CDC 3S051 Vol 1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Working together in Joint Warfare constitutes what concept?
- A.
Team
- B.
Adult
- C.
Child
- D.
Group
Correct Answer
A. TeamExplanation
The concept that working together in Joint Warfare constitutes is "Team". In Joint Warfare, different military units and personnel from different branches come together to achieve a common objective. This requires coordination, cooperation, and effective communication among all members involved. The term "Team" accurately captures the essence of this collaborative effort, emphasizing the importance of unity, shared goals, and mutual support in achieving success in Joint Warfare.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in thinking about all of the following except
- A.
Having a joint perspective.
- B.
Conducting force shaping training.
- C.
Applying strategic and operational art.
- D.
Thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities.
Correct Answer
B. Conducting force shaping training.Explanation
Competent joint war fighters must possess skills in thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities, applying strategic and operational art, and having a joint perspective. However, conducting force shaping training is not mentioned as a required skill. Force shaping training involves the process of assessing and developing the capabilities of military forces, which is not directly related to the thinking skills needed by joint war fighters.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) Which value does not have special impact on the conduct of joint operations?
- A.
Integrity.
- B.
Competency.
- C.
Physical courage.
- D.
Excellence in all we do.
Correct Answer
D. Excellence in all we do.Explanation
Excellence in all we do does not have a special impact on the conduct of joint operations. While integrity, competency, and physical courage are all important qualities that contribute to successful joint operations, excellence in all we do is a broader concept that encompasses overall performance and striving for the best in every aspect of one's work. While it is certainly desirable, it is not a specific value that directly affects the conduct of joint operations in the same way as the other options.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(001) Which goal is achieved as the result of effective unified action?
- A.
Base.
- B.
Global.
- C.
National.
- D.
Developing.
Correct Answer
C. National.Explanation
Effective unified action typically refers to the coordination and collaboration of various stakeholders within a specific country or nation. By working together towards a common goal, national progress and development can be achieved. Therefore, the goal that is achieved as a result of effective unified action is national.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(001) Which term is not used in reference to unified action in the military?
- A.
Integration.
- B.
Coordination.
- C.
Familiarization.
- D.
Synchronization.
Correct Answer
C. Familiarization.Explanation
Familiarization is not used in reference to unified action in the military. Unified action typically involves the integration, coordination, and synchronization of various military elements and forces to achieve a common objective. Familiarization, on the other hand, refers to the process of becoming acquainted or familiar with something, which may not necessarily involve the same level of coordination and synchronization as unified action in the military.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(001) The secretary of a military department operates that department under all of the followingexcept
- A.
Control.
- B.
Planning.
- C.
Authority.
- D.
Direction.
Correct Answer
B. Planning.Explanation
The secretary of a military department operates the department under control, authority, and direction. Control refers to the ability to oversee and manage the operations and resources of the department. Authority refers to the power and responsibility to make decisions and give orders. Direction refers to providing guidance and setting goals for the department. However, planning, which involves setting objectives and determining the best course of action to achieve them, is not mentioned as one of the responsibilities of the secretary in this context.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(001) The commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic
- A.
Deputy commander.
- B.
Assistant commander.
- C.
Area of responsibility.
- D.
Temporary duty location.
Correct Answer
C. Area of responsibility.Explanation
The correct answer is "area of responsibility." The sentence states that the commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic something. The term "area of responsibility" fits logically in this context as it refers to the specific geographical area for which a commander is responsible. It makes sense that each commander would have their own designated area of responsibility to manage and oversee.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(001) Which of the following is not a functional command?
- A.
United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM).
- B.
United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).
- C.
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM).
- D.
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
Correct Answer
B. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).Explanation
The answer is United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM) because all the other options listed (United States Joint Forces Command, United States Strategic Command, and United States Transportation Command) are functional commands within the United States military. USPERCOM, on the other hand, is not a functional command but rather a personnel command responsible for managing personnel policies and programs for the military.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(001) Unity of command means that all forces operate under
- A.
A single commander.
- B.
A joint force commander.
- C.
The Secretary of the Army.
