Mq-9 Pilot Mqf 6 Sq Feb 2016

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1. 48. If EGI ________ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.17.1.3

Explanation

If the EGI (Embedded GPS/INS) fails, the Ku SATCOM (Ku-band Satellite Communication) system will not be able to aim properly. This can result in the aircraft losing the Ku-band link and experiencing a lost link situation.

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2. 49. The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the ______ and ________ , while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called ________ and ________ . Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.1

Explanation

The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the uplink and downlink, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called the command link and return link.

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3. 50. The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.28.2

Explanation

The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging, as stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.28.2. This means that the camera is equipped with a heating element and a fan that work together to keep the lens clear of fog, ensuring that the camera can capture clear images even in conditions where fogging may occur.

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4. 52. The _________ mode (of the ARC-210) provides continuous scanning of four preset channels. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.31.1.1.8

Explanation

The correct answer is "Scan". According to the given reference, the Scan mode of the ARC-210 provides continuous scanning of four preset channels.

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5. 53. A ________ background (on a VIT data element) indicates an abnormal condition. This generally indicates that the value is out of the normal operating parameters and should be monitored. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1

Explanation

A yellow background on a VIT data element indicates an abnormal condition. This is because a yellow background generally indicates that the value is out of the normal operating parameters and should be monitored. This information is based on T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.

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6. 57. Data from the Preset Configuration window cannot be applied/uploaded if the aircraft airspeed is above ________ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.13 Note

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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7. 6. Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight. If precipitation cannot be avoided, pilots should maximize climb or descent rate to exit potential or actual icing conditions. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.3.2

Explanation

Precipitation, such as rain or snow, can have a negative impact on aircraft performance and visibility. Therefore, pilots should try to minimize their exposure to precipitation during all stages of the flight. If it is not possible to avoid precipitation, pilots should aim to climb or descend at the maximum rate possible in order to exit potential or actual icing conditions. This will help to maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft during flight.

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8. 59. The engine may exceed maximum allowable EGT when disengaging Altitude Hold with the throttle in the _______ position. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.30 Step 8 Caution

Explanation

When disengaging Altitude Hold with the throttle in the Full forward position, there is a possibility that the engine may exceed the maximum allowable Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT). This information can be found in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 2, Paragraph 2.30, Step 8 Caution.

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9. 60. During an MCE gaining handover, the Ku command link is established when: Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27 Step 17

Explanation

During an MCE gaining handover, the Ku command link is established when the "Ku Command Link Lost" warning message disappears. This indicates that the communication link between the MCE and the Ku command has been restored and is functioning properly. The disappearance of the warning message signifies that the handover process has been completed successfully and the system is now able to transmit and receive commands via the Ku command link.

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10. 61. Airspeed, altitude and heading hold should be set to ensure valid parameters are set in the autopilot, in the event an inadvertent uplink is established. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.38 Step 36 Caution

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that setting the airspeed, altitude, and heading hold in the autopilot ensures that valid parameters are established. This is important in case there is an inadvertent uplink, meaning an unintentional communication or data transfer, that could potentially affect the autopilot settings. By having the correct parameters set, the autopilot can continue to operate effectively and maintain the desired airspeed, altitude, and heading.

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11. 62. Upon Successful hand-off it is necessary to update the datalink preset values found in Section 1; otherwise, the aircraft will retain the preset values for the losing GCS. Changing any of the preset values in the HDD will result in all presets values being resent to the aircraft; however, entering an identical in the HDD for any of these items will not update any values. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.38 Step 51 Caution

Explanation

Upon successful hand-off, updating the datalink preset values in Section 1 is necessary to ensure that the aircraft does not retain the preset values for the losing Ground Control Station (GCS). If any of the preset values are changed in the HDD (Handheld Display Device), all preset values will be resent to the aircraft. However, entering an identical value in the HDD for any of these items will not update any values. This information is referenced from T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 2, Paragraph 2.38, Step 51 Caution.

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12. 63. It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens cannot be prevented with the use of nose lens heat. The Nose IR lens heater may be used to clear the nose EO camera. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.41 Step 3 Caution

Explanation

During descent, the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage may become fogged. This fogging cannot be prevented by using nose lens heat. However, the Nose IR lens heater can be used to clear the nose EO camera. This information is stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.41 Step 3 Caution. Therefore, the statement is true.

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13. 64. If power is shut off due to a GCS fire, the UPS batteries will still provide power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68 Step 6

Explanation

According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68 Step 6, if power is shut off due to a GCS fire, the UPS batteries will still provide power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation. This means that even if the power is shut off, the UPS batteries will continue to supply power. Therefore, the statement "If power is shut off due to a GCS fire, the UPS batteries will still provide power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation" is true.

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14. 65. With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link prior to executing the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 3 Para 3.71

Explanation

In the given statement, it is mentioned that in case of a left PSO rack failure or lock-up, the pilot can choose to send the aircraft lost link before following the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist. This means that the pilot has the option to inform about the lost link before taking further actions. The reference provided supports this statement. Therefore, the correct answer is True.

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15. 67. Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control command. This may be caused by ____________. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.34

Explanation

Loss of control may be indicated by a complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control commands. This can be caused by various factors, including airspeed or pitot/static failure, catastrophic angle of attack (AOA) failure below 120 KIAS with stall protect on, SAS failure, autopilot sensor failure, structural failure, or airframe icing. Therefore, all of the above options can contribute to the loss of control in an aircraft.

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16. 68. A stall condition may be indicated by ____________ . Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41

Explanation

A stall condition may be indicated by warnings on the pilot HUD, excessively high AOA, and unexpected loss of altitude. These indicators can help the pilot recognize that the aircraft is approaching or has entered a stall, which is a dangerous condition where the airflow over the wings becomes disrupted and lift is greatly reduced. By recognizing these indicators, the pilot can take appropriate actions to recover from the stall and regain control of the aircraft.

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17. 69. Pitot heat does not guarantee the absence of ice from the pitot/static system. Moisture can freeze in the unheated areas. This malfunction may be indicated by an FCA PPT sensor warning message, abnormal attitude, abnormal airspeed or a combination of any of these. These conditions may result in ____________ .

Explanation

Pitot heat does not guarantee the absence of ice from the pitot/static system. Moisture can still freeze in the unheated areas, leading to various malfunctions. These malfunctions can be indicated by an FCA PPT sensor warning message, abnormal attitude, abnormal airspeed, or a combination of any of these. These conditions can result in aircraft pitch down or oscillations, loss of datalink, or loss of aircraft control. Therefore, all of the above options can occur as a result of this malfunction.

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18. 70. If an aileron or tail servo enters the red region, land as soon as possible. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.38 Step 2 Caution

Explanation

According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.38 Step 2 Caution, if an aileron or tail servo enters the red region, it is necessary to land as soon as possible.

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19. 71. When battery voltage drops below ________ volts, all electrical power may be lost. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11 Step 6 Caution

Explanation

When the battery voltage drops below 22 volts, there is a risk of losing all electrical power. This information is stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.11, Step 6 Caution.

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20. 72. Do not allow the engine to windmill between _______ and ________ percent RPM. Operation within this range may cause engine damage. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11 Step 7 Caution

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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21. 8. Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported _________ turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2.1

Explanation

Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported severe turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight.

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22. 74. ER With aircraft weight greater than 10,500 lbs, maneuvering at a bank angle greater than 30º in level flight, or greater than 25º while climbing will result in the aircraft pitching up and achieving high AOA. Ref: ASI-09069 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.3 Warning

Explanation

Maneuvering an aircraft with a weight greater than 10,500 lbs, at a bank angle greater than 30° in level flight, or greater than 25° while climbing, will cause the aircraft to pitch up and achieve a high angle of attack (AOA). This information is stated in ASI-09069, Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.8.3 as a warning. Therefore, the statement is true.

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23. 9. Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur: Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.1

Explanation

If any of the listed events occur during a mission, it is necessary to abort the mission. This includes a bird strike, over-G force, flight control system anomalies (such as uncommanded flight control inputs), or engine failure. Regardless of the apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, any of these events pose a significant risk and require the mission to be aborted.

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24. 10. The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.1

Explanation

According to AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3, the PIC (Pilot in Command) has the ultimate authority to determine the number of people allowed in the GCS (Ground Control Station) during operations, including visitors. Therefore, the statement is true.

