CDC 2F071 Volume 2 (2016)

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Spacemanjoe89
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of Effective Pages" checks mandatory?

    • A.

      Never.

    • B.

      As directed by major command (MAJCOM).

    • C.

      At the discretion of the technical order (TO) manager.

    • D.

      When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs.

    Correct Answer
    D. When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs.
  • 2. 

    When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of work days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      5.

    • C.

      7.

    • D.

      10.

    Correct Answer
    B. 5.
    Explanation
    You should file technical order (TO) changes and supplements within 5 work days of receipt. This ensures that the changes and supplements are implemented in a timely manner and that any necessary updates or modifications are made to the publications. Filing them within this timeframe helps to ensure that the information provided in the publications remains accurate and up-to-date.

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  • 3. 

    What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances?

    • A.

      Technical Order (TO) 42B–1–23.

    • B.

      40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 280.

    • C.

      Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).

    • D.

      Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4140.25M.

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
    Explanation
    The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) is an environmental regulation that establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances. This means that the RCRA regulates the entire lifecycle of hazardous waste, from its generation to its disposal. It sets standards for the treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste, and also requires proper labeling, record-keeping, and reporting of hazardous substances. The RCRA aims to protect human health and the environment by ensuring that hazardous waste is managed safely and responsibly.

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  • 4. 

    At a minimum, underground storage tanks should be monitored to detect releases every

    • A.

      30 days.

    • B.

      60 days.

    • C.

      90 days.

    • D.

      120 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days.
    Explanation
    Underground storage tanks should be monitored every 30 days to detect releases. This regular monitoring is necessary to ensure that any leaks or releases are identified and addressed promptly. Waiting longer periods between monitoring could increase the risk of undetected leaks, which can lead to environmental contamination and potential hazards to human health. Therefore, monitoring every 30 days is the recommended frequency to maintain the safety and integrity of underground storage tanks.

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  • 5. 

    How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Weekly.
    Explanation
    Dikes should be checked for deterioration on a weekly basis to ensure their structural integrity and prevent any potential breaches or failures. Weekly inspections allow for timely identification of any signs of deterioration such as cracks, erosion, or leaks, which can be promptly addressed before they worsen. Regular monitoring helps to maintain the stability and effectiveness of dikes in protecting against flooding or water damage.

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  • 6. 

    When conducting internal inspections, at a minimum, the Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Office inspects each fuels element at least once

    • A.

      A month.

    • B.

      Every three months.

    • C.

      Each six months.

    • D.

      A year.

    Correct Answer
    C. Each six months.
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Office conducts internal inspections of each fuels element at least once every six months. This means that the inspections are conducted twice a year to ensure the quality and compliance of the fuels element. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the fuels element's operations and processes, helping to identify any potential issues or areas for improvement.

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  • 7. 

    All spot-checks are rated as

    • A.

      Positive or Negative.

    • B.

      Pass or Fail.

    • C.

      Satisfactory or Unsatisfactory.

    • D.

      Satisfactory, Marginal, or Unsatisfactory.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pass or Fail.
    Explanation
    The given answer is "Pass or Fail" because it is the only option that is mentioned in the question. The question states that spot-checks can be rated as positive or negative, pass or fail, satisfactory or unsatisfactory, or satisfactory, marginal, or unsatisfactory. Out of these options, "Pass or Fail" is the only one that is explicitly mentioned.

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  • 8. 

    When reporting monthly assessments results, what form do Quality Control evaluators use?

    • A.

      AF Form 2419, Routing and Review of Quality Control Reports.

    • B.

      AF Form 2420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.

    • C.

      AF Form 4420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.

    • D.

      AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form.

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form.
    Explanation
    Quality Control evaluators use AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form, when reporting monthly assessments results.

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  • 9. 

    What organization may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?

    • A.

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • B.

      Parent major command (MAJCOM).

    • C.

      Air Force petroleum agency (AFPA).

    • D.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    Correct Answer
    B. Parent major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    Parent major command (MAJCOM) may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420.

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  • 10. 

    What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?

    • A.

      Base environmental manager.

