CDC 3S051 Vol 1

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  • 1/68 Questions

    (001) Working together in Joint Warfare constitutes what concept?

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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in joint warfare concepts, focusing on unified action, joint operations values, and the roles of military department secretaries. It is designed for learners preparing for the CDC 3S051 Vol 1 certification, enhancing skills critical for competent joint warfighters.

CDC 3S051 Vol 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (001) Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in thinking about all of the following except

    • Having a joint perspective.

    • Conducting force shaping training.

    • Applying strategic and operational art.

    • Thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conducting force shaping training.
    Explanation
    Competent joint war fighters must possess skills in thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities, applying strategic and operational art, and having a joint perspective. However, conducting force shaping training is not mentioned as a required skill. Force shaping training involves the process of assessing and developing the capabilities of military forces, which is not directly related to the thinking skills needed by joint war fighters.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which value does not have special impact on the conduct of joint operations?

    • Integrity.

    • Competency.

    • Physical courage.

    • Excellence in all we do.

    Correct Answer
    A. Excellence in all we do.
    Explanation
    Excellence in all we do does not have a special impact on the conduct of joint operations. While integrity, competency, and physical courage are all important qualities that contribute to successful joint operations, excellence in all we do is a broader concept that encompasses overall performance and striving for the best in every aspect of one's work. While it is certainly desirable, it is not a specific value that directly affects the conduct of joint operations in the same way as the other options.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which goal is achieved as the result of effective unified action?

    • Base.

    • Global.

    • National.

    • Developing.

    Correct Answer
    A. National.
    Explanation
    Effective unified action typically refers to the coordination and collaboration of various stakeholders within a specific country or nation. By working together towards a common goal, national progress and development can be achieved. Therefore, the goal that is achieved as a result of effective unified action is national.

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  • 5. 

    (001) Which term is not used in reference to unified action in the military?

    • Integration.

    • Coordination.

    • Familiarization.

    • Synchronization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Familiarization.
    Explanation
    Familiarization is not used in reference to unified action in the military. Unified action typically involves the integration, coordination, and synchronization of various military elements and forces to achieve a common objective. Familiarization, on the other hand, refers to the process of becoming acquainted or familiar with something, which may not necessarily involve the same level of coordination and synchronization as unified action in the military.

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  • 6. 

    (001) The secretary of a military department operates that department under all of the followingexcept

    • Control.

    • Planning.

    • Authority.

    • Direction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning.
    Explanation
    The secretary of a military department operates the department under control, authority, and direction. Control refers to the ability to oversee and manage the operations and resources of the department. Authority refers to the power and responsibility to make decisions and give orders. Direction refers to providing guidance and setting goals for the department. However, planning, which involves setting objectives and determining the best course of action to achieve them, is not mentioned as one of the responsibilities of the secretary in this context.

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  • 7. 

    (001) The commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic

    • Deputy commander.

    • Assistant commander.

    • Area of responsibility.

    • Temporary duty location.

    Correct Answer
    A. Area of responsibility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "area of responsibility." The sentence states that the commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic something. The term "area of responsibility" fits logically in this context as it refers to the specific geographical area for which a commander is responsible. It makes sense that each commander would have their own designated area of responsibility to manage and oversee.

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  • 8. 

    (001) Which of the following is not a functional command?

    • United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM).

    • United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).

    • United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM).

    • United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).
    Explanation
    The answer is United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM) because all the other options listed (United States Joint Forces Command, United States Strategic Command, and United States Transportation Command) are functional commands within the United States military. USPERCOM, on the other hand, is not a functional command but rather a personnel command responsible for managing personnel policies and programs for the military.

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  • 9. 

    (001) Unity of command means that all forces operate under

    • A single commander.

    • A joint force commander.

    • The Secretary of the Army.

