trauma and ensure smooth passage through the vessel, making it an ideal choice for this procedure.

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18. Which is the longest vein in the body?

Explanation

The greater saphenous vein is the longest vein in the body. It is located in the lower limb and runs from the foot all the way up to the groin. This vein is responsible for draining blood from the superficial tissues of the leg and thigh and transporting it back to the heart. It is commonly used in medical procedures such as bypass surgeries and vein grafts due to its length and accessibility.

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19. Anticoagulant given for antagonistic effect on heparin is 

Explanation

Protamine sulfate is given as an antagonist to heparin because it has the ability to neutralize the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Heparin is commonly used as an anticoagulant medication to prevent blood clotting, but in some cases, it may need to be reversed quickly. Protamine sulfate works by binding to heparin molecules and forming a stable complex, thereby preventing heparin from exerting its anticoagulant effects. This makes protamine sulfate an effective option for reversing the effects of heparin in situations where it is necessary to restore normal blood clotting.

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20. The skin is also called the ________ system.

Explanation

The skin is referred to as the integumentary system. This system includes the skin, hair, nails, and various glands. It serves as a protective barrier for the body, regulating body temperature, preventing water loss, and acting as a sensory organ. The integumentary system also plays a role in immune defense by housing immune cells and producing antimicrobial substances.

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21. What sharp instrument is utilized to dissect fine tissues for plastic surgery?

Explanation

Tenotomy scissors are commonly used in plastic surgery to dissect fine tissues. These scissors have a delicate, slender design with sharp, pointed blades that allow for precise cutting of tissues. They are specifically designed for delicate procedures such as plastic surgery, where fine tissues need to be dissected with accuracy and minimal damage. Tenotomy scissors are often used to create precise incisions and separate tissues during procedures like facelifts, rhinoplasty, and eyelid surgery. Their sharp blades and fine tips make them an ideal instrument for achieving optimal surgical outcomes in plastic surgery.

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22. A medical device used for removing single thickness skin grafts is called

Explanation

A dermatome is a medical device specifically designed for removing single thickness skin grafts. It is used in surgical procedures to precisely cut thin layers of skin from a donor site for transplantation onto another area of the body. The other options, mesher and debrider, are not used for the same purpose as a dermatome.

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23. Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure

Explanation

Bronchoscopy is not considered a sterile procedure because it involves the insertion of a bronchoscope into the airways to visualize and diagnose conditions such as lung infections or tumors. While precautions are taken to minimize the risk of infection, the procedure does not require a completely sterile environment like the other options listed. Mediastinoscopy, thoracoscopy, and anterior mediastinoscopy are all invasive procedures that require a sterile environment to prevent the introduction of pathogens into the body.

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24. Coronary arteries arise form the 

Explanation

Coronary arteries are the blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. They arise from the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The aorta is responsible for delivering oxygenated blood to the coronary arteries, allowing them to supply the heart with the necessary nutrients and oxygen for proper functioning.

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25. Which arteries supply the upper portion of the digestive tract, spleen, and the liver?

Explanation

The celiac artery is responsible for supplying blood to the upper portion of the digestive tract, including the stomach, liver, spleen, and parts of the pancreas. It is a major branch of the abdominal aorta and plays a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to these organs. The other options mentioned, such as the gonad artery, phrenic artery, and superior mesenteric artery, do not supply blood to the specific organs mentioned in the question.

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26. Mentoplasty is augmentation of 

Explanation

Mentoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves the augmentation or reshaping of the chin. This procedure is performed to enhance the appearance of the chin by making it more proportionate to the rest of the facial features. It can involve adding an implant to increase the size of the chin or reshaping the existing bone to achieve the desired outcome. Mentoplasty is not related to the augmentation of cheeks, forehead, or lips, making "chin" the correct answer.

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27. Match the following
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28. A substance that prevents blood from clotting is called a(n):

Explanation

An anticoagulant is a substance that inhibits the formation of blood clots. It works by interfering with the blood clotting process, preventing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which is necessary for clot formation. This helps to prevent the formation of dangerous blood clots that can block blood vessels and lead to serious medical conditions such as deep vein thrombosis or stroke. Therefore, anticoagulants are commonly used in medical treatments to prevent clotting in patients with certain conditions or during surgeries.

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29. A blood clot, air, or organic material that is free flowing in the vascular system is known as:

Explanation

An emboli is a blood clot, air bubble, or organic material that is moving freely within the blood vessels. It can cause blockages in smaller blood vessels, leading to tissue damage or even death if it reaches a vital organ. Thrombus refers to a blood clot that forms and remains stationary within a blood vessel. Infarction is the death of tissue due to lack of blood supply, while ischemia refers to reduced blood flow to a specific area.