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25. 11. Aircrew will perform operations check at least _________ . These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters and emergency mission status at a minimum. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.9.2.1

Explanation

Aircrew will perform operations checks at least once per hour. This includes checking the fuel level, oil level, electrical systems, datalink, engine parameters, and emergency mission status. This frequency ensures that all necessary systems are functioning properly and any potential issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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26. 12. Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The _ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 2.3.4.3

Explanation

The correct answer is "incoming PIC". According to the given reference, the incoming Pilot in Command (PIC) is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. This means that it is the responsibility of the incoming PIC to assess the situation and make the decision on whether it is safe to change out one crewmember at a time while ensuring continuous monitoring of the aircraft.

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27. 14. Due to the lack of visible light, the DTV video will be degraded until approximately 1 hour after sunrise and approximately 1 hour prior to sunset. Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MQ-9 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1.3

Explanation

The DTV video will be degraded during the periods of approximately 1 hour after sunrise and 1 hour prior to sunset due to the lack of visible light. This means that the video quality will be lower during these times compared to other times of the day when there is sufficient visible light. The reference provided confirms this information.

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28. 15. The fuel heater will automatically shed when aircraft voltage drops below ________ V. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.12.8.1 Note

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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29. 17. If the selected tank's solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, the header tank level and pressure will decrease. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.29 Note

Explanation

If the selected tank's solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, it means that the solenoid valve is stuck in the closed position and is not allowing fuel to flow into the header tank. As a result, the fuel level and pressure in the header tank will decrease because no fuel is being supplied to it.

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30. 1. Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will: Ref: AFI 11 -214 Chap: 3 Para: 3.4.2

Explanation

Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion, cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario, and deconflict flight paths. This means that all aircraft will respond by stating their call sign in a specific order, stop any tactical movements they were engaged in, and ensure that their flight paths do not conflict with each other. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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31. 18. Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external or internal), excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.21 Caution

Explanation

The given correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all the points mentioned in the options are important to remember when dealing with a decreasing oil level. Minimizing maneuvering and avoiding excessive throttle movements is important to prevent further damage or loss of oil. Fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may indicate a clogged oil vent line, which needs to be addressed. Additionally, oil leaking inside the engine compartment can be dangerous as it can ignite and result in the loss of the aircraft. Therefore, all the mentioned points are important considerations when faced with a decreasing oil level.

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32. 19. The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical amperage for each device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to _________ times as much when a unit is first turned on. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.2 Caution

Explanation

The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart provides typical amperage values for each device, but when a unit is first turned on, there can be a momentary in-rush current that is up to 2-3 times higher than the typical amperage. This means that when a device is initially powered on, it may draw a significantly higher amount of current than what is typically required for normal operation. This information is important to consider when designing electrical systems and selecting appropriate circuit protection devices to handle these momentary high currents.

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33. 20. During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.4 Caution

Explanation

During a forced landing, the aircraft may be operating on battery power. Once the landing gear is lowered, it uses up battery life. If the battery life is not sufficient, there may not be enough power left for another full landing gear cycle before successfully touching down. Therefore, the statement is true.

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34. 23. What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 5 Para: Figure 5-1

Explanation

The maximum allowable EGT in flight is 675°C. This information can be found in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 5, Figure 5-1.

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35. 1(1). The Green Route corridor is __________inside WSMR Restricted Airspace perimeter. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.3.4.1

Explanation

The Green Route corridor is located within the WSMR Restricted Airspace perimeter at a distance of 1/2 NM. This information can be found in reference HAFB 11-250, specifically in paragraph A9.3.4.1.

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36. 2(2). Aircraft will not takeoff, land, or fly approaches at HAFB during periods of lightning within ____ NM of the airfield area. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: 2.27.3.2.3

Explanation

During periods of lightning within 5 NM of the airfield area, the aircraft will not takeoff, land, or fly approaches at HAFB. This is stated in HAFB 11-250 Para: 2.27.3.2.3.

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37. 24. Forward CG imbalance, even at the most extreme, should not present a flight control problem. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.12

Explanation

According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 6, Paragraph 6.12, even if the forward center of gravity (CG) imbalance is at its most extreme, it should not cause any flight control problems.

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38. 25. _________ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of turbulence. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.2.1

Explanation

According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.2.1, when penetrating areas of turbulence, the maneuvering airspeed (VA) or lower should be used. This is because maneuvering airspeed is the maximum speed at which abrupt control inputs can be made without exceeding the aircraft's structural limits. Using a lower airspeed helps to ensure the safety and stability of the aircraft in turbulent conditions.

