Pt/Ot Haad Simulation Exam 4

1. A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital attempts to identify a standardized instrument that measures level of consciousness. The MOST appropriate standardized instrument is the:

Glasgow Coma Scale

Modified Rankin Scale

Barthel Index

Sickness Impact Profile

The Glasgow Coma Scale is the most appropriate standardized instrument for measuring the level of consciousness. It is widely used in acute care settings and provides a reliable and objective assessment of a patient's level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response. The Modified Rankin Scale is used to assess a patient's level of disability after a stroke, while the Barthel Index measures a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living. The Sickness Impact Profile assesses the impact of illness on a patient's daily life.

Explanation

The Glasgow Coma Scale is the most appropriate standardized instrument for measuring the level of consciousness. It is widely used in acute care settings and provides a reliable and objective assessment of a patient's level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response. The Modified Rankin Scale is used to assess a patient's level of disability after a stroke, while the Barthel Index measures a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living. The Sickness Impact Profile assesses the impact of illness on a patient's daily life.

2. A physical therapist notices a small area of skin irritation under the chin of a patient wearing a Philadelphia collar. The patient expresses that the area is not painful, but is becoming increasingly itchy. The MOST appropriate therapist action is:

Instruct the patient to apply 1% hydrocortisone cream to the area twice daily

Apply powder to the area and instruct the patient to avoid scratching

Provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis

Discontinue use of the orthosis until the skin has become less irritated

The most appropriate therapist action in this situation is to provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis. This action addresses the issue of skin irritation by creating a protective layer between the patient's skin and the collar, preventing further irritation and allowing the skin to heal. It is a proactive approach that does not involve medication or discontinuing the use of the orthosis, which may be necessary for the patient's condition.

Explanation

The most appropriate therapist action in this situation is to provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis. This action addresses the issue of skin irritation by creating a protective layer between the patient's skin and the collar, preventing further irritation and allowing the skin to heal. It is a proactive approach that does not involve medication or discontinuing the use of the orthosis, which may be necessary for the patient's condition.

3. A patient four weeks status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction questions a physical therapist as to why he is still partial weight bearing. An acceptable rationale is:

The patient does not have full active knee extension

The patient has good quadriceps strength

The patient has fair hamstrings strength

The patient has diminished superficial cutaneous sensation

The patient not having full active knee extension can be an acceptable rationale for why he is still partial weight bearing four weeks post ACL reconstruction. Full active knee extension is important for weight bearing and normal gait mechanics. If the patient is unable to fully extend the knee, it may indicate that the knee is not stable or strong enough to bear full weight yet. This could be due to factors such as swelling, pain, or muscle weakness. Therefore, it is reasonable to continue with partial weight bearing until full active knee extension is achieved.

Explanation

The patient not having full active knee extension can be an acceptable rationale for why he is still partial weight bearing four weeks post ACL reconstruction. Full active knee extension is important for weight bearing and normal gait mechanics. If the patient is unable to fully extend the knee, it may indicate that the knee is not stable or strong enough to bear full weight yet. This could be due to factors such as swelling, pain, or muscle weakness. Therefore, it is reasonable to continue with partial weight bearing until full active knee extension is achieved.

4. Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is known as........

Substance Use

Substance Abuse

Substance Neglect

Withdrawal

Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is referred to as substance use. This means that the individual is using the medication as intended, following the instructions provided on the label. Substance abuse, on the other hand, refers to the misuse or excessive use of a substance, while substance neglect refers to the failure to use a substance as prescribed. Withdrawal, on the other hand, is the set of symptoms that occur when a person stops using a substance abruptly after prolonged use.

Explanation

Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is referred to as substance use. This means that the individual is using the medication as intended, following the instructions provided on the label. Substance abuse, on the other hand, refers to the misuse or excessive use of a substance, while substance neglect refers to the failure to use a substance as prescribed. Withdrawal, on the other hand, is the set of symptoms that occur when a person stops using a substance abruptly after prolonged use.

5. A patient rehabilitating from a total hip arthroplasty receives home physical therapy services. The patient is currently full weight bearing and is able to ascend and descend stairs independently. The patient expresses that her goal following rehabilitation is to walk one mile each day. The MOST appropriate plan to accomplish the patient's goal is to:

Continue home physical therapy services until the patient's goal is attained

Refer the patient to an outpatient orthopedic physical therapy clinic

Design a home exercise program that emphasizes progressive ambulation

Admit the patient to a rehabilitation hospital

The most appropriate plan to accomplish the patient's goal of walking one mile each day is to design a home exercise program that emphasizes progressive ambulation. This approach allows the patient to continue receiving physical therapy services at home while gradually increasing their walking distance. It is a more cost-effective and convenient option compared to continuing home physical therapy services indefinitely or referring the patient to an outpatient clinic. Admitting the patient to a rehabilitation hospital is not necessary as they are already full weight bearing and able to perform stairs independently.

Explanation

The most appropriate plan to accomplish the patient's goal of walking one mile each day is to design a home exercise program that emphasizes progressive ambulation. This approach allows the patient to continue receiving physical therapy services at home while gradually increasing their walking distance. It is a more cost-effective and convenient option compared to continuing home physical therapy services indefinitely or referring the patient to an outpatient clinic. Admitting the patient to a rehabilitation hospital is not necessary as they are already full weight bearing and able to perform stairs independently.

6. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient with a spinal cord injury. A note recently entered by the physician indicates that the patient contracted a respiratory Infection. Which patient would be MOST susceptible to this condition?

A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia

A patient with a cauda equina lesion

A patient with Brown-Sequard's syndrome

A patient with posterior cord syndrome

A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia would be most susceptible to a respiratory infection because the injury at the C4 level affects the function of the diaphragm and the muscles involved in breathing. This can lead to impaired respiratory function and difficulty clearing secretions from the lungs, making the patient more vulnerable to respiratory infections.

Explanation

A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia would be most susceptible to a respiratory infection because the injury at the C4 level affects the function of the diaphragm and the muscles involved in breathing. This can lead to impaired respiratory function and difficulty clearing secretions from the lungs, making the patient more vulnerable to respiratory infections.

7. A physical therapist asks a patient who has been inconsistent with his attendance in physical therapy, why he is having difficulty keeping scheduled appointments. The patient responds that it is difficult to understand the scheduling card that lists the appointments. The therapist's MOST appropriate action would be to:

Contact the referring physician to discuss the patient's poor attendance in therapy

Make sure the patient Is given a scheduling card atthe conclusion of each session

Write down the patients appoinlbments on a piece of paper in a manner that the

Patient can understand discharge the patient from physical therapy

patient can understand

Explanation

patient can understand

8. A physical therapist examines a patient with a limited straight leg raise of 40 degrees due to inadequate hamstrings length. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the MOST appropriate to increase the patient's hamstrings length?

Contract-relax

Rhythmic initiation

Rhythmic stabilization

Rhythmic rotation

The contract-relax technique would be the most appropriate to increase the patient's hamstrings length. This technique involves contracting the muscle being stretched for a few seconds and then relaxing it, which can help to increase the muscle's length and flexibility. In this case, by contracting and then relaxing the hamstrings, the physical therapist can help to improve the patient's straight leg raise and increase their hamstrings length.

Explanation

The contract-relax technique would be the most appropriate to increase the patient's hamstrings length. This technique involves contracting the muscle being stretched for a few seconds and then relaxing it, which can help to increase the muscle's length and flexibility. In this case, by contracting and then relaxing the hamstrings, the physical therapist can help to improve the patient's straight leg raise and increase their hamstrings length.

9. A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with spinal stenosis. As part of the treatment program the patient lies prone on a treatment plinth with a hot pack draped over the low back. The MOST effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is:

Check on the patient at least every ten minutes

Supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot

Instruct the patient to remove the hot pack If it becomes too hot

Select an alternate superfidal heating modality

The most effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is to supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot. This allows the patient to communicate any discomfort or excessive heat immediately, ensuring their safety and preventing any potential burns or injuries. Regularly checking on the patient every ten minutes may not be sufficient to catch any sudden changes in temperature, while instructing the patient to remove the hot pack if it becomes too hot may not be practical or feasible for patients with limited mobility. Selecting an alternate superficial heating modality may not be necessary if the hot pack is used appropriately and monitored effectively.

Explanation

The most effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is to supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot. This allows the patient to communicate any discomfort or excessive heat immediately, ensuring their safety and preventing any potential burns or injuries. Regularly checking on the patient every ten minutes may not be sufficient to catch any sudden changes in temperature, while instructing the patient to remove the hot pack if it becomes too hot may not be practical or feasible for patients with limited mobility. Selecting an alternate superficial heating modality may not be necessary if the hot pack is used appropriately and monitored effectively.

10. A patient prepares for discharge from a rehabilitation hospital after completing three months of therapy. The patient has made significant progress in his rehabilitation, however, expresses concern that his previous employer may not want him to return to work due to his injury. The MOST appropriate action is to:

Explain to the patient that to return to work after a serious injury is very difficult

Inform the patient of his rights according to the Americans with Disabilities Act

Request that the patient consider vocational retraining

Refer the patient to a psychologist to assist with the transition back to work

The MOST appropriate action in this situation is to inform the patient of his rights according to the Americans with Disabilities Act. This act protects individuals with disabilities from discrimination in the workplace and ensures that they have equal opportunities for employment. By informing the patient of his rights, he will be empowered to advocate for himself and address any concerns or potential issues with his previous employer. This action supports the patient's successful transition back to work and helps him understand the legal protections available to him.

Explanation

The MOST appropriate action in this situation is to inform the patient of his rights according to the Americans with Disabilities Act. This act protects individuals with disabilities from discrimination in the workplace and ensures that they have equal opportunities for employment. By informing the patient of his rights, he will be empowered to advocate for himself and address any concerns or potential issues with his previous employer. This action supports the patient's successful transition back to work and helps him understand the legal protections available to him.

11. A physical therapist assigns a manual muscle test grade of 4 to patient A and a grade of 2 to patient B. Which of the following is the BEST interpretation of the strength of the patients?

Patients A and B have equal strength

Patient A is stronger than patient B

Patient A is twice as strong as patient B

Patient B is twice as strong as patient A

The manual muscle test grade of 4 indicates that patient A has good muscle strength, while the grade of 2 suggests that patient B has poor muscle strength. Therefore, the best interpretation is that patient A is stronger than patient B.

Explanation

The manual muscle test grade of 4 indicates that patient A has good muscle strength, while the grade of 2 suggests that patient B has poor muscle strength. Therefore, the best interpretation is that patient A is stronger than patient B.

12. A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital conducts an initial interview with a patient referred to physical therapy. During the interview, the therapist asks the patient if he feels dependent on coffee, tea or soft drinks. Which clinical scenario would MOST appropriately warrant this type of question?

A 27-year-old female status post arthroscopic medial meniscectomy

A 42-year-old male with premature ventricular contractions

A 37-year-old female with restrictive pulmonary disease

A 57-year-old male with respiratory alkalosis

The therapist asks the patient if he feels dependent on coffee, tea, or soft drinks because caffeine intake can potentially exacerbate premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Caffeine is a stimulant that can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which may trigger or worsen PVCs in individuals with underlying heart conditions. Therefore, it is important to assess the patient's caffeine consumption to determine if it is contributing to their PVCs and to provide appropriate recommendations for managing their condition.