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30. Antibiotic beads can be used to treat deep open wound infections such as osteomyelitis.

Explanation

Antibiotic beads are small, biodegradable devices that are impregnated with antibiotics. They can be placed directly into deep open wounds, such as those caused by osteomyelitis, a bone infection. The beads slowly release antibiotics over time, providing a localized and sustained delivery of the medication to the infected area. This targeted approach helps to effectively combat the infection and promote healing. Therefore, the statement that antibiotic beads can be used to treat deep open wound infections such as osteomyelitis is true.

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31. A wound vac is often used to?

Explanation

A wound vac is often used to assist in the initiation of delayed primary closure, which means it helps in the process of closing a wound gradually over time. It also allows accurate measurement of fluid loss from the wound, which is important for monitoring the healing process. Additionally, a wound vac can help prevent hypothermia by providing a warm and controlled environment for the wound. Therefore, all of the given options are correct.

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32. In laser resurfacing, wet towels are placed around the surgical site to _____.

Explanation

Wet towels are placed around the surgical site in laser resurfacing to reduce the risk of thermal damage to other tissue. The wet towels act as a barrier between the laser and the surrounding tissue, helping to dissipate heat and prevent it from spreading to areas beyond the intended treatment site. This helps to protect the surrounding healthy tissue from potential damage caused by the heat generated by the laser during the procedure.

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33. Grafts that are raised from the donor site but are not severed free are called _____ grafts. 

Explanation

Grafts that are raised from the donor site but are not severed free are called pedicle grafts. In this type of graft, the tissue remains attached to its blood supply and is transferred to the recipient site while still connected to the donor site. This allows for a greater chance of successful graft survival as the blood supply is maintained.

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34. Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?

Explanation

6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG. Polypropylene is a non-absorbable synthetic suture material that provides good tensile strength and durability, making it suitable for vascular anastomosis. The smaller size (6-0 or 7-0) is chosen to minimize trauma to the vessels and ensure a secure and leak-proof anastomosis.

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35. A biological graft composed of different types of tissue such as skin and muscle is called

Explanation

A composite graft is a biological graft composed of different types of tissue such as skin and muscle. Unlike a synthetic graft, which is man-made, a composite graft is made up of natural tissues. An autograft, on the other hand, refers to a graft taken from one part of the patient's body and transplanted to another part. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is composite graft.

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36. A surgical procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and cut into quadrants before frozen section is called

Explanation

Moh's surgery is a surgical procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and cut into quadrants before frozen section. This technique allows for the precise removal of cancerous cells while sparing healthy tissue. It is commonly used for skin cancers, particularly those on the face and other sensitive areas where tissue preservation is crucial. Moh's surgery involves the removal of thin layers of tissue, which are immediately examined under a microscope to ensure complete removal of cancer cells. This process is repeated until no cancer cells are detected, resulting in a higher cure rate and minimal damage to surrounding healthy tissue.

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37. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a dermatome?

Explanation

A dermatome blade should not be loaded while the dermatome is connected to power because it can cause injury or damage to the blade or the dermatome itself. Loading the blade should only be done when the dermatome is disconnected from power to ensure safety.

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38. The skin is composed of how many layers?

Explanation

The skin is composed of three layers: the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. The epidermis is the outermost layer and provides protection, the dermis is the middle layer and contains blood vessels, nerves, and hair follicles, and the subcutaneous tissue is the innermost layer and contains fat cells. These layers work together to protect the body, regulate temperature, and provide sensation.

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39. Which medicine is always added to injectable saline for use of intra-arterial irrigation?

Explanation

Heparin is always added to injectable saline for use of intra-arterial irrigation. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent blood clots from forming in the arteries. When used in intra-arterial irrigation, heparin helps to maintain the patency of the arteries and prevent clot formation during procedures such as angiography or arterial catheterization. This is important to ensure proper blood flow and avoid complications like blockages or embolisms. Therefore, heparin is the medicine of choice for this purpose.

