The Ultimate Trivia Quiz On Urinalysis!

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Prajapati Dikshit
P
Prajapati Dikshit
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 74
Questions: 25 | Attempts: 74

SettingsSettingsSettings
The Ultimate Trivia Quiz On Urinalysis! - Quiz

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are the suitable timing for sterilizing by using  a hot air oven?

    • A.

      3 hr at 140 C

    • B.

      1 Hr at 160C

    • C.

      30 Min at 180C

    • D.

      All Of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All Of the above
    Explanation
    The suitable timing for sterilizing by using a hot air oven can vary depending on the temperature used. Sterilization can be achieved by using different combinations of time and temperature. In this case, all of the given options are correct as they provide different combinations of time and temperature. Sterilization for 3 hours at 140°C, 1 hour at 160°C, or 30 minutes at 180°C can all effectively eliminate microorganisms and achieve sterilization.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    Serum calcium can be reported as______

    • A.

      Mg/dL

    • B.

      Mmol/L

    • C.

      MEq/L

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Serum calcium levels can be reported in different units depending on the country or laboratory. The most common units are milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL), millimoles per liter (mmol/L), and milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L). Therefore, all of the options mentioned (mg/dL, mmol/L, and mEq/L) are correct ways to report serum calcium levels.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Kidney-shaped nucleous is forund in:

    • A.

      Monocyte

    • B.

      Megakaryoblast

    • C.

      A and B

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. A and B
    Explanation
    The kidney-shaped nucleus is found in both monocytes and megakaryoblasts. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response, while megakaryoblasts are precursor cells for platelets. The unique shape of the nucleus in these cells is a distinguishing characteristic and helps in their identification.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Urine colour turns milky due to presence of:

    • A.

      Purulent genitourinary track diseases

    • B.

      Chyluria  

    • C.

      All

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. All
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All". Urine color can turn milky due to the presence of both purulent genitourinary tract diseases and chyluria. Purulent genitourinary tract diseases refer to infections in the urinary system that cause the urine to become cloudy or milky due to the presence of pus. Chyluria, on the other hand, is a condition where lymphatic fluid leaks into the urinary system, giving the urine a milky appearance. Therefore, both conditions can cause the urine to turn milky.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Fruity odour in urine is due to:

    • A.

      Ketosis

    • B.

      Glucoseuria

    • C.

      Bacterial Infection

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketosis
    Explanation
    Fruity odor in urine is due to ketosis. Ketosis occurs when the body starts breaking down fat for energy instead of glucose. This process produces ketones, which are released in the urine and can cause a fruity smell. Glucoseuria refers to the presence of glucose in the urine, which can be a sign of diabetes. Bacterial infection may cause changes in urine color or odor, but it is not specifically associated with a fruity smell. Therefore, the correct answer is ketosis.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of ..

    • A.

      Hemophilia

    • B.

      Platlet function

    • C.

      Anemia

    • D.

      Lukemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Platlet function
    Explanation
    Clot retraction refers to the process in which a blood clot gradually shrinks and becomes more compact. It is an essential step in wound healing and is primarily dependent on the functioning of platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in clot formation and retraction by releasing various substances that promote clot stability and contraction. Therefore, clot retraction can be used as an indicator of platelet function, as any impairment in platelet function can lead to abnormalities in clot retraction.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?

    • A.

      Regulates body temperature

    • B.

      Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation

    • C.

      Regulates body temperature

    • D.

      Provides humoral immunity

    Correct Answer
    D. Provides humoral immunity
    Explanation
    Gamma globulin is a type of protein found in the blood plasma that plays a crucial role in providing humoral immunity. Humoral immunity is a specific immune response mediated by antibodies, which are produced by B cells. Gamma globulin contains a high concentration of antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, that help to recognize and neutralize foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses. Therefore, gamma globulin is responsible for providing humoral immunity and defending the body against infections.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Fibrinogen determinations are performed on 

    • A.

      Plasma Only

    • B.

      Any body fluid

    • C.

      Serum Only

    • D.

      Either serum or plasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma Only
    Explanation
    Fibrinogen determinations are performed on plasma only because fibrinogen is a protein found in the blood plasma, which is the liquid component of blood. Fibrinogen plays a crucial role in blood clotting, and its levels are important in diagnosing and monitoring various conditions such as bleeding disorders and liver disease. Therefore, it is necessary to analyze the fibrinogen levels specifically in plasma to obtain accurate results.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted

    • A.

      1:200

    • B.

      1:20

    • C.

      1:50

    • D.

      1:10

    Correct Answer
    B. 1:20
    Explanation
    In order to perform a white cell count using white blood cell pipets, the blood needs to be diluted. The correct answer is 1:20, which means that for every 1 part of blood, 20 parts of diluent (usually a solution like saline) are added. This dilution helps to ensure that the white blood cells are evenly distributed and easier to count under a microscope. Diluting the blood also helps to prevent clumping of the cells, which could interfere with an accurate count.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the 

    • A.

      Value of cell indices

    • B.

      Size of the particle being counted

    • C.

      Weight of Hb in RBC

    • D.

      Amount of Hb in RBC

    Correct Answer
    B. Size of the particle being counted
    Explanation
    Some automated blood cell counters use the principle of counting the size of the particles. These counters measure the size of the blood cells to determine the different types and quantities of cells present in the blood sample. By analyzing the size of the particles, the counter can provide information about the different cell indices and help in diagnosing various blood disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is "Size of the particle being counted."

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of 

    • A.

      Heamoglobin

    • B.

      Serum lipoprotein

    • C.

      Serum Protein

    • D.

      Amino Acid

    Correct Answer
    C. Serum Protein
    Explanation
    Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of serum protein. Electrophoresis is a technique that separates molecules based on their size and charge. In this case, the different fractions represent different proteins found in the serum. Albumin is the major fraction and is responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure and transporting various substances in the blood. Alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulins are different types of globulins, which are involved in immune responses and transport of lipids and hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is serum protein.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Enterobius vermilcularis is a________

    • A.

      Flat worm

    • B.

      Hookworm

    • C.

      Filarial worm

    • D.

      Pinworm

    Correct Answer
    D. Pinworm
    Explanation
    Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as pinworm. It is a type of parasitic worm that infects the human intestines. Pinworms are small, white, thread-like worms that are commonly found in children. They can cause itching and discomfort around the anus, especially at night. The female pinworms lay eggs around the anus, which causes further spread of the infection. Pinworm infection is common and can be easily treated with medication.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred

    • A.

      For 5 Yr

    • B.

      For 6 Month

    • C.

      For 1 Yr

    • D.

      Permanently

    Correct Answer
    D. Permanently
    Explanation
    A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) should be deferred permanently. HBsAg is a marker for Hepatitis B infection and indicates that the person is currently infected with the virus. Allowing a person with an active Hepatitis B infection to donate blood can pose a risk of transmitting the virus to the recipient. Therefore, it is necessary to defer the donor permanently to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent the spread of Hepatitis B.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as

    • A.

      Conjugated Bilirubin

    • B.

      Prehepatic Bilirubin

    • C.

      Total Bilirubin

    • D.

      Biliverdin

    Correct Answer
    B. Prehepatic Bilirubin
    Explanation
    Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as prehepatic bilirubin because it refers to the form of bilirubin that has not yet been processed by the liver. Prehepatic bilirubin is produced when red blood cells break down, and it is transported to the liver where it undergoes conjugation to become conjugated bilirubin. Therefore, the correct answer is prehepatic bilirubin.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting

    • A.

      Howell-Jolly bodies

    • B.

      Reticulocytes

    • C.

      Maleria

    • D.

      Platlets

    Correct Answer
    B. Reticulocytes
    Explanation
    Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that contain remnants of ribonucleic acid (RNA) and are stained by Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue. These stains help in identifying and counting reticulocytes in a blood sample. Howell-Jolly bodies are small fragments of nuclear material that can be seen in red blood cells, but they are not stained by these dyes. Malaria is a parasitic infection that affects red blood cells, but it is not directly related to the staining of reticulocytes. Platelets are blood cells involved in clotting and are not stained by these dyes.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is 

    • A.

      Reabsoeption of water

    • B.

      Simple filtration

    • C.

      Selective Reabsorption

    • D.

      Secretion

    Correct Answer
    B. Simple filtration
    Explanation
    The glomerulus is responsible for simple filtration in the formation of urine. It acts as a filter, allowing small molecules such as water, electrolytes, and waste products to pass through while preventing larger molecules like proteins and blood cells from entering the filtrate. This process helps in the removal of waste products and excess water from the blood, which eventually leads to the formation of urine.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?

    • A.

      Benedict's

    • B.

      Clinitest

    • C.

      Pandy

    • D.

      Deep strip

    Correct Answer
    A. Benedict's
    Explanation
    Benedict's test is specific for urinary glucose because it is a chemical test that detects the presence of reducing sugars, including glucose, in a urine sample. Benedict's reagent reacts with the glucose molecules, causing a color change from blue to green, yellow, orange, or red, depending on the concentration of glucose present. This test is commonly used to screen for diabetes mellitus or monitor blood sugar control in diabetic patients. Clinitest and deep strip tests are also used to detect glucose in urine, but Benedict's test is specifically designed for this purpose. Pandy test, on the other hand, is used to detect proteins in urine.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    What is a normal platelet size???

    • A.

      2-10 micrometer

    • B.

      2-7 micrometer

    • C.

      2-4 micrometer

    • D.

      6-8 micrometer

    Correct Answer
    C. 2-4 micrometer
    Explanation
    Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are small cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. The normal platelet size typically ranges from 2 to 4 micrometers. This size allows them to effectively aggregate and form blood clots at the site of injury. Platelets that are larger or smaller than this range may indicate certain medical conditions or disorders. Therefore, a normal platelet size is generally considered to be between 2 and 4 micrometers.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    What are the average normal value of SGOT(AST) & SGPT(ALT) in U/L :

    • A.

      5-40

    • B.

      20-60

    • C.

      30-90

    • D.

      None if Above

    Correct Answer
    A. 5-40
    Explanation
    The average normal value of SGOT (AST) and SGPT (ALT) in U/L is 5-40. This range indicates the typical levels of these enzymes in the blood. SGOT (AST) and SGPT (ALT) are liver enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when there is liver damage or injury. Monitoring their levels can help diagnose liver diseases such as hepatitis or cirrhosis. If the levels exceed the normal range, it may indicate liver dysfunction.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Normal Rang of WBC in adult men.....

    • A.

      4000-10000

    • B.

      5000-24000

    • C.

      3800-18000

    • D.

      10000-240000

    Correct Answer
    A. 4000-10000
    Explanation
    The normal range of white blood cells (WBC) in adult men is typically between 4000 and 10000. This range is considered to be within the normal limits for a healthy individual. WBC count is an important indicator of the body's immune response and can help identify various medical conditions such as infections or inflammatory diseases. Values outside this range may indicate an underlying health issue and may require further investigation or medical attention.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    Anisocytosis________

    • A.

      Change in size of RBC

    • B.

      Change in Shape RBC

    • C.

      All of above

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Change in size of RBC
    Explanation
    Anisocytosis refers to a condition where there is a variation in the size of red blood cells (RBCs). This means that some RBCs are larger or smaller than the normal size. Therefore, the correct answer is "Change in size of RBC." This condition can be indicative of certain health conditions, such as iron deficiency anemia or certain types of blood disorders. It is important to note that anisocytosis does not refer to a change in the shape of RBCs or include all of the above options.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    What is heamatopoisis......

    • A.

      Formation of  RBC

    • B.

      Formation of WBC

    • C.

      Formation of blood

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    C. Formation of blood
    Explanation
    Hematopoiesis is the process of formation and development of blood cells. It involves the production of red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets from stem cells in the bone marrow. Therefore, the correct answer is "Formation of blood."

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Normal rang of monocytes in  blood??

    • A.

      5-15 %

    • B.

      8-14 %

    • C.

      2-4 %

    • D.

      2-8 %

    Correct Answer
    D. 2-8 %
    Explanation
    The normal range of monocytes in the blood is 2-8%. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that helps to fight off infections and remove dead cells from the body. A range of 2-8% is considered normal because it indicates a healthy immune system. If the percentage of monocytes falls below or exceeds this range, it may suggest an underlying medical condition or infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    The urine volume more than 2400 ml known as ______

    • A.

      Polyuria

    • B.

      Oligouria

    • C.

      Anuria

    • D.

      Nocturia

    Correct Answer
    A. Polyuria
    Explanation
    Polyuria is the correct answer because it refers to the condition of producing an abnormally large amount of urine, typically more than 2400 ml in a 24-hour period. This can be caused by various factors such as excessive fluid intake, diabetes, certain medications, or kidney problems. Polyuria is often associated with increased thirst and frequent urination, and it is important to identify and address the underlying cause of this condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Factor III (Tissue Factor) Lead which pathway in cascade theory??

    • A.

      Extrinsic Pathway

    • B.

      Intransic Pathway

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      Common Pathway

    Correct Answer
    A. Extrinsic Pathway
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Extrinsic Pathway. Factor III, also known as Tissue Factor, is a key component of the Extrinsic Pathway in the coagulation cascade theory. This pathway is activated when there is tissue damage, and Factor III is released from damaged tissue. It then forms a complex with Factor VII, leading to the activation of Factor X and ultimately resulting in the formation of a blood clot. The Intrinsic Pathway, on the other hand, is activated by contact with foreign surfaces, such as exposed collagen, and does not involve Factor III.

    Rate this question:

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement