Online English Act Test

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ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 33
- A
- B
- C
- D

About This Quiz

This ONLINE ENGLISH ACT TEST assesses comprehension through a series of passage-based questions. Covering Passage 1, it evaluates understanding and interpretation skills, crucial for ACT readiness.

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2.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 1
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

"Question 1. The best answer is D because the phrase ""Liv Arnesen of Norway and Ann Bancroft of Minnesota"" forms the compound subject of the sentence, and there is no reason to put any punctuation between the two parts of this compound subject.
The best answer is NOT:
A because the comma after ""Liv Arnesen of Norway"" puts unnecessary and inaccurate punctuation between the two parts of the compound subject.
B because the commas after the women's names and after ""of Norway"" are unnecessary and break up the compound subject. If there were commas after both ""of Norway"" and ""of Minnesota,"" this could be a cor rect alternative that treats the points of origin as extra information, but with the comma only before the prepositional phrase "" of Minnesota"" and not at the end, the sentence isn't correctly punctuated.
C because, as in B, the commas after the women's names are unnecessary and break up the compound sub ject. Additionally, the two prepositional phrases both have commas at the beginning and not at the end, cre ating an incorrectly punctuated sentence."

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3.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 4
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 4. The best answer is J because only a comma should be there to separate the introductory participial phrase, ""Hiking unassisted up the 10,0000-foot-high Sygyn Glacier,"" and the main clause, ""each woman pulled a sled that weighed more than 260 pounds."" For clarity, the introductory phrase must be next to, or adjacent to, the subject of the clause that it modifies, ""each woman."" The best answer is NOT: F because the coordinating conjunction and is inappropriately placed between the introductory participial phrase, ""Hiking unassisted up the 10,0000-foot-high Sygyn Glacier,"" and the main clause, ""each woman pulled a sled that weighed more than 260 pounds."" Coordinating conjunctions typically join two like struc tures (two phrases, two main cla uses) rather than a phrase and a clause. G because the subordinating conjunction when makes the main clause into a dependent clause. The result ing combination of introductory phrase and dependent clause is a sentence fragment (an incomplete sen tence). H because the subordinating conjunction while creates a sentence fragment in the same way as in G."

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4.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 8
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 8. The best answer is J because these is the only one of the four responses that, within the context of this sentence, doesn't logically refer to the two women. When these is placed into the sentence, it appears to refer to the strong winds (""The ... strong winds blew daily, and these sailed 210 miles in just five days.""). Therefore this is the LEAST acceptable alternative to the team. The best answer is NOT: F because the two, meaning Arnesen and Bancroft, is an acceptable alternative to the team. G because the names of the two women, Arnesen and Bancroft, are also an acceptable alternative to the team. H because the women also refers to Arnesen and Bancroft and is an acceptable alternative to the team."

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5.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 29
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 29. The best answer is B because the phrase ""with a smile,"" as B says, gives a detail that shows the narrator's attitude toward the customers. The best answer is NOT: A because the phrase characterizes only the narrator's attitude and contains no information that differenti ates the na rrato r's mood from that of the customers. C because the mention of the na rrator's smile doesn't refer back to anything in the previous paragraph, which focuses on listing some of the things the narrator does to prepare the shop each morning. D because it suggests that nothing would be lost if ""with a smile"" were deleted because this detail is clearly stated elsewhere in the paragraph; however, there is no other mention in the paragraph of the narrator's smile."

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6.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 44
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 44. The best answer is F because the last sentence of the essay's first paragraph lists three of the most common misconceptions humans have about bats, and each misconception is the topic of one of the following three paragraphs in the essay. The best answer is NOT: G because the last sentence of the first paragraph is introducing new ideas, not summarizing points made earlier. · H because listing misconceptions about bats, rather than kinds of creatures bats have been compared to, is the purpose of the last sentence of the first paragraph. J because the last sentence of the first paragraph, listing misconceptions about bats, contains no humor."

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7.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 61
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

"Question 61. The best answer is D because the possessive form of baseball (baseball's) is needed so that the phrase means ""one of the most gifted athletes of baseball."" The best answer is NOT: A because the plural baseballs rather than the possessive baseball's is used. B because although the correct form of baseball's is used, there should not be a comma between a noun and the-prepositional phrase that follows it and explains it (""one of baseball's most gifted athletes""). C because the plural baseballs instead of the possessive .basebal/'.s is used and. because an inappropriate comma intervenes between the pronoun one and the adjoining prepositional phrase."

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8.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 18
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 18. The best answer is J because orange is the choice that is most consistent with the description elsewhere in this sentence, namely the ""peach-and-melon-colored ribbons"" in the sky. Both descriptions use color names that also are the names of fruit. The best answer is NOT: F because solar is both redundant-since sun and solar ;efer to the same thing, though one word is a noun and the other word is an adjective-and inconsistent with the other descriptions in the sentence. G because though luminous can accurately be used to describe the sun, this description isn't consistent with the other descriptions in the sentence. H because radiant, meaning ""shining"" or ""glowing,"" could describe the sun but isn't similar to any other description in the sentence."

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9.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 28
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. H

Explanation

"Question 28. The best answer is H because Sentence 5 fits most logically and coherently after Sentence 2 and before Sentence 3. Sentence 5 first mentions the flat full of worms to be sold, and Sentence 3 refers to packing those worms into containers of thirteen worms apiece. The best answer is NOT: F because Sentence 5 is illogical in its original location. In this sentence order, the worms aren't brought out until after they have been divided into containers for sale back in Sentence 2. G because although Sentence 5 could logically follow Sentence 1, it isn't logical to have Sentence 2, about herring, mullet, and shrimp, intervene between the introduction of the worms in Sentence 5 and their divi sion into containers in Sentence 3. J because it puts Sentence 3 and Sentence 5 adjacent to each other but in the wrong logical order. Sentence 5 needs to precede Sentence 3 for the sake of logic and coherence."

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10.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 36
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 36. The best answer is F because separating two independent clauses or sen tences that are closely related in content is an appropriate and effective use of a semicolon. The best answer is NOT: G because the comma after rodents creates a comma splice between two independent clauses and because the comma after others separates the subject of a main clause (others) and the verb in that clause, think. H because the lack of any punctuation between the two independent clauses creates a run-together, or fused, sentence. J because although using the coordinating conjunction and would be accept-;1ble here, the apostrophe in others' introduces the plural possessive form, which is not appropriate here."

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11.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 70
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. H
12.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 3
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 3. The best answer is B because the comma after Runway sets off what follows it as an appositive (a word or phrase that refers to or explains the noun or noun phrase it follows). In this case, ""Blue One Runway"" is explained by the appositive ""a solid-ice airstrip on the Atlantic coast of Antarctica."" The best answer is NOT: A because the additional words it is make a second independent clause rather than the appositive described above, and the comma thus incorrectly joins two independent clauses and creates a comma splice. C because when there is no comma after Runway, there is no punctuation to set off the appositive from the word that it explains or describes, which makes the sentence confusing. D because the word being is unnecessary and not appropriate in standard written English; which is, or nothing at all (as in B), is appropriate at this point."

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13.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 20
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 20. The best answer is F becaµse the noun phrase ""the night security guard at the marina"" is a nonrestrictive appositive that must be set off by commas from the noun it refers to, Carney. The best answer is NOT: G because it is missing the comma at the end of the appositive and creates an ambiguous and confusing sen tence, with the name Carney seemingly just stuck into the middle of the sentence. H because the comma between Carney and the appositive is missing, again creating a confusing sentence. J because both commas around the appositive are missing, leaving a run-together subject that is confusing."

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14.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 26
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 26. The best answer is J because it is the only choice that provides a subject and verb and creates a complete sentence. The best answer is NOT: F because it creates a sentence fragment. It has no main clause, but only a subordinate clause that begins with the subordinating conjunction when. G because it creates a sentence fragment like that in F, except with the subordinating conjunction as. H because it, too, creates a sentence fragment; this time there is a participial phrase where there should be a main clause."

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15.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 72
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. G

Explanation

"Question 72. The best answer is G because it uses the correct form and placement of the adverb annually. The best answer is NOT: F because it places the adjective after the noun it would modify rather than in its correct position in front of the noun. H because it places the adverb form annually illogically in front of the noun basis; this phrase, if correct, would use the adjective form and read ""on an annual basis."" J because it uses_ the adverb form annually where the adjective form annual is required."

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16.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 73
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

"Question 73. The best answer is D because of the two often confused words principals and principles, the word that should be used here is principles, meaning fundamental rules. The preposition of is the one that is used most often with principles. The best answer is NOT: A because it uses principals in place of principles. Principals, in its plural form, can refer to important people, including principals of schools, or to sums of money that are invested. It cannot be used to mean the fundamental rules. The preposition of would be correct if used with the word principles. B because it uses principals in place of principles and because the preposition for isn't idiomatic English. C because although the correct word principles is used here, the phrase principles in is less idiomatic than the phrase principles _o f."

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17.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 17
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 17. The best answer is B because it isn't logical to say that the sky becomes col orful ""in order that"" (so that) the sun begins to rise. Rather, the colorful sky happens simultane ously with the rising sun. So B is the LEAST acceptable alternative to the underlined portion, in which the word as indicates that the events described are simultaneous. The best answer is NOT: A because at the same tim e is a logical alternative to as, meaning simultaneously. C because while is also a logical alternative to as, also meaning happening at the same time. D because the coordinating conjunction and connects the clauses in a logical way, making this a reasonable alternative to as in the underlined portion. The comma is appropriate here after ribbons because the con junction joins two independent clauses."

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18.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 35
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 35. The best answer is B because its structure makes it the clearest choice, unam biguously stating that the cattle and horses are sleeping when the bats bite them. The best answer is NOT: A because the sentence is ambiguous in this form; it is unclear whether the cattle and horses or the bats are sleeping. C because this sentence is ambiguous for the same reason as A; they in ""when they are asleep"" could refer either to the bats or to the cattle and horses. D because, even more directly than A and C, this choice implies, illogically, that while the bats are asleep they bite cattle and horses."

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19.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 21
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

"Question 21. The best answer is C because the most logical comparative description of the smell of the shop is ""like the bay itself,"" with this phrase set off by commas. There is no need for a comma anywhere within the phrase. The best answer is NOT: A because, although the first part of the sentence could work (""The shop smells salty, like the bay,""), the rest of the sentence, ""itself and the creaky oak floor is gritty with sand,"" becomes nonsensical. B because there is no reason to set off the reflexive pronoun itself with commas. D because since there is a comma at the beginning of the parenthetical phrase ""like the bay itself,"" there must also be a comma at the end, following itself."

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20.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 2
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 2. The best answer is F because the previous sentence states that the women ""became the first women to climb and ski across the continent of Antarctica,"" which means that they did finish the journey. This is the only choice that clearly indicates that the trip was finished (in 96 days). The best answer is NOT: G because ""achieve"" isn't the same thing as ""complete."" Achieve means to accomplish something or bring it about, but the word doesn't fit in this context; it is not an idiom in standard English to ""achieve a trip."" H because finalized is similar in meaning to complete, but finalize is ordinarily used in the context of com pleting a transaction or a business deal and isn't used idiomatically in the context of ""finalizing a trip"" (unless it means finalizing the planning of a trip rather than the making of a trip). Also, ""finalizing"" takes place at the end of something, rather than over the course of 96 days. J because implemented can mean to put a plan into effect, but it omits the information that the trip was necessarily finished or completed and so isn't an appropriate word choice in this context."

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21.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 12
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 12. The best answer is J because only the coordinating conjunction and is needed here to join the two independent clauses. The best answer is NOT: F because ""and during those last miles of the trip"" is redundant (repetitive of a phrase already in the sen tence, ""the final few miles""). G because ""and during those fortunate moments"" refers generally to the wind being with the women for the last several miles, but this phrase is both somewhat redundant and unnecessarily wordy. The implica tion that the wind was fortunate because it enabled them to complete their trip and reach their goal is clearly there without being stated this explicitly. · H because the clause ""so the wind carried them and"" is redundant; it merely restates the idea in the words ""the wind was with them."""

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22.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 54
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. G

Explanation

"Question 54. The best answer is G because Besides is the only choice that doesn't refer to time. Customarily, besides is used to set up a contrast with something else, and here there is no contrast. The purpose of the introductory adverb or adverbial phrase is to locate the time at which this event happened, as the underlined portion, That day, does. Therefore, Besides is the LEAST acceptable alternative to That day. The best answer is NOT: F because Not long after refers logically to the time that Savio and others were taken to jail, so it is an acceptable alternative to That day . H because Soon is another logical way to refer to how much time passed before Savio and others were taken to jail. J because Then is also a time word, implying ""next"" or ""soon,"" so it also works as a logical alternative to That day."

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23.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 7
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

"Question 7. The best answer is C because blew is the correct past tense form of the verb that correctly fits into the sentence and is parallel to the other past tense verb in the sentence, sailed. The rest of the paragraph is also written in the past tense. The best answer is NOT: A because had blew is an ungrammatical form of the verb . If it were an accurate past perfect verb form, it would say had blown, using the past participle blown rather than the past tense blew. B because blow is the present tense form of the verb and doesn't fit logically into either the sentence or the paragraph, both of which are written in the past tense. D because blown is the past participle, which cannot be used alone as a main verb but must be part of a verb phrase such as "" had blown"" or ""was blo wn."""

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24.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 10
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 10. The best answer is F because there is appropriately no punctuation between the two parts of the compound verb ( ""visited ... and replenished"") and the word their is the cor rect form of the third-person plural possessive pronoun (the food belonging to them). The best answer is NOT: G because the comma after and both separates the two parts of the compound verb and also is in an ungi:ammatical place following a coordinating conjunction. The correct form of the possessive pronoun is used, however. H because the word there is the adverb meaning a place, rather than the required form of the third-person plural possessive pronoun. J because the comma after scientists also separates the two parts of the compound verb. Additionally, the adverb form there is inappropriately used instead of the plural possessive their."

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25.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 41
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 41. The best answer is B because to a paragraph about the ways in which bats are useful to humans, this sentence adds another relevant example: bats pollinate plants, including fruits that humans eat. The best answer is NOT: A because the fact that bats can bite when handled doesn 't fit into a paragraph about how bats are useful to humans. C because plants' development of mechan isms to attract bats is interesting information but not relevant at this point in the essay. D because bats' eyes being adapted to poor lighting is information that is n't relevant to the discussion of bats' usefulness to humans."

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26.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 47
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

"Question 47. The best answer is D because the only piece of relevant information given here is the location, Mississippi. The best answer is NOT: A because the fact that Mississippi was the twentieth state adm itted to the Union is irrelevant in this essay. B because Mississippi's being known as the Magnolia State is irrelevant in this essay. C because it is irrelevant in the essay that Mississippi was adm itted to the Union in 1817."

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27.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 65
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 65. The best answer is B because the word him is the appropriate pronoun to refer to Clemente. The best answer is NOT: A because the reflexive pronoun himself is incorrectly used here. Reflexive pronouns are used when the same person is doing and receiving the action (for example, ""he gave himself a haircut""). In this case, the subject (charity work) is what marked Clemente; he did not ""mark"" himself. C because them is the third-person plural pronoun, which doesn't have a logical antecedent here. D because itself is a reflexive pronoun that should refer to a thing rather than to a person, and therefore does not work grammatically or logically here."

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28.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 11
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

"Question 11. The best answer is C because only the present participle climbing is needed to form an adjective phrase that relates back to the subject of the sentence, they. The best answer is NOT: A because the coordinating conjunction and ordinarily connects two similar structures, but this and inap propriately connects a main clause with a phrase (""while climbing over a 10,200-foot-high glacier named Titan Dome""), leaving the phrase as a dangling modifier separated from the subject it is supposed to modify. B because adding the words they climbed after the comma creates a second main clause, thus creating a comma splice between two independent clauses. D because although to climb almost works here-the women were outside in order to climb the glacier-it doesn't quite make sense because they weren't in bitter cold for the purpose of climbing the dome; rather, they were outside to climb the dome and it happened to be bitterly cold. C is a much clearer answer; D makes the reader stop to try to figure out what the writer meant."

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29.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 14
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 14. The best answer is J because the adverb prudently expresses the idea that it was prudent, or thoughtful and wise, for the women to call for a ski plane. · The best answer is NOT: F because with the underlined portion in this location before ""to airlift,"" prudently seems to refer to the ski plane as prudent, whereas only living beings can be prudent. G because if the underlined portion is placed before becoming, it creates the phrase ""prudently becoming stranded,"" which makes little sense. Becoming stranded would probably never be prudent. H because if placed before the word stranded, the underlined portion would create the phrase ""becoming prudently stranded,"" which is confusing in basically the same way as G."

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30.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 27
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

"Question 27. The best answer is A because it correctly punctuates the three items in a series (""live herring, mullet, and shrimp""). The best answer is NOT: B because live is an adjective rather than an item in a series of nouns; the comma after live confusingly makes live appear to be a fourth item in the series. C because it adds the same inappropriate comma between live and herring as does B. D because the unpunc,tuated words live herring mullet (with a comma at the end of the phrase) are confus ing and unclear; the lack of a comma between herring and mullet makes this seem to be one item rather than the first two items in a series."

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31.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 48
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 48. The best answer is F because there is no need for any punctuation in this underlined portion. The four prepositional phrases in a row in this sentence work together to describe how Savio had spent his time: ""in Mississippi during the Freedom Summer of 1964 before returning to classes that fall."" Sometimes no punctuation is necessary. The best answer is NOT: G because before is confusingly and ungrammatically set off by commas from the preceding and following phrases, becoming kind of a floating word attached to nothing. H because a comma is incorrectly placed between the preposition before and the object of the preposition, returning. J because a semicolon is incorrectly placed between 1964 and before, leaving a sentence fragment following the semicolon."

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32.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 6
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 6. The best answer is J because ""stretching for 1,000 miles"" logically follows and continues the description of ""a high, frozen desert."" The underlined phrase makes sense in this location but not in the other locations. The best answer is NOT: F because although the phrase could be in this location to describe ""the Polar Plateau,"" the phrase ""stretch ing for 1,000 miles a high, frozen desert"" makes no logical sense, at least without additional punctuation. G because when the phrase ""stretching for 1,000· miles"" is placed at the beginning of the sentence, it would seem to modify the subject of the sentence ""the adventurers"" and imply that the adventurers stretched for 1,000 miles. · H because when the phrase is placed after the subject (""the adventurers stretching for 1,000 miles""), the sentence once again illogically implies that the adventurers stretched for 1,000 miles."

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33.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 13
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 13. The best answer is B because although all the sentences are true and could work in the context of this paragraph, the women's main accomplishment, explained in the intro ductory paragraph and described throughout the essay, was to cross the Antarctic landmass. So B is the answer that most effectively and specifically emphasizes their accomplishment. The best answer is NOT: A because while it's true that this had been a long journey, this sentence is merely a comment on the trip rather than a description of the women's main accomplishment. C because though the women were no doubt relieved to have safely descended Titan Dome, this additional information about how the women felt does not emphasize their main accomplishment as the question asks. D because although mention of the women's last miles going by quickly is an interesting addition, this sen tence fails to refer to the women's main accomplishment as the question asks."

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34.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 1 QUESTION 15
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

"Question 15. The best answer is A because if the final paragraph were deleted from the essay, the reader would not learn that the winds kept the women from safely skiing the last 460 miles to McMurdo Station. The best answer is NOT: B because the last paragraph doesn't explain why skiing to McMurdo Stati on was part of the women's orig inal plan but only states that it was part of the original plan. C because the final paragraph doesn't describe the weather conditions on the Ross Ice Shelf at vari o us times of the year but only mentions the weather conditions at the particular time the women arrived there. D beca use the last paragraph makes no mention of Arnesen and Bancroft's reaction to having to change their plan and be airlifted to McMurdo Station rather than skiing there."

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35.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 34
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 34. The best answer is J because the colon used in this choice appropriately introduces the list of the three most common misconceptions about bats. The best answer is NOT: F because the semicolon after bats leaves a long sentence fragment (the list of misconceptions about bats). Semicolons are appropriately used between two independent, closely related clauses and not to introduce a list. G because the comma after bats runs the elements of this sentence together in a confusing manner and ddes n't appropriately introduce the list of misconceptions. H because the lack of any punctuation after bats makes this sentence confusing by failing to set off the list of misconceptions from the rest of the sentence."

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36.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 46
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. G

Explanation

"Question 46. The best answer is G because the question asks for the choice that introduces the sentence by describing the Free Speech Movement and G explains that the Free Speech Move ment was composed of ""a coalition of civil rights groups and other political organizations."" The best answer .i s NOT: F because it mentions a different campaign occurring in the United States at this time, but it doesn ' t explain what the Free Speech Movement was. H because it mentions the conflict between the Free Speech Movement and university officials but fails to describe the Free Speech Movement. J because it hints at what caused the formation of the Free Speech Movement but doesn't describe what it was."

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37.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 51
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 51. The best answer is B because Sentence 4 does return the discussion to Savio himself and shifts away from the emphasis in Sentence 3 on the Free Speech Movement. The best answer is NOT: A because although Sentence 4 is the right place to begin a new paragraph, the resulting paragraph doesn't focus on Savio's childhood but only mentions it briefly. C because although Sentence 5 does discuss Savio's experience 'as a civil rights worker, that fact is noted as just one more step in his life story, not a shift in the focus of the essay. And beginning the new paragraph with Sentence 5 would leave Sentence 4, about Savio's being the son of working-class parents, stuck onto the end of paragraph that discusses the Free Speech Movement rather than at the beginning of a paragraph focused on Savio's life leading up to his involvement with the Free Speech Movement. D because Sentence 5 doesn ' t shift the essay's focus from Savio's childhood to his adult life. One prior sen tence (Sentence 4) mentions Savio's childhood, but with this one exception, the entire essay up to this point has already been about Savio's adult life. And, as in C, beginning the new paragraph with Sentence 5 strands Sentence 4."

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38.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 67
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

"Question 67. The best answer is C because the relative claus e ""that was delivering"" gram matically refers to crash, making the sentence illogically say that the plane crash was delivering the relief supp lies. This sentence structure is NOT an acceptable alternative to the underlined por tion. The best answer is NOT: A because it is an accepta ble alternative to the underlined portion: the addition of the words he was does not change the meaning nor dis ru pt the structure of the sentence. B because as he was works equally well as while in the sentence structure. D because using the simple past tense (delivered) here produces a grammatically correct and lo gical alterna tive to the underlined portion."

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39.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 5 QUESTION 74
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. G

Explanation

"Question 74. The best answer is G because it best summarizes the effects of Clemente's generosity discussed in the essay: Clemente inspired ballplayers and improved the lives of young people. The best answer is NOT: F because although it is probably true that the effects of Clemente's generosity continue to spread as more people learn about his life, this choice doesn't summarize any key points made in the essay. H because although we can learn more about Clemente in the Baseball Hall of Fame, this choice fails to summarize any of the points in the essay. J because it is irrelevant to the points made in the essay."

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40.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 38
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 38. The best answer is F because the comma after Chiroptera appropriately sets off the descriptive noun phrase that is in apposition to Chiroptera. The best answer is NOT: G because adding the words they are makes the part of the sentence following Chiroptera into an independ ent clause, and thus the.comma after Chiroptera creates a comma splice. H because the addition of the words so they are after Chiroptera creates an invalid claim of cause and effect; it isn't logical to say that because bats are called Chiroptera, they are the only mammals that can truly fly. J because the phrase Chiroptera being makes the sentence unclear and confusing."

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41.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 25
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

"Question 25. The best answer is A because straighten is the appropriate present tense verb and it is the appropriate pronoun to refer to the singular noun merchandise. Merchandise is a col lective noun, one that may seem to be plural since it can refer to many different things at the same time but that operates as a singular noun in English, as in ""All the merchandise we have is new."" The best answer is NOT: B because the verb straightened is in the past tense, whereas the rest of the paragraph is in the present tense, and the plural pronoun them doesn't refer correctly to the singular noun merchandise. C because the verb straightened, as in B, is inappropriately in the past tense, and those is a plural pronoun instead of a singular one needed to refer to merchandise. D because although straighten is the correct present tense verb, them is an inaccurately used plural pro noun."

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42.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 32
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. H

Explanation

"Question 32. The best answer is H because it provides the clearest sentence structure. The best answer is NOT: F because its structure makes it ambiguous; it seems to imply that the bats, rather than the ideas, are flawed . G because it is awkward and confusing; it could easily be clarified to ""mistaken ideas about bats."" J because ""people's mistaken ide as they have"" is awkward and redundant."

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43.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 50
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 50. The best answer is F because the coordinating conjunction and appropriately joins the two elements of the compound object in the sentence: ""a student strike"" and ""a sit-in protest."" The best answer is NOT: G because adding the words it became creates a second main clause that, because of the lack of punctua tion, produces a fused, or run-together, sentence. H because the statement created by the addition of H, "" T hat ban led to a student strike and was a sit-in protest,"" doesn't make sense, saying that the ban was a sit-in protest. J because the word than does not join the sentence elements meaningfully; ""That ban led to a student strike than a sit-in protest"" makes no sense."

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44.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 4 QUESTION 60
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

"Question 60. The best answer is F because this phrase needs no punctuation. There is no reason to follow the adverb then with a comma, to separate the verb taught from its direct object by a comma, or to break up the compound direct object, mathematics and physics, with a comma. The best answer is NOT: G because it contains two inappropriate commas, one after the adverb then and one between the verb (taught) and its direct object (mathematics and physics). H because it has an inappropriate comma between two elements of the compound direct object. J because it has an inappropriate comma after the adverb then."

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45.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 2 QUESTION 16
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. H

Explanation

"Question 16. The best answer is H because the word but sets up a contrast between the first independent clause and the second one, indicating that the narrator arrives thirty minutes earlier than the shop opens. It is grammatically correct to use a coordinating conjunction between two independent clauses. The best answer is NOT: F because having just a comma between the first independent clause and the second one creates a comma splice (two or more complete sentences separated only by a comma). G because though it is often correct to set off a conjunctive adverb such as how ever with commas, when however comes between the two independent clauses in this sentence, it would need either a semicolon before it or else a period b fore it and a capital letter on However to create two separate sentences; the punctuation in G creates a comma splice. J because when there is no punctuation at all following morning, the two independent clauses create a fused, or run-together, sentence."

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46.

ENGLISH TEST/ PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 31
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

"Question 31. The best answer is B because its is the correct singular possessive pro.noun to agree with the noun phrase ""The movie Dracula."" The best answer is NOT: J\ because although the word featuring works fine in this context, the word it's is a contraction meaning ""it is"" rather than the singular possessiv e form its that is needed here. C because while based on works in this context, the form of the word its' is incorrect (there is no plural possessive of the singular pronoun its). D because who's is a contraction meaning ""who is,"" which fits neither the meaning Ii.or the sentence struc ture here."

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47.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 40
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 40. The best answer is J because it provides present tense main verbs (send and use) that are consistent with the rest of the paragraph. The best answer is NOT: F because participial verb forms (sending and using) result in a sentence fragment. G because the two verb forms sending (participle) and use (present tense) are not parallel and create an ungrammatical sentence. H because it places a past tense verb (sent) in the middle of a paragraph using present tense and because it confusingly uses the infinitive form of the verb to use."

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48.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 42
- F
- G
- H
- J
Correct Answer

A. J

Explanation

"Question 42. The best answer is J because the sentence that the writer is considering delet ing contains specific examples (evidence) of ways that humans are destroying bat habitat, as claimed in the previous sentence-namely, by building highways and housing developments. If the sentence were deleted, this information would be lost. The best answer is NOT: , F because the sentence under consideration identifies how bat habitat is being destroyed; the sentence adds to, rather than distracts from, the message about the possible extinction of some bat species. G because the sentence under consideration contains no direct examples of ways readers can stop the destruction of bat habitats. H because the sentence un-der consideration identifies ways that bat habitat is being destroyed but gives no scientific proof."

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49.

ENGLISH TEST / PASSAGE 3 QUESTION 43
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

"Question 43. The best answer is A because the opening paragraph discusses people's fears of and misconceptions about bats, so the phrase ""though they might seem threatening"" is the choice that best ties the conclusion of the essay to its beginning. The best answer is NOT: B because the phrase "" though they mostly come out at night"" doesn't relate as well as A to the opening of the essay about people's fears and misconceptions about bats. C because the phrase ""though their habitats are vanishing"" doesn't relate to the fears and misconceptions that people have about bats that are mentioned at the beginning of the essay. D because the phrase ""even if we rarely see them"" has little connection to the opening paragraph about people's fears and misconceptions about bats."

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