AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate (Part 2)

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AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate (Part 2) - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A customer enquires about whether all his data is secure on AWS and is especially concerned about Elastic Map Reduce (EMR) so you need to inform him of some of the security features in place for AWS. Which of the below statements would be an incorrect response to your customers enquiry? 

    • A.

      Amazon ENIR customers can choose to send data to Amazon S3 using the HTTPS protocol for secure transmission

    • B.

      Amazon S3 provides authentication mechanisms to ensure that stored data is secured against unauthorized access. 

    • C.

      Every packet sent in the AWS network uses Internet Protocol Security (IPsec).

    • D.

      Customers may encrypt the input data before they upload it to Amazon S3. 

    Correct Answer
    C. Every packet sent in the AWS network uses Internet Protocol Security (IPsec).
    Explanation
    Amazon S3 provides authentication mechanisms to ensure that stored data is secured against unauthorized access. Unless the customer who is uploading the data specifies otherwise, only that customer can access the data. Amazon EMR customers can also choose to send data to Amazon S3 using the HTTPS protocol for secure transmission. In addition, Amazon EMR always uses HTTPS to send data between Amazon S3 and Amazon EC2. For added security, customers may encrypt the input data before they upload it to Amazon S3 (using any common data compression tool); they then need to add a decryption step to the beginning of their cluster when Amazon EMR fetches the data from Amazon S3. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/elasticmapreduce/faqs/

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  • 2. 

    You are in the process of building an online gaming site for a client and one of the requirements is that it must be able to process vast amounts of data easily. Which AWS Service would be very helpful in processing all this data? 

    • A.

      Amazon S3 

    • B.

      AWS Data Pipeline 

    • C.

      AWS Direct Connect 

    • D.

      Amazon EMR 

    Correct Answer
    D. Amazon EMR 
    Explanation
    Managing and analyzing high data volumes produced by online games platforms can be difficult. The back-end infrastructures of online games can be challenging to maintain and operate. Peak usage periods, multiple players, and high volumes of write operations are some of the most common problems that operations teams face. Amazon Elastic MapReduce (Amazon EMR) is a service that processes vast amounts of data easily. Input data can be retrieved from web server logs stored on Amazon S3 or from player data stored in Amazon DynamoDB tables to run analytics on player behavior, usage patterns, etc. Those results can be stored again on Amazon S3, or inserted in a relational database for further analysis with classic business intelligence tools. Reference: http://media.amazonwebservices.com/architecturecenter/AWS_ac_ra_games_10.pdf

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  • 3. 

    You need to change some settings on Amazon Relational Database Service but you do not want the database to reboot immediately which you know might happen depending on the setting that you change. Which of the following will cause an immediate DB instance reboot to occur?    

    • A.

       You change storage type from standard to PIOPS, and Apply Immediately is set to true.  

    • B.

      You change the DB instance class, and Apply Immediately is set to false

    • C.

       You change a static parameter in a DB parameter group. 

    • D.

      You change the backup retention period for a DB instance from 0 to a nonzero value or from a nonzero value to 0, and Apply Immediately is set to false. 

    Correct Answer
    A.  You change storage type from standard to PIOPS, and Apply Immediately is set to true.  
    Explanation
    A DB instance outage can occur when a DB instance is rebooted, when the DB instance is put into a state that prevents access to it, and when the database is restarted. A reboot can occur when you manually reboot your DB instance or when you change a DB instance setting that requires a reboot before it can take effect. A DB instance reboot occurs immediately when one of the following occurs: You change the backup retention period for a DB instance from 0 to a nonzero value or from a nonzero value to 0 and set Apply Immediately to true. You change the DB instance class, and Apply Immediately is set to true. You change storage type from standard to PIOPS, and Apply Immediately is set to true. A DB instance reboot occurs during the maintenance window when one of the following occurs:

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  • 4. 

    What does the following policy for Amazon EC2 do? { "Statement":[{ "Effect":"AI|ow",   "Action":"ec2:Describe*",   "Resource":"*" II } 

    • A.

      Allow users to use actions that start with "Describe" over all the EC2 resources. 

    • B.

      Share an AMI with a partner 

    • C.

       Share an AMI within the account 

    • D.