Explanation

The therapist asks the patient if he feels dependent on coffee, tea, or soft drinks because caffeine intake can potentially exacerbate premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Caffeine is a stimulant that can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which may trigger or worsen PVCs in individuals with underlying heart conditions. Therefore, it is important to assess the patient's caffeine consumption to determine if it is contributing to their PVCs and to provide appropriate recommendations for managing their condition.

13. An attorney contacts you by phone and requests specific information on a patient he claims to represent. Questions asked include the extent of the patient's disability and his willingness to return to work. The MOST appropriate response is:

Answer the questions asked by the attorney

Request the attorney provide a completed release of patient medical information form

Tell the attorney not to bother you at work

Send the attorney a copy of the patient's medical records

The most appropriate response is to request the attorney provide a completed release of patient medical information form. This is the correct answer because as a healthcare professional, it is important to protect patient confidentiality and adhere to HIPAA regulations. Requesting a release form ensures that the attorney has the proper authorization to access the patient's medical information and protects the patient's privacy rights.

Explanation

The most appropriate response is to request the attorney provide a completed release of patient medical information form. This is the correct answer because as a healthcare professional, it is important to protect patient confidentiality and adhere to HIPAA regulations. Requesting a release form ensures that the attorney has the proper authorization to access the patient's medical information and protects the patient's privacy rights.

14. A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. When working on controlled mobility, which of the following would BEST describe the physical therapist's objective?

Facilitate postural muscle control

Promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control

Emphasize reciprocal extremity movement

Facilitate tone and rigidity

The physical therapist's objective in working on controlled mobility with a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is to promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control. This is important because Parkinson's disease can cause difficulties with balance and movement control, and promoting weight shifting and rotational trunk control can help improve the patient's ability to maintain balance and perform functional movements.

Explanation

The physical therapist's objective in working on controlled mobility with a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is to promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control. This is important because Parkinson's disease can cause difficulties with balance and movement control, and promoting weight shifting and rotational trunk control can help improve the patient's ability to maintain balance and perform functional movements.

15. A patient rehabilitating from a traumatic head injury is lethargic since being placed on Phenobarbital. The PRIMARY purpose of the medication is to:

Decrease agitation

Prevent seizures

Reduce spasticity

Limit arrhythmias

Phenobarbital is a medication commonly used to prevent seizures in patients with head injuries. This is because head injuries can often lead to an increased risk of seizures, and Phenobarbital helps to stabilize the electrical activity in the brain, reducing the likelihood of seizures occurring. In this case, the patient's lethargy can be attributed to the medication's sedative effects, which are a common side effect of Phenobarbital. However, the primary purpose of prescribing Phenobarbital in this scenario is to prevent seizures rather than to address the patient's lethargy.

Explanation

Phenobarbital is a medication commonly used to prevent seizures in patients with head injuries. This is because head injuries can often lead to an increased risk of seizures, and Phenobarbital helps to stabilize the electrical activity in the brain, reducing the likelihood of seizures occurring. In this case, the patient's lethargy can be attributed to the medication's sedative effects, which are a common side effect of Phenobarbital. However, the primary purpose of prescribing Phenobarbital in this scenario is to prevent seizures rather than to address the patient's lethargy.

16. A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist elects to measure the patient's Q angle. Which three bony landmarks are used to measure the Q angle?

Anterior superior lilac spine, superior border of the patella, tibial tubercle

Anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle

Anterior superior lilac spine, inferior border of the patella, midpoint of the patella tendon

Greater trochanter, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle

The Q angle is a measurement used to assess the alignment of the patella (kneecap) and the femur (thigh bone). It is measured by drawing a line from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the midpoint of the patella, and then another line from the tibial tubercle to the midpoint of the patella. The angle formed between these two lines is the Q angle. Therefore, the correct answer is "anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle."

Explanation

The Q angle is a measurement used to assess the alignment of the patella (kneecap) and the femur (thigh bone). It is measured by drawing a line from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the midpoint of the patella, and then another line from the tibial tubercle to the midpoint of the patella. The angle formed between these two lines is the Q angle. Therefore, the correct answer is "anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle."

17. A physical therapist working in a school system develops long-term goals as part of an Individualized Educational Plan for a child with Down syndrome. The MOST appropriate time frame to attain these goals is:

One month

Four months

Six months

One year

The most appropriate time frame to attain long-term goals for a child with Down syndrome in a school system is one year. This allows for realistic and achievable progress to be made over a longer period of time. It also takes into consideration the individual needs and abilities of the child, allowing for adjustments and modifications to be made as necessary. A one-year time frame allows for consistent and comprehensive intervention and support to be provided, ensuring the child's progress and development.

Explanation

The most appropriate time frame to attain long-term goals for a child with Down syndrome in a school system is one year. This allows for realistic and achievable progress to be made over a longer period of time. It also takes into consideration the individual needs and abilities of the child, allowing for adjustments and modifications to be made as necessary. A one-year time frame allows for consistent and comprehensive intervention and support to be provided, ensuring the child's progress and development.

18. A patient with acute back pain is given a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit to use at home. The physical therapist provides detailed instructions on the care and use of the unit. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of the patient?

Modulate the current intensity

Application of new electrodes

Change the battery

Alter the pulse rate and width

The patient is responsible for modulating the current intensity, applying new electrodes, and changing the battery of the transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit. However, altering the pulse rate and width is not the responsibility of the patient. This task should be performed by a healthcare professional or under their guidance, as it requires knowledge and expertise to adjust these parameters correctly and safely.

Explanation

The patient is responsible for modulating the current intensity, applying new electrodes, and changing the battery of the transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit. However, altering the pulse rate and width is not the responsibility of the patient. This task should be performed by a healthcare professional or under their guidance, as it requires knowledge and expertise to adjust these parameters correctly and safely.

19. A patient with muscle weakness and compromised balance uses a four-point gait pattern with two canes. The physical therapist would like to instruct the patient to ascend and descend the stairs according to the normal flow of traffic. When ascending stairs the MOST practical method is to:

Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand

Use the handrail with the left hand and place the two canes in the right hand

Place one cane in each hand and avoid using the handrail

Place the two canes in the left hand and avoid using the handrail

The correct answer is to use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand. This method allows the patient to have support and stability while ascending stairs. By using the handrail with the right hand, the patient can maintain balance and control while using the canes with the left hand to provide additional support and aid in weight distribution. This technique ensures safety and minimizes the risk of falls or accidents while climbing stairs.

Explanation

The correct answer is to use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand. This method allows the patient to have support and stability while ascending stairs. By using the handrail with the right hand, the patient can maintain balance and control while using the canes with the left hand to provide additional support and aid in weight distribution. This technique ensures safety and minimizes the risk of falls or accidents while climbing stairs.

20. The movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body is

Inversion

Eversion

Inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body. This means that the foot is turning inward, with the sole facing towards the opposite foot. This movement is commonly observed when standing on tiptoes or during certain yoga poses. Eversion, on the other hand, is the opposite movement where the sole of the foot turns outward, away from the midline of the body.

Explanation

Inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body. This means that the foot is turning inward, with the sole facing towards the opposite foot. This movement is commonly observed when standing on tiptoes or during certain yoga poses. Eversion, on the other hand, is the opposite movement where the sole of the foot turns outward, away from the midline of the body.

21. A two-year-old with T!0 spina blflda receives physical therapy for gait training. Initially, the preferred method to teach a child how to maintain standing is with the use of:

Bilateral hip-knee-ankle-foot orthoses (HKAFO) and forearm crutches

Parapodium and the parallel bars

Bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFO) and the parallel bars

Bilateral ankle-foot orthoses (AFO) and the parallel bars

A parapodium is a standing frame that provides support to the child's lower body while allowing them to practice standing and weight-bearing. It helps in maintaining an upright position and developing balance and stability. The parallel bars provide additional support and stability during gait training. Using a parapodium and parallel bars allows the child to gradually learn and practice standing without relying on external orthotic devices. This approach promotes the development of independent standing skills and encourages natural movement patterns.

Explanation

A parapodium is a standing frame that provides support to the child's lower body while allowing them to practice standing and weight-bearing. It helps in maintaining an upright position and developing balance and stability. The parallel bars provide additional support and stability during gait training. Using a parapodium and parallel bars allows the child to gradually learn and practice standing without relying on external orthotic devices. This approach promotes the development of independent standing skills and encourages natural movement patterns.

22. The patient exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is MOST likely using the therapeutic ball to:

Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing

Encourage active assistive range of motion

Allow the patient partial weight bearing through the ball

Limit range of motion at the shoulder

The therapist is most likely using the therapeutic ball to avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing. Hypertonicity refers to increased muscle tone, and a mass extensor pattern refers to excessive activation of extensor muscles, causing the patient to lean backward and lose balance. By using the therapeutic ball, the therapist can provide support and stability, allowing the patient to maintain an upright position and avoid the mass extensor pattern.

Explanation

The therapist is most likely using the therapeutic ball to avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing. Hypertonicity refers to increased muscle tone, and a mass extensor pattern refers to excessive activation of extensor muscles, causing the patient to lean backward and lose balance. By using the therapeutic ball, the therapist can provide support and stability, allowing the patient to maintain an upright position and avoid the mass extensor pattern.

23. A patient with a 1"3 spinal cord injury exercising on a treatment table in supine begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia including a dramatic increase in blood pressure. The MOST IMMEDIATE action to address the patient's blood pressure response is to:

Elevate the patient's legs

Calf for assistance

Sit the patient upright

Check the urinary drainage system

In a patient with a spinal cord injury, autonomic dysreflexia can occur due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. It is characterized by a sudden increase in blood pressure. The most immediate action to address this response is to sit the patient upright. This helps to alleviate the increased blood pressure by promoting venous pooling in the lower extremities. Elevating the patient's legs may exacerbate the symptoms by further increasing blood pressure. Checking the urinary drainage system is important, but it is not the most immediate action to address the blood pressure response. Calf for assistance is an unrelated option and does not address the autonomic dysreflexia.

Explanation

In a patient with a spinal cord injury, autonomic dysreflexia can occur due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. It is characterized by a sudden increase in blood pressure. The most immediate action to address this response is to sit the patient upright. This helps to alleviate the increased blood pressure by promoting venous pooling in the lower extremities. Elevating the patient's legs may exacerbate the symptoms by further increasing blood pressure. Checking the urinary drainage system is important, but it is not the most immediate action to address the blood pressure response. Calf for assistance is an unrelated option and does not address the autonomic dysreflexia.

24. A 29-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the spine and assodated pain for more than five years. The patient's MOST typical standing posture demonstrates:

Posterior thoracic rib hump

Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

Excessive lumbar curve, flattened thoracic curve

Lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae

The correct answer is flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine, causing stiffness and pain. It typically starts in the lower back and progresses upwards. As the disease progresses, the lumbar curve becomes flattened, leading to a loss of the normal inward curve of the lower back. At the same time, the thoracic curve becomes exaggerated, causing the upper back to become more rounded. This posture is commonly seen in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis.

Explanation

The correct answer is flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine, causing stiffness and pain. It typically starts in the lower back and progresses upwards. As the disease progresses, the lumbar curve becomes flattened, leading to a loss of the normal inward curve of the lower back. At the same time, the thoracic curve becomes exaggerated, causing the upper back to become more rounded. This posture is commonly seen in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis.

25. A physical therapist attempts to estimate the energy expenditure in calories for a patient performing a selected activity for 15 minutes. Assuming the therapist has a metabolic equivalent value for the activity, what other variables are necessary in order to obtain an estimate of the patient's energy expenditure?