    • B.

      Base bioenvironmental engineer.

    • C.

      Group environmental coordinator.

    • D.

      Environmental protection committee.

    Correct Answer
    B. Base bioenvironmental engineer.
    Explanation
    The fuels management team (FMT) should consult with the base bioenvironmental engineer on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers. The base bioenvironmental engineer is responsible for assessing and managing workplace hazards, including the selection and use of PPE. They have the expertise to evaluate the specific needs of the FMT and ensure that appropriate PPE is provided to protect workers from potential risks associated with their work in fuels management. The other options, such as the base environmental manager, group environmental coordinator, and environmental protection committee, may have roles related to environmental management but may not have the specialized knowledge and authority to address PPE requirements.

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  • 11. 

    What outside agency collects, analyzes, and publishes base fuel mishap reports and develops trend analysis on reports affecting fuel operations?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • B.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D.

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) is responsible for collecting, analyzing, and publishing base fuel mishap reports and developing trend analysis on reports affecting fuel operations. This agency specializes in managing and providing petroleum products and services to the Air Force, and as part of their role, they gather data on fuel mishaps and use it to identify trends and areas for improvement in fuel operations.

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  • 12. 

    What agency acts as the Department of Defense (DOD) central procurement agent for bulk petroleum, natural gas, coal, and associated services?

    • A.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • B.

      Air Force Logistics Management Agency (AFLMA).

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D.

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).
    Explanation
    The Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) acts as the Department of Defense (DOD) central procurement agent for bulk petroleum, natural gas, coal, and associated services. This agency is responsible for ensuring that the DOD has a reliable and efficient energy supply to support its operations. The DLA–Energy works to procure these resources in a cost-effective manner and manages the distribution and storage of energy products for the DOD.

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  • 13. 

    What agency serves as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and its customers?

    • A.

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • B.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions.

    • D.

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions. This agency serves as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy and its customers. The DLA–Energy regions are responsible for coordinating and managing the delivery of energy products and services to customers within their respective regions. They work closely with customers to understand their energy needs and ensure that they are met efficiently and effectively. The DLA–Energy regions play a crucial role in facilitating communication and collaboration between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy and its customers.

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  • 14. 

    Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division performs contracting support for all AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs?

    • A.

      Technical Division.

    • B.

      Plans and Programs Division.

    • C.

      Resource Management Division.

    • D.

      Science and Technology Division.

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource Management Division.
    Explanation
    The Resource Management Division performs contracting support for all AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs. This division is responsible for managing the financial resources and ensuring efficient allocation of funds for various programs within the Air Force Petroleum Agency. They handle the contracting process, including soliciting bids, negotiating contracts, and managing the financial aspects of these programs. The Resource Management Division plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation and financial stability of AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs.

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  • 15. 

    Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division develops and evaluates emerging laboratory testing technology?

    • A.

      Technical Division.

    • B.

      Laboratory Division.

    • C.

      Resource Management Division.

    • D.

      Science and Technology Division.

    Correct Answer
    B. Laboratory Division.
    Explanation
    The Laboratory Division within the Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) is responsible for developing and evaluating emerging laboratory testing technology. This division focuses on advancing the capabilities and techniques used in petroleum testing to ensure the highest quality and accuracy in analyzing fuel samples. They work on researching and implementing new technologies that can improve the efficiency and effectiveness of laboratory testing processes.

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  • 16. 

    What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in DLA–Energy policy or command policies?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office.

    • B.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D.

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office. This agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in DLA-Energy policy or command policies. They oversee fuel operations within their specific command and ensure that all necessary instructions and directives are provided to support those operations.

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  • 17. 

    Who ensures complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum and missile fuels at each Air Force base?

    • A.

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • B.

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuels management team (FMT).
    Explanation
    The Fuels Management Team (FMT) ensures complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum and missile fuels at each Air Force base. They are specifically trained and responsible for managing and overseeing the storage, distribution, and handling of fuel resources. Their role is crucial in maintaining the safety, efficiency, and effectiveness of fuel operations within the Air Force. The FMT works closely with other units and agencies involved in fuel management to ensure compliance with regulations and standards, as well as to support mission requirements.

