Online English ACT Test

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1. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 33

Explanation

"Question 33. The best answer is A because it uses the correct comparative form ""more interesting,"" and it uses the preposition than to introduce the second part of a comparison. The best answer is NOT: B because although ""of more interest"" works in this context, the adverb then is inaccurately used in place of the preposition than. C because the comparison ""the most interesting than"" is grammatically flawed, using the superlative form most where the comparative form more is required . D because although it uses the correct comparative words ""more interesting,"" it includes the word then incorrectly ."

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About This Quiz
Online English ACT Test - Quiz

This ONLINE ENGLISH ACT TEST assesses comprehension through a series of passage-based questions. Covering Passage 1, it evaluates understanding and interpretation skills, crucial for ACT readiness.

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2. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 4

Explanation

"Question 4. The best answer is J because only a comma should be there to separate the introductory participial phrase, ""Hiking unassisted up the 10,0000-foot-high Sygyn Glacier,"" and the main clause, ""each woman pulled a sled that weighed more than 260 pounds."" For clarity, the introductory phrase must be next to, or adjacent to, the subject of the clause that it modifies, ""each woman."" The best answer is NOT: F because the coordinating conjunction and is inappropriately placed between the introductory participial phrase, ""Hiking unassisted up the 10,0000-foot-high Sygyn Glacier,"" and the main clause, ""each woman pulled a sled that weighed more than 260 pounds."" Coordinating conjunctions typically join two like struc­ tures (two phrases, two main cla uses) rather than a phrase and a clause. G because the subordinating conjunction when makes the main clause into a dependent clause. The result­ ing combination of introductory phrase and dependent clause is a sentence fragment (an incomplete sen­ tence). H because the subordinating conjunction while creates a sentence fragment in the same way as in G."

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3. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 8

Explanation

"Question 8. The best answer is J because these is the only one of the four responses that, within the context of this sentence, doesn't logically refer to the two women. When these is placed into the sentence, it appears to refer to the strong winds (""The ... strong winds blew daily, and these sailed 210 miles in just five days.""). Therefore this is the LEAST acceptable alternative to the team. The best answer is NOT: F because the two, meaning Arnesen and Bancroft, is an acceptable alternative to the team. G because the names of the two women, Arnesen and Bancroft, are also an acceptable alternative to the team. H because the women also refers to Arnesen and Bancroft and is an acceptable alternative to the team."

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4. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 44

Explanation

"Question 44. The best answer is F because the last sentence of the essay's first paragraph lists three of the most common misconceptions humans have about bats, and each misconception is the topic of one of the following three paragraphs in the essay. The best answer is NOT: G because the last sentence of the first paragraph is introducing new ideas, not summarizing points made earlier. · H because listing misconceptions about bats, rather than kinds of creatures bats have been compared to, is the purpose of the last sentence of the first paragraph. J because the last sentence of the first paragraph, listing misconceptions about bats, contains no humor."

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5. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 61

Explanation

"Question 61. The best answer is D because the possessive form of baseball (baseball's) is needed so that the phrase means ""one of the most gifted athletes of baseball."" The best answer is NOT: A because the plural baseballs rather than the possessive baseball's is used. B because although the correct form of baseball's is used, there should not be a comma between a noun and the-prepositional phrase that follows it and explains it (""one of baseball's most gifted athletes""). C because the plural baseballs instead of the possessive .basebal/'.s is used and. because an inappropriate comma intervenes between the pronoun one and the adjoining prepositional phrase."

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6. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 1

Explanation

"Question 1. The best answer is D because the phrase ""Liv Arnesen of Norway and Ann Bancroft of Minnesota"" forms the compound subject of the sentence, and there is no reason to put any punctuation between the two parts of this compound subject.
The best answer is NOT:
A because the comma after ""Liv Arnesen of Norway"" puts unnecessary and inaccurate punctuation between the two parts of the compound subject.
B because the commas after the women's names and after ""of Norway"" are unnecessary and break up the compound subject. If there were commas after both ""of Norway"" and ""of Minnesota,"" this could be a cor­ rect alternative that treats the points of origin as extra information, but with the comma only before the prepositional phrase "" of Minnesota"" and not at the end, the sentence isn't correctly punctuated.
C because, as in B, the commas after the women's names are unnecessary and break up the compound sub­ ject. Additionally, the two prepositional phrases both have commas at the beginning and not at the end, cre­ ating an incorrectly punctuated sentence."

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7. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 29

Explanation

"Question 29. The best answer is B because the phrase ""with a smile,"" as B says, gives a detail that shows the narrator's attitude toward the customers. The best answer is NOT: A because the phrase characterizes only the narrator's attitude and contains no information that differenti­ ates the na rrato r's mood from that of the customers. C because the mention of the na rrator's smile doesn't refer back to anything in the previous paragraph, which focuses on listing some of the things the narrator does to prepare the shop each morning. D because it suggests that nothing would be lost if ""with a smile"" were deleted because this detail is clearly stated elsewhere in the paragraph; however, there is no other mention in the paragraph of the narrator's smile."

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8. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 18

Explanation

"Question 18. The best answer is J because orange is the choice that is most consistent with the description elsewhere in this sentence, namely the ""peach-and-melon-colored ribbons"" in the sky. Both descriptions use color names that also are the names of fruit. The best answer is NOT: F because solar is both redundant-since sun and solar ;efer to the same thing, though one word is a noun and the other word is an adjective-and inconsistent with the other descriptions in the sentence. G because though luminous can accurately be used to describe the sun, this description isn't consistent with the other descriptions in the sentence. H because radiant, meaning ""shining"" or ""glowing,"" could describe the sun but isn't similar to any other description in the sentence."

