CDC 3S051 Vol 3

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1. (417) If the career development element has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what canthey do in order to save time?

Explanation

To save time when conducting numerous relocation briefings, the career development element can conduct mass briefings. This means that instead of individually briefing each person, they can gather a group of individuals who require the briefing and conduct the briefing for all of them at once. This allows them to convey the necessary information to multiple individuals simultaneously, saving time and effort compared to conducting individual briefings for each person.

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About This Quiz
CDC 3S051 Vol 3 - Quiz

CDC 3S051 Vol 3 quiz assesses knowledge on newcomer orientation, sponsorship duties, and accession processing in a military context. It evaluates understanding of personnel management procedures and compliance with service commitments.

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2. (424) The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is

Explanation

The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is $90,000. This means that if a service member meets the eligibility criteria and chooses to reenlist, they can receive a bonus of up to $90,000. The SRB is a financial incentive offered by the military to encourage experienced personnel to continue their service. The higher the bonus amount, the more enticing it may be for service members to reenlist, especially if they are considering leaving the military.

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3. (411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the

Explanation

The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity that is paid by the Air Force to the surviving spouse or eligible children of an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD). This means that both the surviving spouse and eligible children are entitled to receive the monthly annuity provided by the SBP.

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4. (443) Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and produced

Explanation

Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and produced daily. This means that these registers are created and managed through computer programs on a daily basis. They are not produced every other day, weekly, or monthly. The use of the word "daily" indicates that the production and control of these registers occur on a daily basis.

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5. (427) When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member's total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?

Explanation

When there is no break in active duty service, a member's Total Active Federal Military Service Date (TAFMSD) will reflect their original entry on active duty. This means that the TAFMSD will be the date when the member first entered active duty service, regardless of any subsequent events such as delayed enlistment, completion of basic military training, or agreement to sign up for active duty.

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6. (437) If a member is receiving a special duty rating of SD–3, what monetary value are they entitled to?

Explanation

A member receiving a special duty rating of SD-3 is entitled to a monetary value of $225.

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7. (403) Once you retrieve a Teslin identification (ID) card, you may do all of the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is "line out." This means that once you retrieve a Teslin identification card, you can do all of the following except line out any information on the card. Lining out refers to crossing out or marking through something, and it is not a recommended method of handling identification cards as it can make the information difficult to read or verify.

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8. (404) Leave must begin and end where?

Explanation

The correct answer is "In the local area." This means that when taking leave, you must begin and end your leave within the local area, which typically refers to the vicinity of your duty station or military installation. This ensures that you are easily accessible and available for any necessary duties or responsibilities that may arise during your leave period.

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9. (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and that of

Explanation

A line of duty (LOD) determination is a process used to determine whether an injury or illness that occurred while on duty was the result of the member's own misconduct or negligence. This determination is important because it affects the member's eligibility for certain benefits and compensation. By protecting the interests of the member, the LOD determination ensures that they receive the appropriate support and assistance from the United States government.

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10. (415) How many special duty application (s) may be submitted for consideration at any given time?

Explanation

At any given time, only one special duty application may be submitted for consideration. This suggests that there is a limit on the number of special duty applications that can be submitted simultaneously. This limit ensures that each application receives proper attention and evaluation, preventing an overwhelming number of applications from being processed at once.

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11. (441) The human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) was initially developed by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) and Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) to respond to what type of problems?

Explanation

The human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) was initially developed by HQ AFPC and AFAFO to respond to pay-related problems.

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12. (420) How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete before being eligible for retirement?

Explanation

Members must complete a total of 20 years of active federal military service (TAFMS) before becoming eligible for retirement. This means that they must have served in the military for a minimum of 20 years in order to qualify for retirement benefits.

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13. (409) Family Member Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to whom?

Explanation

FSGLI expands SGLI coverage to both spouses and children. This means that the family members of a servicemember can also be covered under the insurance policy. It provides financial protection for the servicemember's spouse and children in the event of their death, ensuring that they receive a death benefit. This expansion of coverage is beneficial for the servicemember's family, providing them with additional support and security.

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14. (401) As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer?

Explanation

As a sponsor, it is not relevant or appropriate to ask the newcomer about the type of vehicle they drive. The question is unrelated to the sponsorship role and does not provide any useful information for assisting the newcomer. Asking about other services, family members accompanying them, and the need for a post office box are all relevant and helpful questions for a sponsor to ask in order to provide appropriate support and assistance.

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15. (410) In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)

Explanation

An enlisted Airman must be in the grade of Master Sergeant (MSgt) through Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) in order to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member. This indicates that the responsibility of notifying the NOK is given to higher-ranking enlisted personnel who have more experience and authority in handling such sensitive and critical situations.

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16. (435) When seeking correction of military records, if the original evaluation was unjust or wrong, what type of evidence must a member provide?

Explanation

When seeking correction of military records, a member must provide clear evidence if the original evaluation was unjust or wrong. This means that the evidence provided should be unambiguous, straightforward, and easy to understand. It should leave no room for doubt or interpretation, clearly demonstrating the injustice or error in the original evaluation.

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17. (426) How many days leave can Airmen sell if they've sold any leave since 10 February 1976?

Explanation

Since the question states that Airmen can sell leave "if they've sold any leave since 10 February 1976," it implies that Airmen can sell leave multiple times. Therefore, the maximum number of days leave that Airmen can sell is 60.

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18. (402) Once the member in-processes, no-fee passports are

Explanation

Once the member in-processes, their no-fee passports are collected by the military personnel section (MPS). This means that the MPS is responsible for gathering and storing these passports. The other options, such as the unit deployment manager (UDM) or the member themselves, are not mentioned as being involved in the collection process. Additionally, there is no mention of the passports being destroyed, so that option is also not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is that the passports are collected by the military personnel section (MPS).

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19. (418) Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a follow-on assignment application is used to request

Explanation

Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a follow-on assignment application is used to request government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour. This means that if an Airman is serving a short tour without their dependents, they can request government funded travel for their dependents to a specific location during that time. This allows the Airman's dependents to be with them at a designated place for a short period of time, without the Airman having a follow-on assignment.

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20. (418) An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have all of the following except

Explanation

An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate, the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location, and a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents' names and birthdates. However, proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents' location is not required.

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21. (404) The expression "use or lose" refers to leave days. Normally, in excess of how many days will be lost by the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is not used?

Explanation

If leave days are not used by the end of the fiscal year, typically 60 days will be lost. This means that any unused leave days will not carry over to the next fiscal year and will be forfeited.

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22. (405) Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs for members and

Explanation

The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is provided to offset the costs of meals for military members and their dependents. The term "no one else" implies that the BAS is not intended to cover the costs of meals for any other individuals outside of the military member and their dependents.

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23. (405) The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Room and board." This is because the basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is a monetary allowance provided to military personnel to cover the cost of meals when government-provided meals are not available. The term "room and board" refers to the provision of both lodging and meals, which aligns with the purpose of the BAS. Therefore, it can be inferred that the military historically provided room and board to its personnel.

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24. (415) Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they

Explanation

Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter. This means that being recognized as the top noncommissioned officer in a given quarter qualifies them for a special duty assignment. It indicates that they have demonstrated exceptional performance and leadership qualities, making them suitable for a special duty assignment.

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25. (438) For officers, all the following can establish an unfavorable information file (UIF) except

Explanation

The correct answer is "member’s previous supervisor who works in the military personnel section." This option is the exception because the question asks for something that cannot establish an unfavorable information file (UIF). The other options, commanders at all levels, chiefs of staffs and other staff agency heads, and major command commanders, are all individuals who have the authority to establish a UIF for members assigned or attached to their unit. However, a member's previous supervisor who works in the military personnel section does not have the authority to establish a UIF.

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26. (430) If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he/she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?

Explanation

If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, they are considered to be in a critical personnel reliability program (PRP) position. This means that their role is of utmost importance and any error or breach in their reliability could have severe consequences. The critical PRP position ensures that individuals with access to nuclear weapons are trustworthy, reliable, and capable of handling such sensitive and potentially dangerous responsibilities.

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27. (438) What is the maximum number of consecutive months an individual's name can remain on the control roster?

Explanation

An individual's name can remain on the control roster for a maximum of six consecutive months. This means that for a continuous period of six months, the individual will be under control and monitoring. After the six-month period, their name may be removed from the control roster, unless there are specific circumstances that warrant an extension.

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28. (431) On the unit personnel manning document (UPMR), how many incumbents are authorized on each position?

Explanation

The correct answer is one because the question is asking about the number of incumbents authorized on each position on the unit personnel manning document (UPMR). The UPMR is a document that outlines the authorized personnel for each position within a unit. Since the question specifically asks for the number of incumbents authorized on each position, the correct answer is one, indicating that only one person is authorized to hold each position.

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29. (416) Humanitarian assignment or deferment request that usually warrants approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?

Explanation

This answer is correct because it states that a humanitarian assignment or deferment request would be warranted in the case of the recent death of the member's spouse or child, including miscarriages. This circumstance would likely cause significant emotional distress and may require the member to take time off or be reassigned to a different location to deal with the aftermath of the tragedy.

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30. (441) When developing the human resource-case management system (HR-CMS), senior leadership wanted a system that would allow base-level offices to resolve HR system problems relating to all of the following except

Explanation

The HR-CMS was designed to address HR system problems at the base-level offices. It aimed to provide solutions for inputting, reporting, and tracking HR-related data. However, it did not focus on typing, as this is a basic skill that is expected from employees and not a specific problem that needed to be resolved by the system.

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31. (401) The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor.is tied to

Explanation

The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program is tied to the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor. This suggests that the initial perception and interaction between the newcomer and the sponsor play a crucial role in determining the effectiveness of the program. It implies that a positive and welcoming experience with the sponsor can greatly contribute to the success of the INTRO program in helping the newcomer settle in and adapt to their new environment.

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32. (408) Provided criterion is met, military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a

Explanation

Military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a joint residence. This means that if the criterion for the assignment is met, the military couple will be stationed together in a location where they can live together in the same residence. This allows the couple to maintain their relationship and support each other while serving in the military.

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33. (422) Demotion actions should not be taken on Airmen who have

Explanation

Demotion actions should not be taken on Airmen who have separated. This means that if an Airman has already left the military service, they cannot be demoted as they are no longer a part of the organization. Once an Airman has separated, they are no longer subject to the rules and regulations of the military, including disciplinary actions such as demotion.

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34. (401) For information about on- and off-base housing and, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Base housing office. This is where the sponsor would go to get information about on- and off-base housing, as well as information specific to newcomers with dependents. The Airman and Family Readiness Center and Family support center may provide general support and resources for families, but they may not have specific information about housing. The lodging office is typically responsible for temporary lodging arrangements, not long-term housing options.

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35. (422) Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman's original grade?

Explanation

Within three to six months after the effective date of the demotion, the demotion authority has the ability to restore an Airman's original grade.

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36. (409) Which is not a requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember's Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI)?

Explanation

The requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember's Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) is that they must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event, they must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation, and they must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event. However, having comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event is not a requirement for qualification.

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37. (424) The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers that are

Explanation

The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure that the career force has professional noncommissioned officers who possess a high level of qualifications. This means that they have the necessary skills, knowledge, and expertise to effectively perform their duties and contribute to the success of their unit and the military as a whole. Being highly qualified ensures that these noncommissioned officers are capable of meeting the demands and challenges of their roles and can provide the best possible support to their subordinates and superiors.

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38. (424) First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration?

Explanation

First-term Airmen who complete 33 months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration. For six-year enlistees, the requirement is 57 months.

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39. (432) Who has the authority to authorize the use of enlisted personnel outside their control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) up to 270 days?

Explanation

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) has the authority to authorize the use of enlisted personnel outside their control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) for up to 270 days. This means that HQ AFPC can grant permission for enlisted personnel to be assigned to duties or positions that are not within their designated specialty code for a specified period of time. This authority allows for flexibility in the deployment and utilization of personnel within the Air Force.

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40. (442) When determining changes to make regarding what to file in a personnel information file (PIF), and to preserve critical command options in military justice, the commander should seek advice from the

Explanation

When determining changes to make regarding what to file in a personnel information file (PIF) and to preserve critical command options in military justice, the commander should seek advice from the staff judge advocate. The staff judge advocate is a legal advisor to the commander and provides guidance on legal matters, including military justice. They have the expertise and knowledge to ensure that the changes made to the PIF are in compliance with the law and do not compromise the command's options in military justice. The chief, military personnel section, unit program coordinator, and first sergeant's council may have valuable input, but the staff judge advocate is the most appropriate authority to consult in this situation.

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41. (433) Restrict recommendations for decorations to all of the following except

Explanation

This question is asking for an exception to the recommendations for decorations. The correct answer is "honors based solely on academic achievement." This means that recommendations for decorations can be given for outstanding achievement, meritorious service, and acts of heroism, but not solely for academic achievements.

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42. (410) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?

Explanation

The location of the incident is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived. This means that even if the incident took place in a location that is typically considered dangerous or fatal, it does not necessarily prove that the individual could not have survived. Other factors such as witness statements, circumstances of the incident, and search results are more relevant in determining whether an individual could have survived or not.

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43. (434) A private and formal method of communication a rater uses to tell a ratee what is expected regarding duty performance, and how well the ratee is meeting those expectations is considered

Explanation

Performance feedback is the correct answer because it refers to the private and formal method of communication used by a rater to inform a ratee about their duty performance expectations and how well they are meeting those expectations. This feedback helps the ratee understand their strengths and areas for improvement, ultimately enhancing their performance. Professional mentorship, duty encouragement, and performance enhancement do not accurately describe the specific communication method described in the question.

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44. (412) How many members constitute a quorum for the Air Force Board for Correction of MilitaryRecords (AFBCMR)?

Explanation

A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in order for a meeting or decision-making body to be valid. In the case of the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR), the quorum is three members. This means that at least three members must be present for the board to conduct its business and make decisions.

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45. (425) If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to member's bonus eligibility?

Explanation

If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, the member is not eligible for the bonus. This means that even though the Airman may now be in a specialty that is eligible for a bonus, they will not receive it because they did not originally join with an IEB AFSC.

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46. (413) When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DPSAS does not require you to

Explanation

When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DPSAS does not require you to state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year. The other options, such as stating the purpose and justification for the proposed research, providing a point of contact with a telephone number, and indicating how you will use the survey results, are all necessary requirements for requesting survey approval. However, specifying the different types of surveys used in the previous fiscal year is not a requirement in this case.

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47. (426) What is the maximum number of months an Airmen can extend their current enlistments?

Explanation

Airmen can extend their current enlistments for a maximum of 48 months. This means that they can choose to continue their service for an additional four years beyond their initial enlistment period. This extension allows Airmen to continue serving in the Air Force and potentially pursue advanced training or career opportunities within the military.

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48. (403) When issuing an identification (ID) card to a member considered retired with pay, what source document can be used?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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49. (429) An election for career status bonus (CSDB) cannot be submitted no more than how many months after the notification of opportunity?

Explanation

An election for career status bonus (CSDB) can be submitted no more than six months after the notification of opportunity.

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50. (414) The enlisted assignment preference is used for

Explanation

The enlisted assignment preference is used to determine whether a service member prefers to be assigned within the continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS). This preference is taken into consideration when making assignments to ensure that the service member is assigned to a location that aligns with their preference.

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51. (445) Before updating a reenlistment or an extension, you will need to access the master military pay account (MMPA) file to pull what type of product?

Explanation

Before updating a reenlistment or an extension, you will need to access the master military pay account (MMPA) file to pull the T18 product.

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52. (414) Before engaging in the assignment process and updating your preferences, members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with

Explanation

Before engaging in the assignment process and updating preferences, members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with family members, commanders, and supervisors. This is important because family members can provide valuable input and considerations, commanders can provide guidance and insights into the needs of the organization, and supervisors can offer advice based on their knowledge of the member's skills and abilities. By involving these key individuals in the discussion, members can make more informed decisions about their assignment preferences.

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53. (415) How many months, minimum time on station (TOS), is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?

Explanation

To apply for a special duty assignment (SDA), no minimum time on station (TOS) is required. This means that individuals can apply for an SDA as soon as they arrive at their current station without having to wait for any specific amount of time. Therefore, the correct answer is 0, indicating that no months of TOS are needed to apply for an SDA.

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54. (416) To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the following is not a criterion?

Explanation

The criterion that is not required to substantiate a humanitarian assignment request is that the member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete. This means that the timing of the member's assignment completion is not a determining factor in considering a humanitarian assignment request. The other criteria mentioned, such as the member's presence being essential to alleviate the problem, the existence of a vacancy at the new duty station, and the severity of the problem compared to other AF members, are all important factors in evaluating the request.

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55. (431) Within the military personnel section (MPS), who has the responsibility of managing the unit personnel management roster?

Explanation

The force management operations element is responsible for managing the unit personnel management roster within the military personnel section (MPS). This element is specifically tasked with overseeing the personnel requirements, assignments, and tracking within the unit. They are responsible for ensuring that the unit has the necessary personnel and that their information is accurately recorded and maintained in the roster.

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56. (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following except the

Explanation

When a member has an illness, injury, or disease that results in the death of a member, the line of duty determination process must be initiated. This process is necessary to determine if the member's condition was a result of their military duties and if they are eligible for certain benefits. The other options listed, such as likelihood of permanent disability and inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours, are all valid reasons for initiating the LOD determination process. However, the death of a member's spouse is not related to the member's own illness or injury, so it does not trigger the LOD determination process.

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57. (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination does not impact

Explanation

A line of duty (LOD) determination is a process used to determine if an injury or illness occurred while on active duty and whether it was incurred in the line of duty. This determination is important because it affects certain benefits and entitlements for the service member. In this case, the correct answer is civilian duty pay. A LOD determination does not impact civilian duty pay, which is the additional pay received by service members who are temporarily assigned to civilian duties.

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58. (407) The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and may do all the following except

Explanation

The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and may return the file to the investigating officer, return the complete file to the immediate commander, and approve a final determination by completing DD Form 261. However, they do not approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.

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59. (421) How many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?

Explanation

The commander notifies the officer of the projected promotion effective date 30 days in advance when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant.

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60. (408) Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code?

Explanation

The given answer is C. The reason why it is not a join spouse intent code is not mentioned in the question.

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61. (421) The senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) promotion program is a two-phase selection process that combines factors from

Explanation

The correct answer is Weighed Airman Promotion System (WAPS) and the evaluation board. The explanation for this answer is that the senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) promotion program consists of two phases: the WAPS and the evaluation board. The WAPS is a system that incorporates various factors such as time in service, time in grade, decorations, and performance reports to determine an individual's promotion eligibility. The evaluation board, on the other hand, is responsible for reviewing and assessing the promotion records of eligible candidates. Therefore, both the WAPS and the evaluation board play a crucial role in the SNCO promotion program.

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62. (410) Which is not a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to casualty services?

Explanation

The responsibility of ensuring that the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next of kin is not a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to casualty services. This responsibility may fall under the purview of another individual or department within the force support squadron or a different unit altogether. The other responsibilities listed, such as providing public affairs with information about the deceased and appointing the casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members, are more directly related to the role of the force support squadron commander in managing casualty services.

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63. (410) Once family members have been notified, the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide name, rank, age,

Explanation

The correct answer is home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges. This answer is correct because it includes all the information that the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide once family members have been notified. This information is important for honoring the deceased and providing any necessary support to the family.

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64. (424) When an Airman has been non-selected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, what code is updated in the personnel data system?

Explanation

When an Airman has been non-selected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, the code that is updated in the personnel data system is 2X.

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65. (432) The classification system provides concise award, upgrade, and retention criteria for

Explanation

The classification system provides concise award, upgrade, and retention criteria for career progression. This means that the system outlines the criteria and requirements for employees to receive awards, upgrades, and retain their positions as they progress in their careers. It helps to establish clear guidelines and standards for employees to follow in order to advance and grow within their chosen career paths.

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66. (441) When processing human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) cases, how many cumulative days does Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) have to process a case?

Explanation

The Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) has 20 days to process a case in the human resource-case management system (HR-CMS). This means that from the time a case is submitted, DFAS has a maximum of 20 days to complete the necessary processing and resolve the case.

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67. (442) A personnel information file (PIF) is highly recommended for

Explanation

A personnel information file (PIF) is highly recommended for derogatory information. This means that it is important to have a comprehensive record of any negative or damaging information about an individual. This could include any misconduct, disciplinary actions, or other negative incidents that may impact their evaluation, performance feedback, or eligibility for awards. By maintaining a PIF, organizations can ensure that all relevant information is taken into account when making decisions or assessments about an individual's performance or suitability for recognition.

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68. (411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies,

Explanation

The correct answer is "but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55." This means that if the surviving spouse remarries before reaching the age of 55, they will no longer receive the survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity. This condition ensures that the benefit is provided to the surviving spouse until they reach a certain age, after which they may have other means of financial support through their new marriage.

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69. (412) You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at the following locations except

Explanation

The form used to apply for a correction to military records can be found at any Air Force military personnel section, most veterans' service organizations, and the Air Force Review Boards office. However, it cannot be located at any Finance Services office.

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70. (402) What form is used to document a member's active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?

Explanation

AF Form 899 is used to document a member's active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS). This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is used to record and track the member's commitment. It provides a standardized format for documenting the ADSC and is an essential tool for managing and tracking the member's obligations.

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71. (417) Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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72. (436) Inter-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions change request initiates changes for all the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is "date arrived station." This means that inter-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions change requests can initiate changes for all aspects mentioned in the question, such as unit of assignment, major command, and organization. However, it does not include changes to the date arrived station, which refers to the date when a person or unit arrives at a specific station or location.

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73. (403) When a dependent child under age 21 is emancipated, what happens to their entitlement to ID card benefits and privileges?

Explanation

When a dependent child under age 21 is emancipated, their entitlement to ID card benefits and privileges remains the same. Emancipation does not affect their eligibility for these entitlements.

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74. (429) What type of counseling is suggested for members to obtain in order to make an informed career status bonus (CSB) option?

Explanation

In order to make an informed career status bonus (CSB) option, members are suggested to obtain financial counseling. This type of counseling will provide them with guidance and information on the financial implications and considerations of choosing a CSB option. It will help them understand the potential benefits and drawbacks, as well as assist in making a well-informed decision regarding their career status bonus.

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75. (406) Essential station messing (ESM) is also termed

Explanation

Essential station messing (ESM) refers to the provision of food and meals to individuals in a specific location or station. The term "in-kind" means that the provision of rations is done in the form of actual food items or meals, rather than through monetary allowances or other forms of compensation. Therefore, the correct answer is "rations in-kind."

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76. (407) Who is not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations?

Explanation

Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members are not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations. LOD determinations are made to determine if an injury or illness was incurred or aggravated while on active duty, and to determine eligibility for benefits and compensation. Since JROTC members are not on active duty, they are not subject to LOD determinations.

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77. (437) How many eligible special duty ratings are currently available?

Explanation

There are currently six eligible special duty ratings available.

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78. (430) What process is the first step in selecting reliable personnel to perform duties associated with nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The first step in selecting reliable personnel to perform duties associated with nuclear weapons is administrative qualification. This process involves verifying the individual's qualifications, background checks, and ensuring they meet the necessary criteria and standards set by the administrative authorities. This step is crucial in ensuring that only competent and trustworthy individuals are entrusted with the responsibilities associated with nuclear weapons.

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79. (431) The unit manpower document (UMD) is a product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train and

Explanation

The unit manpower document (UMD) is a product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to promote. It outlines the positions within the unit that are eligible for promotion based on certain criteria such as qualifications, experience, and performance. The UMD helps the unit leadership to identify individuals who are ready for promotion and ensures that the promotion process is fair and transparent. It is an important tool in managing the career progression of personnel within the unit.

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80. (419) If a member is a medal of honor recipient and elects to separate, what is the earliest date of separation he/she may receive?

Explanation

If a member is a medal of honor recipient and elects to separate, they can receive the earliest date of separation on any date of request. This means that they have the flexibility to choose the specific date they want to separate from the military, regardless of how soon or far in the future it may be.

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81. (421) Which agency is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection?

Explanation

The career development element is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection. This element plays a crucial role in managing and developing the careers of military personnel. They are responsible for keeping commanders informed about the promotion process and notifying them of the outcomes. This ensures that commanders are aware of the promotion decisions and can take appropriate actions based on the results.

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82. (421) Who has the responsibility of providing an automatic quarterly end of month output product to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for below the zone?

Explanation

The correct answer is Personnel systems management (PSM) section. The PSM section is responsible for providing an automatic quarterly end of month output product to the career development element within the first 10 days of the first month for below the zone. This suggests that the PSM section is responsible for generating and delivering the necessary data and information to support career development activities for individuals who are below the promotion zone.

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83. (423) Within how many days of the first processing month must the "BELOW-ZONE-E4" promotion product be scheduled to run?

Explanation

The "BELOW-ZONE-E4" promotion product must be scheduled to run within 10 days of the first processing month.

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84. (441) When processing human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) cases, including the time prior to sending to Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) or Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS), and the time after a case is returned for closure, how many days is base-level limited to?

Explanation

Base-level is limited to 5 days when processing HR-CMS cases, including the time before sending to HQ AFPC or DFAS, and the time after a case is returned for closure. This means that the base-level has a maximum of 5 days to complete all necessary tasks related to the HR-CMS cases before they are sent to the higher authorities or closed.

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85. (424) National call to service (NCS) enlistees, enter their career jobs reservation (CJR) windowon the first duty day of the month they complete

Explanation

The correct answer is 35 months. This means that National Call to Service (NCS) enlistees are allowed to enter their Career Jobs Reservation (CJR) window on the first duty day of the month after they have completed 35 months of service.

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86. (436) Intra-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions change request initiates changes in

Explanation

Intra-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions refer to changes in an individual's assignment within the same command. This type of action involves permanent changes in various aspects, including the unit assignment, supervisor, position number, and major command. Therefore, the correct answer is unit assignment, supervisor, position number, and major command.

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87. (427) A computation of all periods of active and inactive enlisted service creditable for basic pay is considered

Explanation

The correct answer is total enlisted military service date (TEMSD). This is because the computation of all periods of active and inactive enlisted service creditable for basic pay is referred to as the total enlisted military service date. The other options mentioned, such as total active federal commissioning service date (TAFSCD), total active federal military service date (TAFMSD), and date initial entry uniformed service (DIEUS), do not accurately describe the computation of all periods of enlisted service.

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88. (402) What is not included in the three main phases of accession processing?

Explanation

The three main phases of accession processing are collection, verification, and confirmation. These phases involve gathering the necessary information or materials, checking their accuracy and authenticity, and finalizing the accession process. Delivery, on the other hand, refers to the act of transporting or handing over the collected materials, which is not a separate phase in the processing. Therefore, delivery is not included in the three main phases of accession processing.

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89. (428) What grades can incur an active duty service commitment (ADSC)?

Explanation

An active duty service commitment (ADSC) is a contractual obligation to serve in the military for a certain period of time. In this case, the grades that can incur an ADSC are Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel. This means that individuals holding these ranks are required to fulfill their service commitment. The other options, such as General and below and all enlisted personnel, enlisted noncommissioned officers only, and all commissioned active duty officers, do not specify the grades that incur an ADSC, making them incorrect answers.

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90. (403) Without senior personnel official appointment, identification (ID) card verifying and issuing officials cannot be

Explanation

Without senior personnel official appointment, identification (ID) card verifying and issuing officials cannot be a warrant officer. This means that in order to become a warrant officer, one must have a senior personnel official appointment and be responsible for verifying and issuing ID cards. The other options, such as a commissioned officer, an Airman first class, or a DoD contractor, do not require this specific appointment.

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91. (418) Command sponsored dependents residing with the military member in an overseas continental United States (OCONUS) personnel data system (PDS) may be relocated at government expense prior to completion of prescribed overseas tour, describes what?

Explanation

The correct answer, "Early return of dependents," means that command sponsored dependents who are residing with the military member in an overseas continental United States (OCONUS) personnel data system (PDS) can be relocated at government expense before the completion of their prescribed overseas tour. This implies that if there is a need or requirement for the dependents to return to their home country or another designated location before the military member's tour is finished, the government will cover the costs of their relocation.

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92. (444) Which management assessment product (MAP) is used to ensure the civilian supervisor meets the minimum grade requirement to supervise military personnel?

Explanation

MAP 4 is the correct answer because it is the management assessment product that is specifically used to ensure that civilian supervisors meet the minimum grade requirement to supervise military personnel. The other options (MAP 3, MAP 6, and MAP 10) do not serve this specific purpose.

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93. (413) All approved, non-local surveys show

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
94. (440) What training status code reflects not recommended for entry into upgrade training, and determines the member ineligible for consideration under Noncommissioned Officer Retraining Program (NCORP)?

Explanation

The correct answer is O. The training status code O reflects not recommended for entry into upgrade training, and determines the member ineligible for consideration under Noncommissioned Officer Retraining Program (NCORP).

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95. (422) The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initial notification?

Explanation

The effective date of retirement, for a member who chooses retirement instead of demotion, will be no later than the first day of the fourth month following the date the member received the initial notification. This means that the member will retire within three months after receiving the initial notification.

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96. (431) Over how many years does a unit manning document (UMD) list positions that will be deleted?

Explanation

A unit manning document (UMD) lists positions that will be deleted over a period of two years. This means that the UMD provides a comprehensive overview of positions that will be removed within a two-year timeframe.

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97. (433) Members of reserve components are eligible for consideration of a military decoration

Explanation

Members of reserve components are eligible for consideration of a military decoration in authorized periods of training or while in inactive status. This means that they can be considered for a military decoration during their training periods or when they are not actively serving. It does not require them to be retirement eligible or placed on active duty orders.

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98. (443) When the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) rejects are received, the military personnel section (MPS) work center is responsible for the rejected transaction and initiates corrective action to clear the reject within

Explanation

The military personnel section (MPS) work center is responsible for handling rejected transactions from the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS). They are required to initiate corrective action to clear the reject within a certain timeframe. In this case, the correct timeframe is 48 hours. This means that the MPS work center has two days to resolve the issue and ensure that the rejected transaction is properly corrected.

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99. (444) Who should create additional discoverer workbooks to help verify or identify further database integrity checks?

Explanation

The Personnel system management manager should create additional discoverer workbooks to help verify or identify further database integrity checks. This role is responsible for managing the personnel system and ensuring its integrity. By creating additional discoverer workbooks, they can analyze the data and identify any inconsistencies or errors in the database. This will help maintain the accuracy and reliability of the personnel system.

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100. (439) The total force development program guides development of the total force through levels of leadership to produce a total force successfully prepared to accomplish the Air Force mission, which is not considered a level of leadership?

Explanation

The total force development program aims to guide the development of the total force through levels of leadership to ensure they are prepared to accomplish the Air Force mission. The levels of leadership mentioned in the question are organizational, operational, strategic, and tactical. The question asks which level is not considered a level of leadership. The correct answer is operational, as it is not one of the mentioned levels of leadership.

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(417) If the career development element has numerous relocation...
(424) The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone...
(411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an...
(443) Transaction registers are computer products that are...
(427) When there is no break in active duty service, what will a...
(437) If a member is receiving a special duty rating of SD–3,...
(403) Once you retrieve a Teslin identification (ID) card, you may do...
(404) Leave must begin and end where?
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the...
(415) How many special duty application (s) may be submitted for...
(441) The human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) was initially...
(420) How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS)...
(409) Family Member Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (FSGLI)...
(401) As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer?
(410) In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK)...
(435) When seeking correction of military records, if the original...
(426) How many days leave can Airmen sell if they've sold any leave...
(402) Once the member in-processes, no-fee passports are
(418) Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a...
(418) An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place...
(404) The expression "use or lose" refers to leave days. Normally, in...
(405) Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs...
(405) The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the...
(415) Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they
(438) For officers, all the following can establish an unfavorable...
(430) If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use...
(438) What is the maximum number of consecutive months an individual's...
(431) On the unit personnel manning document (UPMR), how many...
(416) Humanitarian assignment or deferment request that usually...
(441) When developing the human resource-case management system...
(401) The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and...
(408) Provided criterion is met, military couples may be considered...
(422) Demotion actions should not be taken on Airmen who have
(401) For information about on- and off-base housing and, if the...
(422) Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion...
(409) Which is not a requirement for a member to qualify for...
(424) The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment...
(424) First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current...
(432) Who has the authority to authorize the use of enlisted personnel...
(442) When determining changes to make regarding what to file in a...
(433) Restrict recommendations for decorations to all of the following...
(410) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is...
(434) A private and formal method of communication a rater uses to...
(412) How many members constitute a quorum for the Air Force Board for...
(425) If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air...
(413) When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force...
(426) What is the maximum number of months an Airmen can extend their...
(403) When issuing an identification (ID) card to a member considered...
(429) An election for career status bonus (CSDB) cannot be submitted...
(414) The enlisted assignment preference is used for
(445) Before updating a reenlistment or an extension, you will need to...
(414) Before engaging in the assignment process and updating your...
(415) How many months, minimum time on station (TOS), is required to...
(416) To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the...
(431) Within the military personnel section (MPS), who has the...
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated...
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination does not impact
(407) The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete...
(421) How many days in advance does the commander notify the officer...
(408) Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code?
(421) The senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) promotion program is a...
(410) Which is not a responsibility of the force support squadron...
(410) Once family members have been notified, the mortuary service...
(424) When an Airman has been non-selected for reenlistment on AF IMT...
(432) The classification system provides concise award, upgrade, and...
(441) When processing human resource-case management system (HR-CMS)...
(442) A personnel information file (PIF) is highly recommended for
(411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity is paid to a surviving...
(412) You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to...
(402) What form is used to document a member's active duty service...
(417) Which order is not completed within orders processing...
(436) Inter-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions...
(403) When a dependent child under age 21 is emancipated, what happens...
(429) What type of counseling is suggested for members to obtain in...
(406) Essential station messing (ESM) is also termed
(407) Who is not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations?
(437) How many eligible special duty ratings are currently available?
(430) What process is the first step in selecting reliable personnel...
(431) The unit manpower document (UMD) is a product that provides the...
(419) If a member is a medal of honor recipient and elects to...
(421) Which agency is responsible for notifying commanders of...
(421) Who has the responsibility of providing an automatic quarterly...
(423) Within how many days of the first processing month must the...
(441) When processing human resource-case management system (HR-CMS)...
(424) National call to service (NCS) enlistees, enter their career...
(436) Intra-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions...
(427) A computation of all periods of active and inactive enlisted...
(402) What is not included in the three main phases of accession...
(428) What grades can incur an active duty service commitment (ADSC)?
(403) Without senior personnel official appointment, identification...
(418) Command sponsored dependents residing with the military member...
(444) Which management assessment product (MAP) is used to ensure the...
(413) All approved, non-local surveys show
(440) What training status code reflects not recommended for entry...
(422) The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects...
(431) Over how many years does a unit manning document (UMD) list...
(433) Members of reserve components are eligible for consideration of...
(443) When the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) rejects are...
(444) Who should create additional discoverer workbooks to help verify...
(439) The total force development program guides development of the...
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