Patient's height

Patient's body weight

Patient's stroke volume

Patient's residual volume

To estimate the patient's energy expenditure, the therapist needs to know the patient's body weight. Body weight is an important variable because it directly affects the amount of energy required to perform physical activities. The therapist can use the metabolic equivalent value for the activity and multiply it by the patient's body weight to estimate the energy expenditure in calories. The patient's height, stroke volume, and residual volume are not directly related to energy expenditure and therefore not necessary to obtain an estimate.

Explanation

To estimate the patient's energy expenditure, the therapist needs to know the patient's body weight. Body weight is an important variable because it directly affects the amount of energy required to perform physical activities. The therapist can use the metabolic equivalent value for the activity and multiply it by the patient's body weight to estimate the energy expenditure in calories. The patient's height, stroke volume, and residual volume are not directly related to energy expenditure and therefore not necessary to obtain an estimate.

26. The medial ligaments crossing the ankle joint are stronger than the lateral ligaments

True

False

The statement is true because the medial ligaments, which are located on the inner side of the ankle joint, are generally stronger and more robust compared to the lateral ligaments on the outer side. This is due to the structure and anatomy of the ankle joint, where the medial ligaments provide more stability and support to prevent excessive inward or medial movement of the ankle, which is a common mechanism of injury. Conversely, the lateral ligaments are more prone to sprains and injuries due to their relative weakness compared to the medial ligaments.

Explanation

The statement is true because the medial ligaments, which are located on the inner side of the ankle joint, are generally stronger and more robust compared to the lateral ligaments on the outer side. This is due to the structure and anatomy of the ankle joint, where the medial ligaments provide more stability and support to prevent excessive inward or medial movement of the ankle, which is a common mechanism of injury. Conversely, the lateral ligaments are more prone to sprains and injuries due to their relative weakness compared to the medial ligaments.

27. A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital treats a patient status posttraumatic brain injury. During the treatment session the therapist notices that the patient's toes are discolored below a bivalved lower extremity cast. The cast was applied approximately five hours ago in an attempt to reduce a plantar flexion contracture. The MOST appropriate therapist action is to:

Discontinue the use of the anterior portion of the cast

Contact the staff nurse and request that the cast is removed

Refer the patient to an orthotist

Remove the cast

The therapist should remove the cast because the discoloration of the patient's toes indicates a potential circulation problem. This could be due to the cast being too tight or causing pressure on the toes, which can lead to tissue damage or ischemia. Removing the cast will relieve the pressure and allow for proper circulation to the toes. Contacting the staff nurse or referring the patient to an orthotist may not address the immediate issue of compromised circulation.

Explanation

The therapist should remove the cast because the discoloration of the patient's toes indicates a potential circulation problem. This could be due to the cast being too tight or causing pressure on the toes, which can lead to tissue damage or ischemia. Removing the cast will relieve the pressure and allow for proper circulation to the toes. Contacting the staff nurse or referring the patient to an orthotist may not address the immediate issue of compromised circulation.

28. A physical therapist attends an in-service entitled "Principles of Exercise for the Obstetric Patient." During the session, the speaker identifies several conditions that are considered to result in high-risk pregnancies. Which of the following conditions would NOT be considered high risk?

Dlastasls recti

Incompetent cervix

Pre-eclampsia

Multiple gestation

Rectus diastasis, also known as "dlastasls recti," is not considered a high-risk condition during pregnancy. It refers to the separation of the abdominal muscles, which is a common occurrence during pregnancy. While it may cause discomfort and affect the appearance of the abdomen, it does not pose significant risks to the pregnancy or the mother's health. On the other hand, incompetent cervix, pre-eclampsia, and multiple gestation are conditions that are considered high risk during pregnancy and require close monitoring and medical intervention.

Explanation

Rectus diastasis, also known as "dlastasls recti," is not considered a high-risk condition during pregnancy. It refers to the separation of the abdominal muscles, which is a common occurrence during pregnancy. While it may cause discomfort and affect the appearance of the abdomen, it does not pose significant risks to the pregnancy or the mother's health. On the other hand, incompetent cervix, pre-eclampsia, and multiple gestation are conditions that are considered high risk during pregnancy and require close monitoring and medical intervention.

29. A physical therapist positions a patient In sidelying in preparation for postural drainage activities. Which lung segment would be indicated based on the patient's position?

Posterior basal segment of the lower lobes

Anterior apical segment of the upper lobes

Lateral basal segment of the lower lobes

Anterior segment of the upper lobes

In sidelying position, the patient's body weight is shifted to one side, allowing better drainage of the lateral basal segment of the lower lobes. This position helps to promote the clearance of secretions from the lungs and improves ventilation in that specific lung segment. The other options, such as the anterior apical segment of the upper lobes or the anterior segment of the upper lobes, are not indicated based on the patient's sidelying position.

Explanation

In sidelying position, the patient's body weight is shifted to one side, allowing better drainage of the lateral basal segment of the lower lobes. This position helps to promote the clearance of secretions from the lungs and improves ventilation in that specific lung segment. The other options, such as the anterior apical segment of the upper lobes or the anterior segment of the upper lobes, are not indicated based on the patient's sidelying position.

30. A patient refuses physical therapy services after being transported to the gym. The physical therapist explains the potential consequences of refusing treatment, however, the patient does not reconsider. The MOST appropriate INITIAL therapist action is:

Treat the patient

Convince the patient to have therapy

Contact the referring physician

Document the Incident in the medical record

The most appropriate initial therapist action is to document the incident in the medical record. This is important because it ensures that there is a record of the patient refusing treatment and the therapist's attempt to explain the potential consequences. Documenting the incident is necessary for legal and professional purposes, as it provides evidence of the patient's decision and the therapist's actions. It also helps to maintain a comprehensive and accurate medical record for future reference and continuity of care.

Explanation

The most appropriate initial therapist action is to document the incident in the medical record. This is important because it ensures that there is a record of the patient refusing treatment and the therapist's attempt to explain the potential consequences. Documenting the incident is necessary for legal and professional purposes, as it provides evidence of the patient's decision and the therapist's actions. It also helps to maintain a comprehensive and accurate medical record for future reference and continuity of care.

31. A 21-year-old female is examined in physical therapy after sustaining a grade I ankle sprain two days ago in a marching band competition. The patient's description of the mechanism of injury is consistent with inversion and plantar flexion. Which of the following ligaments would MOST likely be affected?

Anterior taloflbular ligament

Calcaneoflbular ligament

Anterior tibiofibular ligament

Deltoid ligament

The patient's description of the mechanism of injury, which involves inversion and plantar flexion, is consistent with an ankle sprain. The ligament that is most likely to be affected in this type of ankle sprain is the anterior talofibular ligament. This ligament is located on the lateral side of the ankle and is often injured when the foot is forcefully inverted, causing the ligament to stretch or tear. The other ligaments listed are not typically involved in this type of injury.

Explanation

The patient's description of the mechanism of injury, which involves inversion and plantar flexion, is consistent with an ankle sprain. The ligament that is most likely to be affected in this type of ankle sprain is the anterior talofibular ligament. This ligament is located on the lateral side of the ankle and is often injured when the foot is forcefully inverted, causing the ligament to stretch or tear. The other ligaments listed are not typically involved in this type of injury.

32. A patient status post open knee meniscectomy is referred to physical therapy for neuromuscular electrical stimulation. The MOST beneficial frequency of treatment to promote strengthening is:

Two times per day

One time per week

Three times per week

Once every two weeks

The most beneficial frequency of treatment to promote strengthening after an open knee meniscectomy is three times per week. This frequency allows for regular and consistent stimulation of the muscles, promoting muscle activation and strengthening. More frequent sessions help to maintain muscle tone and prevent muscle atrophy, while providing enough time for recovery between sessions. Less frequent sessions may not provide enough stimulation to effectively promote muscle strengthening, while more frequent sessions may not allow for adequate recovery time. Therefore, three times per week strikes a balance between providing sufficient stimulation and allowing for proper recovery.

Explanation

The most beneficial frequency of treatment to promote strengthening after an open knee meniscectomy is three times per week. This frequency allows for regular and consistent stimulation of the muscles, promoting muscle activation and strengthening. More frequent sessions help to maintain muscle tone and prevent muscle atrophy, while providing enough time for recovery between sessions. Less frequent sessions may not provide enough stimulation to effectively promote muscle strengthening, while more frequent sessions may not allow for adequate recovery time. Therefore, three times per week strikes a balance between providing sufficient stimulation and allowing for proper recovery.

33. This is a developmental disability that occurs in early childhood and continues throughout adulthood, which may result in a difficulty in learning, communications, and social interaction

Mental retardation

Autism

Learning impairment

Mental Illness

Autism is a developmental disability that typically appears in early childhood and persists into adulthood. It is characterized by difficulties in learning, communication, and social interaction. Individuals with autism often have challenges in understanding and responding to social cues, may exhibit repetitive behaviors, and may have sensory sensitivities. Autism is a complex disorder that varies widely in its presentation and severity among individuals.

Explanation

Autism is a developmental disability that typically appears in early childhood and persists into adulthood. It is characterized by difficulties in learning, communication, and social interaction. Individuals with autism often have challenges in understanding and responding to social cues, may exhibit repetitive behaviors, and may have sensory sensitivities. Autism is a complex disorder that varies widely in its presentation and severity among individuals.

34. A physical therapist completes a work site analysis for a patient with T3 paraplegia. The patient is employed in the marketing department of an advertising agency and relies on a wheelchair for daily locomotion. Which of the following is likely to be the MOST significant architectural barrier for the patient?

Hardwood floors

An entrance ramp (one inch of vertical rise for every six inches of ramp length)

One-quarter inch thresholds at each door

Pedestal type sinks

The most significant architectural barrier for the patient with T3 paraplegia is likely to be the entrance ramp with one inch of vertical rise for every six inches of ramp length. This is because the patient relies on a wheelchair for daily locomotion, and a steep ramp can make it difficult for them to navigate and safely enter or exit the building. It is important for the ramp to have a gradual slope to ensure smooth and safe wheelchair access.

Explanation

The most significant architectural barrier for the patient with T3 paraplegia is likely to be the entrance ramp with one inch of vertical rise for every six inches of ramp length. This is because the patient relies on a wheelchair for daily locomotion, and a steep ramp can make it difficult for them to navigate and safely enter or exit the building. It is important for the ramp to have a gradual slope to ensure smooth and safe wheelchair access.

35. A patient in a rehabilitation hospital begins to verbalize about the uselessness of life and the possibility of committing suicide. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is:

Suggest the patient be placed on a locked unit

Ask nursing to check on the patient every 15 minutes

Discuss the situation with the patient's case manager

Review the patient's past medical history for signs and symptoms of mental illness

The MOST appropriate physical therapist action in this scenario is to discuss the situation with the patient's case manager. This is because the patient is expressing thoughts of suicide, which indicates a potential mental health crisis. By involving the case manager, who is responsible for coordinating the patient's care and addressing any psychosocial issues, the physical therapist can ensure that the patient receives the necessary support and interventions to prevent self-harm. This action demonstrates a collaborative approach to addressing the patient's mental health concerns within the interdisciplinary team.