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  • 18. 

    Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined according to DLA–Energy policies?

    • A.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C.

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • D.

      Fuels service center (FSC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Fuels service center (FSC).
    Explanation
    The Fuels Service Center (FSC) is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined according to DLA-Energy policies. The FSC is a centralized organization that provides support and guidance to the various branches of the military in managing their fuel resources. They ensure that fuel is accounted for, stored, and distributed efficiently and effectively. They also monitor fuel usage, track inventory, and provide reports and analysis to help with decision-making. Overall, the FSC plays a crucial role in maintaining the fuels account and ensuring that the military has the necessary resources to carry out its operations.

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  • 19. 

    When an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation, which information is not provided?

    • A.

      Name of requester (crew chief).

    • B.

      Grade of fuel.

    • C.

      Authorized delivery point.

    • D.

      Refueling vehicle/equipment registration number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Name of requester (crew chief).
    Explanation
    When an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation, the information that is not provided is the name of the requester or crew chief. The other information that is provided includes the grade of fuel, authorized delivery point, and the registration number of the refueling vehicle or equipment. The name of the requester or crew chief is not necessary for completing the fueling operation as long as the other required information is provided.

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  • 20. 

    When you are inputting a transaction in the FMD Dispatch Module, what information should you enter in the Request Type when entering a defuel request?

    • A.

      Select “Y” in place of the defaulted “N” in the field.

    • B.

      Enter the reason for the defuel request.

    • C.

      Select “Defuel” in place of the defaulted “Refuel”.

    • D.

      Enter the estimated gallon amount of the defuel.

    Correct Answer
    C. Select “Defuel” in place of the defaulted “Refuel”.
    Explanation
    When entering a defuel request in the FMD Dispatch Module, you should select "Defuel" in place of the defaulted "Refuel". This is because the default option is set to "Refuel", but in this case, you are requesting a defuel. By selecting "Defuel", you are indicating the correct type of request to be processed.

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  • 21. 

    When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects on a daily basis. This ensures that any errors or discrepancies in fuel transactions are promptly identified and resolved, maintaining accurate records and preventing any potential issues from escalating. By reconciling daily, controllers can stay on top of their fuel management responsibilities and ensure smooth operations within the organization.

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  • 22. 

    When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?

    • A.

      .0025

    • B.

      .003

    • C.

      .005

    • D.

      .0075

    Correct Answer
    C. .005
    Explanation
    The allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS) when reconciling accounts is .005. This means that a difference of up to .005 in the recorded amount of MOGAS is considered acceptable and does not require further investigation or adjustment.

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  • 23. 

    Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?

    • A.

      Fuels operations superintendent.

    • B.

      NCOIC fuels distribution.

    • C.

      Mobile refueling supervisor.

    • D.

      Fuels expediter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuels operations superintendent.
    Explanation
    The Fuels operations superintendent is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements. This role involves overseeing fuel operations, ensuring that there is enough fuel available for aircraft, and coordinating with other personnel to ensure efficient fuel distribution. The NCOIC fuels distribution may be involved in managing fuel distribution, but they may not have the authority to review aircraft flying schedules or organize work shifts. The mobile refueling supervisor is responsible for supervising refueling operations, but may not have the broader responsibilities of reviewing schedules and organizing work shifts. The fuels expediter may assist in coordinating fuel deliveries, but may not have the overall responsibility for reviewing schedules and organizing work shifts.

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  • 24. 

    Which agency can initiate a Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) REPOL report?

    • A.

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)–Energy.

    • B.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Joint staff.

    Correct Answer
    D. Joint staff.
    Explanation
    The Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) REPOL report can be initiated by the Joint Staff. The Joint Staff is responsible for assisting the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in fulfilling his duties as the principal military advisor to the President and the Secretary of Defense. They coordinate and integrate the efforts of the combatant commands and other agencies involved in joint military operations. As such, they have the authority to initiate the REPOL report, which provides information on petroleum, oil, and lubricant requirements for military operations.

