Pt/Ot Haad Simulation Exam 4

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1/101 Questions

A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital attempts to identify a standardized instrument that measures level of consciousness. The MOST appropriate standardized instrument is the:
- Glasgow Coma Scale
- Modified Rankin Scale
- Barthel Index
- Sickness Impact Profile

About This Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes.
You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Ptonline. Weebly. Com
THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH.
THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING

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2.

Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is known as........
- Substance Use
- Substance Abuse
- Substance Neglect
- Withdrawal
Correct Answer

A. Substance Use

Explanation

Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is referred to as substance use. This means that the individual is using the medication as intended, following the instructions provided on the label. Substance abuse, on the other hand, refers to the misuse or excessive use of a substance, while substance neglect refers to the failure to use a substance as prescribed. Withdrawal, on the other hand, is the set of symptoms that occur when a person stops using a substance abruptly after prolonged use.

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3.

A physical therapist notices a small area of skin irritation under the chin of a patient wearing a Philadelphia collar. The patient expresses that the area is not painful, but is becoming increasingly itchy. The MOST appropriate therapist action is:
- Instruct the patient to apply 1% hydrocortisone cream to the area twice daily
- Apply powder to the area and instruct the patient to avoid scratching
- provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis
- Discontinue use of the orthosis until the skin has become less irritated
Correct Answer

A. provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis

Explanation

The most appropriate therapist action in this situation is to provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis. This action addresses the issue of skin irritation by creating a protective layer between the patient's skin and the collar, preventing further irritation and allowing the skin to heal. It is a proactive approach that does not involve medication or discontinuing the use of the orthosis, which may be necessary for the patient's condition.

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2
4.

A patient four weeks status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction questions a physical therapist as to why he is still partial weight bearing. An acceptable rationale is:
- The patient does not have full active knee extension
- The patient has good quadriceps strength
- The patient has fair hamstrings strength
- The patient has diminished superficial cutaneous sensation
Correct Answer

A. The patient does not have full active knee extension

Explanation

The patient not having full active knee extension can be an acceptable rationale for why he is still partial weight bearing four weeks post ACL reconstruction. Full active knee extension is important for weight bearing and normal gait mechanics. If the patient is unable to fully extend the knee, it may indicate that the knee is not stable or strong enough to bear full weight yet. This could be due to factors such as swelling, pain, or muscle weakness. Therefore, it is reasonable to continue with partial weight bearing until full active knee extension is achieved.

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5.

A patient rehabilitating from a total hip arthroplasty receives home physical therapy services. The patient is currently full weight bearing and is able to ascend and descend stairs independently. The patient expresses that her goal following rehabilitation is to walk one mile each day. The MOST appropriate plan to accomplish the patient's goal is to:
- Continue home physical therapy services until the patient's goal is attained
- Refer the patient to an outpatient orthopedic physical therapy clinic
- Design a home exercise program that emphasizes progressive ambulation
- Admit the patient to a rehabilitation hospital
Correct Answer

A. Design a home exercise program that emphasizes progressive ambulation

Explanation

The most appropriate plan to accomplish the patient's goal of walking one mile each day is to design a home exercise program that emphasizes progressive ambulation. This approach allows the patient to continue receiving physical therapy services at home while gradually increasing their walking distance. It is a more cost-effective and convenient option compared to continuing home physical therapy services indefinitely or referring the patient to an outpatient clinic. Admitting the patient to a rehabilitation hospital is not necessary as they are already full weight bearing and able to perform stairs independently.

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6.

A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient with a spinal cord injury. A note recently entered by the physician indicates that the patient contracted a respiratory Infection. Which patient would be MOST susceptible to this condition?
- A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia
- A patient with a cauda equina lesion
- A patient with Brown-Sequard's syndrome
- A patient with posterior cord syndrome
Correct Answer

A. A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia

Explanation

A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia would be most susceptible to a respiratory infection because the injury at the C4 level affects the function of the diaphragm and the muscles involved in breathing. This can lead to impaired respiratory function and difficulty clearing secretions from the lungs, making the patient more vulnerable to respiratory infections.

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1
7.

A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with spinal stenosis. As part of the treatment program the patient lies prone on a treatment plinth with a hot pack draped over the low back. The MOST effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is:
- Check on the patient at least every ten minutes
- Supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot
- Instruct the patient to remove the hot pack If it becomes too hot
- Select an alternate superfidal heating modality
Correct Answer

A. Supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot

Explanation

The most effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is to supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot. This allows the patient to communicate any discomfort or excessive heat immediately, ensuring their safety and preventing any potential burns or injuries. Regularly checking on the patient every ten minutes may not be sufficient to catch any sudden changes in temperature, while instructing the patient to remove the hot pack if it becomes too hot may not be practical or feasible for patients with limited mobility. Selecting an alternate superficial heating modality may not be necessary if the hot pack is used appropriately and monitored effectively.

