Ccs General Quiz IV

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| By Mike
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Mike
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Quizzes Created: 7 | Total Attempts: 2,278
Questions: 25 | Attempts: 192

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Polysomnography Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    __________ multiplied by conversion factor gives you the amount payable for a providers fee schedule.

    • A.

      OPPs

    • B.

      NECs

    • C.

      RVUs

    • D.

      BBCs

    Correct Answer
    C. RVUs
    Explanation
    Relative Value Units. The CASE mix index is a relative value unit (DRG) assigned for a period of time

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  • 2. 

    Encounter for gastrostomy tube irrigation if indexed under ______________, gastrostomy

    Correct Answer
    attention to
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "attention to." This suggests that when looking for information about an encounter for gastrostomy tube irrigation, one should search under the keyword "attention to" rather than "gastrostomy tube irrigation." This implies that "attention to" is the more relevant or commonly used term in medical documentation for this type of procedure.

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  • 3. 

    Cyanosis is not coded with respiratory or cardiac arrest

    • A.

      IS

    • B.

      IS NOT

    Correct Answer
    B. IS NOT
    Explanation
    Cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to a lack of oxygen in the blood. It is a symptom that can occur in various medical conditions, including respiratory or cardiac arrest. However, the given statement suggests that cyanosis is not coded specifically with respiratory or cardiac arrest. This means that while cyanosis can be present in these situations, it is not the primary code used to describe them. Other codes would be used to indicate the underlying cause of the arrest, while cyanosis may be mentioned as an associated symptom.

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  • 4. 

    When the question  tells you that the pt has died, be suspicious. Certain conditions recieve a CC/MCC only if the pt is discharged alive! i46.2 cardiac arrest due to underlying cardiac condition i46.8 cardiac arrest due to other underlying condition i46.9 cardiac arrest, cause unspecified i49.01 ventricular fibrillation r09.2 respiratory arrest r57.0 cardiogenic shock r57.1 hypovolemic shock r57.8 other shock

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When the question tells you that the patient has died, it is important to be suspicious because certain conditions receive a CC/MCC only if the patient is discharged alive. This means that if the patient has died, these conditions may not be applicable or relevant in the context of the question. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct in this case.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following conditions is on the HAC list?

    • A.

      Diabetic foot ulcer

    • B.

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis

    • C.

      B and D are correct

    • D.

      Blood Incompatibility

    Correct Answer
    D. Blood Incompatibility
    Explanation
    Stage 3 and 4 ulcers are on the HAC list
     


     

    HAC's....................

    Foreign Object Retained After Surgery

    Air Embolism

    Blood Incompatibility

    Stage III and IV Pressure Ulcers

    Falls and Trauma

    Fractures

    Dislocations

    Intracranial Injuries

    Crushing Injuries

    Burn

    Other Injuries

    Manifestations of Poor Glycemic Control

    Diabetic Ketoacidosis

    Nonketotic Hyperosmolar Coma

    Hypoglycemic Coma

    Secondary Diabetes with Ketoacidosis

    Secondary Diabetes with Hyperosmolarity

    Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)

    Vascular Catheter-Associated Infection

    Surgical Site Infection, Mediastinitis, Following Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG):

    Surgical Site Infection Following Bariatric Surgery for Obesity

    Laparoscopic Gastric Bypass

    Gastroenterostomy

    Laparoscopic Gastric Restrictive Surgery

    Surgical Site Infection Following Certain Orthopedic Procedures

    Spine

    Neck

    Shoulder

    Elbow

    Surgical Site Infection Following Cardiac Implantable Electronic Device (CIED)

    Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)/Pulmonary Embolism (PE) Following Certain Orthopedic Procedures:

    Total Knee Replacement

    Hip Replacement

    Iatrogenic Pneumothorax with Venous Catheterization

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  • 6. 

    Which form must be completed in order to permit a specific disclosure of protected health information?

    • A.

      Consent

    • B.

      Authorization

    • C.

      Access

    • D.

      Redisclosure

    Correct Answer
    B. Authorization
    Explanation
    Authorization must be completed in order to permit a specific disclosure of protected health information. Consent refers to the general permission given by a patient for the use and disclosure of their health information, while authorization is a more specific and detailed form that allows the release of protected health information for a particular purpose. Access refers to the ability of individuals to view and obtain their own health information. Redisclosure refers to the sharing of health information that has already been disclosed once. Therefore, authorization is the correct form to be completed for a specific disclosure of protected health information.

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  • 7. 

    What term is used when protected health information has been disclosed inappropriately?

    • A.

      Exposure

    • B.

      Breach

    • C.

      Violation

    • D.

      Infraction

    Correct Answer
    B. Breach
    Explanation
    When protected health information has been disclosed inappropriately, it is referred to as a breach. A breach occurs when there is an unauthorized release or access to sensitive health information, compromising the privacy and security of the individual's personal health data. This term is commonly used in the context of healthcare and data protection regulations to describe situations where there has been a violation of privacy rules and regulations.

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  • 8. 

    What is the term used for applying the HIPAA privacy rule over state rules which are less strict?

    • A.

      Exception

    • B.

      Preemption

    • C.

      Exclusion

    • D.

      Predominance

    Correct Answer
    B. Preemption
    Explanation
    Preemption means to supercede

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  • 9. 

    According to the UHDDS, section III, the definition of "other diagnoses" is all conditions that:

    • A.

      Coexist at the time of admission, that develop subsequently, or that affect the treatment received or the length of stay

    • B.

      Receive evaluation and are documented by the physician

    • C.

      Receive clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, further evaluation, extend the length of stay, increase nursing monitoring/care

    Correct Answer
    A. Coexist at the time of admission, that develop subsequently, or that affect the treatment received or the length of stay
    Explanation
    Other Diagnosis Coexist at the time of admission, that develop subsequently, or that affect the treatment received or the length of stay
    Secondary Diagnosis Receives clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, further evaluation, extends the length of stay, or increases nursing monitoring and care

    The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set, which is referred to as the 'UHDDS,' is the core data set for inpatient admissions. The data is collected on inpatient hospital discharges for Medicare and Medicaid programs. Much of the required information can be located on the patient's face sheet.

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  • 10. 

    Which patient specific UHDDS items also have the potential to impact MS-DRG

    • A.

      Race and Residence

    • B.

      Residence and Sex

    • C.

      Sex and discharge disposition

    • D.

      Discharge disposition and race

    Correct Answer
    C. Sex and discharge disposition
    Explanation
    The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set, which is referred to as the 'UHDDS,' is the core data set for inpatient admissions. The data is collected on inpatient hospital discharges for Medicare and Medicaid programs. Much of the required information can be located on the patient's face sheet.

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  • 11. 

    Noncompliance or complication of care codes are to be used with an _____________ code (and vice versa) to indicate intent, if known.

    Correct Answer
    underdosing
    Explanation
    First, the effect (hypertension, syncope, etc)
    then the underdosing code
    and finally the noncompliance or complication of care code

    ***Codes for underdosing should never be assigned as principal or
    first-listed codes.

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  • 12. 

    A patient is admitted with an acute inferior myocardial infarction and discharged alive. Which condition would increase the MS-DRG weight?

    • A.

      Respiratory failure

    • B.

      A fib

    • C.

      Hypertension

    • D.

      History of myocardial infarction

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory failure
    Explanation
    According to Medicare, a major surgery has a global period of 90 days, and a minor surgery has a global period of either 10 or 0 days. Thus, the time frame of, not the complexity of, the surgery determines whether a surgery is major or minor.

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  • 13. 

    If the principal diagnosis is an initial anterior wall myocardial infarction, which procedure will result in the highest MS-DRG assignment?

    • A.

      Mechanical ventilator

    • B.

      Insertion central venous catheter

    • C.

      Right heart cardiac catheterization

    • D.

      Transbronchial lung biopsy

    Correct Answer
    D. Transbronchial lung biopsy
    Explanation
    If a HAC diagnosis is POA it will be classified as CC or MCC and will impact MS-DRG reimbursement by raising the relative weight. 

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  • 14. 

    pHI stands for 

    • A.

      Personal Health Information

    • B.

      Private Health Information

    • C.

      Protected Health Information

    • D.

      Patient Health Information

    • E.

      Determining payment-related condition that require direct reference to HCPCS or modifiers

    Correct Answer
    C. Protected Health Information
    Explanation
    PHI stands for Protected Health Information. This term refers to any individually identifiable health information that is created, received, maintained or transmitted by a covered entity. It includes any information about a person's past, present or future physical or mental health, as well as any healthcare services provided to them. Protected Health Information is subject to strict privacy and security regulations under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of patients' health information.

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  • 15. 

    A pt is admitted for emergency treatment of end stage renal disease. The following day his personal physician comes to the hospital for a checkup and chart review. what e/m service would be applied to the physician visist? 

    • A.

      Office or other outpatient services

    • B.

      Initial hospital care

    • C.

      Subsequent hospital care

    • D.

      Initial observation care

    Correct Answer
    C. Subsequent hospital care
    Explanation
    As long as she is honest about her current credential she may ethically apply for the position. She may be told that she is not applicable until she gets her RHIA. Honesty and transparency are key.

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  • 16. 

    A bilateral salpingectomy is removal of ________________________

    Correct Answer
    fallopian tubes
    Explanation
    A bilateral salpingectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of both fallopian tubes. This procedure is typically performed for various reasons, including sterilization, treatment of certain gynecological conditions, or as a preventive measure for individuals at high risk of developing ovarian cancer. By removing the fallopian tubes, the procedure effectively eliminates the possibility of fertilization and prevents the eggs from reaching the uterus, thus providing a permanent form of contraception.

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  • 17. 

    Which form would a patient be required for a patient to assume responsibility for a service that may be denied by Medicare

    • A.

      HIPAA

    • B.

      CMS 1450

    • C.

      ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage)

    • D.

      MIPS (Merit-based Incentive Payment System)

    Correct Answer
    C. ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage)
    Explanation
    The CMS-1450 form (aka UB-04 at present) can be used by an institutional provider to bill a Medicare fiscal intermediary (FI) when a provider qualifies for a waiver from the Administrative Simplification Compliance Act (ASCA) requirement for electronic submission of claims. The UB04 claim form is used to submit claims for inpatient AND outpatient services by institutional facilities (for example, outpatient departments, Rural Health Clinics, chronic dialysis and Adult Day Health Care).

    CMS 1500 is used only by the physicians, not hospitals (non-institution based), or supplier to bill Medicare carriers and durable medical equipment regional carriers (DMERCs) when a provider qualifies for a waiver from the Administrative Simplification Compliance Act (ASCA) requirement for electronic submission of claims. It is also used for billing of some Medicaid State Agencies. Please contact your Medicaid State Agency for more details.

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  • 18. 

    What services can be coded IN ADDITION to Critical Care Services?

    • A.

      CPR

    • B.

      Endotracheal Intubation

    • C.

      Defibrillation

    • D.

      A and B are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B are correct
    Explanation
    CAN BE BILLED SEPARATELY
    CPR 
    Endotracheal intubation 
    Central line placement 
    Intraosseous placement
    Tube thoracostomy
    Temporary transvenous pacemaker 
    Electrocardiogram - routine ECG with at least 12 leads; interpretation and report only
    Elective electrical cardioversion
     

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  • 19. 

    Repair of the anterior cruciate ligament of the knee is coded to the knee body part in the ________________ body system.

    Correct Answer
    bursae and ligaments
    Explanation
    The correct answer is bursae and ligaments because the anterior cruciate ligament is a ligament located in the knee joint. Ligaments are part of the bursae and ligaments body system, which includes the connective tissues that support and stabilize joints. Therefore, when coding the repair of the anterior cruciate ligament, it would be classified under the bursae and ligaments body system.

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  • 20. 

    If a listing for ankle does not exist, the ___________ body part is used

    Correct Answer
    foot
    Explanation
    If a listing for ankle does not exist, the foot body part is used. This implies that when referring to a specific body part in a listing or categorization, if there is no separate category for the ankle, it is grouped under the foot category. This suggests that the ankle is considered a part of the foot and is not distinguished as a separate body part in this particular context.

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  • 21. 

    Spinal tap is also known as a ____________________

    Correct Answer
    diagnostic lumbar puncture
    Explanation
    Spinal tap is a medical procedure in which a needle is inserted into the lower back to collect cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic purposes. This procedure is commonly referred to as a diagnostic lumbar puncture, as it is used to diagnose various conditions such as infections, bleeding, or inflammation in the central nervous system.

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  • 22. 

    If noted, post pregnancy hypokalemia, must also be coded with _______________ nutritional and metabolic disease complicating the puerperium

    Correct Answer
    endocrine
    Explanation
    Post pregnancy hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood that occurs after childbirth. It is a metabolic disorder that is caused by hormonal changes in the body during the postpartum period. Since it is a metabolic disorder, it should be coded with a nutritional and metabolic disease complicating the puerperium, which falls under the endocrine category. Therefore, the correct answer is endocrine.

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  • 23. 

    Post partum anemia is ___________ coded

    Correct Answer
    always
    Explanation
    Postpartum anemia is always coded. This means that regardless of the circumstances or severity of the anemia, it must always be documented and assigned a code for proper medical record keeping and billing purposes. Anemia after childbirth is a common occurrence due to the loss of blood during delivery, and it is important to track and manage this condition for the well-being of the mother.

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  • 24. 

    An ileus is usually a _______________ COMPLICATION and should be coded. A separate code is used for a complication of OBSTETRICAL SURGERY like a c-section

    Correct Answer
    post op, postop
    Explanation
    Ileus refers to the intolerance of oral intake due to inhibition of the gastrointestinal propulsion without signs of mechanical obstruction.

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  • 25. 

    Radiating pain, think ____________

    Correct Answer
    radiculopathy
    Explanation
    Radiculopathy refers to a condition where there is compression or irritation of a nerve root, usually in the spine. This can result in radiating pain, which means that the pain travels from the site of the nerve compression or irritation to other parts of the body supplied by that nerve. Therefore, when experiencing radiating pain, it is likely that the cause is radiculopathy.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 01, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 18, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Mike
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