Motor Development Exam 2

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  • 1/61 Questions

    Prenatal development is protected by the placenta

    • True
    • False
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Electrical Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The 'Motor Development Exam 2' assesses knowledge on prenatal development, including the role of the placenta, teratogens, maternal age, and factors affecting prenatal health. This quiz is crucial for understanding key aspects of fetal health and development.

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  • 2. 

    Teratogens environmental agents that can cause birth defect or kill the fetus.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Teratogens are environmental agents that have the potential to cause birth defects or harm the developing fetus. These agents can include substances such as drugs, chemicals, infections, and radiation. Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy can lead to a wide range of physical and developmental abnormalities in the baby. Therefore, it is important for pregnant individuals to avoid exposure to known teratogens to ensure the healthy development of their fetus.

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  • 3. 

    The Maternal age is from ________

    • 16 - 35 years

    • 25 - 40 years

    • 20 - 30 years

    • 13 - 30 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 - 35 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 16 - 35 years. This age range is considered the typical childbearing age for women. It is generally believed that women in this age group have a lower risk of pregnancy complications and are more likely to have healthy pregnancies and babies. Women who are younger than 16 or older than 35 may face higher risks and challenges during pregnancy and childbirth.

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  • 4. 

    Radiation, Drugs and chemicals, and STD's are all examples of _________

    • bacteria

    • Internal factors

    • External factors

    • Maternal factors

    Correct Answer
    A. External factors
    Explanation
    Radiation, drugs and chemicals, and STDs are all examples of external factors. These factors are external to the body and can have an impact on an individual's health. Radiation exposure, the use of drugs and chemicals, and contracting sexually transmitted diseases are all external influences that can affect a person's well-being.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following are examples of factors that affect prenatal development.

    • Radiation

    • Smoking

    • STD's

    • Nutrition

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the listed factors (radiation, smoking, STD's, and nutrition) can have an impact on prenatal development. Radiation exposure during pregnancy can lead to birth defects and developmental issues. Smoking increases the risk of premature birth, low birth weight, and developmental delays. STD's can be transmitted from the mother to the fetus, causing complications such as blindness, deafness, and intellectual disabilities. Adequate nutrition is essential for the healthy growth and development of the fetus. Therefore, all of these factors can affect prenatal development.

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  • 6. 

    Low birth-weight is when the baby is born weighing less than 6 pounds 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Low birth-weight is when the baby is born weighing less than 6 pounds. However, the given answer is false, which means that low birth-weight is not defined as weighing less than 6 pounds. The correct definition of low birth-weight varies depending on the source, but it is generally considered to be a weight of less than 5.5 pounds or 2,500 grams.

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  • 7. 

    A pre mature newborn is a baby born in less than 38 weeks.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because a pre mature newborn is indeed a baby born in less than 38 weeks. Full-term pregnancies typically last for about 40 weeks, so any baby born before that is considered premature. Premature babies may have certain health issues as they may not have fully developed in the womb, and they may require special medical attention and care.

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  • 8. 

    Nutrition, smoking, alcohol and drugs are all factors that are responsible for pre mature birth weight

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. While nutrition, smoking, alcohol, and drugs can all have an impact on pregnancy and fetal development, they are not the sole factors responsible for premature birth weight. Premature birth weight can be influenced by a variety of factors including genetics, maternal health conditions, infections, and complications during pregnancy. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that these factors are solely responsible for premature birth weight.

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  • 9. 

    Normal birth occurs at ______

    • 38 - 46 weeks

    • 38 - 42 weeks

    • 40 - 48 weeks

    • 36 -40 weeks

    Correct Answer
    A. 38 - 42 weeks
    Explanation
    Normal birth occurs at 38 - 42 weeks. This is considered the full-term duration for a pregnancy. Most pregnancies last around 40 weeks, but it is also considered normal for a pregnancy to last anywhere between 38 and 42 weeks. This range allows for some natural variation in the length of gestation while still being within the normal range.

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  • 10. 

    ____ of adults are over weight

    • 70%

    • 55%

    • 65%

    • 80%

    Correct Answer
    A. 65%
    Explanation
    The given statement states that a certain percentage of adults are overweight. Out of the options provided, the closest percentage to being overweight is 65%. This suggests that 65% of adults are overweight.