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40. The innermost layer of the heart is called the 

Explanation

The correct answer is endocardium. The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart. It is a smooth, thin layer that lines the chambers of the heart and covers the heart valves. It consists of endothelial cells and connective tissue. The endocardium helps to prevent blood clotting and provides a smooth surface for blood flow through the heart. The epicardium, on the other hand, is the outermost layer of the heart, and the visceral pericardium is the inner layer of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

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41. The primary purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to 

Explanation

The primary purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to restore blood flow to the lower limb. This procedure is typically performed when there is a blockage or narrowing in the femoral artery or popliteal artery, which can lead to reduced blood flow and potentially cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, or ulcers in the leg. By creating a bypass using a synthetic graft, blood flow can be rerouted around the blockage, restoring circulation to the lower limb and alleviating symptoms.

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42. The x-ray shown is diagnosing what type of condition?

Explanation

The x-ray shown is diagnosing a condition called hemothorax. Hemothorax is a condition where blood accumulates in the pleural cavity, the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This can occur due to trauma, such as a chest injury or a ruptured blood vessel. The accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity can cause symptoms such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, and decreased lung function. Treatment for hemothorax may involve draining the blood from the pleural cavity and addressing the underlying cause of the bleeding.

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43. A rhytidectomy is?

Explanation

A rhytidectomy, also known as a face lift, is a surgical procedure performed to tighten and remove excess skin on the face and neck. It helps to reduce the appearance of wrinkles, sagging skin, and other signs of aging, resulting in a more youthful and rejuvenated appearance. This procedure does not involve scar revision, breast enhancement, or a nose job.

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44. The color of arteries are:

Explanation

Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the rest of the body. The bright red color of arteries is due to the fact that they contain oxygen-rich blood. Oxygenated blood appears bright red because it contains a high concentration of oxygen-bound hemoglobin, which gives it a vibrant red color.

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45. A Fogarty balloon catheter is used for a(n):

Explanation

A Fogarty balloon catheter is used for arterial embolectomy. This procedure involves removing a blood clot (embolus) from an artery to restore blood flow. The Fogarty balloon catheter is inserted into the affected artery and inflated to dislodge the clot, allowing it to be removed. This catheter is specifically designed for this purpose and is not typically used for the other listed procedures.

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46. During a lower lid blepharoplasty, initial incision is made

Explanation

During a lower lid blepharoplasty, the initial incision is made in the subciliary region. This is the area located just below the lower eyelashes. Making the incision in this region allows the surgeon to access the underlying tissues and remove any excess skin or fat that may be causing drooping or puffiness in the lower eyelids. By placing the incision in the subciliary region, the resulting scar will be well hidden within the natural creases of the lower eyelid, providing a more aesthetically pleasing outcome for the patient.

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47. Abdominal aorta bifurcates into the:

Explanation

The abdominal aorta is the largest artery in the abdominal cavity. It supplies oxygenated blood to the lower limbs and organs in the abdominal and pelvic regions. After descending through the abdomen, the abdominal aorta bifurcates (divides) into two branches known as the right and left common iliac arteries. These arteries further divide into internal and external iliac arteries, which supply blood to the pelvis, hips, and lower limbs. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs, while the femoral arteries supply blood to the thighs.

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48. During vascular surgery, pledgets are used to:

Explanation

Pledgets are used during vascular surgery to reinforce the graft. This means that they provide additional support and strength to the graft, helping to prevent any potential complications such as leakage or rupture. By reinforcing the graft, the surgeon can ensure that it remains secure and stable, allowing for proper blood flow and healing. The use of pledgets is a common technique in vascular surgery to enhance the success and durability of the graft.

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49. When performing a breast augmentation with an implant, surgeon creates a pocket under the 

Explanation

When performing a breast augmentation with an implant, the surgeon creates a pocket under the pectoralis major muscle. This muscle is located in the chest area and is commonly used in breast augmentation surgeries because it provides good coverage for the implant, resulting in a more natural-looking outcome. Placing the implant under the pectoralis major muscle also helps to minimize the risk of complications such as implant visibility or rippling.

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50. During the removal of superficial lesion the skin edges are retracted with:

Explanation

During the removal of a superficial lesion, the skin edges need to be retracted to provide better visibility and access to the lesion. This can be achieved using various instruments. One such instrument is the double/single prong skin hook. It has prongs that can be inserted into the skin to hold and retract the edges, allowing the surgeon to perform the procedure effectively. The other options mentioned, such as the army navy retractor, beckman self-retaining retractor, and gelpi self-retaining retractor, are also commonly used for retraction in different surgical procedures, but they may not be specifically designed for superficial lesion removal.

