Pt/Ot Haad Simulation Exam 4

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Pt/Ot Haad Simulation Exam 4 - Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes.
You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Ptonline. Weebly. Com
THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy​ EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH.
THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING Read moreTHIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    True or false? proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility is a form of stretching

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility is not a form of stretching. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) is a technique used to improve flexibility and range of motion, which involves a combination of stretching and muscle contraction. However, proprioceptive neuromuscular flexibility refers to the ability of the body to sense and control joint movements, rather than a specific stretching technique. Therefore, the given answer "false" is correct.

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  • 2. 

    Which is NOT a behavioral property of musculotendon units

    • A.

      Irritability

    • B.

      Elasticity

    • C.

      Extensability

    • D.

      Compressability

    • E.

      Ability to develop tension

    Correct Answer
    D. Compressability
    Explanation
    Compression refers to the ability of a musculotendon unit to be compressed or shortened under external forces. However, this is not a behavioral property of musculotendon units. Musculotendon units are primarily responsible for generating tension and force, allowing for movement and locomotion. They also possess properties such as irritability (ability to respond to stimuli), elasticity (ability to return to its original shape after being stretched), and extensibility (ability to be stretched without damage). Therefore, compressibility is the correct answer as it does not align with the behavioral properties of musculotendon units.

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  • 3. 

    Name the state of a muscle producing sustained maximal tension resulting from repetitive stimulation

    Correct Answer
    tetanus, tetnus
    Explanation
    Tetanus, also known as tetnus, refers to the state of a muscle producing sustained maximal tension as a result of repetitive stimulation. This condition occurs when the muscle fibers are stimulated at such a high frequency that they are unable to relax fully between contractions. As a result, the muscle remains in a contracted state, leading to sustained maximal tension. Tetanus can be caused by various factors such as nerve damage or certain infections, and it can result in symptoms like muscle stiffness, spasms, and difficulty in movement.

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  • 4. 

    What is the pattern of eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction

    Correct Answer
    stretch shorten cycle, stretch-shorten cycle
    Explanation
    The pattern of eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction is known as the stretch-shorten cycle or the stretch shorten cycle. This cycle involves the muscle lengthening (eccentric contraction) followed by a rapid shortening (concentric contraction). This sequence of contractions allows for a greater force production during the concentric phase due to the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase. The stretch-shorten cycle is commonly observed in activities such as jumping, sprinting, and throwing, where the muscle undergoes a rapid stretch before quickly contracting to produce a powerful movement.

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  • 5. 

    During know flexion the femur rolls back relative to tibia this motion is called

    • A.

      Osteokinematics

    • B.

      Arthokinematics

    Correct Answer
    B. Arthokinematics
    Explanation
    Arthokinematics refers to the movement between the articulating surfaces of joints. In the given question, it is stated that during knee flexion, the femur rolls back relative to the tibia. This rolling back motion represents the movement between the joint surfaces of the knee, which is an example of arthokinematics. Therefore, the correct answer is arthokinematics.

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  • 6. 

    The carry angle normally ranges from ________degrees in adults

    Correct Answer
    10-15, 10 to 15
    Explanation
    The carry angle, also known as the cubital valgus angle, refers to the angle formed between the upper arm and forearm when the arm is in a relaxed position. In adults, this angle typically ranges from 10 to 15 degrees.

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  • 7. 

    The labrum of the hip is a load bearing structure

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The labrum of the hip is not a load-bearing structure. The labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of the hip joint, providing stability and cushioning. While it plays an important role in maintaining the stability of the hip joint, it does not bear the weight or load that is placed on the hip. The load-bearing structures of the hip include the bones, such as the femur and pelvis, and the surrounding muscles and ligaments.

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  • 8. 

    an individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An individual with a shallow femoral groove would be more likely to dislocate their patellofemoral joint. This is because the femoral groove is responsible for guiding the patella (kneecap) during movement. A shallow femoral groove means that the patella is not securely held in place, increasing the risk of it slipping out of position and causing a dislocation.

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  • 9. 