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  • 11. 

    A person who has BMI of less than 18.5 is classified as underweight

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A person who has a BMI (Body Mass Index) of less than 18.5 is considered underweight. BMI is a measure of body fat based on a person's height and weight. When the BMI falls below 18.5, it indicates that the person has a lower body weight in relation to their height, which is classified as underweight.

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  • 12. 

    A BMI of 25 -29

    • Underweight

    • Obesity

    • Overweight

    Correct Answer
    A. Overweight
    Explanation
    A BMI of 25-29 is considered overweight. BMI, or Body Mass Index, is a measure of body fat based on a person's weight and height. A BMI between 25 and 29 indicates that a person has excess weight for their height, which is classified as overweight. This means that their weight may be higher than what is considered healthy for their height, increasing the risk of various health conditions such as heart disease, diabetes, and certain types of cancer.

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  • 13. 

    Overnutrition affects 25 million children

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Overnutrition refers to excessive intake of nutrients, leading to an imbalance and negative health effects. The statement "Overnutrition affects 25 million children" implies that there are 25 million children who are experiencing the negative consequences of consuming too many nutrients. This suggests that overnutrition is a prevalent issue among children worldwide, which is supported by evidence and makes the statement true.

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  • 14. 

    Memory comes before discrimination 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true because memory is the ability to retain and recall information or past experiences, while discrimination is the ability to differentiate between different stimuli or make judgments based on those differences. In order to discriminate between different stimuli, one must first have the ability to remember and recognize those stimuli. Therefore, memory comes before discrimination in the cognitive process.

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  • 15. 

    Stature is affected by physical activity

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement "Stature is affected by physical activity" is false. Stature refers to a person's height, which is primarily determined by genetic factors. While physical activity can have an impact on overall health and posture, it does not directly affect a person's stature or height. Height is largely determined by factors such as genetics, nutrition, and overall health during childhood and adolescence.

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  • 16. 

    Physical activity affects _________ 

    • Cardio

    • Motor skills

    • Post puberty

    • Pre puberty

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Cardio
    A. Motor skills
    A. Post puberty
    Explanation
    Physical activity affects cardio and motor skills, particularly during the post-puberty stage. During this period, the body undergoes significant changes, such as increased muscle strength, improved cardiovascular endurance, and enhanced motor coordination. Engaging in physical activity helps to strengthen the heart and lungs, improving cardiovascular fitness. Additionally, it promotes the development of motor skills, including balance, agility, and coordination. Pre-puberty refers to the stage before the onset of sexual maturity and may not have the same impact on cardio and motor skills as the post-puberty stage.

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  • 17. 

    The pituitary gland secrets

    • Insulin

    • Adh

    • Thyroxine

    • Growth hormone

    Correct Answer
    A. Growth hormone
    Explanation
    The pituitary gland secretes growth hormone, which is responsible for stimulating growth and development in the body. It plays a crucial role in regulating bone and muscle growth, as well as the metabolism of nutrients. Growth hormone is essential for normal physical growth during childhood and adolescence, and it also helps maintain healthy body composition and bone density in adults. Additionally, it has important effects on the immune system and can influence various other hormonal functions in the body.

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  • 18. 

    Growth hormone aids in the development of muscles and bones.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Growth hormone, also known as somatotropin, plays a crucial role in the growth and development of muscles and bones. It stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1), which promotes bone growth and increases muscle mass. Additionally, growth hormone helps in the regeneration and repair of tissues, including muscles and bones. Therefore, it is correct to say that growth hormone aids in the development of muscles and bones.

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  • 19. 

    Approximately 70% of all sensory information is derived via the visual system.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    80%

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  • 20. 

    Visual information aids in what? (check all the apply)

    • Formulation of motor program

    • Monitor movement activity

    • Provide feedback

    • Generate a response

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Formulation of motor program
    A. Monitor movement activity
    A. Provide feedback
    Explanation
    Visual information aids in the formulation of motor programs by providing the necessary input for planning and organizing movements. It also helps in monitoring movement activity by allowing individuals to observe and assess their own actions in real-time. Additionally, visual information provides feedback by allowing individuals to compare their intended movements with the actual outcome, making adjustments and corrections as needed. However, it does not directly generate a response, as the response is ultimately produced by the motor system based on the formulated motor program.