    • The Secretary of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. A single commander.
    Explanation
    Unity of command refers to the principle that all forces within an organization should operate under a single commander. This ensures clear lines of authority and responsibility, minimizing confusion and promoting effective decision-making. By having a single commander, there is a centralized control and coordination of efforts, allowing for a more efficient and cohesive operation. This principle is crucial in maintaining discipline, unity, and effectiveness within a military or any hierarchical organization.

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  • 10. 

    (002) What authorizations were reduced during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 to save money?

    • Programs.

    • Manpower.

    • Equipment.

    • Additional duties.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manpower.
    Explanation
    During Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720, the authorizations that were reduced to save money were in the area of manpower. This means that there were likely cuts in the number of personnel or staff members allocated to certain programs or departments. By reducing manpower, the organization aimed to reduce costs and allocate resources more efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    (002) The information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs is better known as?

    • Military personnel data system (MilPDS).

    • Personnel service delivery model (PSDM).

    • Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

    • Automated records management system (ARMS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Military personnel data system (MilPDS). This is the information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs. It is a system that manages and maintains military personnel data, including records, assignments, promotions, and other personnel-related information. MilPDS helps commanders make informed decisions and effectively manage their personnel resources.

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  • 12. 

    (003) Which element is not part of the new Military Personnel Section (MPS) structure?

    • Customer support.

    • Career development.

    • Career enhancement.

    • Force management operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career enhancement.
    Explanation
    The new Military Personnel Section (MPS) structure includes customer support, career development, and force management operations. However, career enhancement is not mentioned as part of the structure. This suggests that career enhancement is not a component of the new MPS structure.

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  • 13. 

    (004) During phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing (MSS), each organization was realigned and consolidated into how many flights?

    • 4.

    • 5.

    • 6.

    • 7.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.
    Explanation
    During phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing, each organization was realigned and consolidated into 5 flights. This means that the organizations were restructured and combined into five separate units or divisions.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Within the Personnel Services Deliver (PSD) plan, what group of personnel absorbed some of the work formerly done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)?

    • Total Force contact center (TSFC).

    • Air Force personnel center (AFPC).

    • Commander’s action group (CAG).

    • Commander’s support staff (CSS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander’s support staff (CSS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Commander's support staff (CSS). Within the Personnel Services Deliver (PSD) plan, the CSS group of personnel absorbed some of the work that was previously done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF). This means that the CSS group took on some of the responsibilities and tasks that were previously handled by the MPF.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), when personnel specialists were asked a question they could not answer, they contacted the

    • Numbered Air Force (NAF).

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • Military personnel section chief.

    • Manpower and personnel flight commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), personnel specialists would contact the Major Command (MAJCOM) when they were unable to answer a question. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing a specific branch or functional area of the military and has authority over multiple Numbered Air Forces (NAFs). Therefore, they would have the knowledge and resources to provide guidance and support to personnel specialists when faced with difficult questions.

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  • 16. 

    (005) If you are in the rank of E–6 or below and have a question that Total Force Service Center(TFSC) personnel cannot answer,

    • A trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question.

    • The person will take a message and call you back within 12 hours.

    • The person will take a message and call you back within 48 hours.

    • The person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question.

    Correct Answer
    A. A trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question.
    Explanation
    If you are in the rank of E-6 or below and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel cannot answer, a trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question. This suggests that the appropriate course of action is to submit a trouble ticket, which will allow the issue to be logged and addressed by the appropriate personnel.

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  • 17. 

    (006) Which group is not serviced by Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelist?

    • Air Force (AF) retirees.

    • AF dependents.

    • AF active duty members.

    • Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.

    Correct Answer
    A. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.
    Explanation
    The Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelists do not service Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. The question is asking which group is not serviced by MPS personnelists, and the correct answer is Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. This means that MPS personnelists provide services to Air Force retirees, AF dependents, and AF active duty members, but not to Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.

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  • 18. 

    (006) The Military Personnel Section (MPS) was created based on what concept?

    • Streamlining.

    • Transformation.

    • Do more with less.