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8.

A physical therapist asks a patient who has been inconsistent with his attendance in physical therapy, why he is having difficulty keeping scheduled appointments. The patient responds that it is difficult to understand the scheduling card that lists the appointments. The therapist's MOST appropriate action would be to:
- Contact the referring physician to discuss the patient's poor attendance in therapy
- Make sure the patient Is given a scheduling card atthe conclusion of each session
- Write down the patients appoinlbments on a piece of paper in a manner that the
- Patient can understand discharge the patient from physical therapy
Correct Answer

A. Write down the patients appoinlbments on a piece of paper in a manner that the

Explanation

patient can understand

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2
9.

A physical therapist examines a patient with a limited straight leg raise of 40 degrees due to inadequate hamstrings length. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the MOST appropriate to increase the patient's hamstrings length?
- Contract-relax
- Rhythmic initiation
- Rhythmic stabilization
- Rhythmic rotation
Correct Answer

A. Contract-relax

Explanation

The contract-relax technique would be the most appropriate to increase the patient's hamstrings length. This technique involves contracting the muscle being stretched for a few seconds and then relaxing it, which can help to increase the muscle's length and flexibility. In this case, by contracting and then relaxing the hamstrings, the physical therapist can help to improve the patient's straight leg raise and increase their hamstrings length.

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10.

A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital conducts an initial interview with a patient referred to physical therapy. During the interview, the therapist asks the patient if he feels dependent on coffee, tea or soft drinks. Which clinical scenario would MOST appropriately warrant this type of question?
- a 27-year-old female status post arthroscopic medial meniscectomy
- A 42-year-old male with premature ventricular contractions
- A 37-year-old female with restrictive pulmonary disease
- A 57-year-old male with respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer

A. A 42-year-old male with premature ventricular contractions

Explanation

The therapist asks the patient if he feels dependent on coffee, tea, or soft drinks because caffeine intake can potentially exacerbate premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Caffeine is a stimulant that can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which may trigger or worsen PVCs in individuals with underlying heart conditions. Therefore, it is important to assess the patient's caffeine consumption to determine if it is contributing to their PVCs and to provide appropriate recommendations for managing their condition.

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11.

A patient prepares for discharge from a rehabilitation hospital after completing three months of therapy. The patient has made significant progress in his rehabilitation, however, expresses concern that his previous employer may not want him to return to work due to his injury. The MOST appropriate action is to:
- Explain to the patient that to return to work after a serious injury is very difficult
- Inform the patient of his rights according to the Americans with Disabilities Act
- Request that the patient consider vocational retraining
- Refer the patient to a psychologist to assist with the transition back to work
Correct Answer

A. Inform the patient of his rights according to the Americans with Disabilities Act

Explanation

The MOST appropriate action in this situation is to inform the patient of his rights according to the Americans with Disabilities Act. This act protects individuals with disabilities from discrimination in the workplace and ensures that they have equal opportunities for employment. By informing the patient of his rights, he will be empowered to advocate for himself and address any concerns or potential issues with his previous employer. This action supports the patient's successful transition back to work and helps him understand the legal protections available to him.

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12.

A physical therapist assigns a manual muscle test grade of 4 to patient A and a grade of 2 to patient B. Which of the following is the BEST interpretation of the strength of the patients?
- Patients A and B have equal strength
- Patient A is stronger than patient B
- Patient A is twice as strong as patient B
- Patient B is twice as strong as patient A
Correct Answer

A. Patient A is stronger than patient B

Explanation

The manual muscle test grade of 4 indicates that patient A has good muscle strength, while the grade of 2 suggests that patient B has poor muscle strength. Therefore, the best interpretation is that patient A is stronger than patient B.

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13.

A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. When working on controlled mobility, which of the following would BEST describe the physical therapist's objective?
- Facilitate postural muscle control
- Promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control
- Emphasize reciprocal extremity movement
- Facilitate tone and rigidity
Correct Answer

A. Promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control

Explanation

The physical therapist's objective in working on controlled mobility with a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is to promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control. This is important because Parkinson's disease can cause difficulties with balance and movement control, and promoting weight shifting and rotational trunk control can help improve the patient's ability to maintain balance and perform functional movements.

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7
14.

A patient rehabilitating from a traumatic head injury is lethargic since being placed on Phenobarbital. The PRIMARY purpose of the medication is to:
- decrease agitation
- Prevent seizures
- Reduce spasticity
- Limit arrhythmias
Correct Answer

A. Prevent seizures

Explanation

Phenobarbital is a medication commonly used to prevent seizures in patients with head injuries. This is because head injuries can often lead to an increased risk of seizures, and Phenobarbital helps to stabilize the electrical activity in the brain, reducing the likelihood of seizures occurring. In this case, the patient's lethargy can be attributed to the medication's sedative effects, which are a common side effect of Phenobarbital. However, the primary purpose of prescribing Phenobarbital in this scenario is to prevent seizures rather than to address the patient's lethargy.