       Allow a group to only be able to describe, run, stop, start, and terminate instances 

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow users to use actions that start with "Describe" over all the EC2 resources. 
    Explanation
    You can use IAM policies to control the actions that your users can perform against your EC2 resources. For instance, a policy with the following statement will allow users to perform actions whose name start with "Describe" against all your EC2 resources.
    {
    "Statement":[{
    "Effect":"AI|ow",
    "Action":"ec2:Describe*",
    "Resource":"*"
    }l
    }
    Reference
    http://docs.amazonwebservices.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/UsingIAM.htmI

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  • 5. 

    You are setting up a very complex financial services grid and so far it has 5 Elastic IP (EIP) addresses. You go to assign another EIP address, but all accounts are limited to 5 Elastic IP addresses per region by default, so you aren't able to. What is the reason for this?    

    • A.

      For security reasons

    • B.

      Hardware restrictions. 

    • C.

       Public (IPV4) internet addresses are a scarce resource

    • D.

      There are only 5 network interfaces per instance. 

    Correct Answer
    C.  Public (IPV4) internet addresses are a scarce resource
    Explanation
    Public (IPV4) internet addresses are a scarce resource. There is only a limited amount of public IP space available, and Amazon EC2 is committed to helping use that space efficiently. By default, all accounts are limited to 5 Elastic IP addresses per region. If you need more than 5 Elastic IP addresses, AWS asks that you apply for your limit to be raised. They will ask you to think through your use case and help them understand your need for additional addresses. Reference: http://aws.amazon.com/ec2/faqs/#How_many_instances_can_I_run_in_Amazon_EC2

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  • 6. 

    Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using . 

    • A.

      Customized deployments 

    • B.

      Appstream customizations 

    • C.

      Log events 

    • D.

      MuIti-AZ deployments 

    Correct Answer
    D. MuIti-AZ deployments 
    Explanation
    Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using MuIti-AZ deployments. MuIti-AZ deployments for Oracle, PostgreSQL, MySQL, and MariaDB DB instances use Amazon technology, while SQL Server DB instances use SQL Server Mrroring. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/Concepts.IV|u|tiAZ.htmI

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  • 7. 

    A major customer has asked you to set up his AWS infrastructure so that it will be easy to recover in the case of a disaster of some sort. Which of the following is important when thinking about being able to quickly launch resources in AWS to ensure business continuity in case of a disaster?    

    • A.

       Create and maintain AM|s of key sewers where fast recovery is required.  

    • B.

       Regularly run your sewers, test them, and apply any software updates and configuration changes

    • C.

       All items listed here are important when thinking about disaster recovery. 

    • D.

      Ensure that you have all supporting custom software packages available in AWS. 

    Correct Answer
    C.  All items listed here are important when thinking about disaster recovery. 
    Explanation
    In the event of a disaster to your AWS infrastructure you should be able to quickly launch resources in Amazon Web Services (AWS) to ensure business continuity. The following are some key steps you should have in place for preparation:

    1. Set up Amazon EC2 instances to replicate or mirror data. 2. Ensure that you have all supporting custom software packages available in AWS. 3. Create and maintain AMIs of key servers where fast recovery is required. 4. Regularly run these servers, test them, and apply any software updates and configuration changes. 5. Consider automating the provisioning of AWS resources.

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  • 8. 

    What does Amazon DynamoDB provide? 

    • A.

      A predictable and scalable MySQL database 

    • B.

      A fast and reliable PL/SQL database cluster 

    • C.

      A standalone Cassandra database, managed by Amazon Web Services 

    • D.

      A fast, highly scalable managed NoSQL database service 

    Correct Answer
    D. A fast, highly scalable managed NoSQL database service 
    Explanation
    Amazon DynamoDB is a managed NoSQL database service offered by Amazon. It automatically manages tasks like scalability for you while it provides high availability and durability for your data, allowing you to concentrate in other aspects of your application. Reference: check link - https://aws.amazon.com/running_databases/

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  • 9. 

    You want to use AWS Import/Export to send data from your S3 bucket to several of your branch offices. What should you do if you want to send 10 storage units to AWS?    

    • A.

      Make sure your disks are encrypted prior to shipping

    • B.