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  • 25. 

    The Tank Group window in the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    D. 20.
    Explanation
    The Tank Group window in the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker allows operators to create tabular lists of up to 20 tanks. This means that operators can organize and track information for a maximum of 20 tanks within this window.

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  • 26. 

    When viewing the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker alarm toolbar you see a flashing green color in the alarm indicator box. You know this indicates

    • A.

      No alarm.

    • B.

      An unacknowledged alarm.

    • C.

      An active unacknowledged alarm.

    • D.

      An unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal.

    Correct Answer
    D. An unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal.
    Explanation
    The flashing green color in the alarm indicator box in the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker indicates that an unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal. This means that there was an alarm triggered previously, but it has now been resolved and the system is back to its normal state.

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  • 27. 

    Which method of payment is not authorized for a cash sale purchase?

    • A.

      Cash.

    • B.

      Check.

    • C.

      Credit card.

    • D.

      Money order.

    Correct Answer
    C. Credit card.
    Explanation
    The method of payment that is not authorized for a cash sale purchase is a credit card. This is because a cash sale typically refers to a transaction where the payment is made in physical currency or cash equivalent, such as a check or money order. Credit cards involve the use of credit and are not considered as a form of cash payment.

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  • 28. 

    When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

    • A.

      Products are not normally stocked.

    • B.

      Military exchange facilities are available at the installation.

    • C.

      Adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance.

    • D.

      Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.
    Explanation
    Cash sales are only authorized when sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations. This means that cash sales can only be made if they do not disrupt or hinder any ongoing military activities. This ensures that the military operations are not compromised or compromised in any way. The other options, such as products not being normally stocked or the availability of military exchange facilities or commercial facilities, are not relevant factors in determining the authorization for cash sales in this context.

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  • 29. 

    Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?

    • A.

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) Fuels Service Center (FSC).

    • B.

      Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent.

    • C.

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Fuels management team (FMT).
    Explanation
    The Fuels Management Team (FMT) must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels. This team is responsible for managing all aspects of fuel operations, including financial transactions. They ensure that proper procedures are in place to handle cash sales and that funds are securely collected, stored, and deposited. This responsibility falls within the purview of the FMT and is not the responsibility of the other options listed.

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  • 30. 

    At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

    • A.

      Fuels service center (FSC) personnel.

    • B.

      Shift supervisors.

    • C.

      Off-duty personnel.

    • D.

      Operations expeditors.

    Correct Answer
    C. Off-duty personnel.
    Explanation
    Off-duty personnel are employees who are not currently working and are not responsible for safeguarding money collected for cash sales of aviation products. They are not actively involved in the operations of the Fuels service center (FSC) and therefore should not be entrusted with the task of safeguarding the money. Shift supervisors, FSC personnel, and operations expeditors are all actively involved in the operations and can be responsible for safeguarding the money.

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  • 31. 

    When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by any of the following conditions except

    • A.

      Tank size.

    • B.

      Temperature.

    • C.

      Mode of delivery.

    • D.

      Volume of the product.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tank size.
    Explanation
    When investigating fuel gains and losses, variances in inventory levels can be caused by various factors such as temperature, mode of delivery, and volume of the product. However, tank size does not directly affect the inventory levels as it only determines the capacity of the tank to hold the fuel. The inventory levels can still vary due to other factors even if the tank size remains constant. Therefore, tank size is the exception among the given conditions that may cause variances in inventory levels.

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  • 32. 

    When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?

    • A.

      Major disaster.

    • B.

      Combat losses.

    • C.

      Peacetime losses.

    • D.

      Determinable losses.

    Correct Answer
    C. Peacetime losses.
    Explanation
    The given scenario describes a situation where an excessive variance in fuel gains and losses is identified due to a pipeline rupture. Since this incident occurred during normal operations and not during a major disaster or combat, it can be categorized as "peacetime losses." This term refers to losses that happen during times of peace and are not caused by any major catastrophic events or combat situations.

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  • 33. 

    The inventory management plan (IMP) is published

    • A.

      Quarterly.

    • B.