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15.

A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist elects to measure the patient's Q angle. Which three bony landmarks are used to measure the Q angle?
- Anterior superior lilac spine, superior border of the patella, tibial tubercle
- Anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle
- Anterior superior lilac spine, inferior border of the patella, midpoint of the patella tendon
- Greater trochanter, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle
Correct Answer

A. Anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle

Explanation

The Q angle is a measurement used to assess the alignment of the patella (kneecap) and the femur (thigh bone). It is measured by drawing a line from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the midpoint of the patella, and then another line from the tibial tubercle to the midpoint of the patella. The angle formed between these two lines is the Q angle. Therefore, the correct answer is "anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle."

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1
16.

A patient with acute back pain is given a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit to use at home. The physical therapist provides detailed instructions on the care and use of the unit. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of the patient?
- Modulate the current intensity
- Application of new electrodes
- Change the battery
- Alter the pulse rate and width
Correct Answer

A. Alter the pulse rate and width

Explanation

The patient is responsible for modulating the current intensity, applying new electrodes, and changing the battery of the transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit. However, altering the pulse rate and width is not the responsibility of the patient. This task should be performed by a healthcare professional or under their guidance, as it requires knowledge and expertise to adjust these parameters correctly and safely.

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17.

An attorney contacts you by phone and requests specific information on a patient he claims to represent. Questions asked include the extent of the patient's disability and his willingness to return to work. The MOST appropriate response is:
- Answer the questions asked by the attorney
- Request the attorney provide a completed release of patient medical information form
- Tell the attorney not to bother you at work
- Send the attorney a copy of the patient's medical records
Correct Answer

A. Request the attorney provide a completed release of patient medical information form

Explanation

The most appropriate response is to request the attorney provide a completed release of patient medical information form. This is the correct answer because as a healthcare professional, it is important to protect patient confidentiality and adhere to HIPAA regulations. Requesting a release form ensures that the attorney has the proper authorization to access the patient's medical information and protects the patient's privacy rights.

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18.

A physical therapist working in a school system develops long-term goals as part of an Individualized Educational Plan for a child with Down syndrome. The MOST appropriate time frame to attain these goals is:
- One month
- Four months
- Six months
- One year
Correct Answer

A. One year

Explanation

The most appropriate time frame to attain long-term goals for a child with Down syndrome in a school system is one year. This allows for realistic and achievable progress to be made over a longer period of time. It also takes into consideration the individual needs and abilities of the child, allowing for adjustments and modifications to be made as necessary. A one-year time frame allows for consistent and comprehensive intervention and support to be provided, ensuring the child's progress and development.

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19.

A two-year-old with T!0 spina blflda receives physical therapy for gait training. Initially, the preferred method to teach a child how to maintain standing is with the use of:
- bilateral hip-knee-ankle-foot orthoses (HKAFO) and forearm crutches
- Parapodium and the parallel bars
- Bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFO) and the parallel bars
- Bilateral ankle-foot orthoses (AFO) and the parallel bars
Correct Answer

A. Parapodium and the parallel bars

Explanation

A parapodium is a standing frame that provides support to the child's lower body while allowing them to practice standing and weight-bearing. It helps in maintaining an upright position and developing balance and stability. The parallel bars provide additional support and stability during gait training. Using a parapodium and parallel bars allows the child to gradually learn and practice standing without relying on external orthotic devices. This approach promotes the development of independent standing skills and encourages natural movement patterns.

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20.

The movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body is
- Inversion
- Eversion
Correct Answer

A. Inversion

Explanation

Inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body. This means that the foot is turning inward, with the sole facing towards the opposite foot. This movement is commonly observed when standing on tiptoes or during certain yoga poses. Eversion, on the other hand, is the opposite movement where the sole of the foot turns outward, away from the midline of the body.

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21.

A patient with muscle weakness and compromised balance uses a four-point gait pattern with two canes. The physical therapist would like to instruct the patient to ascend and descend the stairs according to the normal flow of traffic. When ascending stairs the MOST practical method is to:
- Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand
- Use the handrail with the left hand and place the two canes in the right hand
- Place one cane in each hand and avoid using the handrail
- place the two canes in the left hand and avoid using the handrail
Correct Answer

A. Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand

Explanation

The correct answer is to use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand. This method allows the patient to have support and stability while ascending stairs. By using the handrail with the right hand, the patient can maintain balance and control while using the canes with the left hand to provide additional support and aid in weight distribution. This technique ensures safety and minimizes the risk of falls or accidents while climbing stairs.

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1
22.