Explanation

The MOST appropriate physical therapist action in this scenario is to discuss the situation with the patient's case manager. This is because the patient is expressing thoughts of suicide, which indicates a potential mental health crisis. By involving the case manager, who is responsible for coordinating the patient's care and addressing any psychosocial issues, the physical therapist can ensure that the patient receives the necessary support and interventions to prevent self-harm. This action demonstrates a collaborative approach to addressing the patient's mental health concerns within the interdisciplinary team.

36. A physical therapist examines a patient following a transtibial amputation. The patient resides in a retirement community and describes herself as socially active. She is presently using a temporary prosthesis consisting of a plastic socket, a pylon, and a solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot. The patient expresses concern that the permanent prosthesis will look awful and will be obvious to everyone. Which type of prosthesis would be the MOST appropriate for the patient?

Endoskeletal shank and single-axis articulated foot-ankle assembly

Endoskeletal shank and solid anlde cushion heel (SACH) foot

Exoskeletal shank and single-axis articulated foot-ankle assembly

Exoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot

The patient expresses concern about the appearance of the permanent prosthesis. An endoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot would be the most appropriate choice because it provides a more natural and aesthetically pleasing appearance compared to an exoskeletal shank. The SACH foot also offers a smoother gait and better shock absorption, which would be beneficial for a socially active individual residing in a retirement community.

Explanation

The patient expresses concern about the appearance of the permanent prosthesis. An endoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot would be the most appropriate choice because it provides a more natural and aesthetically pleasing appearance compared to an exoskeletal shank. The SACH foot also offers a smoother gait and better shock absorption, which would be beneficial for a socially active individual residing in a retirement community.

37. A physical therapist completes a coordination assessment on a 67-year-old patient with central nervous system involvement After reviewing the results of the assessment, the therapist concludes the clinical findings are indicative of cerebellar dysfunction. Which finding is NOT associated with cerebellar dysfunction?

Dysmetrla

Hypertonia

Ataxia

Nystagmus

Hypertonia is not associated with cerebellar dysfunction. Hypertonia refers to increased muscle tone and stiffness, which is more commonly associated with damage to the upper motor neurons in the brain or spinal cord. Cerebellar dysfunction, on the other hand, typically presents with symptoms such as dysmetria (inability to control the distance, power, and speed of movements), ataxia (lack of coordination and balance), and nystagmus (involuntary eye movements). Therefore, hypertonia is the finding that is not associated with cerebellar dysfunction.

Explanation

Hypertonia is not associated with cerebellar dysfunction. Hypertonia refers to increased muscle tone and stiffness, which is more commonly associated with damage to the upper motor neurons in the brain or spinal cord. Cerebellar dysfunction, on the other hand, typically presents with symptoms such as dysmetria (inability to control the distance, power, and speed of movements), ataxia (lack of coordination and balance), and nystagmus (involuntary eye movements). Therefore, hypertonia is the finding that is not associated with cerebellar dysfunction.

38. A 67-year-old male with longstanding cardiac pathology is referred to physical therapy. The medical record indicates the patient is taking Nitrostat. The PRIMARY indication for this medication is:

To strengthen the heart's pumping force

To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures

To increase excretion of sodium and water

To decrease electrical conduction

Nitrostat is a medication commonly prescribed for patients with cardiac pathology, specifically for the treatment of angina pectoris. Its primary indication is to produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures. This means that it helps to widen and relax the blood vessels, allowing for improved blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle. By dilating the blood vessels, Nitrostat helps to reduce the workload on the heart and relieve chest pain associated with angina. It does not strengthen the heart's pumping force, increase excretion of sodium and water, or decrease electrical conduction.

Explanation

Nitrostat is a medication commonly prescribed for patients with cardiac pathology, specifically for the treatment of angina pectoris. Its primary indication is to produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures. This means that it helps to widen and relax the blood vessels, allowing for improved blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle. By dilating the blood vessels, Nitrostat helps to reduce the workload on the heart and relieve chest pain associated with angina. It does not strengthen the heart's pumping force, increase excretion of sodium and water, or decrease electrical conduction.

39. A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist assesses end-feel. The therapist classifies the end-feel associated with wrist extension as firm. The MOST logical explanation is:

Tension in the dorsal radiocarpal ligament and the dorsal joint capsule

Contact between the ulna and the carpal bones

Contact between the radius and the carpal bones

Tension in the palmar radlocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule

The end-feel associated with wrist extension being classified as firm suggests that there is tension in the palmar radiocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule. This is because the firm end-feel indicates the presence of resistance due to the tension in these structures, which restrict the movement of the wrist during extension.

Explanation

The end-feel associated with wrist extension being classified as firm suggests that there is tension in the palmar radiocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule. This is because the firm end-feel indicates the presence of resistance due to the tension in these structures, which restrict the movement of the wrist during extension.

40. A physical therapist attempts to auscultate over the aortic valve. Which of the following areas is the MOST appropriate to isolate the desired valve?

Second left intercostal space at the left sternal border

Second right intercostal space at the right sternal border

Fourth left intercostal space along the lower left sternal border

Fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line

The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second right intercostal space at the right sternal border. This location corresponds to the area where the aortic valve is most easily heard due to its proximity to the aortic area of the heart. Auscultating at this specific location allows the physical therapist to isolate the desired valve and listen for any abnormal sounds or murmurs.

Explanation

The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second right intercostal space at the right sternal border. This location corresponds to the area where the aortic valve is most easily heard due to its proximity to the aortic area of the heart. Auscultating at this specific location allows the physical therapist to isolate the desired valve and listen for any abnormal sounds or murmurs.

41. Sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are all behavioral characteristics of _________

Alcohol use

Cannabis use

Methamphetamine use

Ecstasy use

The given behavioral characteristics of sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are commonly associated with alcohol use. Alcohol is a depressant that can slow down the central nervous system, leading to these symptoms. It can impair coordination, cognitive function, and speech, causing slurred speech. Additionally, alcohol can cause extreme fatigue and sluggish behavior due to its sedative effects. Intoxication, which includes impaired judgment and altered behavior, is also a characteristic of alcohol use. Therefore, the correct answer is alcohol use.

Explanation

The given behavioral characteristics of sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are commonly associated with alcohol use. Alcohol is a depressant that can slow down the central nervous system, leading to these symptoms. It can impair coordination, cognitive function, and speech, causing slurred speech. Additionally, alcohol can cause extreme fatigue and sluggish behavior due to its sedative effects. Intoxication, which includes impaired judgment and altered behavior, is also a characteristic of alcohol use. Therefore, the correct answer is alcohol use.

42. A patient coverage form indicates selective debridement is to be performed on a patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity burn. Based on the coverage form, the MOST likely intervention would be:

Whirlpool

Wet-to-dry dressings

Enzymatic debridement

Wound irrigation

Based on the patient coverage form indicating selective debridement for a lower extremity burn, the most likely intervention would be enzymatic debridement. Enzymatic debridement involves the use of topical enzymes to break down and remove necrotic tissue, promoting wound healing. This method is often preferred for selective debridement as it is less invasive and traumatic compared to other options such as whirlpool or wet-to-dry dressings. Wound irrigation may be used as a supportive measure, but enzymatic debridement would be the primary intervention based on the coverage form.

Explanation

Based on the patient coverage form indicating selective debridement for a lower extremity burn, the most likely intervention would be enzymatic debridement. Enzymatic debridement involves the use of topical enzymes to break down and remove necrotic tissue, promoting wound healing. This method is often preferred for selective debridement as it is less invasive and traumatic compared to other options such as whirlpool or wet-to-dry dressings. Wound irrigation may be used as a supportive measure, but enzymatic debridement would be the primary intervention based on the coverage form.

43. A physical therapist inspects a wound that has large quantities of exudate which requires frequent dressing changes. If the therapist applies a dressing that cannot handle the quantity of exudate present, the MOST likely outcome is:

Maceration

Granulation

Epithelialization

Infection

If the physical therapist applies a dressing that cannot handle the quantity of exudate present, the most likely outcome is maceration. Maceration occurs when the wound is excessively moist, leading to softening and breakdown of the surrounding skin. This can delay wound healing and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, if the dressing is unable to handle the large quantities of exudate, it is likely that the wound will become overly moist and maceration will occur.

Explanation

If the physical therapist applies a dressing that cannot handle the quantity of exudate present, the most likely outcome is maceration. Maceration occurs when the wound is excessively moist, leading to softening and breakdown of the surrounding skin. This can delay wound healing and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, if the dressing is unable to handle the large quantities of exudate, it is likely that the wound will become overly moist and maceration will occur.

44. A physical therapist interviews a patient recently involved in a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained multiple lower extremity injuries as a result of the accident and appears to be very depressed. In an attempt to encourage active dialogue the therapist asks open-ended questions. Which of the following would NOT be considered an open-ended question?

How does your knee feel today?

What are your goals for physical therapy?

Do you have trouble sleeping at night?

Tell me about your present condition?

The question "Do you have trouble sleeping at night?" would not be considered an open-ended question because it can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" response. Open-ended questions typically require more detailed and descriptive answers, allowing the patient to express their thoughts and feelings more fully.

Explanation

The question "Do you have trouble sleeping at night?" would not be considered an open-ended question because it can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" response. Open-ended questions typically require more detailed and descriptive answers, allowing the patient to express their thoughts and feelings more fully.

45. Screwhome motion is thought to occur between the femur and the tibia. As the knee extends the tibia ___________rotates.

Laterally

Medially

During knee extension, the tibia rotates laterally. This means that the tibia moves in an outward direction away from the midline of the body. This rotational movement helps to stabilize the knee joint and allows for smooth and efficient movement during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

Explanation

During knee extension, the tibia rotates laterally. This means that the tibia moves in an outward direction away from the midline of the body. This rotational movement helps to stabilize the knee joint and allows for smooth and efficient movement during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

46. An individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint

True

False

An individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint. This is because the femoral groove is responsible for guiding the patella (kneecap) during movement. A shallow femoral groove means that the patella is not securely held in place, increasing the risk of it slipping out of position and causing a dislocation.

Explanation

An individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint. This is because the femoral groove is responsible for guiding the patella (kneecap) during movement. A shallow femoral groove means that the patella is not securely held in place, increasing the risk of it slipping out of position and causing a dislocation.

47. The presence or condition where a drug is required to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system is known as...........

Substance Neglect

Withdrawal

Psychological Dependence

Physical Dependence

Physical dependence refers to the state in which a drug is needed to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system. This means that the body has adapted to the presence of the drug and has become reliant on it to function properly. Physical dependence is characterized by the occurrence of withdrawal symptoms when the drug is abruptly stopped or reduced in dosage. It is different from psychological dependence, which is a strong craving or desire to use the drug for emotional or psychological reasons. Substance neglect and withdrawal are not accurate terms to describe this condition.

Explanation

Physical dependence refers to the state in which a drug is needed to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system. This means that the body has adapted to the presence of the drug and has become reliant on it to function properly. Physical dependence is characterized by the occurrence of withdrawal symptoms when the drug is abruptly stopped or reduced in dosage. It is different from psychological dependence, which is a strong craving or desire to use the drug for emotional or psychological reasons. Substance neglect and withdrawal are not accurate terms to describe this condition.

48. Which of these is the most common form of cannabis?

Resin

Herbal

Hash oil

Djarum

The most common form of cannabis is herbal. This refers to the dried leaves, flowers, and stems of the cannabis plant, which are typically smoked or vaporized for their psychoactive effects. Resin, also known as hashish or hash, is a concentrated form of cannabis made from the resinous trichomes of the plant. Hash oil, on the other hand, is a highly potent extract of cannabis that is derived using solvents. Djarum is a brand of clove cigarettes and is not related to cannabis.