- D.
The Secretary of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. A single commander.Explanation
Unity of command refers to the principle that all forces within an organization should operate under a single commander. This ensures clear lines of authority and responsibility, minimizing confusion and promoting effective decision-making. By having a single commander, there is a centralized control and coordination of efforts, allowing for a more efficient and cohesive operation. This principle is crucial in maintaining discipline, unity, and effectiveness within a military or any hierarchical organization.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(002) What authorizations were reduced during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 to save money?
- A.
Programs.
- B.
Manpower.
- C.
Equipment.
- D.
Additional duties.
Correct Answer
B. Manpower.Explanation
During Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720, the authorizations that were reduced to save money were in the area of manpower. This means that there were likely cuts in the number of personnel or staff members allocated to certain programs or departments. By reducing manpower, the organization aimed to reduce costs and allocate resources more efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(002) Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 enabled reductions at base level to deliver quality service to meets what delivery goal?
- A.
Tactical.
- B.
National.
- C.
Strategic.
- D.
Operational.
Correct Answer
C. Strategic.Explanation
The correct answer is "Strategic". Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 enabled reductions at the base level to deliver quality service to meet strategic delivery goals. This suggests that the reductions were made with a long-term plan in mind, focusing on achieving strategic objectives rather than tactical or operational goals.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(002) The information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs is better known as?
- A.
Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
- B.
Personnel service delivery model (PSDM).
- C.
Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
- D.
Automated records management system (ARMS).
Correct Answer
A. Military personnel data system (MilPDS).Explanation
The correct answer is Military personnel data system (MilPDS). This is the information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs. It is a system that manages and maintains military personnel data, including records, assignments, promotions, and other personnel-related information. MilPDS helps commanders make informed decisions and effectively manage their personnel resources.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(003) Which element is not part of the new Military Personnel Section (MPS) structure?
- A.
Customer support.
- B.
Career development.
- C.
Career enhancement.
- D.
Force management operations.
Correct Answer
C. Career enhancement.Explanation
The new Military Personnel Section (MPS) structure includes customer support, career development, and force management operations. However, career enhancement is not mentioned as part of the structure. This suggests that career enhancement is not a component of the new MPS structure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(004) Manpower, Personnel, and Services structures were not organized to
- A.
Reduce overhead.
- B.
Minimize overtime.
- C.
Achieve efficiencies.
- D.
Maximize customer service.
Correct Answer
B. Minimize overtime.Explanation
The given correct answer is "minimize overtime." This means that the Manpower, Personnel, and Services structures were not organized in a way that aimed to reduce the amount of overtime work. This suggests that there may have been a lack of planning or scheduling in these structures, resulting in excessive overtime hours being worked.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(004) During phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing (MSS), each organization was realigned and consolidated into how many flights?
- A.
4.
- B.
5.
- C.
6.
- D.
7.
Correct Answer
B. 5.Explanation
During phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing, each organization was realigned and consolidated into 5 flights. This means that the organizations were restructured and combined into five separate units or divisions.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(004) How many flights comprise the Force Support Squadron (FSS)?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Four.
- D.
Five.
Correct Answer
C. Four.Explanation
The correct answer is four. This suggests that the Force Support Squadron (FSS) is composed of four flights.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(004) The standardized Force Support Squadron (FSS) structure was comprised of all the following flights except
- A.
Force management.
- B.
Force development.
- C.
Sustainment services.
- D.
Community services.
Correct Answer
A. Force management.Explanation
The standardized Force Support Squadron (FSS) structure includes flights for force development, sustainment services, and community services. However, force management is not included in this structure. Force management typically refers to activities related to personnel management, such as manpower, personnel assignments, and career development. While important, it is not considered a separate flight within the FSS structure.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(005) Within the Personnel Services Deliver (PSD) plan, what group of personnel absorbed some of the work formerly done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)?
- A.
Total Force contact center (TSFC).
- B.
Air Force personnel center (AFPC).
- C.
Commander’s action group (CAG).
- D.
Commander’s support staff (CSS).