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  • 21. 

    At birth, the visual structures of the eyes are all intact

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    At birth, the visual structures of the eyes are fully developed and intact. This means that the different parts of the eyes, including the cornea, iris, lens, and retina, are present and functioning. Although the vision of a newborn baby is not fully developed and they have limited visual acuity, the physical structures of the eyes are complete. Over time, as the baby grows and their visual system matures, their vision improves.

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  • 22. 

    The acuity of vision is adult-like at what age?

    • 10 years

    • 12 years

    • 9 years

    • 13 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 years
    Explanation
    The acuity of vision refers to the sharpness or clarity of one's vision. The question asks at what age the acuity of vision becomes adult-like. The correct answer is 12 years. This suggests that by the age of 12, a person's vision has typically developed to a level similar to that of an adult, with clear and sharp visual perception.

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  • 23. 

    The ability to distinguish an object from its surrounding background.

    • Object permeance

    • Field of vision

    • Figure-ground perception

    • Depth perception

    Correct Answer
    A. Figure-ground perception
    Explanation
    Figure-ground perception refers to the ability to distinguish an object from its surrounding background. It allows us to separate and perceive objects as distinct from the environment they are in. This perceptual process enables us to focus on and identify specific objects, while ignoring the background or irrelevant stimuli. It helps in organizing visual information and understanding the spatial relationships between objects and their surroundings.

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  • 24. 

    Visual cliff is established at ________

    • 4 months

    • 2 months

    • 6 months

    • 5 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months
    Explanation
    The visual cliff is typically established at 6 months. At this age, infants have developed enough visual and motor skills to perceive depth and understand the concept of a drop-off. This is an important milestone in their cognitive and perceptual development.

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  • 25. 

    Ability to judge the distance of an object from the self.

    • Visual acuity

    • Figure ground perception

    • Field of vision

    • Depth perception

    Correct Answer
    A. Depth perception
    Explanation
    Depth perception refers to the ability to perceive the distance of an object from oneself. It allows us to accurately judge the relative distances and positions of objects in our environment. This is achieved through the coordination of visual cues, such as binocular disparity (the difference in the images seen by each eye) and monocular cues (such as relative size, texture gradient, and linear perspective). Depth perception is crucial for tasks such as driving, playing sports, and navigating through our surroundings.

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  • 26. 

    The extent of the environment that can change in the fixation of the eye. (check all that apply)

    • Visual acuity

    • Visual cliff

    • Field of vision

    • Peripheral vision

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Field of vision
    A. Peripheral vision
    Explanation
    The extent of the environment that can change in the fixation of the eye refers to the range of the surroundings that can be observed while focusing on a specific point. Visual acuity refers to the sharpness and clarity of vision, which is not related to the extent of the environment. Visual cliff is a test used to determine depth perception in infants and does not pertain to the extent of the environment. Field of vision refers to the total area that can be seen without moving the eyes, and peripheral vision refers to the ability to see objects outside of the direct line of vision. Both field of vision and peripheral vision are relevant to the extent of the environment that can be observed while fixating the eye.

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  • 27. 

    Speed and accuracy are two types of coinicidence timing

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that speed and accuracy are two types of coincidental timing. This implies that when something is done quickly, it is also done accurately. The answer "true" indicates that the statement is correct and supports the idea that speed and accuracy go hand in hand.

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  • 28. 

    Object permeance becomes adult like at _______

    • 12 years

    • 7 years

    • 3 years

    • 2 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 years
    Explanation
    Object permanence refers to the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not directly perceived. It is a cognitive milestone in child development. At around 2 years of age, children begin to develop a more adult-like understanding of object permanence. Prior to this age, infants may believe that objects cease to exist when they are out of sight. However, at around 2 years old, children start to realize that objects still exist even when they are hidden or removed from their view. This development is an important step in their cognitive growth and allows them to engage in more complex play and problem-solving activities.

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  • 29. 