      Semiannually.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Every two years.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is annually because the inventory management plan (IMP) is published once every year. This means that the plan is reviewed, updated, and released on a yearly basis to ensure that the inventory levels and strategies align with the company's goals and objectives. Publishing the IMP annually allows for regular evaluation and adjustment of inventory management practices to optimize efficiency and profitability.

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  • 34. 

    The amount of petroleum war reserve requirements (PWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as

    • A.

      Operating stock.

    • B.

      Maximum inventory.

    • C.

      Minimum inventory level.

    • D.

      Petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS). This refers to the amount of petroleum war reserve requirements (PWRR) that a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store. The PWRS is a strategic reserve of petroleum products that is maintained for use during times of war or national emergency. It is important for DFSPs to have a sufficient stock of PWRS to ensure fuel availability and support military operations in such situations.

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  • 35. 

    The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5

    • A.

      Weekly.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5 quarterly. This means that the WCDO is updated and determined every three months, taking into account the information and requirements outlined in the WMP–4 and WMP–5. This periodicity allows for adjustments and adaptations to be made regularly, ensuring that the distribution of war consumables aligns with the current needs and priorities of the war effort.

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  • 36. 

    What agency prepares the war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) document?

    • A.

      Air Staff.

    • B.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) prepares the war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) document.

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  • 37. 

    When entering an order in the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, you can identify capitalized contracts as those listed in what color text?

    • A.

      Blue.

    • B.

      Black.

    • C.

      Green.

    • D.

      Purple.

    Correct Answer
    D. Purple.
    Explanation
    In the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, capitalized contracts are identified by text in the color purple.

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  • 38. 

    When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?

    • A.

      Fuels service center (FSC) and the fuels management team (FMT).

    • B.

      FSC and the vendor.

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      The vendor and DLA–Energy.

    Correct Answer
    D. The vendor and DLA–Energy.
    Explanation
    After placing the ground products order in the PORTS system, fuel request e-mails are sent to the vendor and Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

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  • 39. 

    When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, at a minimum, the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records you store locally should consist of the current fiscal year documents plus documents from how many previous fiscal years?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.
    Explanation
    When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, the minimum requirement is to store the current fiscal year documents plus documents from two previous fiscal years. This ensures that there is a record of transactions and inventory for the most recent years, allowing for easy reference and analysis. Storing documents from only one previous fiscal year would not provide a comprehensive historical record, while storing documents from three or more previous fiscal years would be excessive and may clutter the files unnecessarily. Therefore, storing documents from two previous fiscal years strikes a balance between maintaining relevant records and efficient file management.

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  • 40. 

    When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the 12 monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?

    • A.

      3 years.

    • B.

      3 years and 6 months.

    • C.

      6 years.

    • D.

      6 years and 3 months.

    Correct Answer
    D. 6 years and 3 months.
  • 41. 

    When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that "T" Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by

    • A.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • B.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C.

      Defense Automatic Addressing System (DAASC).

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) because the question states that "T" Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations. DLA-Energy is responsible for assigning DODAACs to non-DOD organizations, including those related to sales for non-DOD aircraft. The other options, such as AFPA, DAASC, and MAJCOM, are not specifically mentioned in relation to assigning DODAACs to non-DOD organizations.

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  • 42. 

    While attempting to determine authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you are unable to verify an organization as a valid authorized customer after reviewing the customer validation listing. Who should your responsible officer/terminal manager (RO/TM) contact first for assistance?

    • A.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • B.

      Business Systems Modernization–Energy (BSM–E) help desk.

    • C.

      Parent major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    B. Business Systems Modernization–Energy (BSM–E) help desk.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Business Systems Modernization–Energy (BSM–E) help desk. When unable to verify an organization as a valid authorized customer, the responsible officer/terminal manager (RO/TM) should contact the BSM-E help desk for assistance. They specialize in providing support and guidance regarding authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft. The AFPA, parent major command (MAJCOM), and DLA-Energy Operations Center may not have the specific knowledge or resources to address this issue.

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  • 43. 

    When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a VIL key request in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?