Correct Answer
D. Commander’s support staff (CSS).Explanation
The correct answer is Commander's support staff (CSS). Within the Personnel Services Deliver (PSD) plan, the CSS group of personnel absorbed some of the work that was previously done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF). This means that the CSS group took on some of the responsibilities and tasks that were previously handled by the MPF.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(005) Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), when personnel specialists were asked a question they could not answer, they contacted the
- A.
Numbered Air Force (NAF).
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
Military personnel section chief.
- D.
Manpower and personnel flight commander.
Correct Answer
B. Major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), personnel specialists would contact the Major Command (MAJCOM) when they were unable to answer a question. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing a specific branch or functional area of the military and has authority over multiple Numbered Air Forces (NAFs). Therefore, they would have the knowledge and resources to provide guidance and support to personnel specialists when faced with difficult questions.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(005) If you are in the rank of E–6 or below and have a question that Total Force Service Center(TFSC) personnel cannot answer,
- A.
A trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question.
- B.
The person will take a message and call you back within 12 hours.
- C.
The person will take a message and call you back within 48 hours.
- D.
The person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question.
Correct Answer
A. A trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question.Explanation
If you are in the rank of E-6 or below and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel cannot answer, a trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question. This suggests that the appropriate course of action is to submit a trouble ticket, which will allow the issue to be logged and addressed by the appropriate personnel.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(006) Which group is not serviced by Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelist?
- A.
Air Force (AF) retirees.
- B.
AF dependents.
- C.
AF active duty members.
- D.
Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.
Correct Answer
D. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.Explanation
The Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelists do not service Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. The question is asking which group is not serviced by MPS personnelists, and the correct answer is Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. This means that MPS personnelists provide services to Air Force retirees, AF dependents, and AF active duty members, but not to Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(006) The Military Personnel Section (MPS) was created based on what concept?
- A.
Streamlining.
- B.
Transformation.
- C.
Do more with less.
- D.
Learning organization.
Correct Answer
D. Learning organization.Explanation
The Military Personnel Section (MPS) was created based on the concept of a learning organization. A learning organization emphasizes continuous learning and improvement, where individuals and teams are encouraged to acquire and share knowledge, experiment, and adapt to new challenges and changes. By adopting this concept, the MPS aims to enhance its effectiveness and efficiency by fostering a culture of learning, innovation, and collaboration among its personnel. This approach enables the MPS to stay agile and responsive to the evolving needs of the military and its personnel.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(006) The difference between the new concept of the Military Personnel Section (MPS) and the old concept of the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks,
- A.
The base training manager will assist the personnelist.
- B.
Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area.
- C.
Manning assistance will be requested to assist the personnelist with the task.
- D.
Each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks.
Correct Answer
B. Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area.Explanation
The correct answer is that each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area. This means that instead of assigning specific individuals to specific tasks, each personnelist is expected to have a comprehensive understanding of all tasks within their designated area. This allows for greater flexibility and efficiency in the Military Personnel Section (MPS) compared to the old concept of the Military Personnel Flight (MPF). By having personnelists who are knowledgeable in all tasks, they can easily adapt and handle any task that comes their way without the need for specific assignments or requesting assistance.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(007) Once Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 hit the ground running, many of the daily operations of the commander’s support staff (CSS) was
- A.
Dissolved.
- B.
Streamlined.
- C.
Reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron.
- D.
Reassigned to the most knowledgeable base agencies.
Correct Answer
C. Reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron.Explanation
The correct answer is "reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron." This means that after the implementation of Program Budget Decision 720, the daily operations of the commander's support staff (CSS) were not dissolved or streamlined, but instead, they were reassigned to different individuals within the squadron. This suggests that the responsibilities and tasks previously handled by the CSS were distributed among the members of the squadron, possibly to improve efficiency or utilize the skills and knowledge of different individuals.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(007)Which personnel action is not required to be completed by commander-appointed individuals?
- A.
Allocation notices.
- B.
Decoration processing.
- C.
Performance feedback notices.
- D.
Enlisted/officer performance reports.