A 29-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the spine and assodated pain for more than five years. The patient's MOST typical standing posture demonstrates:
- Posterior thoracic rib hump
- Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve
- Excessive lumbar curve, flattened thoracic curve
- Lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae
Correct Answer

A. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

Explanation

The correct answer is flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine, causing stiffness and pain. It typically starts in the lower back and progresses upwards. As the disease progresses, the lumbar curve becomes flattened, leading to a loss of the normal inward curve of the lower back. At the same time, the thoracic curve becomes exaggerated, causing the upper back to become more rounded. This posture is commonly seen in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis.

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23.

The medial ligaments crossing the ankle joint are stronger than the lateral ligaments
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The statement is true because the medial ligaments, which are located on the inner side of the ankle joint, are generally stronger and more robust compared to the lateral ligaments on the outer side. This is due to the structure and anatomy of the ankle joint, where the medial ligaments provide more stability and support to prevent excessive inward or medial movement of the ankle, which is a common mechanism of injury. Conversely, the lateral ligaments are more prone to sprains and injuries due to their relative weakness compared to the medial ligaments.

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24.

The patient exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is MOST likely using the therapeutic ball to:
- Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing
- Encourage active assistive range of motion
- Allow the patient partial weight bearing through the ball
- Limit range of motion at the shoulder
Correct Answer

A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing

Explanation

The therapist is most likely using the therapeutic ball to avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing. Hypertonicity refers to increased muscle tone, and a mass extensor pattern refers to excessive activation of extensor muscles, causing the patient to lean backward and lose balance. By using the therapeutic ball, the therapist can provide support and stability, allowing the patient to maintain an upright position and avoid the mass extensor pattern.

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4
25.

A physical therapist attends an in-service entitled "Principles of Exercise for the Obstetric Patient." During the session, the speaker identifies several conditions that are considered to result in high-risk pregnancies. Which of the following conditions would NOT be considered high risk?
- Dlastasls recti
- Incompetent cervix
- Pre-eclampsia
- Multiple gestation
Correct Answer

A. Dlastasls recti

Explanation

Rectus diastasis, also known as "dlastasls recti," is not considered a high-risk condition during pregnancy. It refers to the separation of the abdominal muscles, which is a common occurrence during pregnancy. While it may cause discomfort and affect the appearance of the abdomen, it does not pose significant risks to the pregnancy or the mother's health. On the other hand, incompetent cervix, pre-eclampsia, and multiple gestation are conditions that are considered high risk during pregnancy and require close monitoring and medical intervention.

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26.

A physical therapist attempts to estimate the energy expenditure in calories for a patient performing a selected activity for 15 minutes. Assuming the therapist has a metabolic equivalent value for the activity, what other variables are necessary in order to obtain an estimate of the patient's energy expenditure?
- Patient's height
- Patient's body weight
- Patient's stroke volume
- Patient's residual volume
Correct Answer

A. Patient's body weight

Explanation

To estimate the patient's energy expenditure, the therapist needs to know the patient's body weight. Body weight is an important variable because it directly affects the amount of energy required to perform physical activities. The therapist can use the metabolic equivalent value for the activity and multiply it by the patient's body weight to estimate the energy expenditure in calories. The patient's height, stroke volume, and residual volume are not directly related to energy expenditure and therefore not necessary to obtain an estimate.

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27.

A physical therapist positions a patient In sidelying in preparation for postural drainage activities. Which lung segment would be indicated based on the patient's position?
- Posterior basal segment of the lower lobes
- Anterior apical segment of the upper lobes
- Lateral basal segment of the lower lobes
- Anterior segment of the upper lobes
Correct Answer

A. Lateral basal segment of the lower lobes

Explanation

In sidelying position, the patient's body weight is shifted to one side, allowing better drainage of the lateral basal segment of the lower lobes. This position helps to promote the clearance of secretions from the lungs and improves ventilation in that specific lung segment. The other options, such as the anterior apical segment of the upper lobes or the anterior segment of the upper lobes, are not indicated based on the patient's sidelying position.

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28.

This is a developmental disability that occurs in early childhood and continues throughout adulthood, which may result in a difficulty in learning, communications, and social interaction
- Mental retardation
- Autism
- Learning impairment
- Mental Illness
Correct Answer

A. Autism

Explanation

Autism is a developmental disability that typically appears in early childhood and persists into adulthood. It is characterized by difficulties in learning, communication, and social interaction. Individuals with autism often have challenges in understanding and responding to social cues, may exhibit repetitive behaviors, and may have sensory sensitivities. Autism is a complex disorder that varies widely in its presentation and severity among individuals.

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29.

A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital treats a patient status posttraumatic brain injury. During the treatment session the therapist notices that the patient's toes are discolored below a bivalved lower extremity cast. The cast was applied approximately five hours ago in an attempt to reduce a plantar flexion contracture. The MOST appropriate therapist action is to:
- Discontinue the use of the anterior portion of the cast
- Contact the staff nurse and request that the cast is removed
- refer the patient to an orthotist
- Remove the cast
Correct Answer

A. Remove the cast

Explanation

The therapist should remove the cast because the discoloration of the patient's toes indicates a potential circulation problem. This could be due to the cast being too tight or causing pressure on the toes, which can lead to tissue damage or ischemia. Removing the cast will relieve the pressure and allow for proper circulation to the toes. Contacting the staff nurse or referring the patient to an orthotist may not address the immediate issue of compromised circulation.

