Quiz On Transplantation Of Tissue

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Ashley
A
Ashley
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 400
| Attempts: 179
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/93 Questions

    A tissue graft in which the donor and the recipient are the same species is called

    • Autograft
    • Allograft
    • Composite graft
    • Implant
Please wait...
Quiz On Transplantation Of Tissue - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz explores key concepts in tissue transplantation, including types of grafts and surgical techniques. It assesses understanding of terms like allograft, xenograft, and procedures like panniculectomy, enhancing knowledge relevant for medical professionals.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    The folding of tissue and securing it in place surgically is called

    • Eschar

    • Hypertrophic scar

    • Autograft

    • Plication

    Correct Answer
    A. Plication
    Explanation
    Plication refers to the surgical technique of folding and securing tissue in place. This procedure is commonly used to reduce the size or tighten a specific area of tissue. It involves folding the tissue over itself and then suturing or securing it in place. Plication can be performed on various types of tissue, such as muscles, skin, or organs, depending on the specific surgical need. This technique is often used in plastic surgery, urology, and general surgery to achieve desired outcomes.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Xenograft is a skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A xenograft is a type of skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. However, the given statement is false.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    The surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual is called

    • Autograft

    • Biosynthetic

    • Allograft

    • Platoon

    Correct Answer
    A. Autograft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is autograft. Autograft refers to the surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual. This procedure is commonly used in various medical fields, such as plastic surgery and orthopedics, to repair or replace damaged or lost tissue. Autografts are preferred over other options like allografts (tissue from another individual) or biosynthetic materials because they have a lower risk of rejection and better long-term outcomes. Platoon and biosynthetic are unrelated terms and not relevant to the context of tissue transplantation.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Photo damage is damage to the skin caused by ultraviolet light 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Photo damage refers to the damage caused to the skin as a result of exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light. UV light from the sun can cause various harmful effects on the skin, such as sunburn, premature aging, wrinkles, dark spots, and an increased risk of skin cancer. Therefore, it is true that photo damage is indeed caused by ultraviolet light.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    ______ is the drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure 

    • Ptosis

    • Undermine

    • Uptosis

    • Biosynthetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Ptosis
    Explanation
    Ptosis is the correct answer because it refers to the drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure. It is commonly used to describe the drooping of the eyelid, but can also be used to describe the drooping of other body parts or organs. The term "ptosis" is derived from the Greek word meaning "fall" or "falling." It is often caused by weakened or stretched muscles or tissues that are unable to properly support the structure, resulting in the characteristic drooping appearance.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    The skin is also called the ________ system.

    • Integumentary

    • Immune

    • Circulatory

    • Superficial

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Integumentary
    Explanation
    The skin is referred to as the integumentary system. This system includes the skin, hair, nails, and various glands. It serves as a protective barrier for the body, regulating body temperature, preventing water loss, and acting as a sensory organ. The integumentary system also plays a role in immune defense by housing immune cells and producing antimicrobial substances.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    What sharp instrument is utilized to dissect fine tissues for plastic surgery?

    • Tenotomy scissors

    • Bandage scissors

    • Mayo scissors

    • Long Meztenbaum scissors

    Correct Answer
    A. Tenotomy scissors
    Explanation
    Tenotomy scissors are commonly used in plastic surgery to dissect fine tissues. These scissors have a delicate, slender design with sharp, pointed blades that allow for precise cutting of tissues. They are specifically designed for delicate procedures such as plastic surgery, where fine tissues need to be dissected with accuracy and minimal damage. Tenotomy scissors are often used to create precise incisions and separate tissues during procedures like facelifts, rhinoplasty, and eyelid surgery. Their sharp blades and fine tips make them an ideal instrument for achieving optimal surgical outcomes in plastic surgery.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    A medical device used for removing single thickness skin grafts is called

    • Dermatome

    • Mesher

    • Debrider

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Dermatome
    Explanation
    A dermatome is a medical device specifically designed for removing single thickness skin grafts. It is used in surgical procedures to precisely cut thin layers of skin from a donor site for transplantation onto another area of the body. The other options, mesher and debrider, are not used for the same purpose as a dermatome.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Mentoplasty is augmentation of 

    • Cheeks

    • Forehead

    • Lips

    • Chin

    Correct Answer
    A. Chin
    Explanation
    Mentoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves the augmentation or reshaping of the chin. This procedure is performed to enhance the appearance of the chin by making it more proportionate to the rest of the facial features. It can involve adding an implant to increase the size of the chin or reshaping the existing bone to achieve the desired outcome. Mentoplasty is not related to the augmentation of cheeks, forehead, or lips, making "chin" the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Skin grafts that consist of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis are called _____ grafts?