    The medial ligaments crossing the ankle joint are stronger than the lateral ligaments

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the medial ligaments, which are located on the inner side of the ankle joint, are generally stronger and more robust compared to the lateral ligaments on the outer side. This is due to the structure and anatomy of the ankle joint, where the medial ligaments provide more stability and support to prevent excessive inward or medial movement of the ankle, which is a common mechanism of injury. Conversely, the lateral ligaments are more prone to sprains and injuries due to their relative weakness compared to the medial ligaments.

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  • 10. 

    Pronation should be totally avoided during running gait

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    some pronation is necessary for shock absorption

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  • 11. 

    Damage to the labrum of the hip typically occurs in what regions (check all that apply)

    • A.

      Anterior

    • B.

      Posterior

    • C.

      Superior

    • D.

      Inferior

    • E.

      Medial

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Anterior
    C. Superior
    Explanation
    Damage to the labrum of the hip typically occurs in the anterior and superior regions. The labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of the hip joint, providing stability and cushioning. Anterior damage can occur due to repetitive movements or trauma, such as sudden twisting or pivoting. Superior damage can happen as a result of impingement or excessive pressure on the labrum from the top of the thigh bone. Damage to other regions like posterior, inferior, or medial is not commonly associated with labral injuries in the hip.

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  • 12. 

    Femoro-acetabular impingement can be caused by an overgrowth of the femoral neck. This has been defined as

    • A.

      Cam Impingement

    • B.

      Pincer Impingement

    Correct Answer
    A. Cam Impingement
    Explanation
    pincer impingment is overgrowth of the acetabulum

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  • 13. 

    An excessively tight bicep femoris would result in

    • A.

      Anterior

    • B.

      Posterior

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      Medial

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior
    Explanation
    An excessively tight bicep femoris muscle can result in anterior discomfort or pain. This is because the bicep femoris muscle is located on the back of the thigh and connects to the pelvis and knee. When it becomes overly tight, it can pull on the pelvis, causing it to tilt forward. This anterior pelvic tilt can lead to increased stress and strain on the lower back and hip flexors, resulting in discomfort or pain in the anterior region of the body.

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  • 14. 

      When the right foot is on the ground during gait, the right femur would _______if the gluteus medials is too weak

    • A.

      Adduct

    • B.

      Abduct

    • C.

      Medially rotate

    • D.

      Laterally rotate

    Correct Answer
    A. Adduct
    Explanation
    If the gluteus medialis is too weak, it would cause the right femur to adduct when the right foot is on the ground during gait. Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. In this case, the weak gluteus medialis would cause the right femur to move towards the midline of the body, resulting in adduction.

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  • 15. 

    An individual with pes planus would have accompanying__________    rotation of the tibia and a(n) _________Q-angle

    • A.

      Lateral, increased

    • B.

      Lateral, decreased

    • C.

      Medial, increased

    • D.

      Medial, decreased

    Correct Answer
    C. Medial, increased
    Explanation
    An individual with pes planus, also known as flat feet, would have accompanying medial rotation of the tibia and an increased Q-angle. This is because pes planus causes the arch of the foot to collapse, leading to the inward rotation of the tibia. The increased Q-angle refers to the angle formed by the line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine to the center of the patella and the line drawn from the center of the patella to the tibial tuberosity. In individuals with pes planus, the increased Q-angle is a result of the inward rotation of the tibia.

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  • 16. 

    During early knee flexion the patella shifts ____________to enter the femoral groove

    • A.

      Medial

    • B.

      Lateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Medial
    Explanation
    During early knee flexion, the patella shifts medially to enter the femoral groove. This is because the patella is a small bone located in front of the knee joint, and it acts as a protective shield for the knee joint. As the knee flexes, the patella needs to align itself with the femoral groove, which is located on the medial side of the knee joint. This alignment allows for smooth movement and stability of the knee joint during flexion.

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  • 17. 

    The movement of the sole of the foot towards  the midline of the body is

    • A.

      Inversion

    • B.

      Eversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Inversion
    Explanation
    Inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body. This means that the foot is turning inward, with the sole facing towards the opposite foot. This movement is commonly observed when standing on tiptoes or during certain yoga poses. Eversion, on the other hand, is the opposite movement where the sole of the foot turns outward, away from the midline of the body.