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9. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 36

Explanation

"Question 36. The best answer is F because separating two independent clauses or sen­ tences that are closely related in content is an appropriate and effective use of a semicolon. The best answer is NOT: G because the comma after rodents creates a comma splice between two independent clauses and because the comma after others separates the subject of a main clause (others) and the verb in that clause, think. H because the lack of any punctuation between the two independent clauses creates a run-together, or fused, sentence. J because although using the coordinating conjunction and would be accept-;1ble here, the apostrophe in others' introduces the plural possessive form, which is not appropriate here."

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10. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 70

Explanation

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11. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 28

Explanation

"Question 28. The best answer is H because Sentence 5 fits most logically and coherently after Sentence 2 and before Sentence 3. Sentence 5 first mentions the flat full of worms to be sold, and Sentence 3 refers to packing those worms into containers of thirteen worms apiece. The best answer is NOT: F because Sentence 5 is illogical in its original location. In this sentence order, the worms aren't brought out until after they have been divided into containers for sale back in Sentence 2. G because although Sentence 5 could logically follow Sentence 1, it isn't logical to have Sentence 2, about herring, mullet, and shrimp, intervene between the introduction of the worms in Sentence 5 and their divi­ sion into containers in Sentence 3. J because it puts Sentence 3 and Sentence 5 adjacent to each other but in the wrong logical order. Sentence 5 needs to precede Sentence 3 for the sake of logic and coherence."

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12. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 72

Explanation

"Question 72. The best answer is G because it uses the correct form and placement of the adverb annually. The best answer is NOT: F because it places the adjective after the noun it would modify rather than in its correct position in front of the noun. H because it places the adverb form annually illogically in front of the noun basis; this phrase, if correct, would use the adjective form and read ""on an annual basis."" J because it uses_ the adverb form annually where the adjective form annual is required."

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13. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 73

Explanation

"Question 73. The best answer is D because of the two often confused words principals and principles, the word that should be used here is principles, meaning fundamental rules. The preposition of is the one that is used most often with principles. The best answer is NOT: A because it uses principals in place of principles. Principals, in its plural form, can refer to important people, including principals of schools, or to sums of money that are invested. It cannot be used to mean the fundamental rules. The preposition of would be correct if used with the word principles. B because it uses principals in place of principles and because the preposition for isn't idiomatic English. C because although the correct word principles is used here, the phrase principles in is less idiomatic than the phrase principles _o f."

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14. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 20

Explanation

"Question 20. The best answer is F becaµse the noun phrase ""the night security guard at the marina"" is a nonrestrictive appositive that must be set off by commas from the noun it refers to, Carney. The best answer is NOT: G because it is missing the comma at the end of the appositive and creates an ambiguous and confusing sen­ tence, with the name Carney seemingly just stuck into the middle of the sentence. H because the comma between Carney and the appositive is missing, again creating a confusing sentence. J because both commas around the appositive are missing, leaving a run-together subject that is confusing."

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15. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 26

Explanation

"Question 26. The best answer is J because it is the only choice that provides a subject and verb and creates a complete sentence. The best answer is NOT: F because it creates a sentence fragment. It has no main clause, but only a subordinate clause that begins with the subordinating conjunction when. G because it creates a sentence fragment like that in F, except with the subordinating conjunction as. H because it, too, creates a sentence fragment; this time there is a participial phrase where there should be a main clause."

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16. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 3

Explanation

"Question 3. The best answer is B because the comma after Runway sets off what follows it as an appositive (a word or phrase that refers to or explains the noun or noun phrase it follows). In this case, ""Blue One Runway"" is explained by the appositive ""a solid-ice airstrip on the Atlantic coast of Antarctica."" The best answer is NOT: A because the additional words it is make a second independent clause rather than the appositive described above, and the comma thus incorrectly joins two independent clauses and creates a comma splice. C because when there is no comma after Runway, there is no punctuation to set off the appositive from the word that it explains or describes, which makes the sentence confusing. D because the word being is unnecessary and not appropriate in standard written English; which is, or nothing at all (as in B), is appropriate at this point."

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17. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 17

Explanation

"Question 17. The best answer is B because it isn't logical to say that the sky becomes col­ orful ""in order that"" (so that) the sun begins to rise. Rather, the colorful sky happens simultane­ ously with the rising sun. So B is the LEAST acceptable alternative to the underlined portion, in which the word as indicates that the events described are simultaneous. The best answer is NOT: A because at the same tim e is a logical alternative to as, meaning simultaneously. C because while is also a logical alternative to as, also meaning happening at the same time. D because the coordinating conjunction and connects the clauses in a logical way, making this a reasonable alternative to as in the underlined portion. The comma is appropriate here after ribbons because the con­ junction joins two independent clauses."

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18. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 35

Explanation

"Question 35. The best answer is B because its structure makes it the clearest choice, unam­ biguously stating that the cattle and horses are sleeping when the bats bite them. The best answer is NOT: A because the sentence is ambiguous in this form; it is unclear whether the cattle and horses or the bats are sleeping. C because this sentence is ambiguous for the same reason as A; they in ""when they are asleep"" could refer either to the bats or to the cattle and horses. D because, even more directly than A and C, this choice implies, illogically, that while the bats are asleep they bite cattle and horses."

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19. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 21

Explanation

"Question 21. The best answer is C because the most logical comparative description of the smell of the shop is ""like the bay itself,"" with this phrase set off by commas. There is no need for a comma anywhere within the phrase. The best answer is NOT: A because, although the first part of the sentence could work (""The shop smells salty, like the bay,""), the rest of the sentence, ""itself and the creaky oak floor is gritty with sand,"" becomes nonsensical. B because there is no reason to set off the reflexive pronoun itself with commas. D because since there is a comma at the beginning of the parenthetical phrase ""like the bay itself,"" there must also be a comma at the end, following itself."

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20. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 54

Explanation

"Question 54. The best answer is G because Besides is the only choice that doesn't refer to time. Customarily, besides is used to set up a contrast with something else, and here there is no contrast. The purpose of the introductory adverb or adverbial phrase is to locate the time at which this event happened, as the underlined portion, That day, does. Therefore, Besides is the LEAST acceptable alternative to That day. The best answer is NOT: F because Not long after refers logically to the time that Savio and others were taken to jail, so it is an acceptable alternative to That day . H because Soon is another logical way to refer to how much time passed before Savio and others were taken to jail. J because Then is also a time word, implying ""next"" or ""soon,"" so it also works as a logical alternative to That day."

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21. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 12

Explanation

"Question 12. The best answer is J because only the coordinating conjunction and is needed here to join the two independent clauses. The best answer is NOT: F because ""and during those last miles of the trip"" is redundant (repetitive of a phrase already in the sen­ tence, ""the final few miles""). G because ""and during those fortunate moments"" refers generally to the wind being with the women for the last several miles, but this phrase is both somewhat redundant and unnecessarily wordy. The implica­ tion that the wind was fortunate because it enabled them to complete their trip and reach their goal is clearly there without being stated this explicitly. · H because the clause ""so the wind carried them and"" is redundant; it merely restates the idea in the words ""the wind was with them."""

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22. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 2

Explanation

"Question 2. The best answer is F because the previous sentence states that the women ""became the first women to climb and ski across the continent of Antarctica,"" which means that they did finish the journey. This is the only choice that clearly indicates that the trip was finished (in 96 days). The best answer is NOT: G because ""achieve"" isn't the same thing as ""complete."" Achieve means to accomplish something or bring it about, but the word doesn't fit in this context; it is not an idiom in standard English to ""achieve a trip."" H because finalized is similar in meaning to complete, but finalize is ordinarily used in the context of com­ pleting a transaction or a business deal and isn't used idiomatically in the context of ""finalizing a trip"" (unless it means finalizing the planning of a trip rather than the making of a trip). Also, ""finalizing"" takes place at the end of something, rather than over the course of 96 days. J because implemented can mean to put a plan into effect, but it omits the information that the trip was necessarily finished or completed and so isn't an appropriate word choice in this context."

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23. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 7

Explanation

"Question 7. The best answer is C because blew is the correct past tense form of the verb that correctly fits into the sentence and is parallel to the other past tense verb in the sentence, sailed. The rest of the paragraph is also written in the past tense. The best answer is NOT: A because had blew is an ungrammatical form of the verb . If it were an accurate past perfect verb form, it would say had blown, using the past participle blown rather than the past tense blew. B because blow is the present tense form of the verb and doesn't fit logically into either the sentence or the paragraph, both of which are written in the past tense. D because blown is the past participle, which cannot be used alone as a main verb but must be part of a verb phrase such as "" had blown"" or ""was blo wn."""

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24. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 10

Explanation

"Question 10. The best answer is F because there is appropriately no punctuation between the two parts of the compound verb ( ""visited ... and replenished"") and the word their is the cor­ rect form of the third-person plural possessive pronoun (the food belonging to them). The best answer is NOT: G because the comma after and both separates the two parts of the compound verb and also is in an ungi:ammatical place following a coordinating conjunction. The correct form of the possessive pronoun is used, however. H because the word there is the adverb meaning a place, rather than the required form of the third-person plural possessive pronoun. J because the comma after scientists also separates the two parts of the compound verb. Additionally, the adverb form there is inappropriately used instead of the plural possessive their."

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25. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 41

Explanation

"Question 41. The best answer is B because to a paragraph about the ways in which bats are useful to humans, this sentence adds another relevant example: bats pollinate plants, including fruits that humans eat. The best answer is NOT: A because the fact that bats can bite when handled doesn 't fit into a paragraph about how bats are useful to humans. C because plants' development of mechan isms to attract bats is interesting information but not relevant at this point in the essay. D because bats' eyes being adapted to poor lighting is information that is n't relevant to the discussion of bats' usefulness to humans."

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26. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 47

Explanation

"Question 47. The best answer is D because the only piece of relevant information given here is the location, Mississippi. The best answer is NOT: A because the fact that Mississippi was the twentieth state adm itted to the Union is irrelevant in this essay. B because Mississippi's being known as the Magnolia State is irrelevant in this essay. C because it is irrelevant in the essay that Mississippi was adm itted to the Union in 1817."

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27. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 65

Explanation

"Question 65. The best answer is B because the word him is the appropriate pronoun to refer to Clemente. The best answer is NOT: A because the reflexive pronoun himself is incorrectly used here. Reflexive pronouns are used when the same person is doing and receiving the action (for example, ""he gave himself a haircut""). In this case, the subject (charity work) is what marked Clemente; he did not ""mark"" himself. C because them is the third-person plural pronoun, which doesn't have a logical antecedent here. D because itself is a reflexive pronoun that should refer to a thing rather than to a person, and therefore does not work grammatically or logically here."

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28. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 14

Explanation

"Question 14. The best answer is J because the adverb prudently expresses the idea that it was prudent, or thoughtful and wise, for the women to call for a ski plane. · The best answer is NOT: F because with the underlined portion in this location before ""to airlift,"" prudently seems to refer to the ski plane as prudent, whereas only living beings can be prudent. G because if the underlined portion is placed before becoming, it creates the phrase ""prudently becoming stranded,"" which makes little sense. Becoming stranded would probably never be prudent. H because if placed before the word stranded, the underlined portion would create the phrase ""becoming prudently stranded,"" which is confusing in basically the same way as G."

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29. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 11

Explanation

"Question 11. The best answer is C because only the present participle climbing is needed to form an adjective phrase that relates back to the subject of the sentence, they. The best answer is NOT: A because the coordinating conjunction and ordinarily connects two similar structures, but this and inap­ propriately connects a main clause with a phrase (""while climbing over a 10,200-foot-high glacier named Titan Dome""), leaving the phrase as a dangling modifier separated from the subject it is supposed to modify. B because adding the words they climbed after the comma creates a second main clause, thus creating a comma splice between two independent clauses. D because although to climb almost works here-the women were outside in order to climb the glacier-it doesn't quite make sense because they weren't in bitter cold for the purpose of climbing the dome; rather, they were outside to climb the dome and it happened to be bitterly cold. C is a much clearer answer; D makes the reader stop to try to figure out what the writer meant."

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30. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 48

Explanation

"Question 48. The best answer is F because there is no need for any punctuation in this underlined portion. The four prepositional phrases in a row in this sentence work together to describe how Savio had spent his time: ""in Mississippi during the Freedom Summer of 1964 before returning to classes that fall."" Sometimes no punctuation is necessary. The best answer is NOT: G because before is confusingly and ungrammatically set off by commas from the preceding and following phrases, becoming kind of a floating word attached to nothing. H because a comma is incorrectly placed between the preposition before and the object of the preposition, returning. J because a semicolon is incorrectly placed between 1964 and before, leaving a sentence fragment following the semicolon."

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31. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 27

Explanation

"Question 27. The best answer is A because it correctly punctuates the three items in a series (""live herring, mullet, and shrimp""). The best answer is NOT: B because live is an adjective rather than an item in a series of nouns; the comma after live confusingly makes live appear to be a fourth item in the series. C because it adds the same inappropriate comma between live and herring as does B. D because the unpunc,tuated words live herring mullet (with a comma at the end of the phrase) are confus­ ing and unclear; the lack of a comma between herring and mullet makes this seem to be one item rather than the first two items in a series."

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32. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 13

Explanation

"Question 13. The best answer is B because although all the sentences are true and could work in the context of this paragraph, the women's main accomplishment, explained in the intro­ ductory paragraph and described throughout the essay, was to cross the Antarctic landmass. So B is the answer that most effectively and specifically emphasizes their accomplishment. The best answer is NOT: A because while it's true that this had been a long journey, this sentence is merely a comment on the trip rather than a description of the women's main accomplishment. C because though the women were no doubt relieved to have safely descended Titan Dome, this additional information about how the women felt does not emphasize their main accomplishment as the question asks. D because although mention of the women's last miles going by quickly is an interesting addition, this sen­ tence fails to refer to the women's main accomplishment as the question asks."

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33. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 15

Explanation

"Question 15. The best answer is A because if the final paragraph were deleted from the essay, the reader would not learn that the winds kept the women from safely skiing the last 460 miles to McMurdo Station. The best answer is NOT: B because the last paragraph doesn't explain why skiing to McMurdo Stati on was part of the women's orig­ inal plan but only states that it was part of the original plan. C because the final paragraph doesn't describe the weather conditions on the Ross Ice Shelf at vari o us times of the year but only mentions the weather conditions at the particular time the women arrived there. D beca use the last paragraph makes no mention of Arnesen and Bancroft's reaction to having to change their plan and be airlifted to McMurdo Station rather than skiing there."

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34. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 34

Explanation

"Question 34. The best answer is J because the colon used in this choice appropriately introduces the list of the three most common misconceptions about bats. The best answer is NOT: F because the semicolon after bats leaves a long sentence fragment (the list of misconceptions about bats). Semicolons are appropriately used between two independent, closely related clauses and not to introduce a list. G because the comma after bats runs the elements of this sentence together in a confusing manner and ddes­ n't appropriately introduce the list of misconceptions. H because the lack of any punctuation after bats makes this sentence confusing by failing to set off the list of misconceptions from the rest of the sentence."

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35. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 6

Explanation

"Question 6. The best answer is J because ""stretching for 1,000 miles"" logically follows and continues the description of ""a high, frozen desert."" The underlined phrase makes sense in this location but not in the other locations. The best answer is NOT: F because although the phrase could be in this location to describe ""the Polar Plateau,"" the phrase ""stretch­ ing for 1,000 miles a high, frozen desert"" makes no logical sense, at least without additional punctuation. G because when the phrase ""stretching for 1,000· miles"" is placed at the beginning of the sentence, it would seem to modify the subject of the sentence ""the adventurers"" and imply that the adventurers stretched for 1,000 miles. · H because when the phrase is placed after the subject (""the adventurers stretching for 1,000 miles""), the sentence once again illogically implies that the adventurers stretched for 1,000 miles."

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36. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 74

Explanation

"Question 74. The best answer is G because it best summarizes the effects of Clemente's generosity discussed in the essay: Clemente inspired ballplayers and improved the lives of young people. The best answer is NOT: F because although it is probably true that the effects of Clemente's generosity continue to spread as more people learn about his life, this choice doesn't summarize any key points made in the essay. H because although we can learn more about Clemente in the Baseball Hall of Fame, this choice fails to summarize any of the points in the essay. J because it is irrelevant to the points made in the essay."

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37. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 46

Explanation

"Question 46. The best answer is G because the question asks for the choice that introduces the sentence by describing the Free Speech Movement and G explains that the Free Speech Move­ ment was composed of ""a coalition of civil rights groups and other political organizations."" The best answer .i s NOT: F because it mentions a different campaign occurring in the United States at this time, but it doesn ' t explain what the Free Speech Movement was. H because it mentions the conflict between the Free Speech Movement and university officials but fails to describe the Free Speech Movement. J because it hints at what caused the formation of the Free Speech Movement but doesn't describe what it was."

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38. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 67

Explanation

"Question 67. The best answer is C because the relative claus e ""that was delivering"" gram­ matically refers to crash, making the sentence illogically say that the plane crash was delivering the relief supp lies. This sentence structure is NOT an acceptable alternative to the underlined por­ tion. The best answer is NOT: A because it is an accepta ble alternative to the underlined portion: the addition of the words he was does not change the meaning nor dis ru pt the structure of the sentence. B because as he was works equally well as while in the sentence structure. D because using the simple past tense (delivered) here produces a grammatically correct and lo gical alterna­ tive to the underlined portion."

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39. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 51

Explanation

"Question 51. The best answer is B because Sentence 4 does return the discussion to Savio himself and shifts away from the emphasis in Sentence 3 on the Free Speech Movement. The best answer is NOT: A because although Sentence 4 is the right place to begin a new paragraph, the resulting paragraph doesn't focus on Savio's childhood but only mentions it briefly. C because although Sentence 5 does discuss Savio's experience 'as a civil rights worker, that fact is noted as just one more step in his life story, not a shift in the focus of the essay. And beginning the new paragraph with Sentence 5 would leave Sentence 4, about Savio's being the son of working-class parents, stuck onto the end of paragraph that discusses the Free Speech Movement rather than at the beginning of a paragraph focused on Savio's life leading up to his involvement with the Free Speech Movement. D because Sentence 5 doesn ' t shift the essay's focus from Savio's childhood to his adult life. One prior sen­ tence (Sentence 4) mentions Savio's childhood, but with this one exception, the entire essay up to this point has already been about Savio's adult life. And, as in C, beginning the new paragraph with Sentence 5 strands Sentence 4."

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40. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 38

Explanation

"Question 38. The best answer is F because the comma after Chiroptera appropriately sets off the descriptive noun phrase that is in apposition to Chiroptera. The best answer is NOT: G because adding the words they are makes the part of the sentence following Chiroptera into an independ­ ent clause, and thus the.comma after Chiroptera creates a comma splice. H because the addition of the words so they are after Chiroptera creates an invalid claim of cause and effect; it isn't logical to say that because bats are called Chiroptera, they are the only mammals that can truly fly. J because the phrase Chiroptera being makes the sentence unclear and confusing."

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41. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 60

Explanation

"Question 60. The best answer is F because this phrase needs no punctuation. There is no reason to follow the adverb then with a comma, to separate the verb taught from its direct object by a comma, or to break up the compound direct object, mathematics and physics, with a comma. The best answer is NOT: G because it contains two inappropriate commas, one after the adverb then and one between the verb (taught) and its direct object (mathematics and physics). H because it has an inappropriate comma between two elements of the compound direct object. J because it has an inappropriate comma after the adverb then."

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42. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 25

Explanation

"Question 25. The best answer is A because straighten is the appropriate present tense verb and it is the appropriate pronoun to refer to the singular noun merchandise. Merchandise is a col­ lective noun, one that may seem to be plural since it can refer to many different things at the same time but that operates as a singular noun in English, as in ""All the merchandise we have is new."" The best answer is NOT: B because the verb straightened is in the past tense, whereas the rest of the paragraph is in the present tense, and the plural pronoun them doesn't refer correctly to the singular noun merchandise. C because the verb straightened, as in B, is inappropriately in the past tense, and those is a plural pronoun instead of a singular one needed to refer to merchandise. D because although straighten is the correct present tense verb, them is an inaccurately used plural pro­ noun."

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43. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 32

Explanation

"Question 32. The best answer is H because it provides the clearest sentence structure. The best answer is NOT: F because its structure makes it ambiguous; it seems to imply that the bats, rather than the ideas, are flawed . G because it is awkward and confusing; it could easily be clarified to ""mistaken ideas about bats."" J because ""people's mistaken ide as they have"" is awkward and redundant."

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44. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 50

Explanation

"Question 50. The best answer is F because the coordinating conjunction and appropriately joins the two elements of the compound object in the sentence: ""a student strike"" and ""a sit-in protest."" The best answer is NOT: G because adding the words it became creates a second main clause that, because of the lack of punctua­ tion, produces a fused, or run-together, sentence. H because the statement created by the addition of H, "" T hat ban led to a student strike and was a sit-in protest,"" doesn't make sense, saying that the ban was a sit-in protest. J because the word than does not join the sentence elements meaningfully; ""That ban led to a student strike than a sit-in protest"" makes no sense."

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45. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 16

Explanation

"Question 16. The best answer is H because the word but sets up a contrast between the first independent clause and the second one, indicating that the narrator arrives thirty minutes earlier than the shop opens. It is grammatically correct to use a coordinating conjunction between two independent clauses. The best answer is NOT: F because having just a comma between the first independent clause and the second one creates a comma splice (two or more complete sentences separated only by a comma). G because though it is often correct to set off a conjunctive adverb such as how ever with commas, when however comes between the two independent clauses in this sentence, it would need either a semicolon before it or else a period b fore it and a capital letter on However to create two separate sentences; the punctuation in G creates a comma splice. J because when there is no punctuation at all following morning, the two independent clauses create a fused, or run-together, sentence."

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46. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 40

Explanation

"Question 40. The best answer is J because it provides present tense main verbs (send and use) that are consistent with the rest of the paragraph. The best answer is NOT: F because participial verb forms (sending and using) result in a sentence fragment. G because the two verb forms sending (participle) and use (present tense) are not parallel and create an ungrammatical sentence. H because it places a past tense verb (sent) in the middle of a paragraph using present tense and because it confusingly uses the infinitive form of the verb to use."

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47. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 42

Explanation

"Question 42. The best answer is J because the sentence that the writer is considering delet­ ing contains specific examples (evidence) of ways that humans are destroying bat habitat, as claimed in the previous sentence-namely, by building highways and housing developments. If the sentence were deleted, this information would be lost. The best answer is NOT: , F because the sentence under consideration identifies how bat habitat is being destroyed; the sentence adds to, rather than distracts from, the message about the possible extinction of some bat species. G because the sentence under consideration contains no direct examples of ways readers can stop the destruction of bat habitats. H because the sentence un-der consideration identifies ways that bat habitat is being destroyed but gives no scientific proof."

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48. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 43

Explanation

"Question 43. The best answer is A because the opening paragraph discusses people's fears of and misconceptions about bats, so the phrase ""though they might seem threatening"" is the choice that best ties the conclusion of the essay to its beginning. The best answer is NOT: B because the phrase "" though they mostly come out at night"" doesn't relate as well as A to the opening of the essay about people's fears and misconceptions about bats. C because the phrase ""though their habitats are vanishing"" doesn't relate to the fears and misconceptions that people have about bats that are mentioned at the beginning of the essay. D because the phrase ""even if we rarely see them"" has little connection to the opening paragraph about people's fears and misconceptions about bats."

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49. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 62

Explanation

"Question 62. The best answer is H because named is the only choice that fits exactly into this context. Clemente was ""named the National League Batting Champion."" The best answer is NOT: F because "" he was entitled the National League Batting Champio n"" makes no sense. Clemente could be entitled to the championship, but he can't be ""entitled the Champion."" G because Clemente could not be ""awarded the National League Champion""; it would make sense to say he was awarded a championship, but not that he was awarded a champion. J because Clemente could not be ""given the Champion"" (though he could be ""given a championship"")."

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50. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 63

Explanation

"Question 63. The best answer is A because the phrase ""in 1971"" is all that is needed to be parallel to the rest of the sentence. The verb in the sentence, named, applies to all three titles that Clemente won (National League Batting Champion, Nation League MVP, and World Series MVP). The best answer is NOT: B because the sentence already says that Clemente was named World Series MVP, so ""was awarded to Clemente"" is redundant and out of parallel with the rest of the sentence. C because the information that the ""World Series MVP award in 1971 went to Clemente"" is redundant and out of parallel. D because the information that the ""World Series MVP award was given to him in 1971"" is redundant and out of parallel."

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51. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 31

Explanation

"Question 31. The best answer is B because its is the correct singular possessive pro.noun to agree with the noun phrase ""The movie Dracula."" The best answer is NOT: J\ because although the word featuring works fine in this context, the word it's is a contraction meaning ""it is"" rather than the singular possessiv e form its that is needed here. C because while based on works in this context, the form of the word its' is incorrect (there is no plural possessive of the singular pronoun its). D because who's is a contraction meaning ""who is,"" which fits neither the meaning Ii.or the sentence struc­ ture here."

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52. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 68

Explanation

"Question 68. The best answer is J because only the word projects is needed here. All the information in the other answers is repetitious. The best answer is NOT: F because ""which were designed to last for years"" pointlessly repeats the idea already expressed by long­ term . G because ""that would help others"" pointlessly repeats the idea already expressed by humanitarian. H because ""of benefit to others"" pointlessly repeats the idea already expressed by humanitarian."

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53. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 37

Explanation

"Question 37. The best answer is C because and is a coordinating conjunction used appro­ priately to connect the first independent clause (""bats are not related to birds"") with the second independent clause (""bats are not rodents either""), and because although sets up the contrast expressed in the subordinate clause that introduces the second independent clause. The best answer is NOT: A because it creates an unclear sentence saying that bats are not related to birds because bats, although they appear mouselike, are not rodents. B because whether doesn't fit logically into this sentence, making the meaning hard to interpret. D because ""seeing as"" is too casual an expression for the context and does not connect the ideas here logi­ cally, and because the lack of the conjunction and creates a comma splice."

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54. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 9

Explanation

"Question 9. The best answer is D because the conjunctive adverb however appropriately sets up a contrast between the first week, when the wind blew daily, and the next five days, when there was very little wind. The best answer is NOT: A because accordingly suggests that one thing is a consequence of another. The wind ceasing to blow isn't a consequence of the wind blowing for a week, but rather a contrast with the previous week. B because otherwise is used to imply that something might be the case under different circumstances (It's raining; otherwise, I would go with you), rather than to set up a contrast with a previous statement. It would not be idiomatic, or sound natural to a native speaker of English, to say, ""For the next five days, oth­ erwise, there was almost no wind."" C because consequently, just like accordingly, implies a cause-and-effect relationship between the wind blowing and the wind ceasing to blow, a relationship that makes no logical sense."

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55. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 59

Explanation

"Question 59. The best answer is B because this is a case where no punctuation is best. The phrase ""as a protest tactic"" is necessary to define the sense in which the sit-in was popularized, and so the phrase should not be set off by commas as merely descriptive information would be. Also, the coordinating conjunction and is necessary to coordinate the compound predicate (popu­ larized and became) in this sentence. The best answer is NOT: A because it sets off the defining phrase ""as a protest tactic"" by commas as though it were unnecess ary information and because it omits the necessar y coordinating conjunction and. C because it has the same problem as A and, by adding the subject it to go with the verb became, creates a comma splice. D because it appropriately leaves out commas around the phrase ""as a protest tactic"" but lacks a conjunc­ tion to connect the second part of the sentence to the first part, leaving a confusing and ungrammatical result."

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56. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 52

Explanation

"Question 52. The best answer is H because compellingly means "" convincingl y, "" so this word choice most clearly suggests that Savio was successful in his appeal to the protesters. Also, this is the only choice that refers to Savio 's effect on the listeners rather than on how he himself spoke or felt. The best answer is NOT: F because insistently would indicate that Savio spoke with persistence, but it doesn't imply that he was suc­ cessful. G because em phatica lly would indicate that Savio spoke forcefully and with lo ts of emphasis, bur it doesn't imply success. J because ex cita bly would indicate that Savio was excited about what he was saying but would nor imply he succeeded in his appeal."

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57. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 55

Explanation

"Question 55. The best answer is D because when the words ban that are inserted into the sentence, it becomes illogical; it would read, ""Days later, the California Board of Regents voted to override the university ban that granted full speech rights on the Berkeley campus."" We know from the first paragraph that the university had restricted free speech activities, so it makes no sense to suggest that the ban had granted full speech rights. This alternative makes no sense in the context of the essay and therefore is the LEAST acceptable. The best answer is NOT: A because it puts a comma after ban and adds a subject (""this action"") to go with the second verb, thus cre­ ating two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction; this choice keeps the original meaning, and so is an acceptable alternative. B because it adds a subject (""an action"") and a relative pronoun, that, to explain what it meant for the Regents to override the ban (""an action that granted full speech rights on the Berkeley campus""). B both maintains the original meaning and is grammatically correct, so it is an acceptable alternative. C because it adds a conjunctive adverb, thus, properly et off by commas, for emphasis."

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58. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 5

Explanation

"Question 5. The best answer is B because the details that are included in Sentence 5 expand on Sentence 4 by explaining what the things are that make the women's supplies weigh so much, and the list of supplies also gives an idea of what sort of things the women used on their trip, as B suggests. The best answer is NOT: A because there is no indication in the essay that each woman, though she pulled 260 pounds on her sled, was limited to this weight. C because there is no indication in the passage that the women brought along more than they thought they would need; even though the sleds were heavy, the implication is that they brought what they needed. D because the list of supplies in Sentence 5 in no way contradicts the information in Sentence 4 about the weight of the sleds. Rather, the information in Sentence 5 expands on what is said in Sentence 4."

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59. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 75

Explanation

"Question 75. The best answer is C because the sentence to be added gives examples of people who have won an award, and Paragraph 5 is about the Roberto Clemente Award.
The best answer is NOT:
A because if this list of people were added at the end of Paragraph 2, they would be illogically listed for winning an award just after we learn that Clemente died in a plane crash.
B because Paragraph 4 is about the establishment of the Roberto Clemente Foundation and there is no mention of an award of any sort, so this would not be a logical place to add a list of award winners.
D because Paragraph 6 summarizes the legacy of Roberto Clemente, but it isn't a reasonable place to list the names of people who won an award not mentioned in this paragraph."

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60. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 39

Explanation

"Question 39. The best answer is C because the verb can ... fly agrees with the plural sub­ ject, mammals. The best answer is NOT: A because the singular verb flies doesn't agree with the plural subject, mammals. B because the singular verb is doesn't agree with the plural subject, mammals. D because the singular verb has doesn't agree with the plural subject, mammals."

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61. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 24

Explanation

"Question 24. The best answer is G because it is the only choice that tells specifically what can be found for sale in the shop, as the question asks: fishing rods, reels, hooks, nets, and fishing line. The best answer is NOT: F because it refers to the equipment for sale only generally as ""the wide variety of fishing equipment."" H because it describes the walls but not the merchandise, referring only to walls that are ""jam-packed with equipment"" but not mentioning anything specific. J because it refers, again generally and not specifically, to ""gear for a range of different purposes."""

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62. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 53

Explanation

"Question 53. The best answer is D because large crowd is the most clear and logical way to say that many people were there. The best answer is NOT: A because countless, meaning ""too many to be counted,"" is usually used with a plural noun, as in ""she has countless friends"" or ""there are countless answers to this question."" It doesn't fit with ""group""-though it would be possible to say ""there were countless people in the group."" B because numerous group doesn't work for the same reason as A; numerous means ""many,"" and it too usually accompanies a plural noun, as in ""he made numerous friends"" or ""they had planned numerous activities."" C because high volume means ""holding a large capacity,"" and it usually refers to a container or a room or a space that can hold a lot of things or people; it isn't used to refer to the size of a group."

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63. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 19

Explanation

"Question 19. The best answer is C because it is the only choice that provides the main sub­ ject and verb for the sentence, ""I watch,"" and avoids creating a dangling modifier that doesn't refer logically to the subject of the sentence. The best answer is NOT: A because by creating a dangling modifier it inaccurately suggests that the seagulls, rather than the narrator, are ""walking toward the docks."" B because it makes the subject of this sentence ""their high-pitched cries,"" and both ""walking toward the doc s"" and ""watching the seagulls"" would have to refer to ""their high-pitched cries."" Since high-pitched cries.can neither walk nor watch, this would not be a logical choice. Once again, the problem is a dangling modifier. D because it creates the same illogical and dangling modifier as in A, implying that the seagulls are walking toward the docks even as they are wheeling and swooping."

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64. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 23

Explanation

"Question 23. The best answer is D because sit is the appropriate present tense plural verb to go with the plural subject bins and to match the other present tense verbs in the paragraph (for example, smells, is, turn, straighten). The best answer is NOT: A because sits is a singular verb, which doesn't agree with the plural subject, bins. B because is sitting is a singular verb rather than a plural one; are sitting would be needed to agree with the subject. Also, there are no other present progressive verbs in the paragraph. C because sets is a singular verb and because it is the wrong verb. Set is a transitive verb (a verb that takes a direct object), as in ""Set the book on the table,"" whereas sit is an intransitive verb (one that doesn't need an object), as in ""The book sits on the table."""

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65. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 64

Explanation

"Question 64. The best answer is J because the comma between impressive and his correctly separates the introductory subordinate clause from the main clause. The best answer is NOT: F because the period between im pressive and His incorrectly punctuates the int roductor y clause beginning with While as though it were a complete sentence, resulting in a sentence fragment, ""While Clemente's achievements in the sport of baseball are impressive ."" G because the subordinator While and the coordinating conjunction but conflict, producing an uncoordi­ nated sentence. H because the subordinator While and the coordinating conjunction and conflict, producing an uncoordi­ nated sentence that is further damaged by the lack of a comma after the introductory subordinate clause."

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66. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 66

Explanation

"Question 66. The best answer is F because ""died in a plane crash"" is the most clear and concise way to give this information to the reader. The best answer is NOT: G because ""perished in a deadly plane crash"" is wordier than necessary and is redundant; if someone per­ ishes in a plane crash, the crash is, by definition, "" deadly."" H because "" fa ta lly perished"" is redundant, with fatally and perished both referrin g to death . J because the phrase ""died in a lethal plane crash"" is redundant."

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67. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 58

Explanation

"Question 58. The best answer is F because the sentence mentions one additional effect of the Free Speech Movement, and therefore also is an appropriate word to use.
The best answer is NOT:
G because there is no reason given in this paragraph for why the Free Speech Movement popularized the sit-in, just a mention of the fact that it did so.
H because however is a word used to set up a contrast with something previously mentioned, and there is no contrast here, just some additional information.
J because the phrase it thus implies that a conclusion is being expressed on the basis of the previous text. But here, the popularization of the sit-in does not follow as a conclusion from the preceding sentence."

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68. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 45

Explanation

"Question 45. The best answer is C because the goal of focusing the essay on the various ways in which people are causing the extinction of some bat species was NOT met in this essay. There is a brief mention of the extinction ofsome species of bats in one paragraph, but the focus of the essay is on the mistaken ideas people have about bats. The best answer is NOT: A because it suggests inaccurately that the goal was met by the essay explaining in detail that humans pose the greatest threat to bats. However, the human threat to bats is only a small part of the essay. B because it suggests inaccurately that the goal was met by the essay's focus on people's misconceptions about bats; but that is a different focus than the extinction of some bat species. D because, although it states correctly that the goal of focusing on the various ways that humans cause the extinction of bats was NOT met in this essay, the reason given is inaccurate. The essay does indicate that not all bat species are at risk of becoming extinct, but there is no mention of the relationship between bats' extinction and their feeding on livestock, and this point is only tangential to the goal."

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69. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 49

Explanation

"Question 49. The best answer is B because the words That ban clearly refer to the ban, mentioned in the previous sentence, that the university had imposed on civil rights groups. This is the most specific choice, while all the other choices are unclear. The best answer is NOT: A because That stuff is vague and is too informal in tone. C because beginning with Which turn s the sentence into a relative clause and so into a sentence fragment rather than a complete sentence. D because there is no clear referent for the pronoun it (nothing that explains exactly what it stands for in the sentence)."

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70. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 69

Explanation

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71. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 56

Explanation

"Question 56. The best answer is H because the sentence should not be added here. If it were added, it would distract readers from the main point of this paragraph, about how the protests led by Savio helped bring about a change in the speech rights policy at the Berkeley campus. It is already clear from the current last sentence in the paragraph that the California Board of Regents makes decisions regarding the Berkeley campus; it isn't necessary, in this con­ text, to know that they are appointed by the governor or that they oversee other universities in California as well. The best answer is NOT: F because it says that the sentence should be added here to provide important background information. But the necessary information is already in the paragraph, and the extra information the sentence provides about the appointment and duties of the California Board of Regents is distracting and not important to this essay. G because it says that the sentence should be added here to explain the makeup of the California Board of Regents. But the sentence does not do so, and even if it did, such an explanation would be irrelevant here. J because although it notes correctly that the sentence should not be added here, the reason it gives isn't accurate. A sentence that gave even more specific information about the California Board of Regents would be even more distracting to the reader."

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72. ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 30

Explanation

"Question 30. The best answer is F because the sentence ""I work at Stoney's Bait & Tackle Shop"" fits logically at the end of Paragraph 1. The first sentence notes that most people in the narrator's town work in a job that has something to do with fishing and that the narrator is no different. The new sentence to be added explains what the narrator means in the first sentence and provides key information that helps all the rest of the essay to make sense. The best answer is NOT: G because the sentence . to be added doesn't fit logically at the end of Paragraph 2, which describes how a typical early morning looks when the narrator is on the way to work. H because the sentence to be added doesn't belong at the end of Paragraph 3, which tells about the night secur ity guard and the narrator greeting each other as one leaves work and the other arrives. For the essay to make sense, the reader needs to know the information in the added sentence at a point ea rlier than this. J because the sentence a lso doesn't fit well at the end of Paragraph 5, where it interrupts the description, given in both Paragraphs 5 and 6, of the many things the narrator does each morning to prepare the shop for its daily business."

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73. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 57

Explanation

"Question 57. The best answer is A because the past tense verb made is necessary to fit in with the rest of the paragraph and the essay, to relate a series of events that happened in the past. The best answer is NOT: B because made for is an expression meaning ""had or caused an effect on"" (for example, ""The storms made for a long night""). Here, the expression is awkward and redundant (""It made for a powerful case for""). C because makes for has the same problems as B and is in the present tense, which isn't appropriate in this paragraph. D because makes is in the present tense, which isn't appropriate in this paragraph."

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74. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 71

Explanation

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75. ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 22

Explanation

"Question 22. The best answer is G because it appropriately divides the sentence into two complete sentences. The best answer is NOT: F because the lack of punctuation creates a fused, or run-together, sentence. H because the comma after lights creates a comma splice. J because, as in F, the lack of punctuation creates a fused, or run-together , sentence."

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