Correct Answer
B. Decoration processing.Explanation
Commander-appointed individuals are responsible for completing various personnel actions, such as allocation notices, performance feedback notices, and enlisted/officer performance reports. However, decoration processing is not a personnel action that requires the involvement of commander-appointed individuals. Decoration processing typically involves the submission and review of paperwork related to awards and decorations, which is usually handled by a separate office or department within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(008) How many personnel activities are there?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Four.
- D.
Five.
Correct Answer
A. Two.Explanation
The correct answer is two because the question is asking about the number of personnel activities, and the options provided are two, three, four, and five. Since the options are limited to two, the correct answer must be two.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(008) Which office is responsible for the personnel activities?
- A.
Customer support element.
- B.
Military personnel section.
- C.
Commanders support staff.
- D.
Force management operations element.
Correct Answer
B. Military personnel section.Explanation
The correct answer is the Military personnel section. The military personnel section is responsible for handling all personnel activities within an organization. This includes tasks such as managing personnel records, processing promotions and assignments, handling personnel actions, and providing support and guidance to military personnel. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of personnel-related matters within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(008) A unit is considered a Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) if it is not within what driving time (one way) of its servicing Military Personnel Section (MPS)?
- A.
One hour.
- B.
Two hours.
- C.
Three hours.
- D.
Four hours.
Correct Answer
A. One hour.Explanation
A unit is considered a Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) if it is not within one hour driving time (one way) of its servicing Military Personnel Section (MPS). This means that if a unit is located more than one hour away from its MPS, it is classified as a GSU.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(008) Who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the Satellite Personnel Activity (SPA)?
- A.
Major command commander.
- B.
Numbered Air Force commander.
- C.
Manpower and personnel flight commander.
- D.
Headquarters Air Force personnel center commander.
Correct Answer
C. Manpower and personnel flight commander.Explanation
The correct answer is the Manpower and personnel flight commander. This individual is responsible for determining which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the Satellite Personnel Activity (SPA). The Manpower and personnel flight commander oversees the personnel management and manpower functions within their unit, including assigning duties and responsibilities to the SPA. They ensure that the SPA is effectively carrying out their tasks and meeting the needs of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(008) When AF population does not warrant a Military Personnel Section (MPS), what authority may a request to establish a SPA?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
- C.
Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC).
- D.
Manpower and personnel flight commander (FSM).
Correct Answer
A. Major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
When the Air Force population does not justify having a Military Personnel Section (MPS), the authority to request the establishment of a Specialized Personnel Activity (SPA) lies with the Major Command (MAJCOM). The MAJCOM has the overall responsibility for managing personnel and can determine the need for and establish an SPA to handle specific personnel functions in the absence of an MPS.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(009) The classification structure was designed to ensure the Air Force consisted of the proper number of people, with the proper level of what?
- A.
Authority.
- B.
Experience.
- C.
Knowledge.
- D.
Responsibility.
Correct Answer
D. Responsibility.Explanation
The classification structure was designed to ensure the Air Force consisted of the proper number of people, with the proper level of responsibility. This means that the structure was created to ensure that each individual within the Air Force has the appropriate level of accountability and duty assigned to them. By having a clear classification structure, the Air Force can effectively distribute responsibilities and ensure that the right individuals are assigned to the right tasks.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(009) The duties and responsibilities of each rank were designed to ensure that each person at each rank had the proper level
- A.
Duties.
- B.
Experience.
- C.
Knowledge.
- D.
Responsibilities.
Correct Answer
C. Knowledge.Explanation
The correct answer is knowledge. The statement mentions that the duties and responsibilities of each rank were designed to ensure that each person at each rank had the proper level of something. Among the options provided, knowledge is the most appropriate choice as it refers to the understanding and information required to perform the duties and responsibilities effectively at each rank.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(009) Which criteria for career progression is not provided by the classification system?
- A.
Promotion.
- B.
Retention.
- C.
Upgrade.
- D.
Award.
Correct Answer
A. Promotion.Explanation
The classification system provides criteria for career progression such as retention, upgrade, and award. However, promotion is not mentioned as a criterion provided by the system. Therefore, promotion is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(009) An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a
- A.