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51. During an open brow lift a ____ is used to elevate the periosteum off the cranium to the level of superior orbital rim

Explanation

During an open brow lift procedure, a periosteal elevator is used to lift the periosteum (the thin layer of connective tissue covering the bone) off the cranium, bringing it to the level of the superior orbital rim. This instrument allows the surgeon to create the necessary space and access to perform the lift effectively. Rigid cannulas, Smith curette, and pituitary are not typically used for this purpose, making the periosteal elevator the correct answer.

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52. What safety patient equipment is utilized that is positioned to avoid pressure on the nerves and blood vessels in the lateral position?

Explanation

Axillary rolls are utilized as safety patient equipment in the lateral position to avoid pressure on the nerves and blood vessels. These rolls are placed under the axilla (armpit) area, providing support and preventing compression of the nerves and blood vessels in that region. This helps in maintaining proper circulation and preventing nerve damage or discomfort for the patient.

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53. Hemostasis can best be defined as:

Explanation

Hemostasis refers to the process of stopping bleeding. It involves a series of complex mechanisms that work together to prevent excessive blood loss from damaged blood vessels. This includes the constriction of blood vessels, formation of platelet plugs, and blood clotting. By stopping the bleeding, hemostasis helps maintain the integrity of the circulatory system and prevents further harm to the body.

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54. A reduction in the patient's total blood volume is called:

Explanation

Hypovolemia refers to a decrease in the total blood volume of a patient. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as bleeding, excessive fluid loss, or dehydration. It is characterized by symptoms like low blood pressure, increased heart rate, dizziness, and decreased urine output. Hypovolemia can be a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention to restore the blood volume and prevent complications.

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55. Which of the following techniques protects the heart on cardiopulmonary bypass form damage?

Explanation

Hypothermia is the correct answer because it is a technique used during cardiopulmonary bypass to protect the heart from damage. By lowering the body temperature, the heart's metabolic demands are reduced, which can help prevent injury and improve outcomes. Hypothermia slows down the heart rate and decreases oxygen consumption, allowing the heart to tolerate the temporary halt of blood flow during bypass surgery. This technique has been shown to be effective in minimizing heart damage and preserving cardiac function.

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56. When performing an otoplasty, the incision is made in the _____ area. 

Explanation

In an otoplasty, the procedure involves reshaping the ears to improve their appearance or position. The correct answer, postauricular, refers to the area behind the ear. This is where the incision is typically made during the surgery. By making the incision in the postauricular area, the surgeon can access the cartilage of the ear and make the necessary adjustments to achieve the desired results.

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57. What is true regarding a thoracoscopy?

Explanation

Thoracoscopy is a sterile procedure because it involves inserting a special instrument called a thoracoscope into the chest cavity through a small incision. This procedure is done to examine the lungs, pleura, or other structures in the chest. To reduce the risk of infection, the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, with the surgeon and the surgical team wearing sterile gloves, gowns, and masks. Additionally, all instruments used during the procedure are sterilized or disposable to maintain sterility.

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58. On discussion of training what is purposed of wound debridement?

Explanation

The purpose of wound debridement during training is to remove nonviable tissue, debris, blood, and bacteria as soon as possible. This helps to promote wound healing and prevent infection. Dressing the wound and sending the patient up to the medical unit for observation is not the primary purpose of wound debridement. The option "Makes more work for the ST" is not a valid purpose for wound debridement. Therefore, the correct answer is to remove nonviable tissue, debris, blood, and bacteria as soon as possible.

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59. Clear ___ is the pivot point of team efforts in an emergency.

Explanation

Communication is the pivot point of team efforts in an emergency because it allows team members to effectively share information, coordinate actions, and make quick decisions. In emergency situations, clear and efficient communication is crucial for ensuring that everyone is on the same page, understanding the situation, and working together towards a common goal. Effective communication helps to minimize confusion, prevent errors, and promote a coordinated response, ultimately increasing the chances of a successful outcome in an emergency.

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60. For the lungs to expand, negative pressure must be restored which is achieved with:

Explanation

Closed chest drainage is the correct answer because it is a method used to restore negative pressure in the chest cavity. This procedure involves inserting a chest tube into the pleural space to drain air, blood, or fluid, allowing the lungs to re-expand. By removing excess fluid or air from the chest, closed chest drainage helps to restore normal lung function and breathing. Hemovac, JP drain, and Blake drain are not relevant to this process and do not restore negative pressure in the lungs.

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61. Lower than normal blood pH is what condition?

Explanation

Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by lower than normal blood pH. It occurs when the body produces too much acid, cannot remove enough acid, or loses too much bicarbonate. This imbalance disrupts the body's acid-base balance and can lead to various symptoms such as rapid breathing, confusion, and fatigue. Coagulopathy refers to a disorder in blood clotting, hypothermia is a condition of abnormally low body temperature, and hyperthermia is a condition of abnormally high body temperature.