    • Pedicle

    • Split-thickness

    • Full-thickness

    • Composite

    Correct Answer
    A. Split-thickness
    Explanation
    Split-thickness grafts consist of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis. This type of graft is commonly used in skin transplantation procedures, as it allows for faster healing and reduces the risk of complications compared to full-thickness grafts. Split-thickness grafts are typically harvested from the donor site using a dermatome, and they can be meshed to cover a larger area. Overall, split-thickness grafts provide a good balance between graft survival and functional and cosmetic outcomes.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Which layer contains follicles, sweat glands and nerve fibers?

    • Dermis

    • Epidermis

    • Subcutaneous layer

    • Cutaneous layer

    Correct Answer
    A. Dermis
    Explanation
    The dermis is the correct answer because it is the layer of skin that contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve fibers. The dermis is located beneath the epidermis, which is the outermost layer of the skin. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, is below the dermis and consists of fat cells. The term "cutaneous layer" is not commonly used to refer to a specific layer of the skin.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    The "Rule of nines" refers to what?

    • A way to assess the body surface area affected by burns

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. A way to assess the body surface area affected by burns
    Explanation
    The "Rule of nines" is a method used to estimate the percentage of body surface area that has been affected by burns. It divides the body into regions that represent 9% or multiples of 9% of the total body surface area. This rule helps healthcare professionals quickly assess the severity and extent of burn injuries, which is crucial for determining treatment plans and predicting outcomes.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Anticoagulant given for antagonistic effect on heparin is 

    • Dicumarol

    • Coumadin sodium

    • Protamine sulfate

    • Dipaxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Protamine sulfate
    Explanation
    Protamine sulfate is given as an antagonist to heparin because it has the ability to neutralize the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Heparin is commonly used as an anticoagulant medication to prevent blood clotting, but in some cases, it may need to be reversed quickly. Protamine sulfate works by binding to heparin molecules and forming a stable complex, thereby preventing heparin from exerting its anticoagulant effects. This makes protamine sulfate an effective option for reversing the effects of heparin in situations where it is necessary to restore normal blood clotting.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure

    • Bronchoscopy

    • Mediastinoscopy

    • Thorascopy

    • Anterior mediastinoscopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchoscopy
    Explanation
    Bronchoscopy is not considered a sterile procedure because it involves the insertion of a bronchoscope into the airways to visualize and diagnose conditions such as lung infections or tumors. While precautions are taken to minimize the risk of infection, the procedure does not require a completely sterile environment like the other options listed. Mediastinoscopy, thoracoscopy, and anterior mediastinoscopy are all invasive procedures that require a sterile environment to prevent the introduction of pathogens into the body.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Coronary arteries arise form the 

    • Aorta

    • Vena cava

    • Left ventricle

    • Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta
    Explanation
    Coronary arteries are the blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. They arise from the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The aorta is responsible for delivering oxygenated blood to the coronary arteries, allowing them to supply the heart with the necessary nutrients and oxygen for proper functioning.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    A substance that prevents blood from clotting is called a(n):

    • Anticoagulant

    • Coagulant

    • Serum

    • Antibody

    Correct Answer
    A. Anticoagulant
    Explanation
    An anticoagulant is a substance that inhibits the formation of blood clots. It works by interfering with the blood clotting process, preventing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which is necessary for clot formation. This helps to prevent the formation of dangerous blood clots that can block blood vessels and lead to serious medical conditions such as deep vein thrombosis or stroke. Therefore, anticoagulants are commonly used in medical treatments to prevent clotting in patients with certain conditions or during surgeries.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Cardioplegia solution is used to