    • Learning organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Learning organization.
    Explanation
    The Military Personnel Section (MPS) was created based on the concept of a learning organization. A learning organization emphasizes continuous learning and improvement, where individuals and teams are encouraged to acquire and share knowledge, experiment, and adapt to new challenges and changes. By adopting this concept, the MPS aims to enhance its effectiveness and efficiency by fostering a culture of learning, innovation, and collaboration among its personnel. This approach enables the MPS to stay agile and responsive to the evolving needs of the military and its personnel.

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  • 19. 

    (006) The difference between the new concept of the Military Personnel Section (MPS) and the old concept of the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks,

    • The base training manager will assist the personnelist.

    • Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area.

    • Manning assistance will be requested to assist the personnelist with the task.

    • Each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area. This means that instead of assigning specific individuals to specific tasks, each personnelist is expected to have a comprehensive understanding of all tasks within their designated area. This allows for greater flexibility and efficiency in the Military Personnel Section (MPS) compared to the old concept of the Military Personnel Flight (MPF). By having personnelists who are knowledgeable in all tasks, they can easily adapt and handle any task that comes their way without the need for specific assignments or requesting assistance.

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  • 20. 

    (007) Once Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 hit the ground running, many of the daily operations of the commander’s support staff (CSS) was

    • Dissolved.

    • Streamlined.

    • Reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron.

    • Reassigned to the most knowledgeable base agencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron." This means that after the implementation of Program Budget Decision 720, the daily operations of the commander's support staff (CSS) were not dissolved or streamlined, but instead, they were reassigned to different individuals within the squadron. This suggests that the responsibilities and tasks previously handled by the CSS were distributed among the members of the squadron, possibly to improve efficiency or utilize the skills and knowledge of different individuals.

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  • 21. 

    (007)Which personnel action is not required to be completed by commander-appointed individuals?

    • Allocation notices.

    • Decoration processing.

    • Performance feedback notices.

    • Enlisted/officer performance reports.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decoration processing.
    Explanation
    Commander-appointed individuals are responsible for completing various personnel actions, such as allocation notices, performance feedback notices, and enlisted/officer performance reports. However, decoration processing is not a personnel action that requires the involvement of commander-appointed individuals. Decoration processing typically involves the submission and review of paperwork related to awards and decorations, which is usually handled by a separate office or department within the organization.

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  • 22. 

    (008) How many personnel activities are there?

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    • Five.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is two because the question is asking about the number of personnel activities, and the options provided are two, three, four, and five. Since the options are limited to two, the correct answer must be two.

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  • 23. 

    (008) A unit is considered a Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) if it is not within what driving time (one way) of its servicing Military Personnel Section (MPS)?

    • One hour.

    • Two hours.

    • Three hours.

    • Four hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. One hour.
    Explanation
    A unit is considered a Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) if it is not within one hour driving time (one way) of its servicing Military Personnel Section (MPS). This means that if a unit is located more than one hour away from its MPS, it is classified as a GSU.

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  • 24. 

    (008) When AF population does not warrant a Military Personnel Section (MPS), what authority may a request to establish a SPA?

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

    • Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC).

    • Manpower and personnel flight commander (FSM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    When the Air Force population does not justify having a Military Personnel Section (MPS), the authority to request the establishment of a Specialized Personnel Activity (SPA) lies with the Major Command (MAJCOM). The MAJCOM has the overall responsibility for managing personnel and can determine the need for and establish an SPA to handle specific personnel functions in the absence of an MPS.

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  • 25. 

    (009) The duties and responsibilities of each rank were designed to ensure that each person at each rank had the proper level

    • Duties.

    • Experience.

    • Knowledge.

    • Responsibilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is knowledge. The statement mentions that the duties and responsibilities of each rank were designed to ensure that each person at each rank had the proper level of something. Among the options provided, knowledge is the most appropriate choice as it refers to the understanding and information required to perform the duties and responsibilities effectively at each rank.