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39. 26. Which item has the greatest drag configuration index? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Figure 3-16

Explanation

The drag configuration index refers to the amount of drag produced by a particular configuration. In this case, the propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case) would have the greatest drag configuration index because it would create the most drag compared to the other items listed.

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40. 27. In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect aircraft airspeed, while aircraft pitch responds to achieve commanded altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will achieve the fastest possible airspeed, while maintaining commanded altitude. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.2

Explanation

In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting will impact the aircraft's airspeed. The aircraft pitch will then adjust in order to achieve the commanded altitude. If, for some reason, the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will prioritize maintaining the commanded altitude and achieve the fastest possible airspeed. This means that even if the aircraft cannot maintain the desired speed, it will still maintain the commanded altitude.

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41. 29. A _________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Warnings, Cautions, and Notes

Explanation

A warning indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed.

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42. 30. _________ expresses a provision that is binding. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Shall, Will, Should, and May

Explanation

The term "shall" expresses a provision that is binding. In legal and contractual contexts, "shall" is often used to indicate a mandatory requirement or obligation. It implies that the action or condition described must be followed or fulfilled without exception.

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43. 4(4). RPA aircrew will deconflict their Emergency Missions over Last Six in 1000' increments. In the event weather and/or airspace preclude use of scheduled orbits, the Ops Sup(s) will coordinate 500' altitude stacks or direct RPA to RTB as required. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.9.8.3

Explanation

According to the given reference, RPA aircrew will deconflict their Emergency Missions over Last Six in 1000' increments. This means that if there is a need to change the altitude due to weather or airspace restrictions, the Operations Supervisor(s) will coordinate either 500' altitude stacks or direct the RPA to return to base (RTB) as necessary. Therefore, the statement "RPA aircrew will deconflict their Emergency Missions over Last Six in 1000' increments" is true.

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44. 6(6). If unable to glide back to HAFB using (Line of Sight) LOS link, avoid populated areas and glide to the nearest _______, ________ site. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.9.7

Explanation

If unable to glide back to HAFB using LOS link, the recommended action is to avoid populated areas and glide to the nearest uninhabited, undeveloped site. This means that the site should not have any human population and should also not have any existing infrastructure or development. This ensures that there is minimal risk to human life and property in case of an emergency landing.

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45. 33. The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below _____ % it automatically performs an inflight restart. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.10.15

Explanation

The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below 78%, it automatically performs an inflight restart.

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46. 88. DC+DDBA In the event of a "DCPS# over current" warning crews should turn off unnecessary equipment and refer to the DDBA FAILURE (Section 3) checklist. Ref: ASI-11164 Chap: 3 Figure 3-9

Explanation

In the event of a "DCPS over current" warning, crews should turn off unnecessary equipment and refer to the DDBA FAILURE (Section 3) checklist. This means that the statement "DC+DDBA In the event of a 'DCPS over current' warning crews should turn off unnecessary equipment and refer to the DDBA FAILURE (Section 3) checklist" is true.

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47. 34. The return manifold receives excess fuel from the ______ tank. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.4

Explanation

The return manifold receives excess fuel from the header tank.

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48. 35. If both electric fuel pumps fail, ________ Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.7 Warning

Explanation

If both electric fuel pumps fail, the engine will only continue to run until the fuel in the header tank is depleted and it is not possible to jettison fuel. This means that once the fuel in the header tank is used up, the engine will no longer receive fuel and will stop running. Additionally, since it is not possible to jettison fuel, there is no way to remove excess weight from the aircraft to prolong the engine's operation. Therefore, both statements A and B above are correct.

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49. 36. Batteries cannot be charged in flight.(MQ-9 Block 1 only) Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.12.5

Explanation

The given answer is true because according to the reference T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, batteries cannot be charged in flight for the MQ-9 Block 1. This means that the batteries of the MQ-9 Block 1 cannot be recharged while the aircraft is in the air.

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50. 8(8). The CRM program goals are: Ref: AFI 11-290 Para: 1.1

Explanation

The CRM program goals are to maximize operational effectiveness and combat capability, as well as to preserve personnel and material resources.

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51. 39. With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to _______ up to _______ depending on airspeed. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2

Explanation

When Cruise Mode is turned on, the control sensitivity is reduced. This means that the aircraft will respond less to control inputs from the pilot. The roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed, meaning that they are adjusted based on the speed of the aircraft. In this case, the scaling limits the roll to a maximum of ±10° and the yaw to a maximum of ±40°, depending on the airspeed. This means that the aircraft will only be able to roll up to 10° and yaw up to 40° when Cruise Mode is activated.