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1
30.

A patient with a 1"3 spinal cord injury exercising on a treatment table in supine begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia including a dramatic increase in blood pressure. The MOST IMMEDIATE action to address the patient's blood pressure response is to:
- Elevate the patient's legs
- Calf for assistance
- Sit the patient upright
- Check the urinary drainage system
Correct Answer

A. Sit the patient upright

Explanation

In a patient with a spinal cord injury, autonomic dysreflexia can occur due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. It is characterized by a sudden increase in blood pressure. The most immediate action to address this response is to sit the patient upright. This helps to alleviate the increased blood pressure by promoting venous pooling in the lower extremities. Elevating the patient's legs may exacerbate the symptoms by further increasing blood pressure. Checking the urinary drainage system is important, but it is not the most immediate action to address the blood pressure response. Calf for assistance is an unrelated option and does not address the autonomic dysreflexia.

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31.

A patient status post open knee meniscectomy is referred to physical therapy for neuromuscular electrical stimulation. The MOST beneficial frequency of treatment to promote strengthening is:
- Two times per day
- One time per week
- Three times per week
- Once every two weeks
Correct Answer

A. Three times per week

Explanation

The most beneficial frequency of treatment to promote strengthening after an open knee meniscectomy is three times per week. This frequency allows for regular and consistent stimulation of the muscles, promoting muscle activation and strengthening. More frequent sessions help to maintain muscle tone and prevent muscle atrophy, while providing enough time for recovery between sessions. Less frequent sessions may not provide enough stimulation to effectively promote muscle strengthening, while more frequent sessions may not allow for adequate recovery time. Therefore, three times per week strikes a balance between providing sufficient stimulation and allowing for proper recovery.

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32.

A patient in a rehabilitation hospital begins to verbalize about the uselessness of life and the possibility of committing suicide. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is:
- Suggest the patient be placed on a locked unit
- Ask nursing to check on the patient every 15 minutes
- Discuss the situation with the patient's case manager
- Review the patient's past medical history for signs and symptoms of mental illness
Correct Answer

A. Discuss the situation with the patient's case manager

Explanation

The MOST appropriate physical therapist action in this scenario is to discuss the situation with the patient's case manager. This is because the patient is expressing thoughts of suicide, which indicates a potential mental health crisis. By involving the case manager, who is responsible for coordinating the patient's care and addressing any psychosocial issues, the physical therapist can ensure that the patient receives the necessary support and interventions to prevent self-harm. This action demonstrates a collaborative approach to addressing the patient's mental health concerns within the interdisciplinary team.

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33.

A physical therapist completes a work site analysis for a patient with T3 paraplegia. The patient is employed in the marketing department of an advertising agency and relies on a wheelchair for daily locomotion. Which of the following is likely to be the MOST significant architectural barrier for the patient?
- Hardwood floors
- An entrance ramp (one inch of vertical rise for every six inches of ramp length)
- One-quarter inch thresholds at each door
- Pedestal type sinks
Correct Answer

A. An entrance ramp (one inch of vertical rise for every six inches of ramp length)

Explanation

The most significant architectural barrier for the patient with T3 paraplegia is likely to be the entrance ramp with one inch of vertical rise for every six inches of ramp length. This is because the patient relies on a wheelchair for daily locomotion, and a steep ramp can make it difficult for them to navigate and safely enter or exit the building. It is important for the ramp to have a gradual slope to ensure smooth and safe wheelchair access.

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1
34.

A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist assesses end-feel. The therapist classifies the end-feel associated with wrist extension as firm. The MOST logical explanation is:
- Tension in the dorsal radiocarpal ligament and the dorsal joint capsule
- Contact between the ulna and the carpal bones
- Contact between the radius and the carpal bones
- Tension in the palmar radlocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule
Correct Answer

A. Tension in the palmar radlocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule

Explanation

The end-feel associated with wrist extension being classified as firm suggests that there is tension in the palmar radiocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule. This is because the firm end-feel indicates the presence of resistance due to the tension in these structures, which restrict the movement of the wrist during extension.

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2
35.

