# Mq-9 Pilot Mqf 6 Sq Feb 2016

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This Quiz selects 10 Random questions from the MQF file Take it as many times as you wish to get them down

• 1.

### 1. Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will: Ref: AFI 11 -214 Chap: 3 Para: 3.4.2

• A.

• B.

Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario

• C.

Deconflict flight paths

• D.

All of the above

D. All of the above
Explanation
Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion, cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario, and deconflict flight paths. This means that all aircraft will respond by stating their call sign in a specific order, stop any tactical movements they were engaged in, and ensure that their flight paths do not conflict with each other. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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• 2.

### 2. Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or pound, whichever is higher. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.1

• A.

300

• B.

350

• C.

400

• D.

450

C. 400
Explanation
The correct answer is 400. According to AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.1, normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. The fuel quantity should be established locally or in pounds, whichever is higher.

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• 3.

### 3. Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.3

• A.

200

• B.

250

• C.

300

• D.

350

C. 300
Explanation
Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with 300 pounds of fuel or less. This means that when the aircraft's fuel level reaches 300 pounds or less, the pilot is required to declare an emergency to the controlling agency.

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• 4.

### 4. Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.2

• A.

250

• B.

300

• C.

350

• D.

500

C. 350
Explanation
Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with 350 pounds of fuel or less. This means that if the aircraft's fuel level drops below 350 pounds while on approach to the intended landing or alternate airport, the pilots are required to notify the controlling agency to ensure appropriate action can be taken.

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• 5.

### 5. While airborne, if revised forecast winds for ETA (±1 hour) exceed limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base _________ unless a suitable alternate is available. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.3.2

• A.

Before the forecast time of increased winds

• B.

With sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of one hour (or as directed by local operating procedures)

• C.

With sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours (or as directed by local operating procedures)

• D.

A or B

• E.

A or C

E. A or C
Explanation
If the revised forecast winds for ETA exceed the limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base before the forecast time of increased winds or with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours (or as directed by local operating procedures).

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• 6.

### 6. Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight. If precipitation cannot be avoided, pilots should maximize climb or descent rate to exit potential or actual icing conditions. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.3.2

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Precipitation, such as rain or snow, can have a negative impact on aircraft performance and visibility. Therefore, pilots should try to minimize their exposure to precipitation during all stages of the flight. If it is not possible to avoid precipitation, pilots should aim to climb or descend at the maximum rate possible in order to exit potential or actual icing conditions. This will help to maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft during flight.

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• 7.

### 7. For Air-To-Air Operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following: Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 5 Para: 5.2

• A.

AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules, altitude deconfliction, and FAA Special Request Approval

• B.

Emergency mission/lost link explanation, FAA special request approval, and altitude deconfliction.

• C.

Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules

• D.

None of the above

C. Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules
Explanation
The correct answer is Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules. This is because for Air-To-Air Operations, it is important to coordinate between all involved players to ensure safety and effectiveness. Altitude deconfliction is necessary to avoid any collisions or conflicts in airspace. The emergency mission/lost link explanation is important to communicate any unexpected situations or issues that may arise during the operation. The AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules provide guidelines and regulations for conducting air-to-air training.

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• 8.

### 8. Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported _________ turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2.1

• A.

Light

• B.

Severe

• C.

Moderate

• D.

None of the above

B. Severe
Explanation
Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported severe turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight.

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• 9.

### 9. Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur: Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.1

• A.

Bird strike

• B.

Over-G

• C.

Flight control system anomalies (including uncommanded flight control inputs)

• D.

Engine failure

• E.

All of the above

E. All of the above
Explanation
If any of the listed events occur during a mission, it is necessary to abort the mission. This includes a bird strike, over-G force, flight control system anomalies (such as uncommanded flight control inputs), or engine failure. Regardless of the apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, any of these events pose a significant risk and require the mission to be aborted.

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• 10.

### 10. The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.1

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
According to AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3, the PIC (Pilot in Command) has the ultimate authority to determine the number of people allowed in the GCS (Ground Control Station) during operations, including visitors. Therefore, the statement is true.

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• 11.

### 11. Aircrew will perform operations check at least _________ . These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters and emergency mission status at a minimum. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.9.2.1

• A.

Once every 30 minutes

• B.

Once per hour

• C.

Once every two hours

• D.

Once per shift

B. Once per hour
Explanation
Aircrew will perform operations checks at least once per hour. This includes checking the fuel level, oil level, electrical systems, datalink, engine parameters, and emergency mission status. This frequency ensures that all necessary systems are functioning properly and any potential issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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• 12.

### 12. Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The _ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 2.3.4.3

• A.

Incoming PIC

• B.

Outgoing PIC

• C.

Both A and B

• D.

None of the above

A. Incoming PIC
Explanation
The correct answer is "incoming PIC". According to the given reference, the incoming Pilot in Command (PIC) is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. This means that it is the responsibility of the incoming PIC to assess the situation and make the decision on whether it is safe to change out one crewmember at a time while ensuring continuous monitoring of the aircraft.

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• 13.

### 13. Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the _______ at any time. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.3

• A.

Flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever

• B.

Control stick

• C.

KVM switch

• D.

PSO

A. Flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever
Explanation
Aircrew are instructed not to place items such as checklists, charts, etc. behind the flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever. This is likely because these levers are critical for controlling the aircraft's performance and any obstruction behind them could interfere with their proper operation. By keeping these areas clear, the aircrew can ensure that they have unobstructed access to these controls when needed.

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• 14.

### 14. Due to the lack of visible light, the DTV video will be degraded until approximately 1 hour after sunrise and approximately 1 hour prior to sunset. Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MQ-9 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1.3

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The DTV video will be degraded during the periods of approximately 1 hour after sunrise and 1 hour prior to sunset due to the lack of visible light. This means that the video quality will be lower during these times compared to other times of the day when there is sufficient visible light. The reference provided confirms this information.

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• 15.

• A.

23

• B.

24

• C.

25

• D.

26

D. 26
• 16.

### 16. If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than ______% torque. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.17

• A.

28

• B.

70

• C.

78

• D.

84

• E.

96

B. 70
Explanation
The backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude. In this case, if DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule will not allow a command greater than 70% torque.

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• 17.

### 17. If the selected tank’s solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, the header tank level and pressure will decrease. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.29 Note

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
If the selected tank's solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, it means that the solenoid valve is stuck in the closed position and is not allowing fuel to flow into the header tank. As a result, the fuel level and pressure in the header tank will decrease because no fuel is being supplied to it.

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• 18.

### 18. Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external or internal), excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.21 Caution

• A.

Minimize maneuvering and avoid excessive throttle movements

• B.

Fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may be an indication of a clogged oil vent line

• C.

Oil leaking inside the engine compartment can ignite and burn out of control resulting in loss of aircraft

• D.

All of the above

D. All of the above
Explanation
The given correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all the points mentioned in the options are important to remember when dealing with a decreasing oil level. Minimizing maneuvering and avoiding excessive throttle movements is important to prevent further damage or loss of oil. Fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may indicate a clogged oil vent line, which needs to be addressed. Additionally, oil leaking inside the engine compartment can be dangerous as it can ignite and result in the loss of the aircraft. Therefore, all the mentioned points are important considerations when faced with a decreasing oil level.

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• 19.

### 19. The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical amperage for each device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to _________ times as much when a unit is first turned on. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.2 Caution

• A.

1-2

• B.

1-3

• C.

2-3

• D.

2-4

C. 2-3
Explanation
The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart provides typical amperage values for each device, but when a unit is first turned on, there can be a momentary in-rush current that is up to 2-3 times higher than the typical amperage. This means that when a device is initially powered on, it may draw a significantly higher amount of current than what is typically required for normal operation. This information is important to consider when designing electrical systems and selecting appropriate circuit protection devices to handle these momentary high currents.

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• 20.

### 20. During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.4 Caution

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
During a forced landing, the aircraft may be operating on battery power. Once the landing gear is lowered, it uses up battery life. If the battery life is not sufficient, there may not be enough power left for another full landing gear cycle before successfully touching down. Therefore, the statement is true.

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• 21.

### 21. Which of the following aircraft component draws the highest maximum amps? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-17

• A.

AN/DAS-1

• B.

Lynx SAR

• C.

Pitot Heat

• D.

• E.

Fuel Heater

A. AN/DAS-1
Explanation
The AN/DAS-1 draws the highest maximum amps among the given aircraft components. This information can be found in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 3, Figure 3-17.

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• 22.

### 22. A warning of “Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution range” indicates aileron servo temperature is below -45º C or above ________°C. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-19

• A.

100

• B.

165

• C.

175

• D.

200

C. 175
Explanation
The correct answer is 175. This is indicated by the phrase "above ________°C." The warning of "Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution range" indicates that the aileron servo temperature is below -45°C or above 175°C.

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• 23.

### 23. What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 5 Para: Figure 5-1

• A.

660° C

• B.

675° C

• C.

695° C

• D.

776° C

B. 675° C
Explanation
The maximum allowable EGT in flight is 675°C. This information can be found in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 5, Figure 5-1.

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• 24.

### 24. Forward CG imbalance, even at the most extreme, should not present a flight control problem. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.12

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 6, Paragraph 6.12, even if the forward center of gravity (CG) imbalance is at its most extreme, it should not cause any flight control problems.

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• 25.

### 25. _________ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of turbulence. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.2.1

• A.

VA (maneuvering airspeed)

• B.

VT (threshold speed)

• C.

VNE (never exceed speed)

• D.

VS (stall speed)

A. VA (maneuvering airspeed)
Explanation
According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.2.1, when penetrating areas of turbulence, the maneuvering airspeed (VA) or lower should be used. This is because maneuvering airspeed is the maximum speed at which abrupt control inputs can be made without exceeding the aircraft's structural limits. Using a lower airspeed helps to ensure the safety and stability of the aircraft in turbulent conditions.

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• 26.

### 26. Which item has the greatest drag configuration index? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Figure 3-16

• A.

TAMLG landing gear extended

• B.

Propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case)

• C.

Empty M-299 half rack (2 rails)

• D.

GBU-12

• E.

GBU-38

B. Propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case)
Explanation
The drag configuration index refers to the amount of drag produced by a particular configuration. In this case, the propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case) would have the greatest drag configuration index because it would create the most drag compared to the other items listed.

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• 27.

### 27. In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect aircraft airspeed, while aircraft pitch responds to achieve commanded altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will achieve the fastest possible airspeed, while maintaining commanded altitude. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.2

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting will impact the aircraft's airspeed. The aircraft pitch will then adjust in order to achieve the commanded altitude. If, for some reason, the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will prioritize maintaining the commanded altitude and achieve the fastest possible airspeed. This means that even if the aircraft cannot maintain the desired speed, it will still maintain the commanded altitude.

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• 28.

### 28. In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch in an attempt to achieve the commanded airspeed, and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will depart from the set speed in order to maintain altitude. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.1

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch to achieve the commanded airspeed, and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. However, if the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will prioritize maintaining the set speed over altitude. Therefore, the statement that the aircraft will depart from the set speed in order to maintain altitude is incorrect.

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• 29.

### 29. A _________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Warnings, Cautions, and Notes

• A.

Note

• B.

Warning

• C.

Caution

• D.

B. Warning
Explanation
A warning indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed.

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• 30.

### 30. _________ expresses a provision that is binding. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Shall, Will, Should, and May

• A.

Shall

• B.

Should and May

• C.

Will

• D.

If

A. Shall
Explanation
The term "shall" expresses a provision that is binding. In legal and contractual contexts, "shall" is often used to indicate a mandatory requirement or obligation. It implies that the action or condition described must be followed or fulfilled without exception.

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• 31.

### 31. The EPO switch disconnects __________ from the GCS. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 8 Para: 8.1.4.1.2

• A.

All AC power

• B.

All AC power and UPS output

• C.

UPS output

• D.

None of the above

A. All AC power
Explanation
The EPO switch disconnects all AC power from the GCS. This means that when the EPO switch is activated, it cuts off the supply of alternating current (AC) power to the GCS, ensuring that no AC power is reaching the system. This is an important safety feature that can be used in emergency situations to quickly and completely shut down the power supply to the GCS.

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• 32.

### 32. What does setting GCS Ignition to “Hot” do? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.6.140

• A.

Enables the Engine Start Module (ESM)

• B.

Activates the EFIU

• C.

Activates the electric fuel pumps

• D.

A & C

• E.

All of the above

D. A & C
Explanation
Setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" enables the Engine Start Module (ESM) and activates the electric fuel pumps.

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• 33.

### 33. The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below _____ % it automatically performs an inflight restart. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.10.15

• A.

28

• B.

60

• C.

78

• D.

89.5

• E.

92.5

C. 78
Explanation
The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below 78%, it automatically performs an inflight restart.

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• 34.

### 34. The return manifold receives excess fuel from the ______ tank. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.4

• A.

Aft

• B.

Forward

• C.

Center

• D.

Explanation

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• 35.

### 35. If both electric fuel pumps fail, ________ Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.7 Warning

• A.

The engine will only continue to run until the fuel in the header tank is depleted

• B.

It is not possible to jettison fuel

• C.

The engine will immediately stop

• D.

A and B above

• E.

All of the above

D. A and B above
Explanation
If both electric fuel pumps fail, the engine will only continue to run until the fuel in the header tank is depleted and it is not possible to jettison fuel. This means that once the fuel in the header tank is used up, the engine will no longer receive fuel and will stop running. Additionally, since it is not possible to jettison fuel, there is no way to remove excess weight from the aircraft to prolong the engine's operation. Therefore, both statements A and B above are correct.

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• 36.

### 36. Batteries cannot be charged in flight.(MQ-9 Block 1 only) Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.12.5

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The given answer is true because according to the reference T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, batteries cannot be charged in flight for the MQ-9 Block 1. This means that the batteries of the MQ-9 Block 1 cannot be recharged while the aircraft is in the air.

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• 37.

### 37. The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds ________ KIAS or landing gear is up and . Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1

• A.

121/airspeed hold is on

• B.

110/cruise mode is on

• C.

121/altitude hold is on

• D.

100/the speed lever is full forward

A. 121/airspeed hold is on
• 38.

### 38. Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all _______ safety features are immediately turned off. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.7.2 Caution

• A.

Stall protect

• B.

Cruise mode

• C.

Autopilot

• D.

Engine over speed protection

C. Autopilot
Explanation
When the SAS (Stability Augmentation System) is deactivated during flight, all autopilot safety features are immediately turned off. This means that the automated system that assists in controlling the aircraft's flight path, altitude, and other parameters will no longer be operational. Pilots must be aware of this consequence and be prepared to manually control the aircraft without the assistance of the autopilot.

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• 39.

### 39. With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to _______ up to _______ depending on airspeed. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2

• A.

±5°, ± 40°

• B.

± 10°, ± 40°

• C.

± 10°, ± 60°

• D.

± 15°, ± 60°

B. ± 10°, ± 40°
Explanation
When Cruise Mode is turned on, the control sensitivity is reduced. This means that the aircraft will respond less to control inputs from the pilot. The roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed, meaning that they are adjusted based on the speed of the aircraft. In this case, the scaling limits the roll to a maximum of ±10° and the yaw to a maximum of ±40°, depending on the airspeed. This means that the aircraft will only be able to roll up to 10° and yaw up to 40° when Cruise Mode is activated.

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• 40.

### 40. Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is over _______. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2

• A.

.7 coefficient of lift

• B.

.8 coefficient of lift

• C.

100 KIAS

• D.

110 KIAS

• E.

120 KIAS

D. 110 KIAS
• 41.

### 41. Do not zero trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 50 knot airspeed hold. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.6 Warning

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Zero trims should not be done in flight because it can lead to a 50 knot airspeed hold. This means that if the trims are set to zero during flight, the aircraft's airspeed will remain constant at 50 knots, which can be dangerous and potentially lead to loss of control. This warning is mentioned in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.15.6. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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• 42.

### 42. The ______ feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. It automatically decambers the ailerons when AOA increases above +5º to prevent the wing tips from stalling. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.9

• A.

Airspeed limit override

• B.

Aileron tip stall override

• C.

Stall protect

• D.

Cruise mode

B. Aileron tip stall override
Explanation
The correct answer is "aileron tip stall override". This feature automatically decambers the ailerons when the angle of attack (AOA) increases above +5° in order to prevent the wing tips from stalling. It is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot.

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• 43.

### 43. Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds below ________. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10

• A.

.7 coefficient of lift

• B.

.8 coefficient of lift

• C.

100 KIAS

• D.

110 KIAS

• E.

120 KIAS

E. 120 KIAS
• 44.

### 44. Stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds a threshold value of 7 degrees. Stall protect disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Stall protect is a system that is designed to prevent an aircraft from stalling. In this case, the stall protect system activates when the angle of attack (AOA) exceeds 7 degrees. When this happens, the ruddervators (a combination of rudder and elevators) are deflected downward, which helps to maintain lift and prevent a stall. However, once the AOA drops below 3 degrees, the stall protect system disengages. Therefore, the statement that stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds 7 degrees and disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees is true.

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• 45.

### 45. Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic. For each mission leg during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the waypoint is passed, the settings for the next waypoint go into effect. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.8.2 Note

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic, which means that for each leg of the mission during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the aircraft passes the waypoint, the settings for the next waypoint will go into effect. This ensures that the aircraft follows the programmed flight path and executes the necessary actions at each waypoint.

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• 46.

### 46. Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.15 Caution

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
If "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission, it means that the lost link programming is functioning properly. In this case, the emergency mission and the activation of the lost link programming will not take place because there is no need for it. This is stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.15 Caution, which suggests that the statement is true.

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• 47.

### 47. During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM turns the SPMA to standby? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: Figure 1-81

• A.

Arming time + 10 seconds

• B.

Arming time + 100 seconds

• C.

Arming time + 2 minutes

• D.

Arming time + 3.5 minutes

• E.

Arming time + 4 minutes

D. Arming time + 3.5 minutes
• 48.

### 48. If EGI ________ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.17.1.3

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

3

• D.

4

A. 1
Explanation
If the EGI (Embedded GPS/INS) fails, the Ku SATCOM (Ku-band Satellite Communication) system will not be able to aim properly. This can result in the aircraft losing the Ku-band link and experiencing a lost link situation.

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• 49.

### 49. The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the ______ and ________ , while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called ________ and ________ . Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.1

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

Explanation
The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the uplink and downlink, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called the command link and return link.

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• 50.

### 50. The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.28.2

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging, as stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.28.2. This means that the camera is equipped with a heating element and a fan that work together to keep the lens clear of fog, ensuring that the camera can capture clear images even in conditions where fogging may occur.

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• Mar 22, 2023
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• Apr 23, 2019
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