Explanation

The most common form of cannabis is herbal. This refers to the dried leaves, flowers, and stems of the cannabis plant, which are typically smoked or vaporized for their psychoactive effects. Resin, also known as hashish or hash, is a concentrated form of cannabis made from the resinous trichomes of the plant. Hash oil, on the other hand, is a highly potent extract of cannabis that is derived using solvents. Djarum is a brand of clove cigarettes and is not related to cannabis.

49. A physical therapist attempts to identify an appropriately sized wheelchair for a patient recently referred to a rehabilitation hospital. The physical therapist determines that the patient's hip width in sitting and the measurement from the back of the buttocks to the popliteal space are each 16 inches. Given these measurements, which of the following wheelchair specifications would BEST fit this patient?

Seat width 16 inches, seat depth 14 inches

Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 18 inches

Seat width 16 inches, seat depth 18 inches

Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 14 Inches

The physical therapist determines that the patient's hip width in sitting and the measurement from the back of the buttocks to the popliteal space are each 16 inches. Therefore, the seat width of 18 inches would provide enough space for the patient's hips to comfortably fit in the wheelchair. Additionally, the seat depth of 14 inches would accommodate the measurement from the back of the buttocks to the popliteal space, ensuring that the patient's legs are properly supported.

Explanation

The physical therapist determines that the patient's hip width in sitting and the measurement from the back of the buttocks to the popliteal space are each 16 inches. Therefore, the seat width of 18 inches would provide enough space for the patient's hips to comfortably fit in the wheelchair. Additionally, the seat depth of 14 inches would accommodate the measurement from the back of the buttocks to the popliteal space, ensuring that the patient's legs are properly supported.

50. Let’s say you go in for some minor surgery and your doctor decides to experiment with you. While you are under anesthesia he chisels off your tibial tuberosity and moves it medially on your tibia. Your Q-angle will then be

Increased

Decreased

When the tibial tuberosity is chiseled off and moved medially on the tibia, it will result in an increased Q-angle. The Q-angle is the angle formed between the line connecting the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the midpoint of the patella, and the line connecting the tibial tuberosity and the midpoint of the patella. By moving the tibial tuberosity medially, the angle between these two lines will increase, leading to an increased Q-angle.

Explanation

When the tibial tuberosity is chiseled off and moved medially on the tibia, it will result in an increased Q-angle. The Q-angle is the angle formed between the line connecting the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the midpoint of the patella, and the line connecting the tibial tuberosity and the midpoint of the patella. By moving the tibial tuberosity medially, the angle between these two lines will increase, leading to an increased Q-angle.

51. A physical therapist observes that a number ot aides appear to be unfamiliar with appropriate guarding techniques. The MOST appropriate remedial strategy to improve their performance is to:

Offer assistance to the aides when the inappropriate behavior is observed

Refer the aides to textbooks that explain proper guarding techniques develop a

Mandatory lnservlce on guarding techniques for the aides

Inform the director of rehabilitation that the aides are incompetent

The most appropriate remedial strategy to improve the aides' performance is to develop a mandatory inservice on guarding techniques. This would provide the aides with the necessary training and education on proper guarding techniques, ensuring that they are familiar with and able to apply them correctly. Offering assistance when inappropriate behavior is observed may help in the short term, but it does not address the underlying issue of unfamiliarity with proper techniques. Referring the aides to textbooks may be helpful, but a mandatory inservice would be a more comprehensive and effective approach. Informing the director of rehabilitation that the aides are incompetent is not a constructive or professional solution.

Explanation

The most appropriate remedial strategy to improve the aides' performance is to develop a mandatory inservice on guarding techniques. This would provide the aides with the necessary training and education on proper guarding techniques, ensuring that they are familiar with and able to apply them correctly. Offering assistance when inappropriate behavior is observed may help in the short term, but it does not address the underlying issue of unfamiliarity with proper techniques. Referring the aides to textbooks may be helpful, but a mandatory inservice would be a more comprehensive and effective approach. Informing the director of rehabilitation that the aides are incompetent is not a constructive or professional solution.

52. A patient with a transtibial amputation ambulates in the physical therapy gym. The patient exhibits an extended knee throughout early stance phase on the prosthetic side. The MOST appropriate action to resolve the patient's difficulty is:

Plantar flex the foot

Soften the heel wedge

Move the foot anteriorly

Dorsiflex the foot

Dorsiflexing the foot would involve pulling the foot upwards towards the shin. In this case, the patient's extended knee during early stance phase suggests that their foot is not properly clearing the ground. Dorsiflexing the foot would help to prevent the foot from dragging on the ground and allow for a more natural gait pattern. This action would help resolve the patient's difficulty and improve their ambulation with a transtibial amputation.

Explanation

Dorsiflexing the foot would involve pulling the foot upwards towards the shin. In this case, the patient's extended knee during early stance phase suggests that their foot is not properly clearing the ground. Dorsiflexing the foot would help to prevent the foot from dragging on the ground and allow for a more natural gait pattern. This action would help resolve the patient's difficulty and improve their ambulation with a transtibial amputation.

53. A physical therapist participates in a research study to determine the effect of noise level on the ability to perform a physical skill. In the study, noise is the:

Independent variable

Dependent variable

Criterion variable

Extraneous variable

In this research study, the physical therapist is testing the effect of noise level on the ability to perform a physical skill. The noise level is deliberately manipulated by the researcher, and it is the variable that is believed to cause a change in the ability to perform the skill. Therefore, the noise level is the independent variable in this study.

Explanation

In this research study, the physical therapist is testing the effect of noise level on the ability to perform a physical skill. The noise level is deliberately manipulated by the researcher, and it is the variable that is believed to cause a change in the ability to perform the skill. Therefore, the noise level is the independent variable in this study.

54. During know flexion the femur rolls back relative to tibia this motion is called

Osteokinematics

Arthokinematics

Arthokinematics refers to the movement between the articulating surfaces of joints. In the given question, it is stated that during knee flexion, the femur rolls back relative to the tibia. This rolling back motion represents the movement between the joint surfaces of the knee, which is an example of arthokinematics. Therefore, the correct answer is arthokinematics.

Explanation

Arthokinematics refers to the movement between the articulating surfaces of joints. In the given question, it is stated that during knee flexion, the femur rolls back relative to the tibia. This rolling back motion represents the movement between the joint surfaces of the knee, which is an example of arthokinematics. Therefore, the correct answer is arthokinematics.

55. A physical therapist asks a patient to complete a pain questionnaire. The questionnaire utilizes an ascending numeric scale ranging from #0" equaling no pain to "10" equaling excruciating pain. This type of measurement scale is BEST described as:

Nominal

Ordinal

Interval

Ratio

The pain questionnaire utilizes an ascending numeric scale ranging from 0 to 10, where 0 represents no pain and 10 represents excruciating pain. This type of measurement scale is best described as ordinal because it allows for the ranking and ordering of pain levels. However, it does not provide information about the magnitude of the differences between the pain levels.

Explanation

The pain questionnaire utilizes an ascending numeric scale ranging from 0 to 10, where 0 represents no pain and 10 represents excruciating pain. This type of measurement scale is best described as ordinal because it allows for the ranking and ordering of pain levels. However, it does not provide information about the magnitude of the differences between the pain levels.

56. Pronation should be totally avoided during running gait

True

False

some pronation is necessary for shock absorption

Explanation

some pronation is necessary for shock absorption

57. A patient in a work hardening program completes a training program consisting of ten different exercises requiring upper and lower extremity strength and endurance. The patient indicates that he is frustrated since he has been unable to increase the weight on a selected carrying activity in over two weeks. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is:

Provide the patient with verbal encouragement

Attempt to substitute a different exercise for the carrying activity

Vary the order of the exercises

Decrease the number of repetitions

Varying the order of the exercises can help to break the patient's plateau and stimulate muscle growth. By changing the order, different muscles will be targeted first, allowing the patient to potentially increase their strength and endurance in the carrying activity. This variation can also prevent boredom and keep the patient motivated in their work hardening program.

Explanation

Varying the order of the exercises can help to break the patient's plateau and stimulate muscle growth. By changing the order, different muscles will be targeted first, allowing the patient to potentially increase their strength and endurance in the carrying activity. This variation can also prevent boredom and keep the patient motivated in their work hardening program.

58. An electrical equipment safety committee develops a policy to limit electrical hazards arising from ground faults. Which action would be the MOST appropriate to meet the committee's objective?

Report all equipment defects or failures

Manually test each ground fault circuit interrupter on a monthly basis

Follow manufacturer recommendations for electrical equipment care and service

Mandate an introductory inservice on all new electrical equipment

To meet the objective of limiting electrical hazards arising from ground faults, the most appropriate action would be to manually test each ground fault circuit interrupter on a monthly basis. This ensures that the interrupters are functioning properly and can effectively detect and prevent ground faults. By regularly testing these devices, any faults or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of electrical hazards.

Explanation

To meet the objective of limiting electrical hazards arising from ground faults, the most appropriate action would be to manually test each ground fault circuit interrupter on a monthly basis. This ensures that the interrupters are functioning properly and can effectively detect and prevent ground faults. By regularly testing these devices, any faults or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of electrical hazards.

59. A physical therapist prepares to administer iontophoresis over the anterior surface of a patient's knee. The therapist would like to keep the current density low in order to avoid skin irritation. Which of the listed parameters would BEST accomplish the therapist's objective?

Current amplitude of 4 mA; electrode with an area of 12 cm2

Current amplitude of 4 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2

Current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 6 cm2

Current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2

The therapist's objective is to keep the current density low in order to avoid skin irritation. Current density is determined by dividing the current amplitude by the electrode area. Therefore, to achieve a low current density, the therapist should choose a combination of a higher current amplitude and a larger electrode area. Among the given options, the combination of a current amplitude of 4 mA and an electrode area of 12 cm2 would result in the lowest current density and therefore best accomplish the therapist's objective.

Explanation

The therapist's objective is to keep the current density low in order to avoid skin irritation. Current density is determined by dividing the current amplitude by the electrode area. Therefore, to achieve a low current density, the therapist should choose a combination of a higher current amplitude and a larger electrode area. Among the given options, the combination of a current amplitude of 4 mA and an electrode area of 12 cm2 would result in the lowest current density and therefore best accomplish the therapist's objective.

60. A physical therapist palpates medially along the spine of the scapula. Which spinous process is at the same level as the vertebral end of the spine?

T2

T3

T4

T5

The question is asking which spinous process is at the same level as the vertebral end of the spine when palpating medially along the spine of the scapula. The correct answer is T3. This means that when palpating along the spine of the scapula, the physical therapist will reach the spinous process of T3 at the same level as the vertebral end of the spine.

Explanation

The question is asking which spinous process is at the same level as the vertebral end of the spine when palpating medially along the spine of the scapula. The correct answer is T3. This means that when palpating along the spine of the scapula, the physical therapist will reach the spinous process of T3 at the same level as the vertebral end of the spine.

61. A patient requires inpatient physical therapy after sustaining brain damage in a motor vehicle accident. Upon entering the patient's room, the physical therapist finds the patient as shown in the image. The patient's MOST likely perceptual deficit is:

Diplopla

Apraxia

Somatoagnosia

Anosognosia

Based on the image provided, the patient is shown holding a comb as if it were a toothbrush. This suggests a lack of awareness or recognition of their own body parts and their functions, indicating somatoagnosia. Somatoagnosia is a perceptual deficit where a person is unable to recognize or identify their own body parts. This condition can result in confusion or misinterpretation of objects and their functions.

