Mq-9 Pilot Mqf 6 Sq Feb 2016
This Quiz selects 10 Random questions from the MQF file Take it as many times as you wish to get them down
Questions and Answers
- 1.
1. Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will: Ref: AFI 11 -214 Chap: 3 Para: 3.4.2
- A.
Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion
- B.
Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario
- C.
Deconflict flight paths
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion, cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario, and deconflict flight paths. This means that all aircraft will respond by stating their call sign in a specific order, stop any tactical movements they were engaged in, and ensure that their flight paths do not conflict with each other. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 2.
2. Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or pound, whichever is higher. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.1
- A.
300
- B.
350
- C.
400
- D.
450
Correct Answer
C. 400Explanation
The correct answer is 400. According to AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.1, normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. The fuel quantity should be established locally or in pounds, whichever is higher.Rate this question:
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- 3.
3. Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.3
- A.
200
- B.
250
- C.
300
- D.
350
Correct Answer
C. 300Explanation
Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with 300 pounds of fuel or less. This means that when the aircraft's fuel level reaches 300 pounds or less, the pilot is required to declare an emergency to the controlling agency.Rate this question:
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- 4.
4. Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.2
- A.
250
- B.
300
- C.
350
- D.
500
Correct Answer
C. 350Explanation
Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with 350 pounds of fuel or less. This means that if the aircraft's fuel level drops below 350 pounds while on approach to the intended landing or alternate airport, the pilots are required to notify the controlling agency to ensure appropriate action can be taken.Rate this question:
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- 5.
5. While airborne, if revised forecast winds for ETA (±1 hour) exceed limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base _________ unless a suitable alternate is available. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.3.2
- A.
Before the forecast time of increased winds
- B.
With sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of one hour (or as directed by local operating procedures)
- C.
With sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours (or as directed by local operating procedures)
- D.
A or B
- E.
A or C
Correct Answer
E. A or CExplanation
If the revised forecast winds for ETA exceed the limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base before the forecast time of increased winds or with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours (or as directed by local operating procedures).Rate this question:
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- 6.
6. Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight. If precipitation cannot be avoided, pilots should maximize climb or descent rate to exit potential or actual icing conditions. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.3.2
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Precipitation, such as rain or snow, can have a negative impact on aircraft performance and visibility. Therefore, pilots should try to minimize their exposure to precipitation during all stages of the flight. If it is not possible to avoid precipitation, pilots should aim to climb or descend at the maximum rate possible in order to exit potential or actual icing conditions. This will help to maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft during flight.Rate this question:
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- 7.
7. For Air-To-Air Operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following: Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 5 Para: 5.2
- A.
AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules, altitude deconfliction, and FAA Special Request Approval
- B.
Emergency mission/lost link explanation, FAA special request approval, and altitude deconfliction.
- C.
Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training RulesExplanation
The correct answer is Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules. This is because for Air-To-Air Operations, it is important to coordinate between all involved players to ensure safety and effectiveness. Altitude deconfliction is necessary to avoid any collisions or conflicts in airspace. The emergency mission/lost link explanation is important to communicate any unexpected situations or issues that may arise during the operation. The AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules provide guidelines and regulations for conducting air-to-air training.Rate this question:
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- 8.
8. Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported _________ turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2.1
- A.
Light
- B.
Severe
- C.
Moderate
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. SevereExplanation
Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported severe turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight.Rate this question:
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- 9.
9. Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur: Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.1
- A.
Bird strike
- B.
Over-G
- C.
Flight control system anomalies (including uncommanded flight control inputs)
- D.
Engine failure
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
If any of the listed events occur during a mission, it is necessary to abort the mission. This includes a bird strike, over-G force, flight control system anomalies (such as uncommanded flight control inputs), or engine failure. Regardless of the apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, any of these events pose a significant risk and require the mission to be aborted.Rate this question:
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- 10.
10. The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.1
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
According to AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3, the PIC (Pilot in Command) has the ultimate authority to determine the number of people allowed in the GCS (Ground Control Station) during operations, including visitors. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 11.
11. Aircrew will perform operations check at least _________ . These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters and emergency mission status at a minimum. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.9.2.1
- A.
Once every 30 minutes
- B.
Once per hour
- C.
Once every two hours
- D.
Once per shift
Correct Answer
B. Once per hourExplanation
Aircrew will perform operations checks at least once per hour. This includes checking the fuel level, oil level, electrical systems, datalink, engine parameters, and emergency mission status. This frequency ensures that all necessary systems are functioning properly and any potential issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 12.
12. Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The _ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 2.3.4.3
- A.
Incoming PIC
- B.
Outgoing PIC
- C.
Both A and B
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Incoming PICExplanation
The correct answer is "incoming PIC". According to the given reference, the incoming Pilot in Command (PIC) is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. This means that it is the responsibility of the incoming PIC to assess the situation and make the decision on whether it is safe to change out one crewmember at a time while ensuring continuous monitoring of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 13.
13. Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the _______ at any time. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.3
- A.
Flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever
- B.
Control stick
- C.
KVM switch
- D.
PSO
Correct Answer
A. Flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed leverExplanation
Aircrew are instructed not to place items such as checklists, charts, etc. behind the flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever. This is likely because these levers are critical for controlling the aircraft's performance and any obstruction behind them could interfere with their proper operation. By keeping these areas clear, the aircrew can ensure that they have unobstructed access to these controls when needed.Rate this question:
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- 14.
14. Due to the lack of visible light, the DTV video will be degraded until approximately 1 hour after sunrise and approximately 1 hour prior to sunset. Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MQ-9 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1.3
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The DTV video will be degraded during the periods of approximately 1 hour after sunrise and 1 hour prior to sunset due to the lack of visible light. This means that the video quality will be lower during these times compared to other times of the day when there is sufficient visible light. The reference provided confirms this information.Rate this question:
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- 15.
15. The fuel heater will automatically shed when aircraft voltage drops below ________ V. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.12.8.1 Note
- A.
23
- B.
24
- C.
25
- D.
26
Correct Answer
D. 26 -
- 16.
16. If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than ______% torque. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.17
- A.
28
- B.
70
- C.
78
- D.
84
- E.
96
Correct Answer
B. 70Explanation
The backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude. In this case, if DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule will not allow a command greater than 70% torque.Rate this question:
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- 17.
17. If the selected tank’s solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, the header tank level and pressure will decrease. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.29 Note
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If the selected tank's solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, it means that the solenoid valve is stuck in the closed position and is not allowing fuel to flow into the header tank. As a result, the fuel level and pressure in the header tank will decrease because no fuel is being supplied to it.Rate this question:
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- 18.
18. Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external or internal), excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.21 Caution
- A.
Minimize maneuvering and avoid excessive throttle movements
- B.
Fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may be an indication of a clogged oil vent line
- C.
Oil leaking inside the engine compartment can ignite and burn out of control resulting in loss of aircraft
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The given correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all the points mentioned in the options are important to remember when dealing with a decreasing oil level. Minimizing maneuvering and avoiding excessive throttle movements is important to prevent further damage or loss of oil. Fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may indicate a clogged oil vent line, which needs to be addressed. Additionally, oil leaking inside the engine compartment can be dangerous as it can ignite and result in the loss of the aircraft. Therefore, all the mentioned points are important considerations when faced with a decreasing oil level.Rate this question:
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- 19.
19. The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical amperage for each device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to _________ times as much when a unit is first turned on. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.2 Caution
- A.
1-2
- B.
1-3
- C.
2-3
- D.
2-4
Correct Answer
C. 2-3Explanation
The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart provides typical amperage values for each device, but when a unit is first turned on, there can be a momentary in-rush current that is up to 2-3 times higher than the typical amperage. This means that when a device is initially powered on, it may draw a significantly higher amount of current than what is typically required for normal operation. This information is important to consider when designing electrical systems and selecting appropriate circuit protection devices to handle these momentary high currents.Rate this question:
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- 20.
20. During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.4 Caution
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
During a forced landing, the aircraft may be operating on battery power. Once the landing gear is lowered, it uses up battery life. If the battery life is not sufficient, there may not be enough power left for another full landing gear cycle before successfully touching down. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 21.
21. Which of the following aircraft component draws the highest maximum amps? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-17
- A.
AN/DAS-1
- B.
Lynx SAR
- C.
Pitot Heat
- D.
Ku-Band Datalink
- E.
Fuel Heater
Correct Answer
A. AN/DAS-1Explanation
The AN/DAS-1 draws the highest maximum amps among the given aircraft components. This information can be found in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 3, Figure 3-17.Rate this question:
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- 22.
22. A warning of “Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution range” indicates aileron servo temperature is below -45º C or above ________°C. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-19
- A.
100
- B.
165
- C.
175
- D.
200
Correct Answer
C. 175Explanation
The correct answer is 175. This is indicated by the phrase "above ________°C." The warning of "Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution range" indicates that the aileron servo temperature is below -45°C or above 175°C.Rate this question:
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- 23.
23. What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 5 Para: Figure 5-1
- A.
660° C
- B.
675° C
- C.
695° C
- D.
776° C
Correct Answer
B. 675° CExplanation
The maximum allowable EGT in flight is 675°C. This information can be found in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 5, Figure 5-1.Rate this question:
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- 24.
24. Forward CG imbalance, even at the most extreme, should not present a flight control problem. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.12
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 6, Paragraph 6.12, even if the forward center of gravity (CG) imbalance is at its most extreme, it should not cause any flight control problems.Rate this question:
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- 25.
25. _________ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of turbulence. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.2.1
- A.
VA (maneuvering airspeed)
- B.
VT (threshold speed)
- C.
VNE (never exceed speed)
- D.
VS (stall speed)
Correct Answer
A. VA (maneuvering airspeed)Explanation
According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.2.1, when penetrating areas of turbulence, the maneuvering airspeed (VA) or lower should be used. This is because maneuvering airspeed is the maximum speed at which abrupt control inputs can be made without exceeding the aircraft's structural limits. Using a lower airspeed helps to ensure the safety and stability of the aircraft in turbulent conditions.Rate this question:
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- 26.
26. Which item has the greatest drag configuration index? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Figure 3-16
- A.
TAMLG landing gear extended
- B.
Propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case)
- C.
Empty M-299 half rack (2 rails)
- D.
GBU-12
- E.
GBU-38
Correct Answer
B. Propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case)Explanation
The drag configuration index refers to the amount of drag produced by a particular configuration. In this case, the propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case) would have the greatest drag configuration index because it would create the most drag compared to the other items listed.Rate this question:
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- 27.
27. In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect aircraft airspeed, while aircraft pitch responds to achieve commanded altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will achieve the fastest possible airspeed, while maintaining commanded altitude. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.2
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting will impact the aircraft's airspeed. The aircraft pitch will then adjust in order to achieve the commanded altitude. If, for some reason, the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will prioritize maintaining the commanded altitude and achieve the fastest possible airspeed. This means that even if the aircraft cannot maintain the desired speed, it will still maintain the commanded altitude.Rate this question:
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- 28.
28. In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch in an attempt to achieve the commanded airspeed, and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will depart from the set speed in order to maintain altitude. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.1
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch to achieve the commanded airspeed, and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. However, if the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will prioritize maintaining the set speed over altitude. Therefore, the statement that the aircraft will depart from the set speed in order to maintain altitude is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 29.
29. A _________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Warnings, Cautions, and Notes
- A.
Note
- B.
Warning
- C.
Caution
- D.
Advisory
Correct Answer
B. WarningExplanation
A warning indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed.Rate this question:
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- 30.
30. _________ expresses a provision that is binding. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Shall, Will, Should, and May
- A.
Shall
- B.
Should and May
- C.
Will
- D.