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  • 26. 

    (009) An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a

    • Listing of experience needed to qualify for position.

    • Grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications.

    • Listing of training classes needed to qualify for a position.

    • Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.
    Explanation
    An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications. This means that individuals with the same AFSC will have similar job responsibilities and requirements. It allows for efficient organization and management of personnel within the Air Force, as individuals with the same AFSC can be trained, deployed, and promoted in a similar manner. This grouping ensures that individuals with the necessary skills and qualifications are assigned to the appropriate positions, maximizing effectiveness and efficiency within the Air Force.

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  • 27. 

    (009) The list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty can be found in the

    • Recruiter’s Directory.

    • Enlisted Classification Directory.

    • Enlisted Force Structure Directory.

    • Retraining Classification Directory.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enlisted Classification Directory.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enlisted Classification Directory. The Enlisted Classification Directory contains the list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty. It provides detailed information about each specialty, including the required skills, training, and qualifications. This directory is a valuable resource for recruiters and individuals interested in joining the military, as it helps them understand the different career options available and the specific requirements for each specialty.

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  • 28. 

    (009) Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify manpower positions and persons performing duties not within a specific career field?

    • Reporting identifiers.

    • Special duty identifiers.

    • Air Force specialty codes.

    • Special experience identifiers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special duty identifiers.
    Explanation
    Special duty identifiers are used to identify manpower positions and persons performing duties that are not within a specific career field. This means that these individuals have been assigned to perform specialized duties that may not fall under a traditional career field. These special duty identifiers help to differentiate these positions and individuals from others within the classification structure.

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  • 29. 

    (009) An individual’s ineligibility to retain the desired specialty code, will be characterized as

    • Disqualified.

    • Released.

    • Revoked.

    • Denied.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disqualified.
    Explanation
    An individual's ineligibility to retain the desired specialty code will be characterized as disqualified, meaning that they are not eligible or allowed to continue with that particular specialty code. This suggests that they do not meet the requirements or qualifications necessary to retain the desired code and are therefore disqualified from pursuing it further.

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  • 30. 

    (009) When declared disqualified for reasons within control, prior to initiating retraining, what must commanders consider?

    • Reenlistment eligibility.

    • Career intent.

    • Separation.

    • Manning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Separation.
    Explanation
    Commanders must consider separation when a service member is declared disqualified for reasons within their control before initiating retraining. This means that the service member may no longer meet the requirements or standards for their current job or position and may need to be separated from the military. This decision would be based on the individual's ability to continue serving in their current role and whether retraining is a viable option.

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  • 31. 

    (009) Which of the following is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member’s control?

    • A medical condition.

    • Loss of security clearance.

    • Drug or alcohol involvement.

    • Failure to progress in training.

    Correct Answer
    A. A medical condition.
    Explanation
    A medical condition is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member's control because it is typically beyond their control. Disqualification for reasons within a member's control refers to situations where the member has the ability to prevent or change the outcome, such as losing security clearance, involvement with drugs or alcohol, or failing to progress in training. However, a medical condition is typically something that a person cannot control and is not a result of their actions or choices.

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  • 32. 

    (011) United State documents that contain foreign government information are marked on the

    • Front cover only.

    • Front cover or first page.

    • Middle of the front cover.

    • Front cover or back cover.

    Correct Answer
    A. Front cover or first page.
    Explanation
    United State documents that contain foreign government information can be marked on either the front cover or the first page. This marking is done to clearly indicate that the document contains information from a foreign government. It is important for the marking to be prominently placed so that it is easily visible and identifiable. Therefore, the correct answer is front cover or first page.

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  • 33. 

    (011) A one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment is given under the authority of which office?

    • The Secretary of Defense.

    • The Department of Defense.

    • The Secretary of the Air Force.

    • The Department of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Secretary of Defense.
    Explanation
    A one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment is given under the authority of the Secretary of Defense.

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  • 34. 