    • A.

      12 months.

    • B.

      24 months.

    • C.

      36 months.

    • D.

      48 months.

    Correct Answer
    C. 36 months.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 36 months. This means that when encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, copies of a VIL key request should be maintained in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file for a period of 36 months. This is necessary for record-keeping and auditing purposes, ensuring that there is a sufficient trail of documentation for reference and verification.

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  • 44. 

    When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

    • A.

      The word “Rental”.

    • B.

      The payment office DOD activity address code (DODAAC).

    • C.

      The vehicle license plate number.

    • D.

      The ORG code for the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) issuing the VIL key.

    Correct Answer
    C. The vehicle license plate number.
    Explanation
    The vehicle license plate number should be entered in the vehicle identification field when encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle. This is because the license plate number uniquely identifies the vehicle and allows for easy tracking and identification.

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  • 45. 

    Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for E85 Ethanol?

    • A.

      Red clipboard with blue stripes.

    • B.

      Yellow clipboard with blue stripes.

    • C.

      Brown clipboard with green stripes.

    • D.

      Green clipboard with yellow stripes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Red clipboard with blue stripes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is red clipboard with blue stripes. This color coding requirement for E85 Ethanol helps to easily identify vehicles that are compatible with this fuel. The red color indicates that the vehicle is designed to run on alternative fuels, while the blue stripes specifically indicate that it is compatible with E85 Ethanol. This color coding system ensures that vehicles are properly identified and helps to prevent any misfueling incidents.

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  • 46. 

    Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for Jet A fuel?

    • A.

      Red with yellow outer border clipboard with black stripes.

    • B.

      Yellow clipboard with white stripes.

    • C.

      Brown clipboard with white stripes.

    • D.

      Red clipboard with blue stripes.

    Correct Answer
    B. Yellow clipboard with white stripes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is yellow clipboard with white stripes. This color coding requirement ensures that the clipboard used for Jet A fuel is easily distinguishable and identifiable. The yellow color signifies that it is specifically meant for Jet A fuel, while the white stripes add clarity and visibility. This helps in preventing any mix-up or confusion with other types of fuel.

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  • 47. 

    Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?

    • A.

      Fuels controller.

    • B.

      Fuels information service center (FISC) superintendent.

    • C.

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • D.

      All fuels personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuels controller.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fuels controller. The Fuels controller is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net. They ensure that all personnel involved in fuel management adhere to proper communication protocols and maintain clear and efficient radio transmissions. This ensures smooth coordination and effective communication within the fuels management team.

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  • 48. 

    When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the

    • A.

      Group commander.

    • B.

      Wing commander.

    • C.

      Group command post.

    • D.

      Wing command post.

    Correct Answer
    D. Wing command post.
    Explanation
    When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, it is crucial to notify all relevant parties. This includes each element in the fuels management flight, as well as the squadron commander and the wing command post. The wing command post is the central command center for the entire wing, responsible for coordinating and managing all operations. Therefore, notifying the wing command post ensures that the highest level of command is informed and can take appropriate actions in response to the emergency.

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  • 49. 

    How often do you test a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?

    • A.

      Every 3 hours.

    • B.

      Every 6 hours.

    • C.

      Every 12 hours.

    • D.

      Every 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    D. Every 24 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Every 24 hours. This is because testing the odor and purity of a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant is crucial for ensuring its safety and effectiveness. However, conducting the test every 3, 6, or 12 hours would be too frequent and may not be necessary unless there are specific concerns or issues. Testing every 24 hours strikes a balance between ensuring the quality of the LOX production and minimizing unnecessary interruptions to the production process.

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  • 50. 

    How often do you sample cryotainers for purity, odor, and minor constituents?

    • A.

      Every 30 days.

    • B.

      Every 60 days.

    • C.

      Every 90 days.

    • D.

      Every 120 days.

    Correct Answer
    C. Every 90 days.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Every 90 days. This means that cryotainers are sampled for purity, odor, and minor constituents every 90 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the cryotainers' quality and composition. Sampling at this interval ensures that any potential issues or changes in the cryotainers can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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