Pmkvy - Ftns Internal Assessment - II

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Utl.shashidhar
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Assessment Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Your IT Company is constantly changing, with new users coming and going throughout the year. One of your common tasks requires the deletion of user accounts for employees who have left the company. Which command can be used to delete user accounts?

    • A.

      Dsmod

    • B.

      LDIFDE

    • C.

      Netsh

    • D.

      Dcpromo

    Correct Answer
    B. LDIFDE
    Explanation
    LDIFDE can be used to delete user accounts. LDIFDE stands for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Data Interchange Format, and it is a command-line tool that allows administrators to import, export, and modify objects in Active Directory. In this case, it can be used to delete user accounts for employees who have left the company.

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  • 2. 

    What type of DNS record is the record that points out the location of the mail server?

    • A.

      PTR

    • B.

      MX

    • C.

      SVR

    • D.

      SOA

    Correct Answer
    B. MX
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MX. MX stands for Mail Exchanger and it is a type of DNS record that is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting incoming emails for a particular domain. It points out the location of the mail server and helps in routing emails correctly.

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  • 3. 

    You install Active Directory on a server. You want it to be a separate domain that is part of an existing forest but containing a namespace separate from the forest where you are installing it. What is this type of domain called?

    • A.

      A replica

    • B.

      A child domain

    • C.

      A forest root

    • D.

      A tree root

    Correct Answer
    D. A tree root
    Explanation
    A tree root domain is a separate domain within an existing forest that has its own namespace, independent from the forest where it is installed. It is created when Active Directory is installed on a server and is used to establish a new branch or tree structure within the existing forest. This allows for the organization of resources and administration in a more hierarchical manner, while still being a part of the larger forest.

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  • 4. 

    You are installing Active Directory on a new domain controller and selecting options for placing the database and log files. Which of the following options would produce the optimum performance of these files? Each answer represents part of the solution.?

    • A.

      Placing them on the same NTFS partition

    • B.

      Ensuring plenty of hard disk space for these files to expand

    • C.

      Placing them on NTFS partitions located on separate physical disks

    • D.

      Restricting them to small partitions to control their size

    Correct Answer
    C. Placing them on NTFS partitions located on separate physical disks
    Explanation
    Placing the Active Directory database and log files on separate physical disks would result in optimum performance. This is because separating the files onto different disks allows for parallel read and write operations, reducing disk contention and improving overall performance. It also helps to distribute the I/O workload across multiple disks, increasing throughput and reducing latency.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is the most appropriate scenario where you would want to install a read-only domain controller?

    • A.

      In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum

    • B.

      In the head office near the receptionist’s desk

    • C.

      In the server room where the forest root domain is located and you need an optimum location for the schema master and domain naming master

    • D.

      In a branch office server room where you need to place the infrastructure master, RID master, and PDC emulator close to clients requiring their services

    Correct Answer
    A. In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum
    Explanation
    In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum, installing a read-only domain controller would be the most appropriate scenario. A read-only domain controller (RODC) is a type of domain controller that stores a read-only copy of the Active Directory database. It is designed for locations with limited physical security, such as branch offices, where the risk of unauthorized access to the domain controller is higher. By installing an RODC, the risk of compromising the entire Active Directory infrastructure is reduced, as the RODC does not store any passwords locally and cannot be modified by unauthorized users.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following are valid domain and forest functional levels for a Windows Server 2008 domain?

    • A.

      Windows 2000 mixed

    • B.

      Windows 2000 native

    • C.

      Windows Server 2003 mixed

    • D.

      Windows Server 2003 /2008

    Correct Answer
    D. Windows Server 2003 /2008
    Explanation
    The valid domain and forest functional levels for a Windows Server 2008 domain include Windows Server 2003 /2008. This means that the domain and forest functional levels can be set to either Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008, allowing for compatibility with both versions.

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  • 7. 

    How can you create a user object with the help of a single command?

    • A.

      The Dsadd command

    • B.

      The Create Method

    • C.

      The Create-item cmdlet

    • D.

      The set info method

    Correct Answer
    A. The Dsadd command
    Explanation
    The Dsadd command can be used to create a user object with a single command. This command is commonly used in Windows operating systems to create objects such as users, groups, and organizational units. By specifying the necessary parameters and attributes, the Dsadd command can quickly create a user object without the need for additional commands or steps.

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  • 8. 

    You are the administrator of an active directory domain. A user complains to you that he is unable to change his password. No other users have this issue. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      Insufficient login credentials

    • B.

      He is a member of the Administrators group

    • C.

      He is not a member of the domain

    • D.

      The property “User cannot change password” has been enabled when it was created

    Correct Answer
    D. The property “User cannot change password” has been enabled when it was created
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the user's inability to change his password is that the property "User cannot change password" has been enabled when his account was created. This property restricts the user from changing their password, which could explain why he is experiencing this issue.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is arranged in the correct Active Directory organizational order (largest to smallest)?

    • A.

      Forest, Domain, Tree, Branch, Computer

    • B.

      Computer, Forest, Domain, Tree

    • C.

      Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer

    • D.

      Forest, Tree, Computer, Domain

    Correct Answer
    C. Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer
    Explanation
    The correct Active Directory organizational order is Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer. In Active Directory, a Forest is the highest level of organization and can consist of multiple Trees. Each Tree can contain multiple Domains, and each Domain can have multiple Computers. Therefore, the correct order is Forest (largest), followed by Tree, Domain, and finally Computer (smallest).

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following groupings of linked domains would be a tree?

    • A.

      Mycorp.com and newcorp.com

    • B.

      Mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com

    • C.

      Marketing and Talent

    • D.

      Windows 2000 and Window NT

    Correct Answer
    B. Mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com
    Explanation
    The grouping of "mycorp.com" and "newsite.mycorp.com" would form a tree. In this grouping, "mycorp.com" would be the parent domain, and "newsite.mycorp.com" would be a subdomain or child domain of "mycorp.com". This hierarchical structure resembles a tree, where the parent domain branches out into multiple subdomains.

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  • 11. 

    A user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com may administer which of the following groupings?

    • A.

      Mycorp.com within the central USA site

    • B.

      Dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain

    • C.

      Austin.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain

    • D.

      Managers organizational unit within the dallas.mycorp.com Sales organizational unit

    Correct Answer
    B. Dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain
    Explanation
    The user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com may administer the dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain. This means they have administrative control over the dallas.mycorp.com subdomain within the larger mycorp.com domain. They do not have administrative control over the other options mentioned in the question.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following commands will force an update of group policy of computers on the domain Airtel?

    • A.

      GPUPDATE –airtel/all

    • B.

      GPFORCE /airtel

    • C.

      GPUPDATE /force –all

    • D.

      GPUPDATE /force

    Correct Answer
    D. GPUPDATE /force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GPUPDATE /force. This command is used to force an immediate update of group policy settings on a computer or a group of computers. By using the /force parameter, the update is enforced even if there are no changes to the group policy settings. This command is particularly useful when there is a need to quickly apply any new or modified group policy settings to the computers in the Airtel domain.

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  • 13. 

    Groups are considered an organizing component of Active Directory

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Groups are not considered an organizing component of Active Directory. In Active Directory, objects such as users, computers, and resources are organized into containers called Organizational Units (OUs) to facilitate management and administration. Groups, on the other hand, are used to simplify the assignment of permissions and access control to these objects within the Active Directory structure.

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  • 14. 

    You run the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role.  After the wizard is finished, you check the Administrative Tools folder but don't find any of the Active Directory management tools.  What should you do?

    • A.

      ADSI Edit

    • B.

      Run Dcpromo.exe

    • C.

      Global catalog

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Run Dcpromo.exe
    Explanation
    After running the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role, if the Administrative Tools folder does not contain any of the Active Directory management tools, the appropriate action to take is to run Dcpromo.exe. This command is used to promote a server to a domain controller and will likely install the necessary Active Directory management tools.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a container object?

    • A.

      Domain & OU

    • B.

      Users

    • C.

      Computers

    • D.

      Groups

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain & OU
    Explanation
    Domain & OU is a container object because it is used to organize and manage objects within a network. A domain is a logical grouping of network resources, such as users, computers, and groups, while an Organizational Unit (OU) is a subdivision within a domain that allows for further organization and delegation of administrative tasks. Both the domain and OU act as containers that hold and manage other objects, making them the correct answer in this context.

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  • 16. 

    To which of the following can a GPO be linked?

    • A.

      Domains

    • B.

      Sites

    • C.

      Leaf object

    • D.

      Container object

    Correct Answer
    B. Sites
    Explanation
    A Group Policy Object (GPO) can be linked to sites. Sites are logical groupings of computers in Active Directory that are based on their physical location. By linking a GPO to a site, the policies defined in the GPO can be applied to all the computers within that site, ensuring consistent configuration and management across the network. This is particularly useful for organizations with multiple physical locations or branch offices, as it allows them to apply specific policies to computers within each site.

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  • 17. 

    If a policy is defined in a GPO linked to a domain, and that policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to an OU, which is true by default?

    • A.

      The policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied

    • B.

      The policy setting in the GPO linked to the domain is applied

    • C.

      Neither policy setting is not applied, nor is an error message generated

    • D.

      The policy in both GPOs defaults to Not Defined so that no conflict exists

    Correct Answer
    A. The policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied
    Explanation
    When a policy is defined in a Group Policy Object (GPO) linked to an Organizational Unit (OU) and that same policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to a domain, by default, the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied. This is because GPOs linked to OUs have a higher precedence than GPOs linked to the domain. Therefore, the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU will take effect for the objects within that OU, while the policy setting in the GPO linked to the domain will be ignored in this case.

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  • 18. 

    The policy in both GPOs defaults to Not Defined so that no conflict exists

    • A.

      Similar to a list of information in a text file

    • B.

      Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it

    • C.

      A program for managing the user interface on a server

    • D.

      A program for managing folders, files, and permissions on a distributed server

    Correct Answer
    B. Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it." This answer suggests that the policy in both GPOs defaults to "Not Defined" in order to avoid any conflicts. This implies that the GPOs function similarly to a database program, where objects (such as policies) can be managed and modified.

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  • 19. 

    At about what interval are GPOs updated on domain controllers?

    • A.

      5 seconds

    • B.

      15 minutes

    • C.

      50 minutes

    • D.

      5 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 minutes
    Explanation
    GPOs (Group Policy Objects) are updated on domain controllers at approximately 15-minute intervals. This means that any changes made to GPOs will be applied to the domain controllers and subsequently to the client computers within the domain within this timeframe. This interval allows for efficient and timely updates to ensure that the latest policies are enforced across the network.

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  • 20. 

    When configuring GPOs, which node contains the majority of account policies?

    • A.

      Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node

    • B.

      Computer Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder, Windows Components node

    • C.

      The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder

    • D.

      The User Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node
    Explanation
    The majority of account policies are contained in the Computer Configuration node, specifically within the Windows Settings folder and the Security Settings node. This is where administrators can configure security settings and policies that apply to the entire computer or to specific groups of users. The Administrative Templates folder and the Windows Components node are not specifically related to account policies, and the User Configuration node is focused on policies that apply to individual users rather than the entire computer.

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  • 21. 

    What are the two default GPOs that are created when Active Directory is installed?

    • A.

      Default Directory Policy and Default Domain Policy

    • B.

      Default Domain Controllers Policy and Default Directory Policy

    • C.

      Default Domain-Wide Policy and Default Active Directory Policy

    • D.

      Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy

    Correct Answer
    D. Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy
    Explanation
    When Active Directory is installed, two default Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are created: Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy. The Default Domain Policy is applied to the entire domain and contains settings that affect all users and computers in the domain. The Default Domain Controllers Policy is applied specifically to domain controllers and contains settings that are applied only to those servers. These two default GPOs provide a starting point for configuring and managing Group Policy settings in an Active Directory environment.

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  • 22. 

    Under what circumstances are the built-in user accounts no longer local user accounts?

    • A.

      When accessing a network resource in a workgroup environment

    • B.

      After installing Active Directory

    • C.

      This is impossible; built-in user accounts cannot be converted

    • D.

      When using dsadd on the built-in accounts

    Correct Answer
    B. After installing Active Directory
    Explanation
    After installing Active Directory, the built-in user accounts are no longer local user accounts. Active Directory is a directory service that allows for centralized management of users, groups, and resources in a network environment. When Active Directory is installed, the built-in user accounts are converted into domain user accounts, which are managed and authenticated by the Active Directory domain controller. This allows for a more efficient and secure management of user accounts across the network.

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  • 23. 

    After receiving several support calls, you have decided to prevent users of the DomA-Group from being able to access the Control Panel regardless of what machine they log into. Where would you configure this setting?

    • A.

      The User Configuration node, Windows Settings folder

    • B.

      The Computer Configuration node, Administrative templates folder

    • C.

      The Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder

    • D.

      The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder

    Correct Answer
    D. The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder
    Explanation
    In order to prevent users of the DomA-Group from accessing the Control Panel, the setting needs to be configured in the User Configuration node, specifically in the Administrative Templates folder. This folder contains various policy settings that can be applied to user accounts. By configuring the appropriate policy setting within this folder, the desired restriction can be enforced for all users within the DomA-Group, regardless of the machine they log into.

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  • 24. 

    An Active Directory container used to organize a network’s users and resources into logical administrative units

    • A.

      Organizational Units

    • B.

      Users Units

    • C.

      Container object

    • D.

      Leaf object

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational Units
    Explanation
    Organizational Units are an Active Directory container used to organize a network's users and resources into logical administrative units. This allows for easier management and delegation of administrative tasks within the network. By grouping users and resources into Organizational Units, administrators can apply policies, permissions, and settings specific to that unit, making it a fundamental component of Active Directory's hierarchical structure. Therefore, the correct answer is Organizational Units.

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  • 25. 

    The main purpose of Active Directory is to ________.

    • A.

      Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers

    • B.

      Provide File and Print services

    • C.

      Give administrators the ability to control access to restricted hardware

    • D.

      Allow users to organize their file systems into a cohesive and high performance directory

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers
    Explanation
    Active Directory is a directory service that provides authentication and authorization to users and computers in a network environment. It allows administrators to manage and control user access to resources such as files, folders, and applications. By authenticating users, Active Directory verifies their identity, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access the network. It also authorizes users by granting or denying permissions to specific resources based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization. Therefore, the main purpose of Active Directory is to provide authentication and authorization to users and computers.

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  • 26. 

    What is the address given to a computer connected to a network called?

    • A.

      System Address

    • B.

      SYSID

    • C.

      Process ID

    • D.

      Structure

    Correct Answer
    D. Structure
    Explanation
    The address given to a computer connected to a network is called a structure. This refers to the arrangement or organization of the different components and elements within the computer's network connection. The structure includes information such as the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and other network settings that allow the computer to communicate and interact with other devices on the network.

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  • 27. 

    The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called:

    • A.

      Assembly language programs

    • B.

      Firmware

    • C.

      BASIC interpreter instructions

    • D.

      Flowchart instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Assembly language programs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is assembly language programs. Assembly language is a low-level programming language that is specific to a particular computer architecture. It uses mnemonic codes to represent machine instructions, making it easier for programmers to write and understand code for microprocessor-based systems. Firmware refers to software that is embedded in hardware devices, while BASIC interpreter instructions and flowchart instructions are not specific to microprocessor-based systems.

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  • 28. 

    A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a:

    • A.

      CPU

    • B.

      Compiler

    • C.

      Microcomputer

    • D.

      ALU

    Correct Answer
    C. Microcomputer
    Explanation
    A microcomputer is formed by the combination of a microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit. A microprocessor unit is responsible for executing instructions, a memory unit stores data and instructions, and an input/output unit allows communication with external devices. Together, these components create a complete computer system capable of performing various tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is microcomputer.

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  • 29. 

    Index hole is related to?

    • A.

      Hard disk

    • B.

      Floppy disk

    • C.

      Printer

    • D.

      CPU

    Correct Answer
    D. CPU
    Explanation
    The index hole is a feature found in older models of floppy disks and is used by the disk drive to determine the start of each track. However, in the context of the given options, the index hole is not directly related to any of them. CPU stands for Central Processing Unit, which is the main component of a computer system responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations. Therefore, the correct answer is CPU.

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  • 30. 

    Secondry memory is also know as?

    • A.

      Auxiliary memory

    • B.

      Primery memory

    • C.

      Virtual memory

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Auxiliary memory
    Explanation
    Secondary memory is also known as auxiliary memory because it is used to store data and programs that are not currently being used by the computer's processor. Unlike primary memory (such as RAM), which is volatile and loses its contents when the computer is powered off, auxiliary memory retains its data even when the power is turned off. Examples of auxiliary memory include hard disk drives, solid-state drives, optical discs, and magnetic tapes. This type of memory provides additional storage capacity for the computer and allows for long-term storage of data and programs.

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  • 31. 

    It holds the address of the active memory?

    • A.

      MAR

    • B.

      MBR

    • C.

      PC

    • D.

      AR

    Correct Answer
    A. MAR
    Explanation
    MAR stands for Memory Address Register. It is a hardware component that holds the address of the memory location currently being accessed or referenced by the CPU. The CPU uses the MAR to fetch instructions or data from the memory. It acts as an intermediary between the CPU and the memory, ensuring that the correct memory location is accessed. Therefore, MAR holds the address of the active memory, making it the correct answer.

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  • 32. 

    In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed

    • A.

      Parallel only

    • B.

      Sequentially only

    • C.

      Both sequentially and parallel

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both sequentially and parallel
    Explanation
    In the latest generation computers, instructions are executed both sequentially and in parallel. This means that some instructions are executed one after the other in a sequential manner, while other instructions are executed simultaneously in parallel. This allows for efficient and faster processing of tasks, as multiple instructions can be executed at the same time. Sequential execution ensures that the instructions are executed in the correct order, while parallel execution maximizes the utilization of the computer's resources. Therefore, the correct answer is that instructions are executed both sequentially and in parallel in the latest generation computers.

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  • 33. 

    Which printer is very commonly used for desktop publishing?

    • A.

      Laser printer

    • B.

      Inkjet printer

    • C.

      Daisywheel printer

    • D.

      Dot matrix printer

    Correct Answer
    A. Laser printer
    Explanation
    A laser printer is commonly used for desktop publishing because it offers high-quality prints with sharp and precise text and graphics. It uses a laser beam to create an electrostatic image on a drum, which is then transferred onto the paper. Laser printers are fast, efficient, and produce professional-looking documents, making them a popular choice for desktop publishing tasks. Inkjet printers, daisywheel printers, and dot matrix printers are also used for printing, but they may not offer the same level of quality and speed as a laser printer.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location?

    • A.

      It will add to the content of the location

    • B.

      It will change the address of the memory location

    • C.

      It will erase the previous content

    • D.

      It will not be fruitful if there is already some data at the location

    Correct Answer
    C. It will erase the previous content
    Explanation
    When data is entered into a memory location, it will erase the previous content. This means that any existing data in the memory location will be overwritten by the new data being entered.

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  • 35. 

    ____ is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network.

    • A.

      NNTP

    • B.

      NTP

    • C.

      PING

    • D.