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52. 10(10). When must RPA crews make an advisory call on RPA Common relating to C-band transmitters? Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.3.2.2.1

Explanation

According to the reference provided, HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.3.2.2.1, RPA crews must make an advisory call on RPA Common relating to C-band transmitters prior to applying power to the GDT, prior to changing C-Band frequencies in use, and after removing power from the GDT. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above".

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53. 11(11). In the event of a loss of thrust or engine failure that prevents the aircraft from crossing the Valmont corridor at or above FL180, crews should not attempt to glide back to Holloman. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.9.1

Explanation

According to the reference HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.9.1, in the event of a loss of thrust or engine failure that prevents the aircraft from crossing the Valmont corridor at or above FL180, crews should attempt to glide back to Holloman. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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54. 43. Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds below ________. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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55. 44. Stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds a threshold value of 7 degrees. Stall protect disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10

Explanation

Stall protect is a system that is designed to prevent an aircraft from stalling. In this case, the stall protect system activates when the angle of attack (AOA) exceeds 7 degrees. When this happens, the ruddervators (a combination of rudder and elevators) are deflected downward, which helps to maintain lift and prevent a stall. However, once the AOA drops below 3 degrees, the stall protect system disengages. Therefore, the statement that stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds 7 degrees and disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees is true.

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56. 45. Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic. For each mission leg during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the waypoint is passed, the settings for the next waypoint go into effect. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.8.2 Note

Explanation

Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic, which means that for each leg of the mission during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the aircraft passes the waypoint, the settings for the next waypoint will go into effect. This ensures that the aircraft follows the programmed flight path and executes the necessary actions at each waypoint.

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57. 46. Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.15 Caution

Explanation

If "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission, it means that the lost link programming is functioning properly. In this case, the emergency mission and the activation of the lost link programming will not take place because there is no need for it. This is stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.15 Caution, which suggests that the statement is true.

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58. 54. A ____________ background (on the VIT data element) indicates a warning condition. This generally indicates the value is in a critical condition and will require corrective action. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1

Explanation

A red background on the VIT data element indicates a warning condition. This means that the value is in a critical condition and will require corrective action.

Submit
59. 56. For an operational or emergency mission, when LOS TX #1 Inhibit is selected On, TX1 will be prevented from operating during that mission leg. What else is true about LOS TX Inhibit On? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: Figure 9-132

Explanation

The correct answer states that when LOS TX Inhibit is selected On, it overrides any other programming and prevents the transmitter from operating under any circumstances. This means that regardless of any other programming or triggers, the transmitter will not be able to operate during that mission leg.

Submit
60. 3. Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.3

Explanation

Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with 300 pounds of fuel or less. This means that when the aircraft's fuel level reaches 300 pounds or less, the pilot is required to declare an emergency to the controlling agency.

Submit
61. 7(7). CRM skills will be: Ref: AFI 11-290 Para: 2.3

Explanation

CRM skills will be integrated into flight briefings and debriefings, meaning that pilots will discuss and analyze their CRM performance before and after each flight. CRM skills will also be integrated into training syllabi, indicating that CRM training will be included in the curriculum for pilots. Additionally, CRM skills will be evaluated during initial qualification and recurring evaluations, suggesting that pilots will be assessed on their CRM abilities throughout their career. Therefore, all of the options provided (integrated into flight briefings and debriefings, integrated into training syllabi, evaluated during initial qualification and recurring evaluations) are correct.

Submit
62. 38. Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all _______ safety features are immediately turned off. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.7.2 Caution

Explanation

When the SAS (Stability Augmentation System) is deactivated during flight, all autopilot safety features are immediately turned off. This means that the automated system that assists in controlling the aircraft's flight path, altitude, and other parameters will no longer be operational. Pilots must be aware of this consequence and be prepared to manually control the aircraft without the assistance of the autopilot.

Submit
63. 42. The ______ feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. It automatically decambers the ailerons when AOA increases above +5º to prevent the wing tips from stalling. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.9

Explanation

The correct answer is "aileron tip stall override". This feature automatically decambers the ailerons when the angle of attack (AOA) increases above +5° in order to prevent the wing tips from stalling. It is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot.

Submit
64. 12(12). Who is responsible for real-time frequency deconfliction of their aircraft? Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.3.2

Explanation

The RPA Ops Sup is responsible for real-time frequency deconfliction of their aircraft. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that there are no conflicts or interference with the frequencies being used by their aircraft during real-time operations. This is an important task as it helps to maintain clear and effective communication between the aircraft and the ground control.

Submit
65. 13(13). RPA aircraft are to maintain a minimum altitude of approximately _______ while operating in the vicinity of the THAAD radar sites. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: 3.4.1.13

Explanation

According to the given reference, RPA aircraft are required to maintain a minimum altitude of approximately 13,000 feet MSL (Mean Sea Level) while operating in the vicinity of the THAAD radar sites.

Submit
66. 51. The ice detector signal stays on for ________ seconds after the ice has cleared. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.31

Explanation

According to T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.31, the ice detector signal stays on for 60 seconds after the ice has cleared.

Submit
67. 4. Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.2

Explanation

Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with 350 pounds of fuel or less. This means that if the aircraft's fuel level drops below 350 pounds while on approach to the intended landing or alternate airport, the pilots are required to notify the controlling agency to ensure appropriate action can be taken.

Submit
68. 75. ER The maximum additional fuel capacity (of an ER tank) is ________ lbs per tank. Ref: ASI-09069 Chap: 1 Para: 1.4.9.1

Explanation

The maximum additional fuel capacity of an ER tank is 1350 lbs per tank. This information can be found in ASI-09069, Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.4.9.1.

Submit
69. 31. The EPO switch disconnects __________ from the GCS. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 8 Para: 8.1.4.1.2

Explanation

The EPO switch disconnects all AC power from the GCS. This means that when the EPO switch is activated, it cuts off the supply of alternating current (AC) power to the GCS, ensuring that no AC power is reaching the system. This is an important safety feature that can be used in emergency situations to quickly and completely shut down the power supply to the GCS.

Submit
70. 87. The aircraft is equipped with 10 batteries (5 batteries for each power bus) with a total rating of 140 amperehours. At a minimum system amperage of about 60 amperes, the batteries provide enough voltage for approximately ___________ minutes of flight time. Ref: ASI-11164 Chap: 3 Para: 3.5.2

Explanation

The aircraft is equipped with 10 batteries, with a total rating of 140 ampere-hours. At a minimum system amperage of about 60 amperes, the batteries provide enough voltage for approximately 118 minutes of flight time.

Submit
71. 66. If no emergency mission is loaded on PSO 2, then as soon as the rack switch button is pressed, the emergency mission start point will immediately change to ___________ regardless of what the PSO-1 tracker display shows. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.71 Step 7 Caution

Explanation

The correct answer is "waypoint 1". According to the given reference, when no emergency mission is loaded on PSO 2, pressing the rack switch button will cause the emergency mission start point to immediately change to waypoint 1, regardless of what the PSO-1 tracker display shows.

Submit
72. 13. Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the _______ at any time. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.3

Explanation

Aircrew are instructed not to place items such as checklists, charts, etc. behind the flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever. This is likely because these levers are critical for controlling the aircraft's performance and any obstruction behind them could interfere with their proper operation. By keeping these areas clear, the aircrew can ensure that they have unobstructed access to these controls when needed.

Submit
73. 21. Which of the following aircraft component draws the highest maximum amps? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-17

Explanation

The AN/DAS-1 draws the highest maximum amps among the given aircraft components. This information can be found in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1, Chapter 3, Figure 3-17.

Submit
74. 89. DC+DDBA DDBA temperature is displayed via on ___________ VIT 8. Ref: ASI-11164 Chap: 1 Para: 1.2.2

Explanation

The correct answer is "PMA Temp". According to the given reference, in ASI-11164 Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.2.2, the DDBA temperature is displayed via the PMA Temp on VIT 8.

Submit
75. 2. Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or pound, whichever is higher. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.1

Explanation

The correct answer is 400. According to AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.1, normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. The fuel quantity should be established locally or in pounds, whichever is higher.

Submit
76. 5(5). Prior to applying power to the GDT, aircrew will establish reasonable certainty that no RPAs are established inside the perch through 500ft climb out, (using Zeus) and will make an advisory radio call on _______________ Frequency. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.3.2.2.1

Explanation

The correct answer is "RPA Common." According to the given reference, aircrew should make an advisory radio call on the RPA Common frequency prior to applying power to the GDT.

Submit
77. 5. While airborne, if revised forecast winds for ETA (±1 hour) exceed limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base _________ unless a suitable alternate is available. Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.3.2

Explanation

If the revised forecast winds for ETA exceed the limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base before the forecast time of increased winds or with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours (or as directed by local operating procedures).

Submit
78. 58. In cruise mode, avoid flying the aircraft at AOA greater than _______ degrees. A high AOA can result in divergent roll oscillations. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.30 Warning

Explanation

In cruise mode, it is important to avoid flying the aircraft at an angle of attack (AOA) greater than +5 degrees. This is because a high AOA can lead to divergent roll oscillations, which can be dangerous and potentially cause loss of control of the aircraft. Therefore, it is crucial to stay within the recommended AOA limit to maintain stability and safety during cruise mode.

Submit
79. 32. What does setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" do? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.6.140

Explanation

Setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" enables the Engine Start Module (ESM) and activates the electric fuel pumps.

Submit
80. 47. During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM turns the SPMA to standby? Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: Figure 1-81

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
81. 7. For Air-To-Air Operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following: Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 5 Para: 5.2

Explanation

The correct answer is Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules. This is because for Air-To-Air Operations, it is important to coordinate between all involved players to ensure safety and effectiveness. Altitude deconfliction is necessary to avoid any collisions or conflicts in airspace. The emergency mission/lost link explanation is important to communicate any unexpected situations or issues that may arise during the operation. The AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules provide guidelines and regulations for conducting air-to-air training.

Submit
82. 3(3). MCE Crew changeovers and seat swaps will only occur at/above __________ Above Ground Level (AGL). Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: A9.2.3

Explanation

According to the given reference, MCE crew changeovers and seat swaps will only occur at or above 2000ft Above Ground Level (AGL).

Submit
83. 14(14). The ____ will determine whether to recall, divert, discontinue departures, or direct all aircraft to a full-stop during weather recall/divert procedures. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: 8.16.2

Explanation

The correct answer is SOF. According to the given reference, in weather recall/divert procedures, the SOF (Supervisor of Flying) will make the decision on whether to recall, divert, discontinue departures, or direct all aircraft to a full-stop.

Submit
84. 55. The Deice System's automatic mode is intended to be used when the aircraft is operating autonomously. If outside air temperature is less than ________ , pitot heat is automatically turned on. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.6.90

Explanation

The Deice System's automatic mode is designed to be used when the aircraft is operating autonomously. When the outside air temperature is less than 10°C, the pitot heat is automatically turned on. This is stated in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.6.90.

Submit
85. 73. The air start airspeed envelope is between ________ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.12

Explanation

The air start airspeed envelope refers to the range of airspeeds within which an aircraft can safely perform an air start. According to the given reference, T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.12, the correct answer is 100-180 KIAS. This means that the aircraft can perform an air start within this range of airspeeds without any issues or safety concerns.

Submit
86. 16. If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than ______% torque. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.17

Explanation

The backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude. In this case, if DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule will not allow a command greater than 70% torque.

Submit
87. 9(9). If dire circumstances require an aircraft to land during lightning periods, the ____ is the approval authority. Ref: HAFB 11-250 Para: 2.27.3.2.3

Explanation

The correct answer is 49 OG/CC. According to the given reference, in dire circumstances requiring an aircraft to land during lightning periods, the 49 OG/CC (49th Operations Group Commander) is the approval authority.

Submit
88. 40. Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is over _______. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
89. 41. Do not zero trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 50 knot airspeed hold. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.6 Warning

Explanation

Zero trims should not be done in flight because it can lead to a 50 knot airspeed hold. This means that if the trims are set to zero during flight, the aircraft's airspeed will remain constant at 50 knots, which can be dangerous and potentially lead to loss of control. This warning is mentioned in T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.15.6. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

Submit
90. 37. The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds ________ KIAS or landing gear is up and . Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
91. 28. In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch in an attempt to achieve the commanded airspeed, and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will depart from the set speed in order to maintain altitude. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.1

Explanation

In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch to achieve the commanded airspeed, and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. However, if the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will prioritize maintaining the set speed over altitude. Therefore, the statement that the aircraft will depart from the set speed in order to maintain altitude is incorrect.

Submit
92. 22. A warning of "Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution range" indicates aileron servo temperature is below -45º C or above ________°C. Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-19

Explanation

The correct answer is 175. This is indicated by the phrase "above ________°C." The warning of "Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution range" indicates that the aileron servo temperature is below -45°C or above 175°C.