Explanation

Based on the image provided, the patient is shown holding a comb as if it were a toothbrush. This suggests a lack of awareness or recognition of their own body parts and their functions, indicating somatoagnosia. Somatoagnosia is a perceptual deficit where a person is unable to recognize or identify their own body parts. This condition can result in confusion or misinterpretation of objects and their functions.

62. A physical therapist critically analyzes the methodology used in a published research study. Which type of sampling procedure would result in the GREATEST degree of sampling error?

Simple random sample

Systematic sample

Duster sample

Stratified random sample

A "duster sample" is not a recognized sampling procedure, and therefore, it would result in the greatest degree of sampling error. This is because it is unclear what the sampling process entails and how the sample is selected. Without a clear and defined methodology, it is difficult to ensure the representativeness and validity of the sample, leading to a higher likelihood of sampling error.

Explanation

A "duster sample" is not a recognized sampling procedure, and therefore, it would result in the greatest degree of sampling error. This is because it is unclear what the sampling process entails and how the sample is selected. Without a clear and defined methodology, it is difficult to ensure the representativeness and validity of the sample, leading to a higher likelihood of sampling error.

63. A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury is examined in physical therapy. Which objective finding would be the strongest Indication the spinal cord injury is NOT complete?

Intact sensation on the lateral portion of the shoulder

Absent triceps reflex

Diminished sensation over the hypothenar eminence

Weakness of the biceps muscle

Diminished sensation over the hypothenar eminence would be the strongest indication that the spinal cord injury is not complete. The hypothenar eminence is innervated by the C8 and T1 nerve roots, which are located below the level of the C6 spinal cord injury. Therefore, if there is diminished sensation in this area, it suggests that the injury is not complete and there is some preservation of function below the level of the injury.

Explanation

Diminished sensation over the hypothenar eminence would be the strongest indication that the spinal cord injury is not complete. The hypothenar eminence is innervated by the C8 and T1 nerve roots, which are located below the level of the C6 spinal cord injury. Therefore, if there is diminished sensation in this area, it suggests that the injury is not complete and there is some preservation of function below the level of the injury.

64. True or False: People diagnosed with autism interact well with law enforcement officers if the officer is very close to the person.

True

False

People diagnosed with autism may have difficulty with social interactions and may struggle to understand and respond appropriately to law enforcement officers, even if they are close to them. Autism can affect communication and social skills, making it challenging for individuals to interact effectively with others, including law enforcement officers. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that people diagnosed with autism interact well with law enforcement officers if the officer is very close to them.

Explanation

People diagnosed with autism may have difficulty with social interactions and may struggle to understand and respond appropriately to law enforcement officers, even if they are close to them. Autism can affect communication and social skills, making it challenging for individuals to interact effectively with others, including law enforcement officers. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that people diagnosed with autism interact well with law enforcement officers if the officer is very close to them.

65. True or False: The Baker Act has no age barrier.

True

False

The Baker Act, a Florida state law, allows for the involuntary examination and potential temporary detention of individuals who may have a mental illness and pose a threat to themselves or others. The act does not specify any age restrictions, meaning that it can be applied to individuals of any age, including minors and adults. Therefore, the statement that the Baker Act has no age barrier is true.

Explanation

The Baker Act, a Florida state law, allows for the involuntary examination and potential temporary detention of individuals who may have a mental illness and pose a threat to themselves or others. The act does not specify any age restrictions, meaning that it can be applied to individuals of any age, including minors and adults. Therefore, the statement that the Baker Act has no age barrier is true.

66. A physical therapist positions a patient as shown prior to testing for clonus. The MOST appropriate action to complete the test Is:

Provide a quick stretch to the plantar flexors

Provide a quick stretch to the dorsiflexors

Provide a quick stretch to the plantar flexors while extending the knee

Provide a quick stretch to the dorsiflexors while extending the knee

The correct answer is to provide a quick stretch to the plantar flexors. Clonus is a rhythmic muscle contraction and relaxation that occurs in response to a quick stretch. In this case, the physical therapist is testing for clonus, so they would want to provide a quick stretch to the plantar flexors, which are the muscles responsible for pointing the foot downward. This stretch would help elicit the clonus response in the patient, allowing the therapist to assess their muscle reflexes.

Explanation

The correct answer is to provide a quick stretch to the plantar flexors. Clonus is a rhythmic muscle contraction and relaxation that occurs in response to a quick stretch. In this case, the physical therapist is testing for clonus, so they would want to provide a quick stretch to the plantar flexors, which are the muscles responsible for pointing the foot downward. This stretch would help elicit the clonus response in the patient, allowing the therapist to assess their muscle reflexes.

67. To practice physical therapy according to the tenets of evidence-based medicine, a physical therapist must:

Use tests and measurements with known reliability and validity

Use systematic reviews and randomized controlled trials as sources of research evidence

Research evidence refers to clinically relevant research, especially patient-centered clinical research. Clinical expertise

To practice physical therapy according to the tenets of evidence-based medicine, a physical therapist must integrate the best research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient values in clinical decision-making. This means that they should consider the most up-to-date and relevant research evidence, combine it with their own clinical expertise, and take into account the values and preferences of the patient. Additionally, they should respect the rights and dignity of the patients throughout the treatment process. This approach ensures that the physical therapist is providing the most effective and personalized care to the patient based on the available evidence and their professional judgment.

Explanation

To practice physical therapy according to the tenets of evidence-based medicine, a physical therapist must integrate the best research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient values in clinical decision-making. This means that they should consider the most up-to-date and relevant research evidence, combine it with their own clinical expertise, and take into account the values and preferences of the patient. Additionally, they should respect the rights and dignity of the patients throughout the treatment process. This approach ensures that the physical therapist is providing the most effective and personalized care to the patient based on the available evidence and their professional judgment.

68. True or False: Someone who is classified as "Deaf" does not have to rely completely on visual communication.

True

False

This statement is false because someone who is classified as "Deaf" typically relies on visual communication, such as sign language, facial expressions, and lip reading, as their primary mode of communication. While they may also use other forms of communication, such as written or electronic means, visual communication is essential for effective communication for individuals who are deaf.

Explanation

This statement is false because someone who is classified as "Deaf" typically relies on visual communication, such as sign language, facial expressions, and lip reading, as their primary mode of communication. While they may also use other forms of communication, such as written or electronic means, visual communication is essential for effective communication for individuals who are deaf.

69. A physical therapist assesses the strength of selected lower extremity muscles on a patient rehabilitating from a knee injury. The pictured test would be MOST effective to examine the strength of the:

Hip abductors

Hip adductors

Hip medial rotators

Hip lateral rotators

The pictured test would be most effective to examine the strength of the hip lateral rotators because the patient is lying on their side with the knee flexed and the hip in a neutral position. In this position, the hip lateral rotators, which include muscles like the piriformis and gemellus muscles, are responsible for rotating the thigh outward. By applying resistance to the outer part of the ankle, the physical therapist can assess the strength of these muscles by observing the patient's ability to maintain the position against the resistance.

Explanation

The pictured test would be most effective to examine the strength of the hip lateral rotators because the patient is lying on their side with the knee flexed and the hip in a neutral position. In this position, the hip lateral rotators, which include muscles like the piriformis and gemellus muscles, are responsible for rotating the thigh outward. By applying resistance to the outer part of the ankle, the physical therapist can assess the strength of these muscles by observing the patient's ability to maintain the position against the resistance.

70. A physical therapist completes a developmental assessment on an infant. Which pediatric reflex would the therapist expect to be integrated at the youngest age?

Plantar grasp reflex

Moro reflex

Landau reflex

Galant reflex

The Galant reflex is a primitive reflex that is present in infants from birth to about 2-3 months of age. It is characterized by a lateral flexion of the trunk when the infant's skin along the spine is stroked. As the infant grows, this reflex is integrated and disappears. Therefore, the physical therapist would expect the Galant reflex to be integrated at the youngest age compared to the other reflexes mentioned (plantar grasp reflex, Moro reflex, and Landau reflex).

Explanation

The Galant reflex is a primitive reflex that is present in infants from birth to about 2-3 months of age. It is characterized by a lateral flexion of the trunk when the infant's skin along the spine is stroked. As the infant grows, this reflex is integrated and disappears. Therefore, the physical therapist would expect the Galant reflex to be integrated at the youngest age compared to the other reflexes mentioned (plantar grasp reflex, Moro reflex, and Landau reflex).

71. A physical therapist inspects a patient's wound prior to applying a dressing. When documenting the findings in the medical record the therapist classifies the exudate from the wound as serous. Based on the documentation, the MOST likely color of the exudate is:

Purple

Green

Red

Yellow

The color of serous exudate is typically clear or pale yellow. Serous exudate is a thin, watery fluid that is produced in response to tissue injury. When a physical therapist classifies the exudate as "serous" in the medical record, it suggests that the exudate is clear or pale yellow in color. This is a common type of wound drainage and is often seen in the early stages of wound healing when the body is trying to clean and repair the injured tissue.

Explanation

The color of serous exudate is typically clear or pale yellow. Serous exudate is a thin, watery fluid that is produced in response to tissue injury. When a physical therapist classifies the exudate as "serous" in the medical record, it suggests that the exudate is clear or pale yellow in color. This is a common type of wound drainage and is often seen in the early stages of wound healing when the body is trying to clean and repair the injured tissue.

72. When the right foot is on the ground during gait, the right femur would _______if the gluteus medials is too weak

Adduct

Abduct

Medially rotate

Laterally rotate

If the gluteus medialis is too weak, it would cause the right femur to adduct when the right foot is on the ground during gait. Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. In this case, the weak gluteus medialis would cause the right femur to move towards the midline of the body, resulting in adduction.

Explanation

If the gluteus medialis is too weak, it would cause the right femur to adduct when the right foot is on the ground during gait. Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. In this case, the weak gluteus medialis would cause the right femur to move towards the midline of the body, resulting in adduction.

73. During early knee flexion the patella shifts ____________to enter the femoral groove

Medial

Lateral

During early knee flexion, the patella shifts medially to enter the femoral groove. This is because the patella is a small bone located in front of the knee joint, and it acts as a protective shield for the knee joint. As the knee flexes, the patella needs to align itself with the femoral groove, which is located on the medial side of the knee joint. This alignment allows for smooth movement and stability of the knee joint during flexion.

Explanation

During early knee flexion, the patella shifts medially to enter the femoral groove. This is because the patella is a small bone located in front of the knee joint, and it acts as a protective shield for the knee joint. As the knee flexes, the patella needs to align itself with the femoral groove, which is located on the medial side of the knee joint. This alignment allows for smooth movement and stability of the knee joint during flexion.

74. True or false? proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility is a form of stretching

True

False

Proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility is not a form of stretching. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) is a technique used to improve flexibility and range of motion, which involves a combination of stretching and muscle contraction. However, proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility refers to the ability of the body to sense and control joint movements, rather than a specific stretching technique. Therefore, the given answer "false" is correct.

Explanation

Proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility is not a form of stretching. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) is a technique used to improve flexibility and range of motion, which involves a combination of stretching and muscle contraction. However, proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility refers to the ability of the body to sense and control joint movements, rather than a specific stretching technique. Therefore, the given answer "false" is correct.