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  • 18. 

    Weakness in the _________ will result in potential for patellar maltracking

    Correct Answer
    vmo, VMO, vastus medialis obliques
    Explanation
    A weakness in the VMO (vastus medialis obliques) muscle can lead to potential patellar maltracking. The VMO is one of the quadriceps muscles located on the inner side of the thigh, and it plays a crucial role in stabilizing the patella (kneecap) during movement. When the VMO is weak or imbalanced compared to other quadriceps muscles, it can cause the patella to shift or track incorrectly, leading to pain and dysfunction in the knee joint. Therefore, addressing VMO weakness through targeted exercises and rehabilitation is important in preventing and treating patellar maltracking.

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  • 19. 

    Inversion and eversion of the foot occurs at what joint?

    Correct Answer
    subtalar
    Explanation
    The inversion and eversion of the foot occur at the subtalar joint. This joint is located between the talus bone of the foot and the calcaneus bone of the ankle. It allows for the side-to-side movement of the foot, enabling the foot to tilt inward (inversion) or outward (eversion). The subtalar joint plays a crucial role in maintaining balance and stability during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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  • 20. 

    A 65 year old man is experiencing bone on bone joint pain in his knees (osteoarthritis). His has a sever VARUS alignment of the knees. Most likely his pain is in the ____________region of the knee joint compartment

    Correct Answer
    medial
    Explanation
    The patient's severe VARUS alignment of the knees indicates that his knees are deviating inward, causing increased pressure on the inner side of the joint. This alignment puts excessive stress on the medial compartment of the knee joint, leading to bone on bone contact and resulting in the pain experienced by the patient. Therefore, the most likely region of the knee joint compartment where the pain is located is the medial side.

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  • 21. 

    Let’s say you go in for some minor surgery and your doctor decides to experiment with you. While you are under anesthesia he chisels off your tibial tuberosity and moves it medially on your tibia. Your  Q-angle will then be

    • A.

      Increased

    • B.

      Decreased

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased
    Explanation
    When the tibial tuberosity is chiseled off and moved medially on the tibia, it will result in an increased Q-angle. The Q-angle is the angle formed between the line connecting the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the midpoint of the patella, and the line connecting the tibial tuberosity and the midpoint of the patella. By moving the tibial tuberosity medially, the angle between these two lines will increase, leading to an increased Q-angle.

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  • 22. 

    At 90˚ knee flexion the Patellofemoral compressive force is expected to be the highest for a

    • A.

      Weight bearing activity

    • B.

      Nonweight bearing activity

    • C.

      The polka

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Weight bearing activity
    C. The polka
    Explanation
    At 90˚ knee flexion, the Patellofemoral compressive force is expected to be the highest for a weight bearing activity. This is because weight bearing activities involve the use of the lower body, specifically the legs and knees, to support the body's weight. The patellofemoral joint, which is the joint between the kneecap (patella) and the thighbone (femur), experiences increased pressure and stress during weight bearing activities. In contrast, nonweight bearing activities do not put as much pressure on the patellofemoral joint. The polka is not a relevant option as it is not an activity that involves weight bearing or knee flexion.

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  • 23. 

    Screwhome motion is thought to occur between the femur and the tibia. As the knee extends the tibia ___________rotates.

    • A.

      Laterally

    • B.

      Medially

    Correct Answer
    A. Laterally
    Explanation
    During knee extension, the tibia rotates laterally. This means that the tibia moves in an outward direction away from the midline of the body. This rotational movement helps to stabilize the knee joint and allows for smooth and efficient movement during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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  • 24. 

    A 60 year old female is complaining of severe pain in her big toe. She has been a lifelong wearer of high heels. Most likely she has a condition called

    Correct Answer
    Hallux Valgus, hallux valgus
    Explanation
    The given information suggests that the 60-year-old female has been wearing high heels for a long time and is experiencing severe pain in her big toe. This is indicative of a condition called Hallux Valgus, also known as hallux valgus. Hallux Valgus refers to the misalignment of the big toe, causing it to point towards the other toes. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who wear tight or ill-fitting shoes, such as high heels, which can put pressure on the toes and cause deformities. Therefore, it is likely that the patient's severe pain in her big toe is due to Hallux Valgus.