A physical therapist examines a patient following a transtibial amputation. The patient resides in a retirement community and describes herself as socially active. She is presently using a temporary prosthesis consisting of a plastic socket, a pylon, and a solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot. The patient expresses concern that the permanent prosthesis will look awful and will be obvious to everyone. Which type of prosthesis would be the MOST appropriate for the patient?
- Endoskeletal shank and single-axis articulated foot-ankle assembly
- Endoskeletal shank and solid anlde cushion heel (SACH) foot
- Exoskeletal shank and single-axis articulated foot-ankle assembly
- Exoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot
Correct Answer

A. Endoskeletal shank and solid anlde cushion heel (SACH) foot

Explanation

The patient expresses concern about the appearance of the permanent prosthesis. An endoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot would be the most appropriate choice because it provides a more natural and aesthetically pleasing appearance compared to an exoskeletal shank. The SACH foot also offers a smoother gait and better shock absorption, which would be beneficial for a socially active individual residing in a retirement community.

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36.

A patient refuses physical therapy services after being transported to the gym. The physical therapist explains the potential consequences of refusing treatment, however, the patient does not reconsider. The MOST appropriate INITIAL therapist action is:
- Treat the patient
- convince the patient to have therapy
- Contact the referring physician
- Document the Incident in the medical record
Correct Answer

A. Document the Incident in the medical record

Explanation

The most appropriate initial therapist action is to document the incident in the medical record. This is important because it ensures that there is a record of the patient refusing treatment and the therapist's attempt to explain the potential consequences. Documenting the incident is necessary for legal and professional purposes, as it provides evidence of the patient's decision and the therapist's actions. It also helps to maintain a comprehensive and accurate medical record for future reference and continuity of care.

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37.

A 21-year-old female is examined in physical therapy after sustaining a grade I ankle sprain two days ago in a marching band competition. The patient's description of the mechanism of injury is consistent with inversion and plantar flexion. Which of the following ligaments would MOST likely be affected?
- Anterior taloflbular ligament
- Calcaneoflbular ligament
- Anterior tibiofibular ligament
- Deltoid ligament
Correct Answer

A. Anterior taloflbular ligament

Explanation

The patient's description of the mechanism of injury, which involves inversion and plantar flexion, is consistent with an ankle sprain. The ligament that is most likely to be affected in this type of ankle sprain is the anterior talofibular ligament. This ligament is located on the lateral side of the ankle and is often injured when the foot is forcefully inverted, causing the ligament to stretch or tear. The other ligaments listed are not typically involved in this type of injury.

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38.

A physical therapist completes a coordination assessment on a 67-year-old patient with central nervous system involvement After reviewing the results of the assessment, the therapist concludes the clinical findings are indicative of cerebellar dysfunction. Which finding is NOT associated with cerebellar dysfunction?
- Dysmetrla
- Hypertonia
- Ataxia
- Nystagmus
Correct Answer

A. Hypertonia

Explanation

Hypertonia is not associated with cerebellar dysfunction. Hypertonia refers to increased muscle tone and stiffness, which is more commonly associated with damage to the upper motor neurons in the brain or spinal cord. Cerebellar dysfunction, on the other hand, typically presents with symptoms such as dysmetria (inability to control the distance, power, and speed of movements), ataxia (lack of coordination and balance), and nystagmus (involuntary eye movements). Therefore, hypertonia is the finding that is not associated with cerebellar dysfunction.

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39.

A 67-year-old male with longstanding cardiac pathology is referred to physical therapy. The medical record indicates the patient is taking Nitrostat. The PRIMARY indication for this medication is:
- To strengthen the heart's pumping force
- To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures
- To increase excretion of sodium and water
- To decrease electrical conduction
Correct Answer

A. To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures

Explanation

Nitrostat is a medication commonly prescribed for patients with cardiac pathology, specifically for the treatment of angina pectoris. Its primary indication is to produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures. This means that it helps to widen and relax the blood vessels, allowing for improved blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle. By dilating the blood vessels, Nitrostat helps to reduce the workload on the heart and relieve chest pain associated with angina. It does not strengthen the heart's pumping force, increase excretion of sodium and water, or decrease electrical conduction.

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40.

A physical therapist attempts to auscultate over the aortic valve. Which of the following areas is the MOST appropriate to isolate the desired valve?
- Second left intercostal space at the left sternal border
- Second right intercostal space at the right sternal border
- Fourth left intercostal space along the lower left sternal border
- Fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Correct Answer

A. Second right intercostal space at the right sternal border

Explanation

The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second right intercostal space at the right sternal border. This location corresponds to the area where the aortic valve is most easily heard due to its proximity to the aortic area of the heart. Auscultating at this specific location allows the physical therapist to isolate the desired valve and listen for any abnormal sounds or murmurs.

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41.

A patient coverage form indicates selective debridement is to be performed on a patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity burn. Based on the coverage form, the MOST likely intervention would be:
- Whirlpool
- Wet-to-dry dressings
- Enzymatic debridement
- Wound irrigation
Correct Answer

A. Enzymatic debridement

Explanation

Based on the patient coverage form indicating selective debridement for a lower extremity burn, the most likely intervention would be enzymatic debridement. Enzymatic debridement involves the use of topical enzymes to break down and remove necrotic tissue, promoting wound healing. This method is often preferred for selective debridement as it is less invasive and traumatic compared to other options such as whirlpool or wet-to-dry dressings. Wound irrigation may be used as a supportive measure, but enzymatic debridement would be the primary intervention based on the coverage form.