75. A patient with chronic pulmonary dysfunction is placed on a corticosteroid medication to reduce mucosal edema and inflammation. The MOST common cardiovascular side effect of corticosteroids is:

Palpitations

Arrhythmias

Increased blood pressure

Tachycardia

Corticosteroids are known to cause an increase in blood pressure as a common cardiovascular side effect. This is because corticosteroids can cause the retention of sodium and water, leading to an increase in blood volume and subsequently an increase in blood pressure. This effect is more pronounced in patients with chronic pulmonary dysfunction who are already at risk for cardiovascular complications. Palpitations, arrhythmias, and tachycardia are not the most common cardiovascular side effects associated with corticosteroid use.

Explanation

Corticosteroids are known to cause an increase in blood pressure as a common cardiovascular side effect. This is because corticosteroids can cause the retention of sodium and water, leading to an increase in blood volume and subsequently an increase in blood pressure. This effect is more pronounced in patients with chronic pulmonary dysfunction who are already at risk for cardiovascular complications. Palpitations, arrhythmias, and tachycardia are not the most common cardiovascular side effects associated with corticosteroid use.

76. A 65 year old man is experiencing bone on bone joint pain in his knees (osteoarthritis). His has a sever VARUS alignment of the knees. Most likely his pain is in the ____________region of the knee joint compartment

The patient's severe VARUS alignment of the knees indicates that his knees are deviating inward, causing increased pressure on the inner side of the joint. This alignment puts excessive stress on the medial compartment of the knee joint, leading to bone on bone contact and resulting in the pain experienced by the patient. Therefore, the most likely region of the knee joint compartment where the pain is located is the medial side.

Explanation

The patient's severe VARUS alignment of the knees indicates that his knees are deviating inward, causing increased pressure on the inner side of the joint. This alignment puts excessive stress on the medial compartment of the knee joint, leading to bone on bone contact and resulting in the pain experienced by the patient. Therefore, the most likely region of the knee joint compartment where the pain is located is the medial side.

Submit

77. An individual with pes planus would have accompanying__________ rotation of the tibia and a(n) _________Q-angle

Lateral, increased

Lateral, decreased

Medial, increased

Medial, decreased

An individual with pes planus, also known as flat feet, would have accompanying medial rotation of the tibia and an increased Q-angle. This is because pes planus causes the arch of the foot to collapse, leading to the inward rotation of the tibia. The increased Q-angle refers to the angle formed by the line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine to the center of the patella and the line drawn from the center of the patella to the tibial tuberosity. In individuals with pes planus, the increased Q-angle is a result of the inward rotation of the tibia.

Explanation

An individual with pes planus, also known as flat feet, would have accompanying medial rotation of the tibia and an increased Q-angle. This is because pes planus causes the arch of the foot to collapse, leading to the inward rotation of the tibia. The increased Q-angle refers to the angle formed by the line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine to the center of the patella and the line drawn from the center of the patella to the tibial tuberosity. In individuals with pes planus, the increased Q-angle is a result of the inward rotation of the tibia.

78. The feeling that a person gets that says they "need" to use a drug is known as........

Substance Abuse

Withdrawals

Physical Dependence

Psychological Dependence

Psychological dependence refers to the emotional and mental reliance on a drug, where a person feels a strong desire or craving to use it. This feeling is not necessarily related to the physical need for the drug, but rather the psychological need for the pleasurable effects or the belief that the drug is necessary for coping with stress or other emotional issues. It is characterized by intense cravings, preoccupation with obtaining and using the drug, and difficulty in controlling or stopping its use. Psychological dependence can be a significant factor in drug addiction and can contribute to the cycle of substance abuse.

Explanation

Psychological dependence refers to the emotional and mental reliance on a drug, where a person feels a strong desire or craving to use it. This feeling is not necessarily related to the physical need for the drug, but rather the psychological need for the pleasurable effects or the belief that the drug is necessary for coping with stress or other emotional issues. It is characterized by intense cravings, preoccupation with obtaining and using the drug, and difficulty in controlling or stopping its use. Psychological dependence can be a significant factor in drug addiction and can contribute to the cycle of substance abuse.

79. A group of physical therapists employed in an acute care hospital is responsible for developing departmental guidelines for electrical equipment care and safety. What is the MINIMUM required testing interval for electrical equipment?

3 months

6 months

12 months

24 months

The minimum required testing interval for electrical equipment in an acute care hospital is 12 months. This means that the physical therapists employed in the hospital should conduct testing and maintenance on the electrical equipment at least once every year to ensure its proper functionality and safety.

Explanation

The minimum required testing interval for electrical equipment in an acute care hospital is 12 months. This means that the physical therapists employed in the hospital should conduct testing and maintenance on the electrical equipment at least once every year to ensure its proper functionality and safety.

80. A large majority of Florida cases involving defendants who are hearing impaired are dismissed because of events occuring ______ Miranda rights are explained.

Before

During

After

In the process of

A large majority of Florida cases involving defendants who are hearing impaired are dismissed because of events occurring before Miranda rights are explained. This suggests that the defendants' inability to hear and understand their rights may lead to their cases being dismissed.

Explanation

A large majority of Florida cases involving defendants who are hearing impaired are dismissed because of events occurring before Miranda rights are explained. This suggests that the defendants' inability to hear and understand their rights may lead to their cases being dismissed.

81. True or False: English is a second language for those that are hearing impaired.

True

False

English is considered a second language for those who are hearing impaired because their primary language is typically sign language. Sign language is a visual language that uses gestures, facial expressions, and body movements to communicate. English is often taught as a second language to individuals who are hearing impaired so that they can effectively communicate with those who primarily use spoken English. Therefore, it is true that English is a second language for those who are hearing impaired.

Explanation

English is considered a second language for those who are hearing impaired because their primary language is typically sign language. Sign language is a visual language that uses gestures, facial expressions, and body movements to communicate. English is often taught as a second language to individuals who are hearing impaired so that they can effectively communicate with those who primarily use spoken English. Therefore, it is true that English is a second language for those who are hearing impaired.

82. A physical therapist observes a patient during gait training. The patient has normal strength and equal leg length. As the patient passes midstance he slightly vaults and exhibits early toe off. The MOST likely cause of this deviation is:

Weakness of the dorsiflexors

Weakness of the hip abductors

Limited plantar flexion

Limited dorslflexion

The patient's deviation of slightly vaulting and exhibiting early toe off during gait training suggests limited dorsiflexion as the most likely cause. Dorsiflexion refers to the upward movement of the foot at the ankle joint, allowing the toes to move towards the shin. Limited dorsiflexion can result in difficulty in clearing the foot during the swing phase of gait, leading to compensatory movements such as vaulting and early toe off. This explanation aligns with the observation that the patient has normal strength and equal leg length, ruling out weakness of the dorsiflexors or hip abductors as potential causes.

Explanation

The patient's deviation of slightly vaulting and exhibiting early toe off during gait training suggests limited dorsiflexion as the most likely cause. Dorsiflexion refers to the upward movement of the foot at the ankle joint, allowing the toes to move towards the shin. Limited dorsiflexion can result in difficulty in clearing the foot during the swing phase of gait, leading to compensatory movements such as vaulting and early toe off. This explanation aligns with the observation that the patient has normal strength and equal leg length, ruling out weakness of the dorsiflexors or hip abductors as potential causes.

83. True or False: Advancing age is synonymous with disease and disability

True

False

The statement suggests that advancing age is not synonymous with disease and disability. This means that just because someone is getting older, it does not necessarily mean that they will automatically experience more health problems or become disabled. While aging can increase the risk of certain health conditions, it is not a guarantee that everyone will develop them. Many older adults lead healthy and active lives without significant disease or disability. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

Explanation

The statement suggests that advancing age is not synonymous with disease and disability. This means that just because someone is getting older, it does not necessarily mean that they will automatically experience more health problems or become disabled. While aging can increase the risk of certain health conditions, it is not a guarantee that everyone will develop them. Many older adults lead healthy and active lives without significant disease or disability. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

84. Which is NOT a behavioral property of musculotendon units

Irritability

Elasticity

Extensability

Compressability

Ability to develop tension

Compression refers to the ability of a musculotendon unit to be compressed or shortened under external forces. However, this is not a behavioral property of musculotendon units. Musculotendon units are primarily responsible for generating tension and force, allowing for movement and locomotion. They also possess properties such as irritability (ability to respond to stimuli), elasticity (ability to return to its original shape after being stretched), and extensibility (ability to be stretched without damage). Therefore, compressibility is the correct answer as it does not align with the behavioral properties of musculotendon units.

Explanation

Compression refers to the ability of a musculotendon unit to be compressed or shortened under external forces. However, this is not a behavioral property of musculotendon units. Musculotendon units are primarily responsible for generating tension and force, allowing for movement and locomotion. They also possess properties such as irritability (ability to respond to stimuli), elasticity (ability to return to its original shape after being stretched), and extensibility (ability to be stretched without damage). Therefore, compressibility is the correct answer as it does not align with the behavioral properties of musculotendon units.

85. A runner is diagnosed with functional ankle instability. They most likely experience muscle impairment in the

Gastroc

Peroneus longus

Tibialis anterior

Functional ankle instability refers to a condition where the ankle joint is unstable and prone to giving way during physical activities. The peroneus longus muscle plays a crucial role in ankle stability by providing support to the lateral side of the foot and ankle. Therefore, if a runner is diagnosed with functional ankle instability, it is likely that they would experience muscle impairment in the peroneus longus muscle. This impairment can lead to decreased stability and increased risk of ankle sprains or injuries.

Explanation

Functional ankle instability refers to a condition where the ankle joint is unstable and prone to giving way during physical activities. The peroneus longus muscle plays a crucial role in ankle stability by providing support to the lateral side of the foot and ankle. Therefore, if a runner is diagnosed with functional ankle instability, it is likely that they would experience muscle impairment in the peroneus longus muscle. This impairment can lead to decreased stability and increased risk of ankle sprains or injuries.

86. A 60 year old female is complaining of severe pain in her big toe. She has been a lifelong wearer of high heels. Most likely she has a condition called

The given information suggests that the 60-year-old female has been wearing high heels for a long time and is experiencing severe pain in her big toe. This is indicative of a condition called Hallux Valgus, also known as hallux valgus. Hallux Valgus refers to the misalignment of the big toe, causing it to point towards the other toes. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who wear tight or ill-fitting shoes, such as high heels, which can put pressure on the toes and cause deformities. Therefore, it is likely that the patient's severe pain in her big toe is due to Hallux Valgus.

Explanation

The given information suggests that the 60-year-old female has been wearing high heels for a long time and is experiencing severe pain in her big toe. This is indicative of a condition called Hallux Valgus, also known as hallux valgus. Hallux Valgus refers to the misalignment of the big toe, causing it to point towards the other toes. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who wear tight or ill-fitting shoes, such as high heels, which can put pressure on the toes and cause deformities. Therefore, it is likely that the patient's severe pain in her big toe is due to Hallux Valgus.

Submit

87. An elderly person

Is at a higher risk of suicide than lower age groups

Is at a higher risk of committing felonies than lower age groups

Is at a lower risk of abuse than lower age groups

Is at a lower risk of suicide than lower age groups

As individuals age, they may face various challenges such as declining physical health, loss of loved ones, loneliness, and financial difficulties, which can contribute to feelings of hopelessness and despair. These factors, combined with the potential lack of social support and limited access to mental health services, can increase the risk of suicide among the elderly. Therefore, the statement that elderly people are at a higher risk of suicide than lower age groups is a valid explanation.