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  • 25. 

    A runner is diagnosed with functional ankle instability. They most likely experience muscle impairment in the

    • A.

      Gastroc

    • B.

      Peroneus longus

    • C.

      Tibialis anterior

    Correct Answer
    B. Peroneus longus
    Explanation
    Functional ankle instability refers to a condition where the ankle joint is unstable and prone to giving way during physical activities. The peroneus longus muscle plays a crucial role in ankle stability by providing support to the lateral side of the foot and ankle. Therefore, if a runner is diagnosed with functional ankle instability, it is likely that they would experience muscle impairment in the peroneus longus muscle. This impairment can lead to decreased stability and increased risk of ankle sprains or injuries.

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  • 26. 

    There are two types of hearing loss. One is "Deafness". What is the other?

    • A.

      Hard of hearing

    • B.

      Listening impairment

    • C.

      Complete hearing loss

    • D.

      Stage II Deafness

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard of hearing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hard of hearing". This is because the question states that there are two types of hearing loss, one being "Deafness". Therefore, the other type of hearing loss would be "Hard of hearing".

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  • 27. 

    True or False: Someone who is classified as "Deaf" does not have to rely completely on visual communication.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because someone who is classified as "Deaf" typically relies on visual communication, such as sign language, facial expressions, and lip reading, as their primary mode of communication. While they may also use other forms of communication, such as written or electronic means, visual communication is essential for effective communication for individuals who are deaf.

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  • 28. 

    A large majority of Florida cases involving defendants who are hearing impaired are dismissed because of events occuring ______ Miranda rights are explained.

    • A.

      Before

    • B.

      During

    • C.

      After

    • D.

      In the process of

    Correct Answer
    A. Before
    Explanation
    A large majority of Florida cases involving defendants who are hearing impaired are dismissed because of events occurring before Miranda rights are explained. This suggests that the defendants' inability to hear and understand their rights may lead to their cases being dismissed.

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  • 29. 

    True or False: English is a second language for those that are hearing impaired.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    English is considered a second language for those who are hearing impaired because their primary language is typically sign language. Sign language is a visual language that uses gestures, facial expressions, and body movements to communicate. English is often taught as a second language to individuals who are hearing impaired so that they can effectively communicate with those who primarily use spoken English. Therefore, it is true that English is a second language for those who are hearing impaired.

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  • 30. 

    This is a developmental disability that occurs in early childhood and continues throughout adulthood, which may result in a difficulty in learning, communications, and social interaction

    • A.

      Mental retardation

    • B.

      Autism

    • C.

      Learning impairment

    • D.

      Mental Illness

    Correct Answer
    B. Autism
    Explanation
    Autism is a developmental disability that typically appears in early childhood and persists into adulthood. It is characterized by difficulties in learning, communication, and social interaction. Individuals with autism often have challenges in understanding and responding to social cues, may exhibit repetitive behaviors, and may have sensory sensitivities. Autism is a complex disorder that varies widely in its presentation and severity among individuals.

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  • 31. 

    True or False: People diagnosed with autism interact well with law enforcement officers if the officer is very close to the person.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    People diagnosed with autism may have difficulty with social interactions and may struggle to understand and respond appropriately to law enforcement officers, even if they are close to them. Autism can affect communication and social skills, making it challenging for individuals to interact effectively with others, including law enforcement officers. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that people diagnosed with autism interact well with law enforcement officers if the officer is very close to them.

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  • 32. 

    True or False: The Baker Act has no age barrier.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Baker Act, a Florida state law, allows for the involuntary examination and potential temporary detention of individuals who may have a mental illness and pose a threat to themselves or others. The act does not specify any age restrictions, meaning that it can be applied to individuals of any age, including minors and adults. Therefore, the statement that the Baker Act has no age barrier is true.

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  • 33. 

    True or False: Advancing age is synonymous with disease and disability

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that advancing age is not synonymous with disease and disability. This means that just because someone is getting older, it does not necessarily mean that they will automatically experience more health problems or become disabled. While aging can increase the risk of certain health conditions, it is not a guarantee that everyone will develop them. Many older adults lead healthy and active lives without significant disease or disability. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 34. 