      Make sure you format your disks prior to shipping. 

    • C.

      Make sure your disks are 1TB or more. 

    • D.

      Make sure you submit a separate job request for each device. 

    Correct Answer
    D. Make sure you submit a separate job request for each device. 
    Explanation
    When using Amazon Import/Export, a separate job request needs to be submitted for each physical device even if they belong to the same import or export job. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSImportExport/latest/DG/Concepts.html

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  • 10. 

    What would be the best way to retrieve the public IP address of your EC2 instance using the CLI?    

    • A.

      Using tags 

    • B.

       Using traceroute 

    • C.

       Using ipconfig 

    • D.

      Using instance metadata 

    Correct Answer
    D. Using instance metadata 
    Explanation
    To determine your instance's public IP address from within the instance, you can use instance metadat

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  • 11. 

    You need to measure the performance of your EBS volumes as they seem to be under performing. You have come up with a measurement of 1, 024 KB I/O but your colleague tells you that EBS volume performance is measured in IOPS. How many IOPS is equal to 1, 024 KB I/O?    

    • A.

      16

    • B.

      256

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    Several factors can affect the performance of Amazon EBS volumes, such as instance configuration, I/O characteristics, workload demand, and storage configuration. IOPS are input/output operations per second. Amazon EBS measures each I/O operation per second (that is 256 KB or smaller) as one IOPS. I/O operations that are larger than 256 KB are counted in 256 KB capacity units. For example, a 1, 024 KB I/O operation would count as 4 IOPS. When you provision a 4, 000 IOPS volume and attach it to an EBS-optimized instance that can provide the necessary bandwidth, you can transfer up to 4, 000 chunks of data per second (provided that the I/O does not exceed the 128 MB/s per volume throughput limit of General Purpose (SSD) and Provisioned IOPS (SSD) volumes). Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/EBSPerformance.htmI

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  • 12. 

    Having set up a website to automatically be redirected to a backup website if it fails, you realize that there are different types of failovers that are possible. You need all your resources to be available the majority of the time. Using Amazon Route 53 which configuration would best suit this requirement?    

    • A.

      Active-active failover

    • B.

       None. Route 53 can't failover

    • C.

      Active-passive failover

    • D.

       Active-active-passive and other mixed configurations

    Correct Answer
    A. Active-active failover
    Explanation
    You can set up a variety of failover configurations using Amazon Route 53 alias: weighted, latency, geolocation routing, and failover resource record sets. Active-active failover: Use this failover configuration when you want all of your resources to be

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  • 13. 

    AWS CIoudFormation is a service that helps you model and set up your Amazon Web Services resources so that you can spend less time managing those resources and more time focusing on your applications that run in AWS. You create a template that describes all the AWS resources that you want (like Amazon EC2 instances or Amazon RDS DB instances), and AWS CIoudFormation takes care of provisioning and configuring those resources for you. What formatting is required for this template?    

    • A.

      JSON-formatted document 

    • B.

      CSS-formatted document 

    • C.

      XML-formatted document

    • D.

      HTML-formatted document 

    Correct Answer
    A. JSON-formatted document 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is JSON-formatted document. AWS CloudFormation requires a template that describes the AWS resources in a JSON-formatted document. JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) is a lightweight data-interchange format that is easy for humans to read and write, and easy for machines to parse and generate. It provides a structured and organized way to define the resources and their configurations in the CloudFormation template.

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  • 14. 

    True or False: In Amazon Route 53, you can create a hosted zone for a top-level domain (TLD). 

    • A.

      FALSE 

    • B.

       False, Amazon Route 53 automatically creates it for you.  

    • C.

      True, only if you send an XML document with a CreateHostedZoneRequest element for TLD. 

    • D.

      TRUE 

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE 
    Explanation
    In Amazon Route 53, you cannot create a hosted zone for a top-level domain (TLD).

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  • 15. 

    You decide that you need to create a number of Auto Scaling groups to try and save some money as you have noticed that at certain times most of your EC2 instances are not being used. By default, what is the maximum number of Auto Scaling groups that AWS will allow you to create?    