      ARP

    Correct Answer
    B. NTP
    Explanation
    NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. It allows computers to accurately maintain the same time by exchanging time information between them. This is crucial for various network applications and services that rely on accurate time synchronization, such as authentication, logging, and distributed file systems. NTP ensures that all computers on the network have a consistent and accurate time reference, improving overall network performance and reliability.

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  • 36. 

    A ____ is a repeater with more than one output port

    • A.

      Bridge

    • B.

      Switch

    • C.

      hub

    • D.

      Router

    Correct Answer
    C. hub
    Explanation
    A hub is a repeater with more than one output port. A hub is a device that connects multiple devices in a network and forwards all the data received on one port to all the other ports. It does not make any intelligent decisions about where to send the data, unlike a switch or a router. Therefore, a hub is the correct answer for a repeater with multiple output ports.

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  • 37. 

    ____ are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks.

    • A.

      Routers

    • B.

      Switches

    • C.

      Gateways

    • D.

      Broadcast domains

    Correct Answer
    C. Gateways
    Explanation
    Gateways are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks. Unlike routers and switches, which primarily connect similar networks, gateways are designed to bridge the gap between different types of networks. They are used to facilitate communication and data transfer between networks that use different protocols or have different architectures. Gateways are essential for connecting networks that have incompatible technologies, such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the internet.

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  • 38. 

    A physical topology ____.

    • A.

      Specifies device types

    • B.

      Depicts a network in broad scope

    • C.

      Specifies connectivity methods

    • D.

      Specifies addressing schemes

    Correct Answer
    B. Depicts a network in broad scope
    Explanation
    The physical topology of a network refers to the arrangement and placement of devices and cables. It focuses on the physical layout and connections of the network, rather than the logical or functional aspects. By depicting a network in a broad scope, the physical topology provides an overview of how devices are connected and organized within the network, allowing administrators to understand the physical structure and layout of the network. This information is essential for troubleshooting, planning, and managing the network effectively.

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  • 39. 

    The most common logical topologies are ____ and ring.

    • A.

      Bus

    • B.

      Star

    • C.

      Wired

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus
    Explanation
    The most common logical topologies are bus and ring. A bus topology is a network layout where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. In this topology, data is transmitted in both directions, allowing for easy communication between devices. On the other hand, a ring topology connects devices in a circular manner, forming a closed loop. Each device receives and then forwards data to the next device until it reaches the intended recipient. Both bus and ring topologies are widely used in networking to establish connections between devices.

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  • 40. 

    NICs contain a(n) ____ which transmits and receives data signals.

    • A.

      Keyboard port

    • B.

      Mouse port

    • C.

      Data transceiver

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    C. Data transceiver
    Explanation
    NICs (Network Interface Cards) are hardware devices that allow computers to connect to a network. They contain a data transceiver, which is responsible for transmitting and receiving data signals. This transceiver converts the digital data from the computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over the network, and vice versa. Therefore, the correct answer is "data transceiver".

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  • 41. 

    TCP is a(n)___ sub protocol.

    • A.

      Open-ended

    • B.

      indiscriminating

    • C.

      Connection-oriented

    • D.

      Connectionless

    Correct Answer
    C. Connection-oriented
    Explanation
    TCP is a connection-oriented sub protocol because it establishes a reliable and ordered connection between two devices before transmitting data. It ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and handles any lost or corrupted packets by retransmitting them. This approach guarantees the delivery of data and is commonly used for applications that require a reliable and error-free connection, such as web browsing, email, and file transfers.

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  • 42. 

    Traditional switches operate at the ____ layer of the OSI model.

    • A.

      Physical

    • B.

      Data link

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Session

    Correct Answer
    B. Data link
    Explanation
    Traditional switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model. The data link layer is responsible for providing reliable and error-free transfer of data between adjacent network nodes over a physical link. Switches at this layer use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN), making decisions based on the destination MAC address in the Ethernet frame header.

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  • 43. 

    The sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork - that is, to traverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network throughout a router is ____

    • A.

      TCP

    • B.

      ICMP

    • C.

      UDP

    • D.

      IP

    Correct Answer
    D. IP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IP. IP (Internet Protocol) is the sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork. It allows TCP/IP to traverse multiple LAN segments and different types of networks through a router. IP is responsible for addressing and routing data packets across different networks, ensuring that they reach their intended destinations. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) are transport layer protocols that rely on IP for internetworking. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network layer protocol used for error reporting and diagnostics, but it does not directly enable TCP/IP to internetwork.

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  • 44. 

    By far, the most popular expansion board NIC today is one that uses a(n) ____ bus.

    • A.

      Onboard

    • B.

      PCIe

    • C.

      ExpressCard

    • D.

      ISA

    Correct Answer
    B. PCIe
    Explanation
    The most popular expansion board NIC today uses a PCIe bus. PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard that provides a faster and more efficient connection between the expansion board and the computer's motherboard. It offers higher bandwidth and lower latency compared to other bus types like ISA or ExpressCard, making it the preferred choice for modern expansion boards.

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  • 45. 

    To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the ____.

    • A.

      RIP (Routing Information Protocol)

    • B.

      STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

    • C.

      BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

    • D.

      OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) protocol

    Correct Answer
    B. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
    Explanation
    Switches and bridges implement the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm. A broadcast storm can occur when there are multiple redundant paths in a network, causing broadcast frames to continuously circulate and consume network resources. STP helps in preventing loops by creating a loop-free logical topology and selectively blocking redundant paths. This ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices, preventing broadcast storms and maintaining network stability.

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  • 46. 

    In IPv4 addressing, a node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class ____ network.

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    The given IP address, 168.34.88.29, falls within the range of Class B addresses. In IPv4 addressing, the first octet of a Class B address ranges from 128 to 191, indicating that the network belongs to Class B.

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  • 47. 

    The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.

    • A.

      255.0.0.0

    • B.

      255.255.0.0

    • C.

      255.255.255.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    B. 255.255.0.0
    Explanation
    The default subnet mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. In a Class B network, the first two octets represent the network portion, while the last two octets represent the host portion. The subnet mask is used to determine the boundaries between the network and host portions. In this case, the subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 allows for a larger number of hosts compared to the other options, as it only reserves the first two octets for the network portion.

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  • 48. 

    On an Ethenet network, a(n) ____ is the portion of a network in which collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time.

    • A.

      Collision domain

    • B.

      Crash domain

    • C.

      Interference domain

    • D.

      Duplicate domain

    Correct Answer
    A. Collision domain
    Explanation
    A collision domain refers to the portion of an Ethernet network where collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time. In this domain, when two or more devices transmit data simultaneously, the signals collide and result in data loss or corruption. This can happen in a shared medium such as a hub or in a switch port that has multiple devices connected without VLANs. By understanding the concept of collision domains, network administrators can design and manage their networks effectively to minimize collisions and optimize network performance.

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  • 49. 

    A ____ is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network

    • A.

      Switch

    • B.

      Bridge

    • C.

      Router

    • D.

      Gateway

    Correct Answer
    C. Router
    Explanation
    A router is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network. Unlike a switch or bridge, a router operates at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model and can make intelligent routing decisions based on IP addresses. A router connects multiple networks together and determines the best path for data packets to reach their destination. It uses routing tables and protocols to efficiently direct traffic and can also perform functions such as network address translation (NAT) and firewalling. A gateway, on the other hand, is a device that connects two different types of networks, such as a local area network (LAN) to the internet.

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  • 50. 

    In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique ____ number

    • A.

      12-bit

    • B.

      32-bit

    • C.

      64-bit

    • D.

      128-bit

    Correct Answer
    B. 32-bit
    Explanation
    Each IP address in IPv4 addressing is a unique 32-bit number. This means that the address is composed of 32 binary digits, which allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique addresses. This 32-bit structure is a fundamental characteristic of IPv4 addressing and is used to identify and locate devices on a network.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 07, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Utl.shashidhar
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