    An elderly person

    • A.

      Is at a higher risk of suicide than lower age groups

    • B.

      Is at a higher risk of committing felonies than lower age groups

    • C.

      Is at a lower risk of abuse than lower age groups

    • D.

      Is at a lower risk of suicide than lower age groups

    Correct Answer
    A. Is at a higher risk of suicide than lower age groups
    Explanation
    As individuals age, they may face various challenges such as declining physical health, loss of loved ones, loneliness, and financial difficulties, which can contribute to feelings of hopelessness and despair. These factors, combined with the potential lack of social support and limited access to mental health services, can increase the risk of suicide among the elderly. Therefore, the statement that elderly people are at a higher risk of suicide than lower age groups is a valid explanation.

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  • 35. 

    Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is known as........

    • A.

      Substance Use

    • B.

      Substance Abuse

    • C.

      Substance Neglect

    • D.

      Withdrawal

    Correct Answer
    A. Substance Use
    Explanation
    Taking a prescription medication according to label directions is referred to as substance use. This means that the individual is using the medication as intended, following the instructions provided on the label. Substance abuse, on the other hand, refers to the misuse or excessive use of a substance, while substance neglect refers to the failure to use a substance as prescribed. Withdrawal, on the other hand, is the set of symptoms that occur when a person stops using a substance abruptly after prolonged use.

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  • 36. 

    The feeling that a person gets that says they "need" to use a drug is known as........

    • A.

      Substance Abuse

    • B.

      Withdrawals

    • C.

      Physical Dependence

    • D.

      Psychological Dependence

    Correct Answer
    D. Psychological Dependence
    Explanation
    Psychological dependence refers to the emotional and mental reliance on a drug, where a person feels a strong desire or craving to use it. This feeling is not necessarily related to the physical need for the drug, but rather the psychological need for the pleasurable effects or the belief that the drug is necessary for coping with stress or other emotional issues. It is characterized by intense cravings, preoccupation with obtaining and using the drug, and difficulty in controlling or stopping its use. Psychological dependence can be a significant factor in drug addiction and can contribute to the cycle of substance abuse.

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  • 37. 

    The presence or condition where a drug is required to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system is known as...........

    • A.

      Substance Neglect

    • B.

      Withdrawal

    • C.

      Psychological Dependence

    • D.

      Physical Dependence

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical Dependence
    Explanation
    Physical dependence refers to the state in which a drug is needed to maintain normal functioning of the central nervous system. This means that the body has adapted to the presence of the drug and has become reliant on it to function properly. Physical dependence is characterized by the occurrence of withdrawal symptoms when the drug is abruptly stopped or reduced in dosage. It is different from psychological dependence, which is a strong craving or desire to use the drug for emotional or psychological reasons. Substance neglect and withdrawal are not accurate terms to describe this condition.

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  • 38. 

    These types of drugs have no medicinal value, have the greatest potential for drug abuse/addiction, and can be the most harmful to a person's health.

    • A.

      Schedule I

    • B.

      Schedule II

    • C.

      Schedule IV

    • D.

      Schedule V

    Correct Answer
    A. Schedule I
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs are classified as such because they have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and harmful to a person's health. They are tightly regulated and illegal to possess or distribute. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Due to their potential for abuse and lack of medicinal value, Schedule I drugs are considered to be the most harmful substances and are strictly controlled by law enforcement.

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  • 39. 

    Sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are all behavioral characteristics of _________

    • A.

      Alcohol use

    • B.

      Cannabis use

    • C.

      Methamphetamine use

    • D.

      Ecstasy use

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol use
    Explanation
    The given behavioral characteristics of sluggish behavior, extreme fatigue, slurred speech, and intoxication are commonly associated with alcohol use. Alcohol is a depressant that can slow down the central nervous system, leading to these symptoms. It can impair coordination, cognitive function, and speech, causing slurred speech. Additionally, alcohol can cause extreme fatigue and sluggish behavior due to its sedative effects. Intoxication, which includes impaired judgment and altered behavior, is also a characteristic of alcohol use. Therefore, the correct answer is alcohol use.