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      Unlimited 

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    C. 20
    Explanation
    Auto Scaling is an AWS service that allows you to increase or decrease the number of EC2 instances within your appIication's architecture. With Auto Scaling, you create collections of EC2 instances, called Auto Scaling groups. You can create these groups from scratch, or from existing EC2 instances that are already in production

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  • 16. 

    A user needs to run a batch process which runs for 10 minutes. This will only be run once, or at maximum twice, in the next month, so the processes will be temporary only. The process needs 15 X-Large instances. The process downloads the code from S3 on each instance when it is launched, and then generates a temporary log file. Once the instance is terminated, all the data will be lost. Which of the below mentioned pricing models should the user choose in this case? 

    • A.

      Spot instance. 

    • B.

      Reserved instance. 

    • C.

      On-demand instance. 

    • D.

      EBS optimized instance

    Correct Answer
    A. Spot instance. 
    Explanation
    In Amazon Web Services, the spot instance is useful when the user wants to run a process temporarily. The spot instance can terminate the instance if the other user outbids the existing bid. In this case all storage is temporary and the data is not required to be persistent. Thus, the spot instance is a good option to save money.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)?    

    • A.

      It can be used to launch as many or as few virtual servers as you need.  

    • B.

       It increases the need to forecast traffic by providing dynamic IP addresses for static cloud computing

    • C.

       It eliminates your need to invest in hardware up front, so you can develop and deploy applications faster. 

    • D.

       It offers scalable computing capacity in the Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud. 

    Correct Answer
    B.  It increases the need to forecast traffic by providing dynamic IP addresses for static cloud computing
    Explanation
    Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) provides scalable computing capacity in the Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud. Using Amazon EC2 eliminates your need to invest in hardware up front, so you can develop and deploy applications faster. You can use Amazon EC2 to launch as many or as few virtual servers as you need, configure security and networking, and manage storage. Amazon EC2 enables you to scale up or down to handle changes in requirements or spikes in popularity, reducing your need to forecast traffic.

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  • 18. 

    You have been storing massive amounts of data on Amazon Glacier for the past 2 years and now start to wonder if there are any limitations on this. What is the correct answer to your question?    

    • A.

      The total volume of data is limited but the number of archives you can store are unlimited.

    • B.

       The total volume of data is unlimited but the number of archives you can store are limited. 

    • C.

      The total volume of data and number of archives you can store are unlimited.  

    • D.

      The total volume of data is limited and the number of archives you can store are limited. 

    Correct Answer
    C. The total volume of data and number of archives you can store are unlimited.  
    Explanation
    An archive is a durably stored block of information. You store your data in Amazon Glacier as archives. You may upload a single file as an archive, but your costs will be lower if you aggregate your data. TAR and ZIP are common formats that customers use to aggregate multiple files into a single file before uploading to Amazon Glacier. The total volume of data and number of archives you can store are unlimited. IndMdual Amazon Glacier archives can range in size from 1 byte to 40 terabytes. The largest archive that can be uploaded in a single upload request is 4 gigabytes. For items larger than 100 megabytes, customers should consider using the MuItipart upload capability.

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  • 19. 

    You are setting up your first Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) so you decide to use the VPC wizard in the AWS console to help make it easier for you. Which of the following statements is correct regarding instances that you launch into a default subnet via the VPC wizard?    

    • A.

      Nstances that you launch into a default subnet receive a public IP address and 10 private IP addresses. 

    • B.

      Instances that you launch into a default subnet receive both a public IP address and a private IP address

    • C.

      Instances that you launch into a default subnet don't receive any ip addresses and you need to define them manually. 

    • D.

       Instances that you launch into a default subnet receive a public IP address and 5 private IP addresses

    Correct Answer
    B. Instances that you launch into a default subnet receive both a public IP address and a private IP address
    Explanation
    Instances that you launch into a default subnet receive both a public IP address and a private IP address. Instances in a default subnet also receive both public and private DNS hostnames. Instances that you launch into a nondefault subnet in a default VPC don't receive a public IP address or a DNS hostname. You can change your subnet's default public IP addressing behavior

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  • 20. 

    A user has configured ELB with two EBS backed EC2 instances. The user is trying to understand the DNS access and IP support for ELB. Which of the below mentioned statements may not help the user understand the IP mechanism supported by ELB? 

    • A.