    Field of vision becomes adult like at _______

    • 5 years

    • 10 years

    • 4 years

    • 8 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 years
    Explanation
    The field of vision refers to the extent of the visual area that a person can see without moving their eyes or head. In infants, the field of vision is initially limited, but it gradually expands as they grow and develop. By the age of 5 years, a child's field of vision becomes more adult-like, meaning it reaches a similar extent as that of an adult. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 years.

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  • 30. 

    Depth perception becomes adult like at _______

    • 6 years

    • 4 years

    • 10 years

    • 12 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 years
    Explanation
    Depth perception refers to the ability to perceive the distance and three-dimensional aspects of objects. It develops gradually as a child grows. At around 12 years of age, depth perception becomes adult-like. This is because by this age, the visual system has fully matured, including the development of binocular vision and the ability to accurately judge distances and spatial relationships. Therefore, at 12 years, individuals have a more refined and accurate sense of depth perception, similar to that of adults.

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  • 31. 

    Visual motor coordination becomes adult like at 14 months.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because visual motor coordination, which refers to the ability to coordinate visual perception with motor skills, typically develops and becomes more refined as a child grows. By 14 months of age, most children have reached a stage where their visual motor coordination is similar to that of an adult. This means that they are able to accurately interpret visual information and use their motor skills to respond or interact with their environment in a coordinated manner.

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  • 32. 

    The vestibular apparatus is used for balance and equilibrium

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The vestibular apparatus is a sensory system located in the inner ear that helps maintain balance and equilibrium. It consists of the semicircular canals and the otolith organs, which detect changes in head position and movement. This information is then sent to the brain, allowing us to maintain our balance and sense our body's position in space. Therefore, the statement that the vestibular apparatus is used for balance and equilibrium is true.

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  • 33. 

    The vestibular apparatus is located in the ear

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The vestibular apparatus is indeed located in the ear. It is a complex system of structures that includes the semicircular canals and the otolith organs. These structures are responsible for detecting and providing information about the body's position, movement, and balance. They play a crucial role in maintaining equilibrium and coordinating movements.

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  • 34. 

    Kinestethic memory comes before Kinestethic acuity (discrimination)

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Kinesthetic memory refers to the ability to remember and recall movements and physical sensations. Kinesthetic acuity, on the other hand, refers to the ability to discriminate and perceive fine differences in movements and physical sensations. In terms of chronological order, it is more logical to assume that kinesthetic acuity develops before kinesthetic memory. This is because in order to remember and recall movements, one must first be able to perceive and discriminate those movements accurately. Therefore, the given answer "false" suggests that kinesthetic acuity comes before kinesthetic memory.

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  • 35. 

    Ability to detect and interpret sensory info cutaneously

    • Perceptual integration

    • Tactile perception

    • Intermodal perception

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactile perception
    Explanation
    Tactile perception refers to the ability to detect and interpret sensory information through touch. This includes the ability to feel and recognize different textures, temperatures, and pressures. It involves the integration of sensory input from the skin and the interpretation of that information by the brain. Tactile perception allows us to explore and interact with our environment through touch, and plays a crucial role in our overall sensory experience.

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  • 36. 

    The abiltiy to percieve information from one modality to another.

    • Tactile perception

    • Perceptual integration

    • Intermodal perception

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermodal perception
    Explanation
    Intermodal perception refers to the ability to perceive information from one sensory modality and integrate it with information from another modality. It involves combining and making sense of sensory inputs from different sources, such as combining visual and auditory information. This ability allows us to create a cohesive and comprehensive understanding of the world around us. Tactile perception, on the other hand, specifically refers to the perception of touch. Perceptual integration is a more general term that encompasses the process of combining and integrating sensory information, but it does not specifically emphasize the integration of information from different modalities.

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  • 37. 

    Gibsons Ecological Perspective states that infants do not act directly on what they perceive.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Infants act directly on what they perceive

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  • 38. 

    Attention is the prerequisite for the attention of information.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that in order to process and comprehend information, one must first have attention. This implies that attention is a necessary requirement for the mind to focus and absorb information effectively. Therefore, the answer is true, as it aligns with the idea that attention is a prerequisite for the attention of information.

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  • 39. 

    Limited attention is attending to 1 thing, then another.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Limtited attention is attending to one thing at a time.

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  • 40. 