Explanation

As individuals age, they may face various challenges such as declining physical health, loss of loved ones, loneliness, and financial difficulties, which can contribute to feelings of hopelessness and despair. These factors, combined with the potential lack of social support and limited access to mental health services, can increase the risk of suicide among the elderly. Therefore, the statement that elderly people are at a higher risk of suicide than lower age groups is a valid explanation.

88. The labrum of the hip is a load bearing structure

True

False

The labrum of the hip is not a load-bearing structure. The labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of the hip joint, providing stability and cushioning. While it plays an important role in maintaining the stability of the hip joint, it does not bear the weight or load that is placed on the hip. The load-bearing structures of the hip include the bones, such as the femur and pelvis, and the surrounding muscles and ligaments.

Explanation

The labrum of the hip is not a load-bearing structure. The labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of the hip joint, providing stability and cushioning. While it plays an important role in maintaining the stability of the hip joint, it does not bear the weight or load that is placed on the hip. The load-bearing structures of the hip include the bones, such as the femur and pelvis, and the surrounding muscles and ligaments.

89. Femoro-acetabular impingement can be caused by an overgrowth of the femoral neck. This has been defined as

Cam Impingement

Pincer Impingement

pincer impingment is overgrowth of the acetabulum

Explanation

pincer impingment is overgrowth of the acetabulum

90. There are two types of hearing loss. One is "Deafness". What is the other?

Hard of hearing

Listening impairment

Complete hearing loss

Stage II Deafness

The correct answer is "Hard of hearing". This is because the question states that there are two types of hearing loss, one being "Deafness". Therefore, the other type of hearing loss would be "Hard of hearing".

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hard of hearing". This is because the question states that there are two types of hearing loss, one being "Deafness". Therefore, the other type of hearing loss would be "Hard of hearing".

91. Inversion and eversion of the foot occurs at what joint?

The inversion and eversion of the foot occur at the subtalar joint. This joint is located between the talus bone of the foot and the calcaneus bone of the ankle. It allows for the side-to-side movement of the foot, enabling the foot to tilt inward (inversion) or outward (eversion). The subtalar joint plays a crucial role in maintaining balance and stability during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

Explanation

The inversion and eversion of the foot occur at the subtalar joint. This joint is located between the talus bone of the foot and the calcaneus bone of the ankle. It allows for the side-to-side movement of the foot, enabling the foot to tilt inward (inversion) or outward (eversion). The subtalar joint plays a crucial role in maintaining balance and stability during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

Submit

92. These types of drugs have no medicinal value, have the greatest potential for drug abuse/addiction, and can be the most harmful to a person's health.

Schedule I

Schedule II

Schedule IV

Schedule V

Schedule I drugs are classified as such because they have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and harmful to a person's health. They are tightly regulated and illegal to possess or distribute. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Due to their potential for abuse and lack of medicinal value, Schedule I drugs are considered to be the most harmful substances and are strictly controlled by law enforcement.

Explanation

Schedule I drugs are classified as such because they have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and harmful to a person's health. They are tightly regulated and illegal to possess or distribute. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Due to their potential for abuse and lack of medicinal value, Schedule I drugs are considered to be the most harmful substances and are strictly controlled by law enforcement.

93. An excessively tight bicep femoris would result in

Lateral

Medial

An excessively tight bicep femoris muscle can result in anterior discomfort or pain. This is because the bicep femoris muscle is located on the back of the thigh and connects to the pelvis and knee. When it becomes overly tight, it can pull on the pelvis, causing it to tilt forward. This anterior pelvic tilt can lead to increased stress and strain on the lower back and hip flexors, resulting in discomfort or pain in the anterior region of the body.

Explanation

An excessively tight bicep femoris muscle can result in anterior discomfort or pain. This is because the bicep femoris muscle is located on the back of the thigh and connects to the pelvis and knee. When it becomes overly tight, it can pull on the pelvis, causing it to tilt forward. This anterior pelvic tilt can lead to increased stress and strain on the lower back and hip flexors, resulting in discomfort or pain in the anterior region of the body.

94. Regardless of method of intake (Inhaled, Injected, Ingested, or Smoked), the effects of Cocaine/Crack last.....

1-2 hours

3-4 hours

6-9 hours

10-15 hours

The effects of cocaine/crack typically last for a relatively short duration of 1-2 hours, regardless of how it is consumed (inhaled, injected, ingested, or smoked). This short duration is due to the rapid metabolism and elimination of cocaine from the body. It is important to note that individual experiences may vary and factors such as dose, purity, and frequency of use can influence the duration and intensity of the effects.

Explanation

The effects of cocaine/crack typically last for a relatively short duration of 1-2 hours, regardless of how it is consumed (inhaled, injected, ingested, or smoked). This short duration is due to the rapid metabolism and elimination of cocaine from the body. It is important to note that individual experiences may vary and factors such as dose, purity, and frequency of use can influence the duration and intensity of the effects.

95. Weakness in the _________ will result in potential for patellar maltracking

A weakness in the VMO (vastus medialis obliques) muscle can lead to potential patellar maltracking. The VMO is one of the quadriceps muscles located on the inner side of the thigh, and it plays a crucial role in stabilizing the patella (kneecap) during movement. When the VMO is weak or imbalanced compared to other quadriceps muscles, it can cause the patella to shift or track incorrectly, leading to pain and dysfunction in the knee joint. Therefore, addressing VMO weakness through targeted exercises and rehabilitation is important in preventing and treating patellar maltracking.

Explanation

A weakness in the VMO (vastus medialis obliques) muscle can lead to potential patellar maltracking. The VMO is one of the quadriceps muscles located on the inner side of the thigh, and it plays a crucial role in stabilizing the patella (kneecap) during movement. When the VMO is weak or imbalanced compared to other quadriceps muscles, it can cause the patella to shift or track incorrectly, leading to pain and dysfunction in the knee joint. Therefore, addressing VMO weakness through targeted exercises and rehabilitation is important in preventing and treating patellar maltracking.

Submit

96. A physical therapist treats a patient following a lower extremity amputation. The patient is currently one week post amputation and has a post-operative rigid dressing. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the rigid dressing7

Limits the development of post-operative edema in the residual limb

Allows for earlier ambulation with the attachment of a pylon and foot

Allows for earlier fitting of a definitive prosthesis

Allows for dally wound inspection and dressing changes

The rigid dressing does not allow for earlier fitting of a definitive prosthesis. This is because the rigid dressing is used immediately after the amputation surgery to protect the residual limb and promote healing. It is typically replaced with a temporary or preparatory prosthesis before fitting a definitive prosthesis, which is a custom-made prosthesis designed for long-term use.

Explanation

The rigid dressing does not allow for earlier fitting of a definitive prosthesis. This is because the rigid dressing is used immediately after the amputation surgery to protect the residual limb and promote healing. It is typically replaced with a temporary or preparatory prosthesis before fitting a definitive prosthesis, which is a custom-made prosthesis designed for long-term use.

97. Damage to the labrum of the hip typically occurs in what regions (check all that apply)

Superior

Inferior

Medial

Damage to the labrum of the hip typically occurs in the anterior and superior regions. The labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of the hip joint, providing stability and cushioning. Anterior damage can occur due to repetitive movements or trauma, such as sudden twisting or pivoting. Superior damage can happen as a result of impingement or excessive pressure on the labrum from the top of the thigh bone. Damage to other regions like posterior, inferior, or medial is not commonly associated with labral injuries in the hip.

Explanation

Damage to the labrum of the hip typically occurs in the anterior and superior regions. The labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of the hip joint, providing stability and cushioning. Anterior damage can occur due to repetitive movements or trauma, such as sudden twisting or pivoting. Superior damage can happen as a result of impingement or excessive pressure on the labrum from the top of the thigh bone. Damage to other regions like posterior, inferior, or medial is not commonly associated with labral injuries in the hip.

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98. Name the state of a muscle producing sustained maximal tension resulting from repetitive stimulation

Tetanus, also known as tetnus, refers to the state of a muscle producing sustained maximal tension as a result of repetitive stimulation. This condition occurs when the muscle fibers are stimulated at such a high frequency that they are unable to relax fully between contractions. As a result, the muscle remains in a contracted state, leading to sustained maximal tension. Tetanus can be caused by various factors such as nerve damage or certain infections, and it can result in symptoms like muscle stiffness, spasms, and difficulty in movement.

Explanation

Tetanus, also known as tetnus, refers to the state of a muscle producing sustained maximal tension as a result of repetitive stimulation. This condition occurs when the muscle fibers are stimulated at such a high frequency that they are unable to relax fully between contractions. As a result, the muscle remains in a contracted state, leading to sustained maximal tension. Tetanus can be caused by various factors such as nerve damage or certain infections, and it can result in symptoms like muscle stiffness, spasms, and difficulty in movement.

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99. The carry angle normally ranges from ________degrees in adults

The carry angle, also known as the cubital valgus angle, refers to the angle formed between the upper arm and forearm when the arm is in a relaxed position. In adults, this angle typically ranges from 10 to 15 degrees.

Explanation

The carry angle, also known as the cubital valgus angle, refers to the angle formed between the upper arm and forearm when the arm is in a relaxed position. In adults, this angle typically ranges from 10 to 15 degrees.

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100. At 90˚ knee flexion the Patellofemoral compressive force is expected to be the highest for a

Weight bearing activity

Nonweight bearing activity

The polka

At 90˚ knee flexion, the Patellofemoral compressive force is expected to be the highest for a weight bearing activity. This is because weight bearing activities involve the use of the lower body, specifically the legs and knees, to support the body's weight. The patellofemoral joint, which is the joint between the kneecap (patella) and the thighbone (femur), experiences increased pressure and stress during weight bearing activities. In contrast, nonweight bearing activities do not put as much pressure on the patellofemoral joint. The polka is not a relevant option as it is not an activity that involves weight bearing or knee flexion.

Explanation

At 90˚ knee flexion, the Patellofemoral compressive force is expected to be the highest for a weight bearing activity. This is because weight bearing activities involve the use of the lower body, specifically the legs and knees, to support the body's weight. The patellofemoral joint, which is the joint between the kneecap (patella) and the thighbone (femur), experiences increased pressure and stress during weight bearing activities. In contrast, nonweight bearing activities do not put as much pressure on the patellofemoral joint. The polka is not a relevant option as it is not an activity that involves weight bearing or knee flexion.

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101. What is the pattern of eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction

The pattern of eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction is known as the stretch-shorten cycle or the stretch shorten cycle. This cycle involves the muscle lengthening (eccentric contraction) followed by a rapid shortening (concentric contraction). This sequence of contractions allows for a greater force production during the concentric phase due to the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase. The stretch-shorten cycle is commonly observed in activities such as jumping, sprinting, and throwing, where the muscle undergoes a rapid stretch before quickly contracting to produce a powerful movement.

Explanation

The pattern of eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction is known as the stretch-shorten cycle or the stretch shorten cycle. This cycle involves the muscle lengthening (eccentric contraction) followed by a rapid shortening (concentric contraction). This sequence of contractions allows for a greater force production during the concentric phase due to the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase. The stretch-shorten cycle is commonly observed in activities such as jumping, sprinting, and throwing, where the muscle undergoes a rapid stretch before quickly contracting to produce a powerful movement.

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