If
Correct Answer
A. ShallExplanation
The term "shall" expresses a provision that is binding. In legal and contractual contexts, "shall" is often used to indicate a mandatory requirement or obligation. It implies that the action or condition described must be followed or fulfilled without exception.Rate this question:
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- 31.
31. The EPO switch disconnects __________ from the GCS. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 8 Para: 8.1.4.1.2
- A.
All AC power
- B.
All AC power and UPS output
- C.
UPS output
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. All AC powerExplanation
The EPO switch disconnects all AC power from the GCS. This means that when the EPO switch is activated, it cuts off the supply of alternating current (AC) power to the GCS, ensuring that no AC power is reaching the system. This is an important safety feature that can be used in emergency situations to quickly and completely shut down the power supply to the GCS.Rate this question:
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- 32.
32. What does setting GCS Ignition to “Hot” do? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.6.140
- A.
Enables the Engine Start Module (ESM)
- B.
Activates the EFIU
- C.
Activates the electric fuel pumps
- D.
A & C
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. A & CExplanation
Setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" enables the Engine Start Module (ESM) and activates the electric fuel pumps.Rate this question:
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- 33.
33. The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below _____ % it automatically performs an inflight restart. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.10.15
- A.
28
- B.
60
- C.
78
- D.
89.5
- E.
92.5
Correct Answer
C. 78Explanation
The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below 78%, it automatically performs an inflight restart.Rate this question:
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- 34.
34. The return manifold receives excess fuel from the ______ tank. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.4
- A.
Aft
- B.
Forward
- C.
Center
- D.
Header
Correct Answer
D. HeaderExplanation
The return manifold receives excess fuel from the header tank.Rate this question:
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- 35.
35. If both electric fuel pumps fail, ________ Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.7 Warning
- A.
The engine will only continue to run until the fuel in the header tank is depleted
- B.
It is not possible to jettison fuel
- C.
The engine will immediately stop
- D.
A and B above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. A and B aboveExplanation
If both electric fuel pumps fail, the engine will only continue to run until the fuel in the header tank is depleted and it is not possible to jettison fuel. This means that once the fuel in the header tank is used up, the engine will no longer receive fuel and will stop running. Additionally, since it is not possible to jettison fuel, there is no way to remove excess weight from the aircraft to prolong the engine's operation. Therefore, both statements A and B above are correct.Rate this question:
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- 36.
36. Batteries cannot be charged in flight.(MQ-9 Block 1 only) Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.12.5
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given answer is true because according to the reference T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, batteries cannot be charged in flight for the MQ-9 Block 1. This means that the batteries of the MQ-9 Block 1 cannot be recharged while the aircraft is in the air.Rate this question:
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- 37.
37. The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds ________ KIAS or landing gear is up and . Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1
- A.
121/airspeed hold is on
- B.
110/cruise mode is on
- C.
121/altitude hold is on
- D.
100/the speed lever is full forward
Correct Answer
A. 121/airspeed hold is on -
- 38.
38. Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all _______ safety features are immediately turned off. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.7.2 Caution
- A.
Stall protect
- B.
Cruise mode
- C.
Autopilot
- D.
Engine over speed protection
Correct Answer
C. AutopilotExplanation
When the SAS (Stability Augmentation System) is deactivated during flight, all autopilot safety features are immediately turned off. This means that the automated system that assists in controlling the aircraft's flight path, altitude, and other parameters will no longer be operational. Pilots must be aware of this consequence and be prepared to manually control the aircraft without the assistance of the autopilot.Rate this question:
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- 39.
39. With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to _______ up to _______ depending on airspeed. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2
- A.
±5°, ± 40°
- B.
± 10°, ± 40°
- C.
± 10°, ± 60°
- D.
± 15°, ± 60°
Correct Answer
B. ± 10°, ± 40°Explanation
When Cruise Mode is turned on, the control sensitivity is reduced. This means that the aircraft will respond less to control inputs from the pilot. The roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed, meaning that they are adjusted based on the speed of the aircraft. In this case, the scaling limits the roll to a maximum of ±10° and the yaw to a maximum of ±40°, depending on the airspeed. This means that the aircraft will only be able to roll up to 10° and yaw up to 40° when Cruise Mode is activated.Rate this question:
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- 40.
40. Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is over _______. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2
- A.
.7 coefficient of lift
- B.
.8 coefficient of lift
- C.
100 KIAS
- D.
110 KIAS
- E.
120 KIAS
Correct Answer
D. 110 KIAS -
- 41.
41. Do not zero trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 50 knot airspeed hold. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.6 Warning
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Zero trims should not be done in flight because it can lead to a 50 knot airspeed hold. This means that if the trims are set to zero during flight, the aircraft's airspeed will remain constant at 50 knots, which can be dangerous and potentially lead to loss of control. This warning is mentioned in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.15.6. Therefore, the correct answer is true.Rate this question:
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- 42.
42. The ______ feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. It automatically decambers the ailerons when AOA increases above +5º to prevent the wing tips from stalling. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.9
- A.
Airspeed limit override
- B.
Aileron tip stall override
- C.
Stall protect
- D.
Cruise mode
Correct Answer
B. Aileron tip stall overrideExplanation
The correct answer is "aileron tip stall override". This feature automatically decambers the ailerons when the angle of attack (AOA) increases above +5° in order to prevent the wing tips from stalling. It is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot.Rate this question:
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- 43.
43. Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds below ________. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10
- A.
.7 coefficient of lift
- B.
.8 coefficient of lift
- C.
100 KIAS
- D.
110 KIAS
- E.
120 KIAS
Correct Answer
E. 120 KIAS -
- 44.
44. Stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds a threshold value of 7 degrees. Stall protect disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Stall protect is a system that is designed to prevent an aircraft from stalling. In this case, the stall protect system activates when the angle of attack (AOA) exceeds 7 degrees. When this happens, the ruddervators (a combination of rudder and elevators) are deflected downward, which helps to maintain lift and prevent a stall. However, once the AOA drops below 3 degrees, the stall protect system disengages. Therefore, the statement that stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds 7 degrees and disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees is true.Rate this question:
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- 45.
45. Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic. For each mission leg during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the waypoint is passed, the settings for the next waypoint go into effect. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.8.2 Note
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic, which means that for each leg of the mission during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the aircraft passes the waypoint, the settings for the next waypoint will go into effect. This ensures that the aircraft follows the programmed flight path and executes the necessary actions at each waypoint.Rate this question:
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- 46.
46. Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.15 Caution
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission, it means that the lost link programming is functioning properly. In this case, the emergency mission and the activation of the lost link programming will not take place because there is no need for it. This is stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.15 Caution, which suggests that the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 47.
47. During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM turns the SPMA to standby? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: Figure 1-81
- A.
Arming time + 10 seconds
- B.
Arming time + 100 seconds
- C.
Arming time + 2 minutes
- D.
Arming time + 3.5 minutes
- E.
Arming time + 4 minutes
Correct Answer
D. Arming time + 3.5 minutes -
- 48.
48. If EGI ________ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.17.1.3
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
If the EGI (Embedded GPS/INS) fails, the Ku SATCOM (Ku-band Satellite Communication) system will not be able to aim properly. This can result in the aircraft losing the Ku-band link and experiencing a lost link situation.Rate this question:
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- 49.
49. The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the ______ and ________ , while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called ________ and ________ . Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.1
- A.
Uplink, Downlink, Command Link, Return Link
- B.
Command Link, Return Link, Uplink, Downlink
- C.
Transmit, Receive, Command Link, Return Link
- D.
Command Link, Return Link, Transmit, Receive
Correct Answer
A. Uplink, Downlink, Command Link, Return LinkExplanation
The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the uplink and downlink, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called the command link and return link.Rate this question:
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- 50.
50. The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.28.2
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging, as stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.28.2. This means that the camera is equipped with a heating element and a fan that work together to keep the lens clear of fog, ensuring that the camera can capture clear images even in conditions where fogging may occur.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 23, 2019Quiz Created by
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