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42.

Sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are all behavioral characteristics of _________
- Alcohol use
- Cannabis use
- Methamphetamine use
- Ecstasy use
Correct Answer

A. Alcohol use

Explanation

The given behavioral characteristics of sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are commonly associated with alcohol use. Alcohol is a depressant that can slow down the central nervous system, leading to these symptoms. It can impair coordination, cognitive function, and speech, causing slurred speech. Additionally, alcohol can cause extreme fatigue and sluggish behavior due to its sedative effects. Intoxication, which includes impaired judgment and altered behavior, is also a characteristic of alcohol use. Therefore, the correct answer is alcohol use.

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43.

A physical therapist inspects a wound that has large quantities of exudate which requires frequent dressing changes. If the therapist applies a dressing that cannot handle the quantity of exudate present, the MOST likely outcome is:
- Maceration
- Granulation
- Epithelialization
- Infection
Correct Answer

A. Maceration

Explanation

If the physical therapist applies a dressing that cannot handle the quantity of exudate present, the most likely outcome is maceration. Maceration occurs when the wound is excessively moist, leading to softening and breakdown of the surrounding skin. This can delay wound healing and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, if the dressing is unable to handle the large quantities of exudate, it is likely that the wound will become overly moist and maceration will occur.

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44.

A physical therapist interviews a patient recently involved in a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained multiple lower extremity injuries as a result of the accident and appears to be very depressed. In an attempt to encourage active dialogue the therapist asks open-ended questions. Which of the following would NOT be considered an open-ended question?
- How does your knee feel today?
- What are your goals for physical therapy?
- Do you have trouble sleeping at night?
- Tell me about your present condition?
Correct Answer

A. Do you have trouble sleeping at night?

Explanation

The question "Do you have trouble sleeping at night?" would not be considered an open-ended question because it can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" response. Open-ended questions typically require more detailed and descriptive answers, allowing the patient to express their thoughts and feelings more fully.

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45.

The presence or condition where a drug is required to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system is known as...........
- Substance Neglect
- Withdrawal
- Psychological Dependence
- Physical Dependence
Correct Answer

A. Physical Dependence

Explanation

Physical dependence refers to the state in which a drug is needed to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system. This means that the body has adapted to the presence of the drug and has become reliant on it to function properly. Physical dependence is characterized by the occurrence of withdrawal symptoms when the drug is abruptly stopped or reduced in dosage. It is different from psychological dependence, which is a strong craving or desire to use the drug for emotional or psychological reasons. Substance neglect and withdrawal are not accurate terms to describe this condition.

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46.

Which of these is the most common form of cannabis?
- Resin
- Herbal
- Hash oil
- Djarum
Correct Answer

A. Herbal

Explanation

The most common form of cannabis is herbal. This refers to the dried leaves, flowers, and stems of the cannabis plant, which are typically smoked or vaporized for their psychoactive effects. Resin, also known as hashish or hash, is a concentrated form of cannabis made from the resinous trichomes of the plant. Hash oil, on the other hand, is a highly potent extract of cannabis that is derived using solvents. Djarum is a brand of clove cigarettes and is not related to cannabis.

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47.

an individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

An individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint. This is because the femoral groove is responsible for guiding the patella (kneecap) during movement. A shallow femoral groove means that the patella is not securely held in place, increasing the risk of it slipping out of position and causing a dislocation.

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48.

Screwhome motion is thought to occur between the femur and the tibia. As the knee extends the tibia ___________rotates.
- Laterally
- Medially
Correct Answer

A. Laterally

Explanation

During knee extension, the tibia rotates laterally. This means that the tibia moves in an outward direction away from the midline of the body. This rotational movement helps to stabilize the knee joint and allows for smooth and efficient movement during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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49.

A physical therapist observes that a number ot aides appear to be unfamiliar with appropriate guarding techniques. The MOST appropriate remedial strategy to improve their performance is to:
- Offer assistance to the aides when the inappropriate behavior is observed
- Refer the aides to textbooks that explain proper guarding techniques develop a
- Mandatory lnservlce on guarding techniques for the aides
- Inform the director of rehabilitation that the aides are incompetent
Correct Answer

A. Mandatory lnservlce on guarding techniques for the aides

Explanation

The most appropriate remedial strategy to improve the aides' performance is to develop a mandatory inservice on guarding techniques. This would provide the aides with the necessary training and education on proper guarding techniques, ensuring that they are familiar with and able to apply them correctly. Offering assistance when inappropriate behavior is observed may help in the short term, but it does not address the underlying issue of unfamiliarity with proper techniques. Referring the aides to textbooks may be helpful, but a mandatory inservice would be a more comprehensive and effective approach. Informing the director of rehabilitation that the aides are incompetent is not a constructive or professional solution.