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  • 40. 

    Which of these is the most common form of cannabis?

    • A.

      Resin

    • B.

      Herbal

    • C.

      Hash oil

    • D.

      Djarum

    Correct Answer
    B. Herbal
    Explanation
    The most common form of cannabis is herbal. This refers to the dried leaves, flowers, and stems of the cannabis plant, which are typically smoked or vaporized for their psychoactive effects. Resin, also known as hashish or hash, is a concentrated form of cannabis made from the resinous trichomes of the plant. Hash oil, on the other hand, is a highly potent extract of cannabis that is derived using solvents. Djarum is a brand of clove cigarettes and is not related to cannabis.

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  • 41. 

    Regardless of method of intake (Inhaled, Injected, Ingested, or Smoked), the effects of Cocaine/Crack last.....

    • A.

      1-2 hours

    • B.

      3-4 hours

    • C.

      6-9 hours

    • D.

      10-15 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-2 hours
    Explanation
    The effects of cocaine/crack typically last for a relatively short duration of 1-2 hours, regardless of how it is consumed (inhaled, injected, ingested, or smoked). This short duration is due to the rapid metabolism and elimination of cocaine from the body. It is important to note that individual experiences may vary and factors such as dose, purity, and frequency of use can influence the duration and intensity of the effects.

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  • 42. 

    A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. When working on controlled mobility, which of the following would BEST describe the physical therapist's objective?

    • A.

      Facilitate postural muscle control

    • B.

      Promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control

    • C.

      Emphasize reciprocal extremity movement

    • D.

      Facilitate tone and rigidity

    Correct Answer
    B. Promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control
    Explanation
    The physical therapist's objective in working on controlled mobility with a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is to promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control. This is important because Parkinson's disease can cause difficulties with balance and movement control, and promoting weight shifting and rotational trunk control can help improve the patient's ability to maintain balance and perform functional movements.

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  • 43. 

    A physical therapist assesses the strength of selected lower extremity muscles on a patient rehabilitating from a knee injury. The pictured test would be MOST effective to examine the strength of the:

    • A.

      Hip abductors

    • B.

      Hip adductors

    • C.

      Hip medial rotators

    • D.

      Hip lateral rotators

    Correct Answer
    D. Hip lateral rotators
    Explanation
    The pictured test would be most effective to examine the strength of the hip lateral rotators because the patient is lying on their side with the knee flexed and the hip in a neutral position. In this position, the hip lateral rotators, which include muscles like the piriformis and gemellus muscles, are responsible for rotating the thigh outward. By applying resistance to the outer part of the ankle, the physical therapist can assess the strength of these muscles by observing the patient's ability to maintain the position against the resistance.

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  • 44. 

    A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital treats a patient status posttraumatic brain injury. During the treatment session the therapist notices that the patient's toes are discolored below a bivalved lower extremity cast. The cast was applied approximately five hours ago in an attempt to reduce a plantar flexion contracture. The MOST appropriate therapist action is to:

    • A.

      Discontinue the use of the anterior portion of the cast

    • B.

      Contact the staff nurse and request that the cast is removed

    • C.

      refer the patient to an orthotist

    • D.

      Remove the cast

    Correct Answer
    D. Remove the cast
    Explanation
    The therapist should remove the cast because the discoloration of the patient's toes indicates a potential circulation problem. This could be due to the cast being too tight or causing pressure on the toes, which can lead to tissue damage or ischemia. Removing the cast will relieve the pressure and allow for proper circulation to the toes. Contacting the staff nurse or referring the patient to an orthotist may not address the immediate issue of compromised circulation.

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  • 45. 

    The patient exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is MOST likely using the therapeutic ball to:

    • A.

      Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing

    • B.

      Encourage active assistive range of motion

    • C.

      Allow the patient partial weight bearing through the ball

    • D.

      Limit range of motion at the shoulder

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing
    Explanation
    The therapist is most likely using the therapeutic ball to avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing. Hypertonicity refers to increased muscle tone, and a mass extensor pattern refers to excessive activation of extensor muscles, causing the patient to lean backward and lose balance. By using the therapeutic ball, the therapist can provide support and stability, allowing the patient to maintain an upright position and avoid the mass extensor pattern.

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  • 46. 

    A physical therapist asks a patient who has been inconsistent with his attendance in physical therapy, why he is having difficulty keeping scheduled appointments. The patient responds that it is difficult to understand the scheduling card that lists the appointments. The therapist's MOST appropriate action would be to:

    • A.

      Contact the referring physician to discuss the patient's poor attendance in therapy

    • B.

      Make sure the patient Is given a scheduling card atthe conclusion of each session

    • C.

      Write down the patients appoinlbments on a piece of paper in a manner that the

    • D.

      Patient can understand discharge the patient from physical therapy

    Correct Answer
    C. Write down the patients appoinlbments on a piece of paper in a manner that the
    Explanation
    patient can understand

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  • 47. 

    A physical therapist working in a school system develops long-term goals as part of an Individualized Educational Plan for a child with Down syndrome. The MOST appropriate time frame to attain these goals is:

    • A.

      One month

    • B.

      Four months

    • C.

      Six months

    • D.

      One year

    Correct Answer
    D. One year
    Explanation
    The most appropriate time frame to attain long-term goals for a child with Down syndrome in a school system is one year. This allows for realistic and achievable progress to be made over a longer period of time. It also takes into consideration the individual needs and abilities of the child, allowing for adjustments and modifications to be made as necessary. A one-year time frame allows for consistent and comprehensive intervention and support to be provided, ensuring the child's progress and development.

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  • 48. 

    A two-year-old with T!0 spina blflda receives physical therapy for gait training. Initially, the preferred method to teach a child how to maintain standing is with the use of:

    • A.

      bilateral hip-knee-ankle-foot orthoses (HKAFO) and forearm crutches

    • B.

      Parapodium and the parallel bars

    • C.

      Bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFO) and the parallel bars

    • D.

      Bilateral ankle-foot orthoses (AFO) and the parallel bars

    Correct Answer
    B. Parapodium and the parallel bars
    Explanation
    A parapodium is a standing frame that provides support to the child's lower body while allowing them to practice standing and weight-bearing. It helps in maintaining an upright position and developing balance and stability. The parallel bars provide additional support and stability during gait training. Using a parapodium and parallel bars allows the child to gradually learn and practice standing without relying on external orthotic devices. This approach promotes the development of independent standing skills and encourages natural movement patterns.

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  • 49. 

    A physical therapist notices a small area of skin irritation under the chin of a patient wearing a Philadelphia collar. The patient expresses that the area is not painful, but is becoming increasingly itchy. The MOST appropriate therapist action is:

    • A.

      Instruct the patient to apply 1% hydrocortisone cream to the area twice daily

    • B.

      Apply powder to the area and instruct the patient to avoid scratching

    • C.

      provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis

    • D.

      Discontinue use of the orthosis until the skin has become less irritated

    Correct Answer
    C. provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis
    Explanation
    The most appropriate therapist action in this situation is to provide the patient with a liner to use as a barrier between the skin and the orthosis. This action addresses the issue of skin irritation by creating a protective layer between the patient's skin and the collar, preventing further irritation and allowing the skin to heal. It is a proactive approach that does not involve medication or discontinuing the use of the orthosis, which may be necessary for the patient's condition.

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  • 50. 

    A patient with muscle weakness and compromised balance uses a four-point gait pattern with two canes. The physical therapist would like to instruct the patient to ascend and descend the stairs according to the normal flow of traffic. When ascending stairs the MOST practical method is to:

    • A.

      Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand

    • B.

      Use the handrail with the left hand and place the two canes in the right hand

    • C.

      Place one cane in each hand and avoid using the handrail

    • D.

      place the two canes in the left hand and avoid using the handrail

    Correct Answer
    A. Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand. This method allows the patient to have support and stability while ascending stairs. By using the handrail with the right hand, the patient can maintain balance and control while using the canes with the left hand to provide additional support and aid in weight distribution. This technique ensures safety and minimizes the risk of falls or accidents while climbing stairs.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 06, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 31, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Prcrenew
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