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62. Tachycardia is fast heart rate, usually more than ____ beats per minute.

Explanation

Tachycardia is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate. In this case, the correct answer is 120 beats per minute. Tachycardia typically refers to a heart rate that exceeds the normal range, which is usually around 60-100 beats per minute. Therefore, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute would be considered fast and indicative of tachycardia.

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63. The compensatory mechanisms in acute injury can lead to the condition called?

Explanation

Compartment syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is increased pressure within a confined space in the body, leading to compression of blood vessels and nerves. In acute injury, compensatory mechanisms such as inflammation and swelling can increase the pressure within a compartment, causing compartment syndrome. This can result in symptoms such as severe pain, numbness, and muscle weakness. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue damage and even loss of limb function.

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64. Orthotropic transplantation

Explanation

Orthotropic transplantation involves replacing one heart with another. This means that the recipient's damaged or diseased heart is removed and replaced with a healthy heart from a donor. This procedure is typically performed in cases of end-stage heart failure where other treatment options have failed. The new heart is connected to the recipient's blood vessels and the patient's immune system may require medication to prevent rejection of the transplanted heart.

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65. The layer of tissue that contains blood vessels for the regulation of body temperature is the:

Explanation

The dermal layer of tissue contains blood vessels that help regulate body temperature. These blood vessels can dilate or constrict to release or conserve heat, respectively. The dermal layer is located beneath the epidermis and provides support and nourishment to the skin. It also houses other structures such as hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.

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66. Another name of panniculectomy is 

Explanation

Abdominoplasty is another name for panniculectomy. This procedure involves removing excess skin and fat from the abdomen to create a flatter and more toned appearance. It is often done after significant weight loss or pregnancy to address loose skin and weakened abdominal muscles. Lipectomy refers to the surgical removal of fat, mastectomy is the removal of breast tissue, and liposuction is a procedure to remove fat deposits from specific areas of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is abdominoplasty.

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67. The procedure performed to remove excess skin and adipose tissue from the abdominal wall is called a?

Explanation

A panniculectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of excess skin and adipose tissue from the abdominal wall. This procedure is typically performed to address issues such as sagging skin and fat deposits in the lower abdomen. Unlike a tummy tuck, which also involves tightening the underlying muscles, a panniculectomy focuses solely on removing the excess skin and fat. It is commonly done for patients who have lost a significant amount of weight or have excess skin due to pregnancy or aging.

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68. What are 4 chambers of heart?

Explanation

The correct answer is "rt atrium, rt ventrical; lt atrium, lt ventricle". This answer correctly identifies the four chambers of the heart: the right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, which is then pumped into the right ventricle. The right ventricle then pumps the blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. The oxygenated blood is then returned to the left atrium, which pumps it into the left ventricle. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping the oxygenated blood throughout the rest of the body.

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69. Which gauge suture is appropriate for a closing carotid arteriotomy?

Explanation

A carotid arteriotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the carotid artery. The appropriate gauge suture for closing this type of incision would be 6-0. The smaller the number, the thicker the suture, so a 6-0 suture would be thinner than a 3-0, 4-0, or 5-0 suture. Using a thinner suture is important in delicate procedures like this to minimize the risk of damage to the artery and ensure a secure closure.

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70. Which statement is correct regarding the positioning of the patient about to undergo a carotid endarterectomy?

Explanation

The correct answer states that the patient should be placed in the supine position with a roll under the scapula and the head turned away from the operative site. This positioning allows for better exposure and access to the carotid artery during the carotid endarterectomy procedure. Placing a roll under the scapula helps to elevate the shoulder and improve the angle of access to the neck. Turning the head away from the operative site helps to create a clear surgical field and reduce the risk of contamination.

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71. A graft knife is utilized to remove a partial-thickness skin graft. 

Explanation

A graft knife is not utilized to remove a partial-thickness skin graft. Instead, a dermatome or a surgical blade is typically used for this purpose. A graft knife is commonly used for splitting full-thickness skin grafts into thinner layers.

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72. Which vessels must be clamped during a carotid endarterectomy?

Explanation

During a carotid endarterectomy, the external carotid artery must be clamped. This procedure involves the removal of plaque buildup from the carotid artery to improve blood flow to the brain. Clamping the external carotid artery helps to isolate the area where the plaque is located, allowing the surgeon to safely remove it without causing excessive bleeding or damage to surrounding tissues. The subclavian artery, innomiate artery, and brachiiocephalic artery are not typically involved in a carotid endarterectomy procedure.

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73. Device used for aeration, allows graft to stretch, cuts diamond shaped holes in skin

Explanation

A graft mesher is a device used for aeration, stretching the graft, and cutting diamond-shaped holes in the skin. It is specifically designed for the purpose of meshing grafts, which helps in improving the graft's adherence to the recipient site and allows for better fluid drainage. The other options, such as a graft dermatome and power drill, do not serve the same purpose as a graft mesher and are not used for aeration or cutting diamond-shaped holes in the skin.

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74. Which approach would be best for an aortofemoral bypass?

Explanation

The best approach for an aortofemoral bypass would be the anterior abdominal approach. This approach involves accessing the aorta through an incision in the abdomen, allowing for direct access to the aorta and femoral arteries. This approach is commonly used for aortofemoral bypass surgeries as it provides good exposure and allows for easier graft placement. Additionally, it carries a lower risk of complications compared to other approaches such as thoracotomy, median sternotomy, or thoracoabdominal approaches.

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75. The pericardium

Explanation

The pericardium is a sac that surrounds the heart and protects it from external damage. It has two layers, the outer layer called the parietal pericardium and the inner layer called the epicardium. These layers provide additional support and cushioning to the heart, ensuring its proper functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is "all the above."

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76. Which statement is not correct regarding supplies required for peripheral vascular procedures?

Explanation

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77. What statement regarding special needs of patient for peripheral vascular surgery is not correct?

Explanation

Monitors such as arterial lines and Swan Ganz catheters are necessary for patients undergoing peripheral vascular surgery. These monitors provide important information about the patient's blood pressure, cardiac output, and pulmonary artery pressure, which can help guide the surgical team in managing the patient's hemodynamics during the procedure. Therefore, the statement that these monitors are not necessary for the patients is incorrect.

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78. Thoracic and ____ surgery includes procedures of the ___ system and thoracic cavity, excluding those that involve the heart and cardiac vessels

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pulmonary, respiratory." Thoracic and pulmonary surgery refers to procedures performed on the respiratory system and thoracic cavity, excluding those involving the heart and cardiac vessels. This includes surgeries related to the lungs, airways, and other respiratory organs. The term "pulmonary" specifically relates to the lungs, while "respiratory" encompasses the entire respiratory system. Therefore, "Pulmonary, respiratory" accurately describes the surgeries included in this category.

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79. The incision for a femorofemoral bypass is made over the:

Explanation

The incision for a femorofemoral bypass is made over the groin. This is because the femorofemoral bypass involves creating a new pathway for blood to flow from one femoral artery to the other, bypassing a blockage or narrowing in the main artery. The groin area provides easy access to the femoral arteries, which are located in the upper thigh. Making the incision over the groin allows for a direct and efficient approach to the femoral arteries, enabling the surgeon to perform the bypass procedure effectively.

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80. Hemoptysis, suspected tumor infection, lesions, and aspirated foreign bodies are indication for what procedure?

Explanation

Bronchoscopy is the correct answer because it is a procedure used to examine the airways and lungs. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood), suspected tumor infection, lesions, and aspirated foreign bodies are all indications for bronchoscopy. During the procedure, a flexible tube with a light and camera is inserted through the nose or mouth and down into the airways, allowing the doctor to visually inspect and potentially remove any abnormal or foreign objects. Thorascopy with Pleurodesis, Thoracotomy, and VATS are not indicated for these specific conditions.

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81. During a single lung transplant, to be effective in the scrub role, the ST must be ____ about specific procedures and the steps involved in each procedure.

Explanation

To be effective in the scrub role during a single lung transplant, the surgical technologist (ST) needs to be knowledgeable about specific procedures and the steps involved in each procedure. This implies that the ST should have a deep understanding and familiarity with the surgical techniques and protocols related to lung transplantation. This knowledge is essential for the ST to assist the surgeon efficiently and ensure a successful procedure. Being knowledgeable allows the ST to anticipate the surgeon's needs, provide the correct instruments and supplies, and maintain a sterile environment throughout the surgery.

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82. With the patient in the ___ position, it is necessary to position a magnetic instrument pad over the top drape to serve as a neutral zone and to retain any instruments that are placed on the drape.

Explanation

In the lateral position, the patient is lying on their side with one side of their body facing up. This position allows for easy access to the surgical site while minimizing the risk of pressure ulcers and nerve damage. Placing a magnetic instrument pad over the top drape in this position helps to create a neutral zone where instruments can be placed and retained securely during the procedure.