    (011) Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter

    • With the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information.

    • With only a secret security clearance even if the information needed is marked top secret.

    • Without an escort as long as he or she shows identification.

    • With only a letter from his or her commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. With the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information.
    Explanation
    Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter with the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information. This means that individuals must not only have the necessary level of security clearance but also a legitimate reason or requirement to access the classified information. This ensures that access is granted only to those who have been authorized and deemed trustworthy to handle such sensitive information.

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  • 35. 

    (012) When couriers are transporting laptops and disks containing classified information, they must

    • Travel with another authorized courier.

    • Inform the flight attendant of what they are carrying.

    • Communicate to the passengers what they are carrying.

    • Keep laptops and disks under constant surveillance or in secure facilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep laptops and disks under constant surveillance or in secure facilities.
    Explanation
    When couriers are transporting laptops and disks containing classified information, they must keep them under constant surveillance or in secure facilities. This is important to ensure the security and confidentiality of the information being transported. By keeping the laptops and disks under constant surveillance, the couriers can prevent unauthorized access or tampering. Alternatively, storing them in secure facilities adds an extra layer of protection, reducing the risk of theft or loss during transportation. Both measures help to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of the classified information.

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  • 36. 

    (012) When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

    • Password protect laptops.

    • Completely erase laptops and disks before transporting.

    • Mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1–R Information Security Program.

    • Keep laptops and disks containing classified information under constant surveillance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Completely erase laptops and disks before transporting.
    Explanation
    Couriers must do all of the mentioned actions except completely erasing laptops and disks before transporting. This means that they are not required to wipe the data from the laptops and disks. However, they still need to password protect the laptops, mark them according to DOD 5200.1-R Information Security Program, and keep them under constant surveillance if they contain classified information.

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  • 37. 

    (013) As a personnelist, your main job is to

    • Complete training.

    • Process paperwork.

    • Prepare for deployments.

    • Provide service to customers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide service to customers.
    Explanation
    As a personnelist, your main job is to provide service to customers. This means that your primary responsibility is to assist and support individuals within the organization, such as employees, managers, and other stakeholders, with their personnel-related needs. This could include tasks such as answering inquiries, processing requests, providing guidance on policies and procedures, and resolving any issues or concerns they may have. Your role is focused on delivering excellent customer service and ensuring that the personnel needs of the organization are met effectively and efficiently.

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  • 38. 

    (014) The first thing you notice when meeting someone is their appearance, so it is so important to maintain a professional appearance

    • At all times.

    • When working in an office.

    • Only when helping customers.

    • During open ranks inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. At all times.
    Explanation
    Maintaining a professional appearance is important at all times because it is the first thing people notice when meeting someone. This applies not only when working in an office, but also when helping customers and during open ranks inspection. It is crucial to make a good impression and project a professional image consistently in all situations.

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  • 39. 

    (014) Which communication skill is considered to be the most neglected?

    • Hearing.

    • Writing.

    • Listening.

    • Speaking.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listening.
    Explanation
    Listening is considered to be the most neglected communication skill because many people tend to focus more on speaking and expressing their own thoughts and ideas rather than actively listening to others. Effective listening involves paying attention, understanding, and responding appropriately to the speaker, which is crucial for effective communication. Neglecting this skill can lead to misunderstandings, miscommunication, and missed opportunities for building strong relationships and resolving conflicts.

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  • 40. 

    (015) Written consent is required for release of what information?

    • Age.

    • Rank.

    • Civilian salary.

    • Air Force specialty code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Age.
    Explanation
    Written consent is required for the release of age information. This is because age is considered personal and private information that individuals may not want to disclose. Requiring written consent ensures that individuals have control over the release of their age information and protects their privacy.

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  • 41. 

    61. (015) When balancing the public interest against the individual’s probable loss of privacy, all are considered factors to not consider except

    • Date of request.

    • Circumstances.

    • Proposed use.

    • Purpose.