    • Stop the heart's pumping action

    • Reverse effect of heparin

    • Prevent blood clots

    • Treat ventricular arrhythmias

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the heart's pumping action
    Explanation
    Cardioplegia solution is used to stop the heart's pumping action during cardiac surgery. It is a specialized solution that is infused into the heart to induce a temporary state of cardiac arrest. This allows the surgeon to perform delicate procedures on the heart without the interference of the heart's natural pumping action. Once the surgery is complete, the cardioplegia solution is removed and the heart is restarted, resuming its normal pumping function.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    A closed system of blood vessels that transports blood away from the heart to the body's tissue and back to the heart refers to the 

    • Arterial system

    • Peripheral vascular system

    • Pulmonary vascular system

    • Venous system

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral vascular system
    Explanation
    The peripheral vascular system refers to the closed system of blood vessels that transport blood away from the heart to the body's tissues and back to the heart. This system includes the arteries, which carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the tissues, and the veins, which carry deoxygenated blood from the tissues back to the heart. The peripheral vascular system is responsible for delivering nutrients and oxygen to the tissues and removing waste products.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    After exposure of the femoral artery, the surgeon will want to ____ the artery and will ask for a _____

    • Isolate, right angle

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate, right angle
    Explanation
    After exposure of the femoral artery, the surgeon will want to isolate the artery and will ask for a right angle. A right angle is a surgical instrument that is commonly used to clamp or occlude blood vessels during surgical procedures. By isolating the femoral artery with a right angle, the surgeon can control the blood flow and prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    With which instrument is an arrteriotomy initiated?

    • #11 blade on a #7 handle

    • Metz scissors

    • Pott scissors

    • Tentomy scissors

    Correct Answer
    A. #11 blade on a #7 handle
    Explanation
    An arteriotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in an artery. The most common instrument used to initiate an arteriotomy is a #11 blade on a #7 handle. This combination provides a sharp and precise cutting edge, allowing the surgeon to make a clean incision in the artery. Metz scissors, pott scissors, and tentomy scissors are not typically used for initiating an arteriotomy.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and wastes between blood and tissue fluid around the cells are known as 

    • Capillaries

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Capillaries
    Explanation
    Capillaries are microscopic vessels that are responsible for exchanging nutrients and wastes between the blood and the tissue fluid around the cells. They have thin walls that allow for the exchange of substances such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nutrients. Capillaries are found throughout the body and are essential for maintaining proper functioning of tissues and organs.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel?

    • Taper

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Taper
    Explanation
    A taper needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel because it has a sharp point that allows for precise and controlled penetration of the vessel walls. The taper shape of the needle also helps in creating a secure and tight closure, minimizing the risk of bleeding or leakage. Additionally, the taper needle is designed to minimize tissue trauma and ensure smooth passage through the vessel, making it an ideal choice for this procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which arteries supply the upper portion of the digestive tract, spleen, and the liver?

    • Celiac

    • Gonad

    • Phrenic

    • Superior mesenteric

    Correct Answer
    A. Celiac
    Explanation
    The celiac artery is responsible for supplying blood to the upper portion of the digestive tract, including the stomach, liver, spleen, and parts of the pancreas. It is a major branch of the abdominal aorta and plays a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to these organs. The other options mentioned, such as the gonad artery, phrenic artery, and superior mesenteric artery, do not supply blood to the specific organs mentioned in the question.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which is the longest vein in the body?

    • Cephalic

    • Greater saphenous

    • Jugular

    • Superior vena cavae

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater saphenous
    Explanation
    The greater saphenous vein is the longest vein in the body. It is located in the lower limb and runs from the foot all the way up to the groin. This vein is responsible for draining blood from the superficial tissues of the leg and thigh and transporting it back to the heart. It is commonly used in medical procedures such as bypass surgeries and vein grafts due to its length and accessibility.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    A blood clot, air, or organic material that is free flowing in the vascular system is known as:

    • Thrombus

    • Emboli

    • Infarction

    • Ischemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Emboli
    Explanation
    An emboli is a blood clot, air bubble, or organic material that is moving freely within the blood vessels. It can cause blockages in smaller blood vessels, leading to tissue damage or even death if it reaches a vital organ. Thrombus refers to a blood clot that forms and remains stationary within a blood vessel. Infarction is the death of tissue due to lack of blood supply, while ischemia refers to reduced blood flow to a specific area.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Which self-retaining retractor is used during aortofemoral bypass procedure?