Listing of experience needed to qualify for position.
- B.
Grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications.
- C.
Listing of training classes needed to qualify for a position.
- D.
Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.
Correct Answer
D. Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.Explanation
An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications. This means that individuals with the same AFSC will have similar job responsibilities and requirements. It allows for efficient organization and management of personnel within the Air Force, as individuals with the same AFSC can be trained, deployed, and promoted in a similar manner. This grouping ensures that individuals with the necessary skills and qualifications are assigned to the appropriate positions, maximizing effectiveness and efficiency within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(009) The list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty can be found in the
- A.
Recruiter’s Directory.
- B.
Enlisted Classification Directory.
- C.
Enlisted Force Structure Directory.
- D.
Retraining Classification Directory.
Correct Answer
B. Enlisted Classification Directory.Explanation
The correct answer is Enlisted Classification Directory. The Enlisted Classification Directory contains the list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty. It provides detailed information about each specialty, including the required skills, training, and qualifications. This directory is a valuable resource for recruiters and individuals interested in joining the military, as it helps them understand the different career options available and the specific requirements for each specialty.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(009) Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify positions or persons not elsewhere identified?
- A.
Reporting identifiers.
- B.
Special duty identifiers.
- C.
Air Force specialty codes.
- D.
Special experience identifiers.
Correct Answer
A. Reporting identifiers.Explanation
Reporting identifiers are used within the classification structure to identify positions or persons that are not identified elsewhere. These identifiers help to categorize and track specific roles or individuals within an organization. They provide a unique identification for positions or persons that may have unique responsibilities or requirements. This allows for better organization and management of personnel within the classification structure.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(009) Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify experience and training not otherwise identified in the personnel data system?
- A.
Reporting.
- B.
Special duty.
- C.
Military status.
- D.
Special experience.
Correct Answer
D. Special experience.Explanation
Special experience is the identifier used within the classification structure to identify experience and training that is not otherwise identified in the personnel data system. This means that if an individual has any unique or specialized experience or training that is not captured by the existing categories in the personnel data system, it can be identified and recorded under the special experience identifier. This allows for a more comprehensive and accurate representation of an individual's qualifications and capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(009) Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify manpower positions and persons performing duties not within a specific career field?
- A.
Reporting identifiers.
- B.
Special duty identifiers.
- C.
Air Force specialty codes.
- D.
Special experience identifiers.
Correct Answer
B. Special duty identifiers.Explanation
Special duty identifiers are used to identify manpower positions and persons performing duties that are not within a specific career field. This means that these individuals have been assigned to perform specialized duties that may not fall under a traditional career field. These special duty identifiers help to differentiate these positions and individuals from others within the classification structure.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(009) An individual’s ineligibility to retain the desired specialty code, will be characterized as
- A.
Disqualified.
- B.
Released.
- C.
Revoked.
- D.
Denied.
Correct Answer
A. Disqualified.Explanation
An individual's ineligibility to retain the desired specialty code will be characterized as disqualified, meaning that they are not eligible or allowed to continue with that particular specialty code. This suggests that they do not meet the requirements or qualifications necessary to retain the desired code and are therefore disqualified from pursuing it further.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(009) When declared disqualified for reasons within control, prior to initiating retraining, what must commanders consider?
- A.
Reenlistment eligibility.
- B.
Career intent.
- C.
Separation.
- D.
Manning.
Correct Answer
C. Separation.Explanation
Commanders must consider separation when a service member is declared disqualified for reasons within their control before initiating retraining. This means that the service member may no longer meet the requirements or standards for their current job or position and may need to be separated from the military. This decision would be based on the individual's ability to continue serving in their current role and whether retraining is a viable option.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(009) Which of the following is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member’s control?
- A.
A medical condition.
- B.
Loss of security clearance.
- C.
Drug or alcohol involvement.
- D.
Failure to progress in training.
Correct Answer
A. A medical condition.Explanation
A medical condition is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member's control because it is typically beyond their control. Disqualification for reasons within a member's control refers to situations where the member has the ability to prevent or change the outcome, such as losing security clearance, involvement with drugs or alcohol, or failing to progress in training. However, a medical condition is typically something that a person cannot control and is not a result of their actions or choices.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(010) What is not a specific duty of the personnelist career field?