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Pt/Ot Haad Simulation Exam 4

A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital attempts to identify a standardized instrument that measures level of consciousness. The MOST appropriate standardized instrument is the:

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Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is known as........

A physical therapist notices a small area of skin irritation under the chin of a patient wearing a Philadelphia collar. The patient expresses that the area is not painful, but is becoming increasingly itchy. The MOST appropriate therapist action is:

A patient four weeks status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction questions a physical therapist as to why he is still partial weight bearing. An acceptable rationale is:

A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient with a spinal cord injury. A note recently entered by the physician indicates that the patient contracted a respiratory Infection. Which patient would be MOST susceptible to this condition?

A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with spinal stenosis. As part of the treatment program the patient lies prone on a treatment plinth with a hot pack draped over the low back. The MOST effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is:

A physical therapist examines a patient with a limited straight leg raise of 40 degrees due to inadequate hamstrings length. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the MOST appropriate to increase the patient's hamstrings length?

A physical therapist assigns a manual muscle test grade of 4 to patient A and a grade of 2 to patient B. Which of the following is the BEST interpretation of the strength of the patients?

A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. When working on controlled mobility, which of the following would BEST describe the physical therapist's objective?

A patient rehabilitating from a traumatic head injury is lethargic since being placed on Phenobarbital. The PRIMARY purpose of the medication is to:

A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist elects to measure the patient's Q angle. Which three bony landmarks are used to measure the Q angle?

A patient with acute back pain is given a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit to use at home. The physical therapist provides detailed instructions on the care and use of the unit. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of the patient?

An attorney contacts you by phone and requests specific information on a patient he claims to represent. Questions asked include the extent of the patient's disability and his willingness to return to work. The MOST appropriate response is:

A physical therapist working in a school system develops long-term goals as part of an Individualized Educational Plan for a child with Down syndrome. The MOST appropriate time frame to attain these goals is:

A two-year-old with T!0 spina blflda receives physical therapy for gait training. Initially, the preferred method to teach a child how to maintain standing is with the use of:

The movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body is

A patient with muscle weakness and compromised balance uses a four-point gait pattern with two canes. The physical therapist would like to instruct the patient to ascend and descend the stairs according to the normal flow of traffic. When ascending stairs the MOST practical method is to:

A 29-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the spine and assodated pain for more than five years. The patient's MOST typical standing posture demonstrates:

The medial ligaments crossing the ankle joint are stronger than the lateral ligaments

The patient exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is MOST likely using the therapeutic ball to:

A physical therapist attends an in-service entitled "Principles of Exercise for the Obstetric Patient." During the session, the speaker identifies several conditions that are considered to result in high-risk pregnancies. Which of the following conditions would NOT be considered high risk?

A physical therapist positions a patient In sidelying in preparation for postural drainage activities. Which lung segment would be indicated based on the patient's position?

This is a developmental disability that occurs in early childhood and continues throughout adulthood, which may result in a difficulty in learning, communications, and social interaction

A patient with a 1"3 spinal cord injury exercising on a treatment table in supine begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia including a dramatic increase in blood pressure. The MOST IMMEDIATE action to address the patient's blood pressure response is to:

A patient status post open knee meniscectomy is referred to physical therapy for neuromuscular electrical stimulation. The MOST beneficial frequency of treatment to promote strengthening is:

A patient in a rehabilitation hospital begins to verbalize about the uselessness of life and the possibility of committing suicide. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is:

A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist assesses end-feel. The therapist classifies the end-feel associated with wrist extension as firm. The MOST logical explanation is:

A patient refuses physical therapy services after being transported to the gym. The physical therapist explains the potential consequences of refusing treatment, however, the patient does not reconsider. The MOST appropriate INITIAL therapist action is:

A 67-year-old male with longstanding cardiac pathology is referred to physical therapy. The medical record indicates the patient is taking Nitrostat. The PRIMARY indication for this medication is:

A physical therapist attempts to auscultate over the aortic valve. Which of the following areas is the MOST appropriate to isolate the desired valve?

A patient coverage form indicates selective debridement is to be performed on a patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity burn. Based on the coverage form, the MOST likely intervention would be:

Sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are all behavioral characteristics of _________

A physical therapist inspects a wound that has large quantities of exudate which requires frequent dressing changes. If the therapist applies a dressing that cannot handle the quantity of exudate present, the MOST likely outcome is:

The presence or condition where a drug is required to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system is known as...........

Which of these is the most common form of cannabis?

an individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint

Screwhome motion is thought to occur between the femur and the tibia. As the knee extends the tibia ___________rotates.

A physical therapist observes that a number ot aides appear to be unfamiliar with appropriate guarding techniques. The MOST appropriate remedial strategy to improve their performance is to: