CDC 3S051 Vol 3

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (401) As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer?

    • Do you need information about other services?
    • Will your family members accompany you?
    • What type of vehicle do you drive?
    • Do you want a post office box?
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About This Quiz

CDC 3S051 Vol 3 quiz assesses knowledge on newcomer orientation, sponsorship duties, and accession processing in a military context. It evaluates understanding of personnel management procedures and compliance with service commitments.

CDC 3S051 Vol 3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (403) Once you retrieve a Teslin identification (ID) card, you may do all of the following except

    • Cut.

    • Shred.

    • Destroy.

    • Line out.

    Correct Answer
    A. Line out.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "line out." This means that once you retrieve a Teslin identification card, you can do all of the following except line out any information on the card. Lining out refers to crossing out or marking through something, and it is not a recommended method of handling identification cards as it can make the information difficult to read or verify.

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  • 3. 

    (404) Leave must begin and end where?

    • In the local area.

    • At your duty section.

    • On a military installation.

    • At your requested leave area.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the local area.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In the local area." This means that when taking leave, you must begin and end your leave within the local area, which typically refers to the vicinity of your duty station or military installation. This ensures that you are easily accessible and available for any necessary duties or responsibilities that may arise during your leave period.

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  • 4. 

    (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and that of

    • The member.

    • The squadron.

    • The dependents.

    • The military installation.

    Correct Answer
    A. The member.
    Explanation
    A line of duty (LOD) determination is a process used to determine whether an injury or illness that occurred while on duty was the result of the member's own misconduct or negligence. This determination is important because it affects the member's eligibility for certain benefits and compensation. By protecting the interests of the member, the LOD determination ensures that they receive the appropriate support and assistance from the United States government.

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  • 5. 

    (409) Family Member Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to whom?

    • Spouses only.

    • Children only.

    • Parents of sponsor.

    • Spouses and children.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spouses and children.
    Explanation
    FSGLI expands SGLI coverage to both spouses and children. This means that the family members of a servicemember can also be covered under the insurance policy. It provides financial protection for the servicemember's spouse and children in the event of their death, ensuring that they receive a death benefit. This expansion of coverage is beneficial for the servicemember's family, providing them with additional support and security.

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  • 6. 

    (410) In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)

    • Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief master sergeant (CMSgt) only.

    • Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.

    • Staff sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt.

    • CMSgt only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.
    Explanation
    An enlisted Airman must be in the grade of Master Sergeant (MSgt) through Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) in order to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member. This indicates that the responsibility of notifying the NOK is given to higher-ranking enlisted personnel who have more experience and authority in handling such sensitive and critical situations.

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  • 7. 

    (411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the

    • Surviving parents.

    • Eligible children only.

    • Surviving spouse only.

    • Surviving spouse or eligible children.

    Correct Answer
    A. Surviving spouse or eligible children.
    Explanation
    The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity that is paid by the Air Force to the surviving spouse or eligible children of an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD). This means that both the surviving spouse and eligible children are entitled to receive the monthly annuity provided by the SBP.

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  • 8. 

    (415) How many special duty application (s) may be submitted for consideration at any given time?

    • One.

    • Three.

    • Five.

    • Eight.

    Correct Answer
    A. One.
    Explanation
    At any given time, only one special duty application may be submitted for consideration. This suggests that there is a limit on the number of special duty applications that can be submitted simultaneously. This limit ensures that each application receives proper attention and evaluation, preventing an overwhelming number of applications from being processed at once.

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  • 9. 

    (417) If the career development element has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what canthey do in order to save time?

    • Conduct mass briefings.

    • Conduct briefings only when necessary.

    • Make appointments for each individual.

    • File all assignment relocation folders in one drawer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct mass briefings.
    Explanation
    To save time when conducting numerous relocation briefings, the career development element can conduct mass briefings. This means that instead of individually briefing each person, they can gather a group of individuals who require the briefing and conduct the briefing for all of them at once. This allows them to convey the necessary information to multiple individuals simultaneously, saving time and effort compared to conducting individual briefings for each person.

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  • 10. 

    (420) How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete before being eligible for retirement?

    • 10.

    • 20.

    • 22.

    • 25.