    Correct Answer
    A. Date of request.
    Explanation
    When balancing the public interest against the individual's probable loss of privacy, factors such as circumstances, proposed use, and purpose are considered. The date of request, however, is not a relevant factor in this context.

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  • 42. 

    (009) Which criteria for career progression is not provided by the classification system?

    • Promotion.

    • Retention.

    • Upgrade.

    • Award.

    Correct Answer
    A. Promotion.
    Explanation
    The classification system provides criteria for career progression such as retention, upgrade, and award. However, promotion is not mentioned as a criterion provided by the system. Therefore, promotion is the correct answer.

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  • 43. 

    (010) Responsibilities of the personnelist does not include having to

    • Administer the casualty program.

    • Update computerized personnel data.

    • Oversee personnel activities and functions.

    • Record information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administer the casualty program.
    Explanation
    The responsibilities of a personnelist include updating computerized personnel data, overseeing personnel activities and functions, and recording information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records. However, administering the casualty program is not one of their responsibilities.

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  • 44. 

    (011) The first marking in the subject line of an E-mail will be the overall classification of the E-mail. Which symbol is not used for this action?

    • (S) for secret.

    • (TS) for top secret.

    • (C) for confidential.

    • (U) for unclassified.

    Correct Answer
    A. (TS) for top secret.
    Explanation
    The first marking in the subject line of an E-mail will be the overall classification of the E-mail. The symbols used for this action are (S) for secret, (C) for confidential, and (U) for unclassified. However, the symbol (TS) for top secret is not used for this action.

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  • 45. 

    (011) When classified documents are removed from secured storage, they are kept under constant surveillance, which standard form (SF) cover sheets shall be placed on all documents?

    • SF 701, SF 702, SF 703.

    • SF 701, SF 703, SF 704.

    • SF 702, SF 703, SF 704.

    • SF 703, SF 704, SF 705.

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705.
  • 46. 

    (011) When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following except

    • Initiates a security incident report.

    • Denies the individual access to classified information.

    • Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

    • Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.
    Explanation
    When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following except initiating a security incident report, denying the individual access to classified information, and initiating action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). However, they do not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

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  • 47. 

    (012) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

    • The material may get confiscated.

    • You will bring attention to yourself.

    • The foreign government may want to take it from you.

    • The material may not be important enough to hand carry.

    Correct Answer
    A. The material may get confiscated.
    Explanation
    It is important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material because there is a risk that the material may get confiscated. Different countries have different regulations and restrictions on what can be brought into their territory, especially when it comes to sensitive or classified information. Failing to comply with these regulations can result in the confiscation of the material, potentially leading to loss of important data or compromising security. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of and adhere to the rules and regulations of the environment you are entering to avoid such consequences.

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  • 48. 

    (012) Documentation is not required for hand carrying classified material to activities

    • Within government buildings.

    • Within non-duty days.

    • Within an installation.

    • Within duty days.

    Correct Answer
    A. Within an installation.
    Explanation
    Documentation is not required for hand carrying classified material within an installation. This means that when transporting classified material within a specific military installation, such as a base or facility, there is no need for additional documentation. However, it is important to note that when transporting classified material outside of an installation, such as to other government buildings or during non-duty days, proper documentation and procedures must be followed to ensure the security and accountability of the material.

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  • 49. 

    (015) In respect to the Privacy Act, Department of Defense (DOD) policy allows individuals to do all of the following except

    • Correct or amend their records.

    • Allow individuals unwarranted access to other people’s record.

    • Allow individuals access to a copy of all or any portion of their record.

    • Protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow individuals unwarranted access to other people’s record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "allow individuals unwarranted access to other people's record." This is because the Privacy Act and DOD policy allow individuals to correct or amend their own records, access a copy of their own records, and protect their personal privacy. However, individuals are not allowed to have unwarranted access to other people's records, as this would violate their privacy rights.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 18, 2024 +

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  • Jul 18, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 22, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Lmgant08
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