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83. What do you use to clamp the pump line?

Explanation

A pump clamp is used to clamp the pump line. It is a device that securely holds the pump line in place, preventing any leakage or disconnection during the pumping process. This clamp ensures the smooth and uninterrupted flow of fluids through the pump line, maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the pumping system.

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84. Aesthetic surgery is performed to improve appearances, but not necessarily function.

Explanation

Aesthetic surgery, also known as cosmetic surgery, focuses on enhancing a person's physical appearance rather than addressing functional issues. The primary goal of aesthetic surgery is to improve the overall look or symmetry of certain features, such as the face, body, or breasts. It may involve procedures like facelifts, breast augmentation, or liposuction. However, aesthetic surgery does not aim to correct or improve any functional problems or medical conditions. Therefore, the statement that aesthetic surgery is performed to improve appearances, but not necessarily function, is true.

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85. A pacemaker is implanted to provide electrical stimulation to the heart to 

Explanation

A pacemaker is a medical device that is implanted to provide electrical stimulation to the heart. This electrical stimulation helps regulate the heart rate and ensures that it beats at a normal and healthy rhythm. In the case of a slow heart rate, the pacemaker is used to increase the heart rate and bring it back to a normal level. Therefore, the correct answer is "increase a slow heart rate."

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86. During a surgical emergency, ____ is key to a success for outcome for the patient.

Explanation

During a surgical emergency, teamwork is key to a successful outcome for the patient. In a high-pressure situation, effective communication and collaboration among the surgical team members are crucial. Each member of the team plays a vital role in ensuring the smooth execution of the surgery, from the surgeon to the anesthesiologist, nurses, and support staff. By working together cohesively, the team can efficiently coordinate their efforts, anticipate and address any complications or challenges, and ultimately provide the best possible care for the patient.

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87. ______ is the most common incision used for surgical procedures of the heart and great vessels in the thoracic cavity. 

Explanation

The most common incision used for surgical procedures of the heart and great vessels in the thoracic cavity is the median sternotomy. This incision involves making a vertical cut along the midline of the sternum, allowing for direct access to the heart and great vessels. It provides a clear and direct view of the surgical area and allows for easy closure after the procedure. Other incisions mentioned, such as transverse sternotomy, anterolateral thoracotomy, and posterolateral thoracotomy, are less commonly used for these types of procedures.

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88. The intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels is knows as

Explanation

Angioscopy is the correct answer because it refers to the intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels. Angiography is a different procedure that involves the use of X-rays and contrast dye to visualize blood vessels. Angioplasty is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels. Arthrectomy is the surgical removal of plaque or clots from an artery. Therefore, angioscopy is the most appropriate term for the given description.

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89. Which artery is one of the 3 major branches of the aortic arch?

Explanation

The brachiocephalic artery is one of the three major branches of the aortic arch. It is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the right arm, right side of the head, and neck. This artery then divides into the right common carotid artery and the right subclavian artery, which further supply blood to various parts of the body.

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90. Intraluminal stents can be made of all the following materials except:

Explanation

Intraluminal stents are typically made of materials that are compatible with the human body and provide sufficient support. Titanium is a commonly used material for stents due to its biocompatibility, strength, and resistance to corrosion. Polypropylene, Polygalactin 910, and PTFE are also materials that can be used for stents. Therefore, the correct answer is Titanium, as it is not excluded from the list of possible materials for intraluminal stents.

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91. Which statement is correct regarding the suture for peripheral vascular surgery?

Explanation

Before tying polypropylene sutures, it is recommended for the surgeon's hands to be wet. This is because wetting the hands helps to reduce friction between the suture material and the surgeon's hands, making it easier to tie the knots securely. Wet hands also help to prevent the suture from slipping or loosening after it has been tied.

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92. The generalized disease that involves the formation of an atheroma within the lumen of an artery causing restricted blood flow is known as:

Explanation

Arteriosclerosis obliterans is the correct answer because it refers to the generalized disease that involves the formation of an atheroma within the lumen of an artery, leading to restricted blood flow. This condition is characterized by the thickening and hardening of the arterial walls, resulting in reduced blood supply to the affected area. Arterial embolism refers to the blockage of an artery by an embolus, while "Caludiction" and "Patency" are not recognized medical terms.

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93. The incision for an abdominal aortic aneurysm is made between which 2 landmarks?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Between the manubrium to the pubis." The manubrium is the upper part of the sternum, and the pubis is the lower part of the pelvis. Making the incision between these two landmarks allows for access to the abdominal aorta, which is located in the middle of the abdomen. This incision provides a direct route to the site of the abdominal aortic aneurysm for repair or treatment.

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A tissue graft in which the donor and the recipient are the same...
Match the following
Which self-retaining retractor is used during aortofemoral bypass...
The folding of tissue and securing it in place surgically is called
Xenograft is a skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion...
Cardioplegia solution is used to
The surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to...
Skin grafts that consist of the epidermis and a portion of the...
Which layer contains follicles, sweat glands and nerve fibers?
A closed system of blood vessels that transports blood away from the...
Photo damage is damage to the skin caused by ultraviolet light 
The "Rule of nines" refers to what?
______ is the drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure 
After exposure of the femoral artery, the surgeon will want to ____...
With which instrument is an arrteriotomy initiated?
Microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and wastes between...
Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel?
Which is the longest vein in the body?
Anticoagulant given for antagonistic effect on heparin is 
The skin is also called the ________ system.
What sharp instrument is utilized to dissect fine tissues for plastic...
A medical device used for removing single thickness skin grafts is...
Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure
Coronary arteries arise form the 
Which arteries supply the upper portion of the digestive tract,...
Mentoplasty is augmentation of 
Match the following
A substance that prevents blood from clotting is called a(n):
A blood clot, air, or organic material that is free flowing in the...
Antibiotic beads can be used to treat deep open wound infections such...
A wound vac is often used to?
In laser resurfacing, wet towels are placed around the surgical site...
Grafts that are raised from the donor site but are not severed free...
Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein...
A biological graft composed of different types of tissue such as skin...
A surgical procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and...
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a dermatome?
The skin is composed of how many layers?
Which medicine is always added to injectable saline for use of...
The innermost layer of the heart is called the 
The primary purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to 
The x-ray shown is diagnosing what type of condition?
A rhytidectomy is?
The color of arteries are:
A Fogarty balloon catheter is used for a(n):
During a lower lid blepharoplasty, initial incision is made
Abdominal aorta bifurcates into the:
During vascular surgery, pledgets are used to:
When performing a breast augmentation with an implant, surgeon creates...
During the removal of superficial lesion the skin edges are retracted...
During an open brow lift a ____ is used to elevate the periosteum off...
What safety patient equipment is utilized that is positioned to avoid...
Hemostasis can best be defined as:
A reduction in the patient's total blood volume is called:
Which of the following techniques protects the heart on...
When performing an otoplasty, the incision is made in the _____...
What is true regarding a thoracoscopy?
On discussion of training what is purposed of wound debridement?
Clear ___ is the pivot point of team efforts in an emergency.
For the lungs to expand, negative pressure must be restored which is...
Lower than normal blood pH is what condition?
Tachycardia is fast heart rate, usually more than ____ beats per...
The compensatory mechanisms in acute injury can lead to the condition...
Orthotropic transplantation
The layer of tissue that contains blood vessels for the regulation of...
Another name of panniculectomy is 
The procedure performed to remove excess skin and adipose tissue from...
What are 4 chambers of heart?
Which gauge suture is appropriate for a closing carotid arteriotomy?
Which statement is correct regarding the positioning of the patient...
A graft knife is utilized to remove a partial-thickness skin...
Which vessels must be clamped during a carotid endarterectomy?
Device used for aeration, allows graft to stretch, cuts diamond shaped...
Which approach would be best for an aortofemoral bypass?
The pericardium
Which statement is not correct regarding supplies required for...
What statement regarding special needs of patient for peripheral...
Thoracic and ____ surgery includes procedures of the ___ system and...
The incision for a femorofemoral bypass is made over the:
Hemoptysis, suspected tumor infection, lesions, and aspirated foreign...
During a single lung transplant, to be effective in the scrub role,...
With the patient in the ___ position, it is necessary to position a...
What do you use to clamp the pump line?
Aesthetic surgery is performed to improve appearances, but not...
A pacemaker is implanted to provide electrical stimulation to the...
During a surgical emergency, ____ is key to a success for outcome for...
______ is the most common incision used for surgical procedures of the...
The intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels is...
Which artery is one of the 3 major branches of the aortic arch?
Intraluminal stents can be made of all the following materials except:
Which statement is correct regarding the suture for peripheral...
The generalized disease that involves the formation of an atheroma...
The incision for an abdominal aortic aneurysm is made between which 2...
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