    • Weitlaner

    • Gelpi

    • Omni

    • Bookwalter

    Correct Answer
    A. Weitlaner
    Explanation
    The Weitlaner self-retaining retractor is commonly used during aortofemoral bypass procedures. This retractor has sharp, curved prongs that can be adjusted to different angles and positions, allowing for optimal exposure and access to the surgical site. The prongs are self-retaining, meaning they can hold the tissue and maintain the desired position without the need for constant manual holding by the surgical team. This retractor is a popular choice for aortofemoral bypass procedures due to its versatility and effectiveness in providing clear visualization and access to the operative field.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Antibiotic beads can be used to treat deep open wound infections such as osteomyelitis.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Antibiotic beads are small, biodegradable devices that are impregnated with antibiotics. They can be placed directly into deep open wounds, such as those caused by osteomyelitis, a bone infection. The beads slowly release antibiotics over time, providing a localized and sustained delivery of the medication to the infected area. This targeted approach helps to effectively combat the infection and promote healing. Therefore, the statement that antibiotic beads can be used to treat deep open wound infections such as osteomyelitis is true.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    A biological graft composed of different types of tissue such as skin and muscle is called

    • Synthetic graft

    • Composite graft

    • Autograft

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Composite graft
    Explanation
    A composite graft is a biological graft composed of different types of tissue such as skin and muscle. Unlike a synthetic graft, which is man-made, a composite graft is made up of natural tissues. An autograft, on the other hand, refers to a graft taken from one part of the patient's body and transplanted to another part. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is composite graft.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    A surgical procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and cut into quadrants before frozen section is called

    • Escharotomy

    • Fasciotomy

    • Moh's surgery

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Moh's surgery
    Explanation
    Moh's surgery is a surgical procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and cut into quadrants before frozen section. This technique allows for the precise removal of cancerous cells while sparing healthy tissue. It is commonly used for skin cancers, particularly those on the face and other sensitive areas where tissue preservation is crucial. Moh's surgery involves the removal of thin layers of tissue, which are immediately examined under a microscope to ensure complete removal of cancer cells. This process is repeated until no cancer cells are detected, resulting in a higher cure rate and minimal damage to surrounding healthy tissue.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    The skin is composed of how many layers?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The skin is composed of three layers: the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. The epidermis is the outermost layer and provides protection, the dermis is the middle layer and contains blood vessels, nerves, and hair follicles, and the subcutaneous tissue is the innermost layer and contains fat cells. These layers work together to protect the body, regulate temperature, and provide sensation.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    A rhytidectomy is?

    • Scar revision

    • Face lift

    • Breast enhancement

    • Nose job

    Correct Answer
    A. Face lift
    Explanation
    A rhytidectomy, also known as a face lift, is a surgical procedure performed to tighten and remove excess skin on the face and neck. It helps to reduce the appearance of wrinkles, sagging skin, and other signs of aging, resulting in a more youthful and rejuvenated appearance. This procedure does not involve scar revision, breast enhancement, or a nose job.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    During a lower lid blepharoplasty, initial incision is made

    • Subciliary region

    • Supraciliary

    • Cornea of eye

    • Canthi of eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Subciliary region
    Explanation
    During a lower lid blepharoplasty, the initial incision is made in the subciliary region. This is the area located just below the lower eyelashes. Making the incision in this region allows the surgeon to access the underlying tissues and remove any excess skin or fat that may be causing drooping or puffiness in the lower eyelids. By placing the incision in the subciliary region, the resulting scar will be well hidden within the natural creases of the lower eyelid, providing a more aesthetically pleasing outcome for the patient.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    When performing a breast augmentation with an implant, surgeon creates a pocket under the 

    • Pectoralis minor

    • Pectoralis major

    • Trapezius

    • Rectus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pectoralis major
    Explanation
    When performing a breast augmentation with an implant, the surgeon creates a pocket under the pectoralis major muscle. This muscle is located in the chest area and is commonly used in breast augmentation surgeries because it provides good coverage for the implant, resulting in a more natural-looking outcome. Placing the implant under the pectoralis major muscle also helps to minimize the risk of complications such as implant visibility or rippling.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    During the removal of superficial lesion the skin edges are retracted with:

    • Army navy retractor

    • Beckman self retaining retractor

    • Double/single prong skin hook

    • Gelpi self-retaining retractor

    Correct Answer
    A. Double/single prong skin hook
    Explanation
    During the removal of a superficial lesion, the skin edges need to be retracted to provide better visibility and access to the lesion. This can be achieved using various instruments. One such instrument is the double/single prong skin hook. It has prongs that can be inserted into the skin to hold and retract the edges, allowing the surgeon to perform the procedure effectively. The other options mentioned, such as the army navy retractor, beckman self-retaining retractor, and gelpi self-retaining retractor, are also commonly used for retraction in different surgical procedures, but they may not be specifically designed for superficial lesion removal.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    During an open brow lift a ____ is used to elevate the periosteum off the cranium to the level of superior orbital rim

    • Rigid cannulas

    • Periosteal elevator

    • Smith curette

    • Pituitary

    Correct Answer
    A. Periosteal elevator
    Explanation
    During an open brow lift procedure, a periosteal elevator is used to lift the periosteum (the thin layer of connective tissue covering the bone) off the cranium, bringing it to the level of the superior orbital rim. This instrument allows the surgeon to create the necessary space and access to perform the lift effectively. Rigid cannulas, Smith curette, and pituitary are not typically used for this purpose, making the periosteal elevator the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    When performing an otoplasty, the incision is made in the _____ area. 

    • Lower jaw

    • Temporal

    • Postauricular

    • Preauricular

    Correct Answer
    A. Postauricular
    Explanation
    In an otoplasty, the procedure involves reshaping the ears to improve their appearance or position. The correct answer, postauricular, refers to the area behind the ear. This is where the incision is typically made during the surgery. By making the incision in the postauricular area, the surgeon can access the cartilage of the ear and make the necessary adjustments to achieve the desired results.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    In laser resurfacing, wet towels are placed around the surgical site to _____.

    • Reduce the risk of igniting the alcohol prep

    • Reduce the risk of thermal damage to other tissue

    • Protect the patient from possible retinal damage

    • Protect the ST from the heat of the laser

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the risk of thermal damage to other tissue
    Explanation
    Wet towels are placed around the surgical site in laser resurfacing to reduce the risk of thermal damage to other tissue. The wet towels act as a barrier between the laser and the surrounding tissue, helping to dissipate heat and prevent it from spreading to areas beyond the intended treatment site. This helps to protect the surrounding healthy tissue from potential damage caused by the heat generated by the laser during the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    Grafts that are raised from the donor site but are not severed free are called _____ grafts. 

    • Pedicle

    • Free

    • Progressive

    • Split-thickness

    Correct Answer
    A. Pedicle
    Explanation
    Grafts that are raised from the donor site but are not severed free are called pedicle grafts. In this type of graft, the tissue remains attached to its blood supply and is transferred to the recipient site while still connected to the donor site. This allows for a greater chance of successful graft survival as the blood supply is maintained.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a dermatome?

    • Multiple single use blades may be required for multiple grafts

    • A dermatome can be powered by electricity or nitrogen

    • A dermatome blade can be safely loaded while the dermatome is connected to power

    • The dermatome can be adjusted to fit different widths and thicknesses

    Correct Answer
    A. A dermatome blade can be safely loaded while the dermatome is connected to power
    Explanation
    A dermatome blade should not be loaded while the dermatome is connected to power because it can cause injury or damage to the blade or the dermatome itself. Loading the blade should only be done when the dermatome is disconnected from power to ensure safety.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    The innermost layer of the heart is called the 

    • Epicardium

    • Endocardium

    • Visceral pericardium

    • Both A & C

    Correct Answer
    A. Endocardium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is endocardium. The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart. It is a smooth, thin layer that lines the chambers of the heart and covers the heart valves. It consists of endothelial cells and connective tissue. The endocardium helps to prevent blood clotting and provides a smooth surface for blood flow through the heart. The epicardium, on the other hand, is the outermost layer of the heart, and the visceral pericardium is the inner layer of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    The color of arteries are:

    • Purple

    • Dark red

    • Blue

    • Bright red

    Correct Answer
    A. Bright red
    Explanation
    Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the rest of the body. The bright red color of arteries is due to the fact that they contain oxygen-rich blood. Oxygenated blood appears bright red because it contains a high concentration of oxygen-bound hemoglobin, which gives it a vibrant red color.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    Abdominal aorta bifurcates into the:

    • Pulmonary arteries

    • Femoral arteries

    • Right and left common iliac arteries

    • Internal and external iliac arteries

    Correct Answer
    A. Right and left common iliac arteries
    Explanation
    The abdominal aorta is the largest artery in the abdominal cavity. It supplies oxygenated blood to the lower limbs and organs in the abdominal and pelvic regions. After descending through the abdomen, the abdominal aorta bifurcates (divides) into two branches known as the right and left common iliac arteries. These arteries further divide into internal and external iliac arteries, which supply blood to the pelvis, hips, and lower limbs. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs, while the femoral arteries supply blood to the thighs.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Hemostasis can best be defined as:

    • Preventing or delaying the formation of blood clots

    • Stopping the bleeding

    • The state of chemical balance between the cell and its environment

    • Conduction of electricity by means of ions

    Correct Answer
    A. Stopping the bleeding
    Explanation
    Hemostasis refers to the process of stopping bleeding. It involves a series of complex mechanisms that work together to prevent excessive blood loss from damaged blood vessels. This includes the constriction of blood vessels, formation of platelet plugs, and blood clotting. By stopping the bleeding, hemostasis helps maintain the integrity of the circulatory system and prevents further harm to the body.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    Which of the following techniques protects the heart on cardiopulmonary bypass form damage?

    • Hyperthermia

    • Hypothermia

    • Tachycardia

    • Bradicardia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothermia
    Explanation
    Hypothermia is the correct answer because it is a technique used during cardiopulmonary bypass to protect the heart from damage. By lowering the body temperature, the heart's metabolic demands are reduced, which can help prevent injury and improve outcomes. Hypothermia slows down the heart rate and decreases oxygen consumption, allowing the heart to tolerate the temporary halt of blood flow during bypass surgery. This technique has been shown to be effective in minimizing heart damage and preserving cardiac function.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?

    • 9-0 or 10-0 polypropylene

    • 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene

    • 6-0 or 7-0 chromic gut

    • 2-0 or 7-0 PDS

    Correct Answer
    A. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
    Explanation
    6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG. Polypropylene is a non-absorbable synthetic suture material that provides good tensile strength and durability, making it suitable for vascular anastomosis. The smaller size (6-0 or 7-0) is chosen to minimize trauma to the vessels and ensure a secure and leak-proof anastomosis.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    The primary purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to 

    • Exercise an aneurysm and reconstruct with a synthetic graft

    • Restore blood flow to lower limb

    • Eliminate excess plague from the femoral artery

    • Remove an artheroma from the popliteal vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore blood flow to lower limb
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to restore blood flow to the lower limb. This procedure is typically performed when there is a blockage or narrowing in the femoral artery or popliteal artery, which can lead to reduced blood flow and potentially cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, or ulcers in the leg. By creating a bypass using a synthetic graft, blood flow can be rerouted around the blockage, restoring circulation to the lower limb and alleviating symptoms.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    Which medicine is always added to injectable saline for use of intra-arterial irrigation?

    • Epinephrine

    • Heparin

    • Protamine

    • Xylocaine

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is always added to injectable saline for use of intra-arterial irrigation. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent blood clots from forming in the arteries. When used in intra-arterial irrigation, heparin helps to maintain the patency of the arteries and prevent clot formation during procedures such as angiography or arterial catheterization. This is important to ensure proper blood flow and avoid complications like blockages or embolisms. Therefore, heparin is the medicine of choice for this purpose.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    The x-ray shown is diagnosing what type of condition?

    • Hemothorax

    • Pneumothorax

    • Pleuritis

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemothorax
    Explanation
    The x-ray shown is diagnosing a condition called hemothorax. Hemothorax is a condition where blood accumulates in the pleural cavity, the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This can occur due to trauma, such as a chest injury or a ruptured blood vessel. The accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity can cause symptoms such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, and decreased lung function. Treatment for hemothorax may involve draining the blood from the pleural cavity and addressing the underlying cause of the bleeding.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 07, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Ashley
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.