    Correct Answer
    A. 20.
    Explanation
    Members must complete a total of 20 years of active federal military service (TAFMS) before becoming eligible for retirement. This means that they must have served in the military for a minimum of 20 years in order to qualify for retirement benefits.

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  • 11. 

    (424) The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is

    • $30,000.

    • $60,000.

    • $75, 000.

    • $90,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. $90,000.
    Explanation
    The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is $90,000. This means that if a service member meets the eligibility criteria and chooses to reenlist, they can receive a bonus of up to $90,000. The SRB is a financial incentive offered by the military to encourage experienced personnel to continue their service. The higher the bonus amount, the more enticing it may be for service members to reenlist, especially if they are considering leaving the military.

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  • 12. 

    (427) When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?

    • Original entry on active duty.

    • Date entered into delayed enlistment.

    • Date completed basic military training.

    • Date agreed to sign up for active duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. Original entry on active duty.
    Explanation
    When there is no break in active duty service, a member's Total Active Federal Military Service Date (TAFMSD) will reflect their original entry on active duty. This means that the TAFMSD will be the date when the member first entered active duty service, regardless of any subsequent events such as delayed enlistment, completion of basic military training, or agreement to sign up for active duty.

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  • 13. 

    (437) If a member is receiving a special duty rating of SD–3, what monetary value are they entitled to?

    • $75.

    • $150.

    • $225.

    • $300.

    Correct Answer
    A. $225.
    Explanation
    A member receiving a special duty rating of SD-3 is entitled to a monetary value of $225.

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  • 14. 

    (441) The human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) was initially developed by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) and Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) to respond to what type of problems?

    • Pay.

    • Extension.

    • Reenlistment.

    • Identification card.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pay.
    Explanation
    The human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) was initially developed by HQ AFPC and AFAFO to respond to pay-related problems.

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  • 15. 

    (443) Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and produced

    • Daily.

    • Every other day.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and produced daily. This means that these registers are created and managed through computer programs on a daily basis. They are not produced every other day, weekly, or monthly. The use of the word "daily" indicates that the production and control of these registers occur on a daily basis.

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  • 16. 

    (401) The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program the newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.is tied to

    • The newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.

    • How many times the sponsor calls the newcomer.

    • The Airman and Family Readiness Center’s sponsor kits.

    • How well the gaining commander speaks with the newcomer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.
    Explanation
    The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program is tied to the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor. This suggests that the initial perception and interaction between the newcomer and the sponsor play a crucial role in determining the effectiveness of the program. It implies that a positive and welcoming experience with the sponsor can greatly contribute to the success of the INTRO program in helping the newcomer settle in and adapt to their new environment.

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  • 17. 

    (401) For information about on- and off-base housing and, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go?

    • Airman and Family Readiness Center.

    • Family support center.

    • Base housing office.

    • Lodging office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base housing office.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Base housing office. This is where the sponsor would go to get information about on- and off-base housing, as well as information specific to newcomers with dependents. The Airman and Family Readiness Center and Family support center may provide general support and resources for families, but they may not have specific information about housing. The lodging office is typically responsible for temporary lodging arrangements, not long-term housing options.

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  • 18. 

    (402) Once the member in-processes, no-fee passports are

    • Kept by the member.

    • Collected by the military personnel section (MPS).

    • Collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • Destroyed by the member.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
    Explanation
    Once the member in-processes, their no-fee passports are collected by the military personnel section (MPS). This means that the MPS is responsible for gathering and storing these passports. The other options, such as the unit deployment manager (UDM) or the member themselves, are not mentioned as being involved in the collection process. Additionally, there is no mention of the passports being destroyed, so that option is also not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is that the passports are collected by the military personnel section (MPS).

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  • 19. 

    (404) The expression “use or lose” refers to leave days. Normally, in excess of how many days will be lost by the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is not used?

    • 30.

    • 60.

    • 90.

    • 120.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60.
    Explanation
    If leave days are not used by the end of the fiscal year, typically 60 days will be lost. This means that any unused leave days will not carry over to the next fiscal year and will be forfeited.

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  • 20. 

    (405) Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs for members and

    • Their dependents.

    • No one else.

    • Children.

    • Spouses.

    Correct Answer
    A. No one else.
    Explanation
    The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is provided to offset the costs of meals for military members and their dependents. The term "no one else" implies that the BAS is not intended to cover the costs of meals for any other individuals outside of the military member and their dependents.

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  • 21. 

    (405) The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items?

    • Food and housing requirements.

    • Room and laundry services.

    • Rations and transportation.

    • Room and board.

    Correct Answer
    A. Room and board.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Room and board." This is because the basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is a monetary allowance provided to military personnel to cover the cost of meals when government-provided meals are not available. The term "room and board" refers to the provision of both lodging and meals, which aligns with the purpose of the BAS. Therefore, it can be inferred that the military historically provided room and board to its personnel.

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  • 22. 

    (408) Provided criterion is met, military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a

    • Joint residence.

    • Joint allowance.

    • Basic substance in kind.

    • Basic allowance for housing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint residence.
    Explanation
    Military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a joint residence. This means that if the criterion for the assignment is met, the military couple will be stationed together in a location where they can live together in the same residence. This allows the couple to maintain their relationship and support each other while serving in the military.

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  • 23. 

    (409) Which is not a requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI)?

    • Must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event.

    • Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event.

    • Must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation.

    • Must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event.

    Correct Answer
    A. Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event.
    Explanation
    The requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember's Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) is that they must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event, they must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation, and they must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event. However, having comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event is not a requirement for qualification.

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  • 24. 

    (415) Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they

    • Have any other self-initiated permanent change of station request pending.

    • Have an active unfavorable information file or are on the control roster (CR).

    • Have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter.

    • Are not recommended for a SDA by their commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter.
    Explanation
    Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter. This means that being recognized as the top noncommissioned officer in a given quarter qualifies them for a special duty assignment. It indicates that they have demonstrated exceptional performance and leadership qualities, making them suitable for a special duty assignment.

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  • 25. 

    (416) Humanitarian assignment or deferment request that usually warrants approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?

    • Problems associated with child care arrangement.

    • The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.

    • The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages.

    • A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age.

    Correct Answer
    A. The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages.
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because it states that a humanitarian assignment or deferment request would be warranted in the case of the recent death of the member's spouse or child, including miscarriages. This circumstance would likely cause significant emotional distress and may require the member to take time off or be reassigned to a different location to deal with the aftermath of the tragedy.

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  • 26. 

    (418) Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a follow-on assignment application is used to request

    • Personally funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour.

    • Government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour.

    • Personally funded travel to a specified location other than the follow-on assignment location.

    • Government funded travel for a household goods shipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour.
    Explanation
    Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a follow-on assignment application is used to request government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour. This means that if an Airman is serving a short tour without their dependents, they can request government funded travel for their dependents to a specific location during that time. This allows the Airman's dependents to be with them at a designated place for a short period of time, without the Airman having a follow-on assignment.

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  • 27. 

    (418) An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have all of the following except

    • Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.

    • A signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate.

    • The retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location.

    • A memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents names and birthdates.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.
    Explanation
    An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate, the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location, and a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents' names and birthdates. However, proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents' location is not required.

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  • 28. 

    (422) Demotion actions should not be taken on Airmen who have

    • Been selected for a permanent change of assignment.

    • Been demoted in the past.

    • Reenlisted.

    • Separated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Separated.
    Explanation
    Demotion actions should not be taken on Airmen who have separated. This means that if an Airman has already left the military service, they cannot be demoted as they are no longer a part of the organization. Once an Airman has separated, they are no longer subject to the rules and regulations of the military, including disciplinary actions such as demotion.

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  • 29. 

    (422) Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman’s original grade?

    • One and three.

    • Three and six.

    • Six and twelve.

    • Twelve and eighteen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Three and six.
    Explanation
    Within three to six months after the effective date of the demotion, the demotion authority has the ability to restore an Airman's original grade.

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  • 30. 

    (424) The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers that are

    • Highly qualified.

    • Experienced.

    • Proficient.

    • On-time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Highly qualified.
    Explanation
    The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure that the career force has professional noncommissioned officers who possess a high level of qualifications. This means that they have the necessary skills, knowledge, and expertise to effectively perform their duties and contribute to the success of their unit and the military as a whole. Being highly qualified ensures that these noncommissioned officers are capable of meeting the demands and challenges of their roles and can provide the best possible support to their subordinates and superiors.

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  • 31. 

    (424) First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration?

    • 30 (54 for six-year enlistees).