Submit
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48. If EGI ________ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim...
49. The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the...
50. The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging. ...
52. The _________ mode (of the ARC-210) provides continuous scanning...
53. A ________ background (on a VIT data element) indicates an...
57. Data from the Preset Configuration window cannot be...
6. Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces...
59. The engine may exceed maximum allowable EGT when disengaging...
60. During an MCE gaining handover, the Ku command link is established...
61. Airspeed, altitude and heading hold should be set to ensure valid...
62. Upon Successful hand-off it is necessary to update the datalink...
63. It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage...
64. If power is shut off due to a GCS fire, the UPS batteries will...
65. With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the...
67. Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the...
68. A stall condition may be indicated by ____________ . ...
69. Pitot heat does not guarantee the absence of ice from the...
70. If an aileron or tail servo enters the red region, land as soon as...
71. When battery voltage drops below ________ volts, all electrical...
72. Do not allow the engine to windmill between _______ and ________...
8. Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported _________...
74. ER With aircraft weight greater than 10,500 lbs, maneuvering at a...
9. Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent...
10. The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in...
11. Aircrew will perform operations check at least _________ . These...
12. Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous...
14. Due to the lack of visible light, the DTV video will be degraded...
15. The fuel heater will automatically shed when aircraft voltage...
17. If the selected tank's solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails...
1. Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating...
18. Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external...
19. The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical...
20. During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the...
23. What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight? ...
1(1). The Green Route corridor is __________inside WSMR Restricted...
2(2). Aircraft will not takeoff, land, or fly approaches at HAFB...
24. Forward CG imbalance, even at the most extreme, should not present...
25. _________ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of...
26. Which item has the greatest drag configuration index? ...
27. In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect...
29. A _________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc.,...
30. _________ expresses a provision that is binding. ...
4(4). RPA aircrew will deconflict their Emergency Missions over Last...
6(6). If unable to glide back to HAFB using (Line of Sight) LOS link,...
33. The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If...
88. DC+DDBA In the event of a "DCPS# over current" warning crews...
34. The return manifold receives excess fuel from the ______ tank. ...
35. If both electric fuel pumps fail, ________ ...
36. Batteries cannot be charged in flight.(MQ-9 Block 1 only) ...
8(8). The CRM program goals are: Ref: AFI 11-290 Para: 1.1
39. With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch,...
10(10). When must RPA crews make an advisory call on RPA Common...
11(11). In the event of a loss of thrust or engine failure that...
43. Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes...
44. Stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down...
45. Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic. For each...
46. Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate...
54. A ____________ background (on the VIT data element) indicates a...
56. For an operational or emergency mission, when LOS TX #1 Inhibit is...
3. Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as...
7(7). CRM skills will be: Ref: AFI 11-290 Para: 2.3
38. Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating...
42. The ______ feature is the first level of stall protection provided...
12(12). Who is responsible for real-time frequency deconfliction of...
13(13). RPA aircraft are to maintain a minimum altitude of...
51. The ice detector signal stays on for ________ seconds after the...
4. Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon...
75. ER The maximum additional fuel capacity (of an ER tank) is...
31. The EPO switch disconnects __________ from the GCS. ...
87. The aircraft is equipped with 10 batteries (5 batteries for each...
66. If no emergency mission is loaded on PSO 2, then as soon as the...
13. Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the...
21. Which of the following aircraft component draws the highest...
89. DC+DDBA DDBA temperature is displayed via on ___________ VIT 8. ...
2. Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the...
5(5). Prior to applying power to the GDT, aircrew will establish...
5. While airborne, if revised forecast winds for ETA (±1 hour)...
58. In cruise mode, avoid flying the aircraft at AOA greater than...
32. What does setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" do? ...
47. During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM...
7. For Air-To-Air Operations, a coordination brief between all...
3(3). MCE Crew changeovers and seat swaps will only occur at/above...
14(14). The ____ will determine whether to recall, divert, discontinue...
55. The Deice System's automatic mode is intended to be used when the...
73. The air start airspeed envelope is between ________ KIAS. ...
16. If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power...
9(9). If dire circumstances require an aircraft to land during...
40. Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall...
41. Do not zero trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 50 knot...
37. The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds ________...
28. In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch in an...
22. A warning of "Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution...
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