- A.
Performs personnel actions.
- B.
Creates, maintains and audits personnel records.
- C.
Conducts interview to determine individual interests.
- D.
Advises officers and airmen on military personnel issues and programs.
Correct Answer
C. Conducts interview to determine individual interests.Explanation
The personnelist career field is responsible for performing personnel actions, creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, and advising officers and airmen on military personnel issues and programs. Conducting interviews to determine individual interests is not a specific duty of the personnelist career field.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(010) Responsibilities of the personnelist does not include having to
- A.
Administer the casualty program.
- B.
Update computerized personnel data.
- C.
Oversee personnel activities and functions.
- D.
Record information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records.
Correct Answer
A. Administer the casualty program.Explanation
The responsibilities of a personnelist include updating computerized personnel data, overseeing personnel activities and functions, and recording information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records. However, administering the casualty program is not one of their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(011) United State documents that contain foreign government information are marked on the
- A.
Front cover only.
- B.
Front cover or first page.
- C.
Middle of the front cover.
- D.
Front cover or back cover.
Correct Answer
B. Front cover or first page.Explanation
United State documents that contain foreign government information can be marked on either the front cover or the first page. This marking is done to clearly indicate that the document contains information from a foreign government. It is important for the marking to be prominently placed so that it is easily visible and identifiable. Therefore, the correct answer is front cover or first page.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(011) The first marking in the subject line of an E-mail will be the overall classification of the E-mail. Which symbol is not used for this action?
- A.
(S) for secret.
- B.
(TS) for top secret.
- C.
(C) for confidential.
- D.
(U) for unclassified.
Correct Answer
B. (TS) for top secret.Explanation
The first marking in the subject line of an E-mail will be the overall classification of the E-mail. The symbols used for this action are (S) for secret, (C) for confidential, and (U) for unclassified. However, the symbol (TS) for top secret is not used for this action.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(011) When classified documents are removed from secured storage, they are kept under constant surveillance, which standard form (SF) cover sheets shall be placed on all documents?
- A.
SF 701, SF 702, SF 703.
- B.
SF 701, SF 703, SF 704.
- C.
SF 702, SF 703, SF 704.
- D.
SF 703, SF 704, SF 705.
Correct Answer
D. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705. -
- 47.
(011) A one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment is given under the authority of which office?
- A.
The Secretary of Defense.
- B.
The Department of Defense.
- C.
The Secretary of the Air Force.
- D.
The Department of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. The Secretary of Defense.Explanation
A one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment is given under the authority of the Secretary of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(011) When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following except
- A.
Initiates a security incident report.
- B.
Denies the individual access to classified information.
- C.
Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).
- D.
Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.
Correct Answer
D. Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.Explanation
When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following except initiating a security incident report, denying the individual access to classified information, and initiating action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). However, they do not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(011) Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter
- A.
With the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information.
- B.
With only a secret security clearance even if the information needed is marked top secret.
- C.
Without an escort as long as he or she shows identification.
- D.
With only a letter from his or her commander.
Correct Answer
A. With the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information.Explanation
Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter with the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information. This means that individuals must not only have the necessary level of security clearance but also a legitimate reason or requirement to access the classified information. This ensures that access is granted only to those who have been authorized and deemed trustworthy to handle such sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(012) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
- A.
The material may get confiscated.
- B.
You will bring attention to yourself.
- C.
The foreign government may want to take it from you.
- D.
The material may not be important enough to hand carry.
Correct Answer
A. The material may get confiscated.Explanation
It is important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material because there is a risk that the material may get confiscated. Different countries have different regulations and restrictions on what can be brought into their territory, especially when it comes to sensitive or classified information. Failing to comply with these regulations can result in the confiscation of the material, potentially leading to loss of important data or compromising security. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of and adhere to the rules and regulations of the environment you are entering to avoid such consequences.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 22, 2017Quiz Created by
Lmgant08
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