    Serial attetnion is attending to 1 thing at a time

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Serial attention is attending to one thing then another.

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  • 41. 

    Limitations in the capacity to handle info from environment.

    • Selective attention

    • Divided attention

    • Memory retention

    • Structured attention

    Correct Answer
    A. Divided attention
    Explanation
    Divided attention refers to the ability to focus on multiple tasks or stimuli simultaneously. It involves allocating cognitive resources to different tasks, dividing attention between them. In the context of the given explanation, limitations in the capacity to handle information from the environment suggest that there is a restriction in the ability to process and attend to multiple stimuli at the same time. Divided attention allows individuals to overcome these limitations by distributing their attention across different tasks or stimuli, enabling them to handle more information effectively.

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  • 42. 

    Selective attention is reached by the age of 12

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Selective attention refers to the ability to focus on specific stimuli while ignoring others. It is a cognitive skill that allows individuals to filter out irrelevant information and concentrate on what is important. The statement suggests that by the age of 12, individuals have developed the capacity for selective attention. This aligns with research in developmental psychology, which indicates that selective attention improves throughout childhood and reaches adult-like levels during early adolescence. Therefore, the answer "true" is correct.

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  • 43. 

    The cocktail party phenomenon deals with _______

    • Recall

    • Recognition

    • Selective attention

    • Divided attention

    Correct Answer
    A. Selective attention
    Explanation
    The cocktail party phenomenon refers to the ability to focus one's attention on a specific stimulus while filtering out other distracting stimuli in a crowded environment, such as a cocktail party. This process is known as selective attention. It allows individuals to selectively attend to relevant information while ignoring irrelevant or less important information, enhancing their ability to recall and recognize the desired stimulus.

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  • 44. 

    Which type memory is more advanced.

    • Recognition

    • Recall

    Correct Answer
    A. Recall
    Explanation
    The answer "recall" is more advanced compared to "recognition" in terms of memory. Recognition refers to the ability to identify or recognize something that has been previously encountered, while recall refers to the ability to retrieve or bring back information from memory without any cues or prompts. Recall requires a higher level of cognitive effort as it involves retrieving information from memory without any external assistance, making it a more advanced form of memory compared to recognition.

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  • 45. 

    Form of memory that involves remembering a stimulus that is not present.

    • Recall

    • Recognition

    • Selective memory

    • Deviant memory

    Correct Answer
    A. Recall
    Explanation
    Recall is the correct answer because it refers to the form of memory that involves remembering a stimulus that is not present. It is the ability to retrieve information or experiences from the past without any external cues or prompts. This can be done by consciously bringing back previously learned information or by reconstructing past events based on memory. Recall is different from recognition, which involves identifying or remembering a stimulus when it is presented again. Selective memory and deviant memory are not accurate terms for this form of memory.

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  • 46. 

    Long term memory is also known as working memory

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Long term memory and working memory are two distinct components of memory. Long term memory refers to the storage of information over an extended period of time, while working memory is a temporary storage system that holds information for immediate processing and manipulation. Therefore, the statement that "Long term memory is also known as working memory" is false.

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  • 47. 

    Memory span can only have 7±2 items

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement that memory span can only have 7±2 items is true. This is based on research in cognitive psychology that suggests that the average person's short-term memory can hold around 7 items, give or take 2. This concept is known as Miller's Law and has been supported by various studies. It means that individuals can typically remember around 5 to 9 pieces of information at a time before their memory starts to deteriorate.

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  • 48. 

    Development differences due primarily to processing strategies rather than structural increases.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that the differences in development are mainly attributed to the strategies used for processing information rather than the structural increases. This implies that the way individuals approach and handle tasks or problems has a greater impact on their development than any physical changes or growth.

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  • 49. 

    The renewed response to a new stimulus is known as dishabitation

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Dishabituation refers to the recovery of a response to a previously habituated stimulus when a new stimulus is presented. It is a process in which the individual's response to a habituated stimulus is renewed or revived due to the introduction of a novel stimulus. In other words, dishabituation occurs when a person becomes responsive to a previously habituated stimulus again because of the introduction of a new stimulus. Therefore, the statement "The renewed response to a new stimulus is known as dishabituation" is true.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 07, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Kingslo

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