    • 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).

    • 36 (60 for six-year enlistees).

    • 40 (64 for six-year enlistees).

    Correct Answer
    A. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).
    Explanation
    First-term Airmen who complete 33 months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration. For six-year enlistees, the requirement is 57 months.

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  • 32. 

    (426) How many days leave can Airmen sell if they’ve sold any leave since 10 February 1976?

    • 15.

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60.
    Explanation
    Since the question states that Airmen can sell leave "if they've sold any leave since 10 February 1976," it implies that Airmen can sell leave multiple times. Therefore, the maximum number of days leave that Airmen can sell is 60.

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  • 33. 

    (430) If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he/she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?

    • Critical.

    • Restricted.

    • Controlled.

    • Responsible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical.
    Explanation
    If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, they are considered to be in a critical personnel reliability program (PRP) position. This means that their role is of utmost importance and any error or breach in their reliability could have severe consequences. The critical PRP position ensures that individuals with access to nuclear weapons are trustworthy, reliable, and capable of handling such sensitive and potentially dangerous responsibilities.

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  • 34. 

    (431) On the unit personnel manning document (UPMR), how many incumbents are authorized on each position?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is one because the question is asking about the number of incumbents authorized on each position on the unit personnel manning document (UPMR). The UPMR is a document that outlines the authorized personnel for each position within a unit. Since the question specifically asks for the number of incumbents authorized on each position, the correct answer is one, indicating that only one person is authorized to hold each position.

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  • 35. 

    (435) When seeking correction of military records, if the original evaluation was unjust or wrong, what type of evidence must a member provide?

    • Circumstantial.

    • Unnecessary.

    • Clear.

    • None.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clear.
    Explanation
    When seeking correction of military records, a member must provide clear evidence if the original evaluation was unjust or wrong. This means that the evidence provided should be unambiguous, straightforward, and easy to understand. It should leave no room for doubt or interpretation, clearly demonstrating the injustice or error in the original evaluation.

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  • 36. 

    (438) For officers, all the following can establish an unfavorable information file (UIF) except

    • Commanders at all levels for members assigned or attached to their unit.

    • Chiefs of staffs, their deputies and assistants and other staff agency heads.

    • Major command commander, vice commanders, staff director and directors.

    • Member’s previous supervisor who works in the military personnel section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Member’s previous supervisor who works in the military personnel section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "member’s previous supervisor who works in the military personnel section." This option is the exception because the question asks for something that cannot establish an unfavorable information file (UIF). The other options, commanders at all levels, chiefs of staffs and other staff agency heads, and major command commanders, are all individuals who have the authority to establish a UIF for members assigned or attached to their unit. However, a member's previous supervisor who works in the military personnel section does not have the authority to establish a UIF.

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  • 37. 

    (438) What is the maximum number of consecutive months an individual’s name can remain on the control roster?

    • Three.

    • Five.

    • Six.

    • Nine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Six.
    Explanation
    An individual's name can remain on the control roster for a maximum of six consecutive months. This means that for a continuous period of six months, the individual will be under control and monitoring. After the six-month period, their name may be removed from the control roster, unless there are specific circumstances that warrant an extension.

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  • 38. 

    (441) When developing the human resource-case management system (HR-CMS), senior leadership wanted a system that would allow base-level offices to resolve HR system problems relating to all of the following except

    • Inputting.

    • Reporting.

    • Tracking.

    • Typing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Typing.
    Explanation
    The HR-CMS was designed to address HR system problems at the base-level offices. It aimed to provide solutions for inputting, reporting, and tracking HR-related data. However, it did not focus on typing, as this is a basic skill that is expected from employees and not a specific problem that needed to be resolved by the system.

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  • 39. 

    (403) When issuing an identification (ID) card to a member considered retired with pay, what source document can be used?

    • Leave and earnings statement (LES).

    • DD Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement.

    • DD Form 1160, Military Retirement Actions.

    • DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active duty.
  • 40. 

    (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following except the

    • Death of a member.

    • Death of a member’s spouse.

    • Likelihood of permanent disability.

    • Inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Death of a member’s spouse.
    Explanation
    When a member has an illness, injury, or disease that results in the death of a member, the line of duty determination process must be initiated. This process is necessary to determine if the member's condition was a result of their military duties and if they are eligible for certain benefits. The other options listed, such as likelihood of permanent disability and inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours, are all valid reasons for initiating the LOD determination process. However, the death of a member's spouse is not related to the member's own illness or injury, so it does not trigger the LOD determination process.

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  • 41. 

    (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination does not impact

    • Disability retirement and severance pay.

    • Extension of enlistment.

    • Civilian duty pay.

    • Forfeiture of pay.

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian duty pay.
    Explanation
    A line of duty (LOD) determination is a process used to determine if an injury or illness occurred while on active duty and whether it was incurred in the line of duty. This determination is important because it affects certain benefits and entitlements for the service member. In this case, the correct answer is civilian duty pay. A LOD determination does not impact civilian duty pay, which is the additional pay received by service members who are temporarily assigned to civilian duties.

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  • 42. 

    (407) The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and maydo all the following except

    • Return the file to the investigating officer.

    • Return the complete file to the immediate commander.

    • Approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.

    • Approve a final determination by completing DD Form 261.

    Correct Answer
    A. Approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.
    Explanation
    The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and may return the file to the investigating officer, return the complete file to the immediate commander, and approve a final determination by completing DD Form 261. However, they do not approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.

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  • 43. 

    (408) Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code?

    • A.

    • B.

    • C.

    • H.

    Correct Answer
    A. C.
    Explanation
    The given answer is C. The reason why it is not a join spouse intent code is not mentioned in the question.

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  • 44. 

    (410) Which is not a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to casualty services?

    • Ensure the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next of kin.

    • Provide public affairs with the name, age, rank, and home of record of the deceased.

    • Appoints the casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members.

    • Publish required installation supplements to AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next of kin.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of ensuring that the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next of kin is not a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to casualty services. This responsibility may fall under the purview of another individual or department within the force support squadron or a different unit altogether. The other responsibilities listed, such as providing public affairs with information about the deceased and appointing the casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members, are more directly related to the role of the force support squadron commander in managing casualty services.

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  • 45. 

    (410) Once family members have been notified, the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide name, rank, age,

    • Home of record, race, and awards and decorations only.

    • Race, religion, and total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) only.

    • Home of record, race, religion, and TAFMSD, and place of enlistment.

    • Home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges.

    Correct Answer
    A. Home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges. This answer is correct because it includes all the information that the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide once family members have been notified. This information is important for honoring the deceased and providing any necessary support to the family.

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  • 46. 

    (410) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?

    • Statements of witnesses to the incident.

    • Circumstances of the incident.

    • Location of the incident.

    • Search results.

    Correct Answer
    A. Location of the incident.
    Explanation
    The location of the incident is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived. This means that even if the incident took place in a location that is typically considered dangerous or fatal, it does not necessarily prove that the individual could not have survived. Other factors such as witness statements, circumstances of the incident, and search results are more relevant in determining whether an individual could have survived or not.

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  • 47. 

    (412) How many members constitute a quorum for the Air Force Board for Correction of MilitaryRecords (AFBCMR)?

    • Three.

    • Five.

    • Seven.

    • Nine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Three.
    Explanation
    A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in order for a meeting or decision-making body to be valid. In the case of the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR), the quorum is three members. This means that at least three members must be present for the board to conduct its business and make decisions.

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  • 48. 

    (413) When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DPSAS does not require you to

    • State the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year.

    • State the purpose and justification for the proposed research.

    • Provide a point of contact, with a telephone number.

    • Indicate how you will use the survey results.

    Correct Answer
    A. State the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year.
    Explanation
    When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DPSAS does not require you to state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year. The other options, such as stating the purpose and justification for the proposed research, providing a point of contact with a telephone number, and indicating how you will use the survey results, are all necessary requirements for requesting survey approval. However, specifying the different types of surveys used in the previous fiscal year is not a requirement in this case.

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  • 49. 

    (414) The enlisted assignment preference is used for

    • Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments.

    • Short notice OS assignments.

    • Joint/departmental assignments.

    • Special duty assignments (SDA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments.
    Explanation
    The enlisted assignment preference is used to determine whether a service member prefers to be assigned within the continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS). This preference is taken into consideration when making assignments to ensure that the service member is assigned to a location that aligns with their preference.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 19, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Lmgant08
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