# Mod 120 Theory Exam Part 1

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 162
Questions: 30 | Attempts: 162

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• 1.

### Incision and drainage codes are divided into subcategories according to the:

• A.

Size of the lesion

• B.

Condition for which the procedure is performed

• C.

Depth of the incision

• D.

Amount of drainage

B. Condition for which the procedure is performed
Explanation
Incision and drainage codes are divided into subcategories according to the condition for which the procedure is performed. This means that the codes are categorized based on the specific medical condition or reason for performing the incision and drainage procedure. This categorization helps in accurately coding and billing for the procedure based on the underlying condition being treated.

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• 2.

### When an excision is being performed, the amarginsa refer to the _______ required to adequately excise the lesion based on the physician's judgement:

• A.

Widest diameter

• B.

Narrowest margin

• C.

Square centimeters

• D.

Length

B. Narrowest margin
Explanation
During an excision procedure, the term "amarginsa" refers to the narrowest margin required to adequately remove the lesion based on the physician's judgment. This means that the physician determines the minimum amount of tissue that needs to be excised around the lesion in order to ensure complete removal. The narrowest margin is chosen to minimize the amount of healthy tissue that is removed while still effectively treating the lesion. This approach helps to balance the need for complete removal with the preservation of surrounding healthy tissue.

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• 3.

### The removal of a lesion by transverse incision that did not require sutured closure is reported using codes from which subsection:

• A.

Removal of skin tags

• B.

Biopsy

• C.

Paring or curetting

• D.

Shaving of epidermal or dermal lesions

D. Shaving of epidermal or dermal lesions
Explanation
The correct answer is shaving of epidermal or dermal lesions. This is because shaving of epidermal or dermal lesions involves the removal of a lesion by cutting it off at the skin surface using a sharp instrument, without the need for sutures or closure. This procedure is commonly used for the removal of benign or superficial lesions such as moles or warts.

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• 4.

### Excision defined as full thickness would be through the:

• A.

Epidermis

• B.

Dermis

• C.

Subcutaneous tissue

• D.

Muscle

B. Dermis
Explanation
Excision defined as full thickness refers to the removal of tissue that includes both the epidermis (the outermost layer of the skin) and the dermis (the layer below the epidermis). The subcutaneous tissue is located beneath the dermis and consists of fat and connective tissue. The muscle is located deeper than the subcutaneous tissue. Therefore, in this context, the correct answer is dermis as it accurately describes the depth of the excision.

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• 5.

### Single-layered closure of heavily contaminated wounds that require extensive cleaning or removal of particular matter constitutes what type of repair:

• A.

Simple

• B.

Intermediate

• C.

Complex

• D.

None of the above

B. Intermediate
Explanation
The single-layered closure of heavily contaminated wounds that require extensive cleaning or removal of particular matter constitutes an intermediate type of repair. This is because intermediate repairs involve wounds that are deeper, more extensive, and require more complex techniques compared to simple repairs. In this case, the extensive cleaning and removal of particular matter indicate a higher level of complexity, making it an intermediate repair.

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• 6.

### The repaired wound should be measured or converted to:

• A.

Millimeters

• B.

Centimeters

• C.

Inches

• D.

All of the above

B. Centimeters
Explanation
The repaired wound should be measured or converted to centimeters because centimeters are a commonly used unit of measurement in the medical field. It allows for more precise and accurate measurements compared to inches or millimeters. Additionally, using centimeters provides a standardized measurement system that can be easily understood and communicated among healthcare professionals.

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• 7.

### Using the aRule of Ninesa, one adult leg is what percentage of the human body:

• A.

12%

• B.

14%

• C.

16%

• D.

18%

D. 18%
Explanation
The aRule of Nines is a method used to estimate the percentage of total body surface area affected by burns. According to this rule, each leg is considered to be 18% of the total body surface area. Therefore, the correct answer is 18%.

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• 8.

### Mohs micrographic surgery requires a single physician to act in two integrated but separate and distinct capabilities of a surgeon and a(n):

• A.

• B.

Pathologist

• C.

Assistant surgeon

• D.

None of these

B. Pathologist
Explanation
In Mohs micrographic surgery, a single physician performs the roles of both a surgeon and a pathologist. The surgeon removes layers of skin one at a time and immediately examines them under a microscope to check for cancer cells. If cancer cells are still present, the surgeon continues to remove additional layers until the area is clear of cancer. The pathologist analyzes the tissue samples to confirm the presence of cancer cells and ensure that all cancerous tissue has been removed. Therefore, the correct answer is pathologist.

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• 9.

### Wound closure requiring the use of adhesive strips as the sole repair material should be coded with:

• A.

99024

• B.

Repair code

• C.

99499

• D.

An E/M code

D. An E/M code
• 10.

### What two items are needed to correctly code for local treatment of burns:

• A.

Length and width of burn

• B.

Width and depth of burn

• C.

Percentage of body surface and depth of burn

• D.

Percentage of body surface and width of burn

C. Percentage of body surface and depth of burn
Explanation
To correctly code for local treatment of burns, it is important to consider the percentage of body surface affected by the burn and the depth of the burn. The percentage of body surface helps determine the severity and extent of the burn, while the depth of the burn indicates how deeply the skin and underlying tissues are affected. These two factors are crucial in assessing the appropriate treatment and determining the prognosis for the patient.

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• 11.

### When reporting a staged procedure what modifier is added to the CPT code:

• A.

-25

• B.

-51

• C.

-58

• D.

-76

C. -58
Explanation
When reporting a staged procedure, the modifier -58 is added to the CPT code. This modifier is used to indicate that a procedure or service was planned or anticipated to be more than one session or multiple procedures. It is typically used when a staged procedure is performed during a separate operative session, following the initial procedure. The -58 modifier helps to distinguish between the initial procedure and subsequent procedures performed as part of the staged procedure.

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• 12.

### A physician performs an operative procedure that has a 90-day surgical package. One day 40, the same physician performs an unrelated procedure on the same patient. What modifier would you attach to the CPT code when reporting the second procedure:

• A.

-24

• B.

-25

• C.

-58

• D.

-79

D. -79
Explanation
Modifier -79 is used to indicate an unrelated procedure performed by the same physician during the global period of a previous surgery. In this case, the physician performed a second unrelated procedure on day 40, which falls within the 90-day surgical package of the initial procedure. By appending modifier -79 to the CPT code for the second procedure, it indicates that it is a separate and distinct service from the previous surgery.

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• 13.

### There is no tissue remaining for pathological examination after this method has been used:

• A.

Ablation

• B.

Mohs

• C.

Excision

• D.

Destruction

D. Destruction
Explanation
Destruction refers to a method that completely eliminates or removes the tissue, leaving no remaining tissue for pathological examination. This method could involve techniques such as laser ablation, cryotherapy, or chemical destruction. Unlike ablation, Mohs, and excision, which may still leave some tissue for examination, destruction ensures that no tissue is available for pathological examination.

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• 14.

### Which modifier indicates a significant, separately identifiable E/M service:

• A.

-25

• B.

-51

• C.

-50

• D.

-47

A. -25
Explanation
The modifier -25 is used to indicate a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management (E/M) service that was provided by the same physician on the same day as another procedure or service. This means that the physician performed an E/M service that was distinct from the other procedure or service that was performed on the same day. The use of this modifier allows for proper reimbursement and documentation of the separate E/M service provided.

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• 15.

### To properly code lesion excision, you must know the behavior and the narrowest margin about the lesion, in addition to the following:

• A.

Site, number

• B.

Site, number, diameter

• C.

Status, diameter

• D.

Status, site, number

B. Site, number, diameter
Explanation
To accurately code lesion excision, it is crucial to have information about the site, number, and diameter of the lesion. This is because the site helps identify the specific location of the lesion on the body, the number indicates if there are multiple lesions present, and the diameter provides the size of the lesion. By considering all three factors, healthcare professionals can accurately code the procedure and ensure proper documentation for billing and medical records.

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• 16.

### The method used by the physician to obtain a lesion biopsy depends on which set of factors:

• A.

Size and location

• B.

Location and type

• C.

Malignant/benign

• D.

Size and type

D. Size and type
Explanation
The method used by the physician to obtain a lesion biopsy depends on the size and type of the lesion. The size of the lesion is important because it determines the technique that will be used to obtain the biopsy sample. For smaller lesions, a needle biopsy may be sufficient, while larger lesions may require a surgical biopsy. The type of lesion is also important because different types of lesions may require different biopsy techniques to obtain an accurate diagnosis.

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• 17.

### When coding 3 biopsies of the skin, performed at the same visit, the reporting would be:

• A.

11100x3

• B.

11100x2 and 11101x1

• C.

11100, 11101x2

• D.

None of the above

C. 11100, 11101x2
Explanation
When coding multiple biopsies of the skin performed at the same visit, each biopsy code should be reported separately. In this case, there are a total of 3 biopsies: 2 biopsies with code 11101 and 1 biopsy with code 11100. Therefore, the correct reporting would be 11100, 11101x2.

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• 18.

### Anexcision of a benign lesion from the neck measuring 1.8 cm:

• A.

11422

• B.

11200

• C.

11307

• D.

11622

A. 11422
Explanation
The correct answer is 11422. This code is used for the excision of a benign lesion from the neck measuring 1.8 cm. The code specifically indicates that it is for the excision of a benign lesion, and the measurement of 1.8 cm suggests the size of the lesion being removed.

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• 19.

• A.

11740-TA

• B.

11730-TA

• C.

11720-TA

• D.

11750-TA

D. 11750-TA
• 20.

### The correct code for repairing the following lacerations: 4.2 simple repair of the trunk, 1.3 simple repair of the arm, and 2.8 intermediate repair of the scalp:

• A.

12032, 12001-51, 12002-51

• B.

12004

• C.

12034

• D.

12032, 12002-51

D. 12032, 12002-51
Explanation
The correct answer is 12032, 12002-51. This is because 12032 represents the simple repair of the trunk, 12002-51 represents the intermediate repair of the scalp, and the -51 modifier indicates that multiple procedures were performed. This combination of codes accurately reflects the repair of the specified lacerations on the trunk, arm, and scalp.

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• 21.

### Dermabrasion of the segmental face:

• A.

15780

• B.

15781

• C.

15782

• D.

15783

B. 15781
Explanation
The correct answer, 15781, is most likely the correct code for dermabrasion of the segmental face. Dermabrasion is a procedure that involves removing the top layer of skin to improve the appearance of scars, wrinkles, and other skin imperfections. In this case, the procedure is being performed on the segmental face, which means that only a specific portion of the face is being treated. The other codes listed may be related to dermabrasion procedures, but they do not specifically mention the segmental face, making 15781 the most appropriate choice.

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• 22.

### Destruction of 7 actinic keratoses:

• A.

17004

• B.

17000x7 units

• C.

17000, 17003x7 units

• D.

17000, 17003x6 units

D. 17000, 17003x6 units
Explanation
The correct answer, 17000, 17003x6 units, suggests that there were initially 7 actinic keratoses that were destroyed. The first number, 17000, represents the destruction of one actinic keratosis. The second part, 17003x6 units, indicates that the remaining 6 actinic keratoses were destroyed in a similar manner, with each unit representing the destruction of one keratosis. Therefore, the total destruction of 7 actinic keratoses would be represented by 17000, 17003x6 units.

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• 23.

### Fine needle aspiration of the breast without imaging:

• A.

19000

• B.

19100

• C.

10021

• D.

19030

C. 10021
Explanation
The correct answer is 10021 because it is the only code that specifically refers to fine needle aspiration of the breast without imaging. The other codes either do not mention breast aspiration or include imaging, making them incorrect options.

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• 24.

### Mastectomy that is done for gynecomastia:

• A.

19300

• B.

19301

• C.

19303

• D.

19305

A. 19300
Explanation
The correct answer is 19300 because it is the CPT code for a mastectomy procedure specifically done to treat gynecomastia. Gynecomastia is a condition characterized by the enlargement of breast tissue in males, and a mastectomy is a surgical procedure to remove this excess tissue. Therefore, 19300 is the appropriate code for this specific procedure.

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• 25.

### Excision of three malignant lesions, 2.4-cm lesion of the leg, a 3.2-cm lesion of the back, and a 1.6-cm lesion of the lip:

• A.

11606, 11642

• B.

11604, 11603, 11642

• C.

11606, 11624, 11642

• D.

11603, 11624, 11642

B. 11604, 11603, 11642
Explanation
The correct answer is 11604, 11603, 11642. This is because the three malignant lesions of varying sizes and locations were excised. Code 11604 is used for the excision of a malignant lesion measuring 2.4 cm or less, code 11603 is used for the excision of a malignant lesion measuring 2.5 cm to 4.9 cm, and code 11642 is used for the excision of each additional lesion after the first lesion. Therefore, the correct answer includes the codes for the excision of each individual lesion and the additional lesion code for the third lesion.

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• 26.

### Excision of a pilonidal cyst that was complicated procedure:

• A.

11770

• B.

11771

• C.

11772

• D.

10081

C. 11772
Explanation
The correct answer is 11772 because it is the CPT code specifically for the excision of a pilonidal cyst that was a complicated procedure. The other codes listed do not specifically mention a complicated procedure or pilonidal cyst excision.

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• 27.

### To report an excision of a malignant lesion, the correct range of codes to use would be:

• A.

11600-11646

• B.

11400-11471

• C.

11200-11201

• D.

11100-11101

A. 11600-11646
Explanation
The correct range of codes to use for reporting an excision of a malignant lesion is 11600-11646. These codes specifically pertain to the excision of malignant skin lesions, including the removal of benign (non-cancerous) and malignant (cancerous) lesions. The range of codes covers various types of excisions, such as simple, intermediate, and complex excisions, depending on the size, location, and complexity of the lesion being removed. Therefore, using the codes within this range ensures accurate reporting of the excision procedure for a malignant lesion.

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• 28.

### Removal of 37 skin tags by electrosurgical destruction:

• A.

11200, 11201x3 units

• B.

11201x4 units

• C.

11200x4 units

• D.

None of the above

A. 11200, 11201x3 units
Explanation
The correct answer is 11200, 11201x3 units. This answer indicates that the removal of 37 skin tags was performed using electrosurgical destruction. The code 11200 represents the removal of the first skin tag, and the code 11201 represents the removal of each additional skin tag. The "x3 units" indicates that the code 11201 was used three times to remove three additional skin tags after the first one. Therefore, the correct answer includes the initial removal code (11200) and the additional removal code used three times (11201x3 units) to account for the total of 37 skin tags removed.

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• 29.

### Removal with reinsertation of an implantable contraceptive capsule:

• A.

11976

• B.

11977

• C.

11982

• D.

11983

B. 11977
Explanation
The correct answer is 11977 because it is the only code that specifically mentions "removal with reinsertion" of an implantable contraceptive capsule. The other codes do not mention reinsertion, so they are not applicable in this scenario.

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• 30.

### Full-thickness graft, free, to the axillae, including direct closure of the donor site, 12 sq. cm:

• A.

15240

• B.

15200

• C.

15260

• D.

15340

A. 15240
Explanation
The correct answer is 15240. This code represents a full-thickness graft, which is a type of skin graft that involves removing the full thickness of the skin from one area of the body and transplanting it to another area. In this case, the graft is being done to the axillae (armpit area) and the size of the graft is 12 square centimeters. The code also includes direct closure of the donor site, which means that the area where the skin was taken from is closed after the graft is done.

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• Current Version
• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Mar 05, 2012
Quiz Created by
Cat1970

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