      The client can connect over IPV4 or IPV6 using Dualstack  

    • B.

       Communication between the load balancer and back-end instances is always through IPV4 

    • C.

       ELB DNS supports both IPV4 and IPV6 

    • D.

       The ELB supports either IPV4 or IPV6 but not both 

    Correct Answer
    D.  The ELB supports either IPV4 or IPV6 but not both 
    Explanation
    Elastic Load Balancing supports both Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) and Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4). Clients can connect to the user's load balancer using either IPv4 or IPv6 (in EC2-Classic) DNS. However, communication between the load balancer and its back-end instances uses only IPv4. The user can use the Dualstack-prefixed DNS name to enable IPv6 support for communications between the client and the load balancers. Thus, the clients are able to access the load balancer using either IPv4 or IPv6 as their indMdual connectMty needs dictate.

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  • 21. 

    Does AWS CIoudFormation support Amazon EC2 tagging? 

    • A.

      Yes, AWS CIoudFormation supports Amazon EC2 tagging 

    • B.

       No, CIoudFormation doesn't support any tagging 

    • C.

      No, it doesn't support Amazon EC2 tagging.

    • D.

       It depends if the Amazon EC2 tagging has been defined in the template. 

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, AWS CIoudFormation supports Amazon EC2 tagging 
    Explanation
    In AWS CIoudFormation, Amazon EC2 resources that support the tagging feature can also be tagged in an AWS template. The tag values can refer to template parameters, other resource names, resource attribute values (e.g. addresses), or values computed by simple functions (e.g., a concatenated list of strings).

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  • 22. 

    An existing client comes to you and says that he has heard that launching instances into a VPC (virtual private cloud) is a better strategy than launching instances into a EC2-classic which he knows is what you currently do. You suspect that he is correct and he has asked you to do some research about this and get back to him. Which of the following statements is true in regards to what ability launching your instances into a VPC instead of EC2-Classic gives you? 

    • A.

      All of the things listed here

    • B.

      Change security group membership for your instances while they're running 

    • C.

      Assign static private IP addresses to your instances that persist across starts and stops 

    • D.

      Define network interfaces, and attach one or more network interfaces to your instances 

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the things listed here
    Explanation
    By launching your instances into a VPC instead of EC2-Classic, you gain the ability to: Assign static private IP addresses to your instances that persist across starts and stops Assign multiple IP addresses to your instances Define network interfaces, and attach one or more network interfaces to your instances Change security group membership for your instances while they're running Control the outbound traffic from your instances (egress filtering) in addition to controlling the inbound traffic to them (ingress filtering) Add an additional layer of access control to your instances in the form of network access control lists (ACL) Run your instances on single-tenant hardware

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  • 23. 

    Amazon S3 allows you to set per-file permissions to grant read and/or write access. However you have decided that you want an entire bucket with 100 files already in it to be accessible to the public. You don't want to go through 100 files indMdually and set permissions. What would be the best way to do this?    

    • A.

       Move the bucket to a new region 

    • B.

      Add a bucket policy to the bucket. 

    • C.

      Move the files to a new bucket. 

    • D.

      Use Amazon EBS instead of S3 

    Correct Answer
    B. Add a bucket policy to the bucket. 
    Explanation
    Amazon S3 supports several mechanisms that give you filexibility to control who can access your data as well as how, when, and where they can access it. Amazon S3 provides four different access control mechanisms: AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies, Access Control Lists (ACLs), bucket policies, and query string authentication. IAM enables organizations to create and manage multiple users under a single AWS account. With IAM policies, you can grant IAM users fine-grained control to your Amazon S3 bucket or objects. You can use ACLs to selectively add (grant) certain permissions on indMdual objects. Amazon S3 bucket policies can be used to add or deny permissions across some or all of the objects within a single bucket. With Query string authentication, you have the ability to share Amazon S3 objects through URLs that are valid for a specified period of time.

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  • 24. 

    A user is accessing an EC2 instance on the SSH port for IP 10.20.30.40. Which one is a secure way to configure that the instance can be accessed only from this IP?    

    • A.

       In the security group, open port 22 for IP 10.20.30.40 

    • B.

      In the security group, open port 22 for IP 10.20.30.40/32

    • C.

      In the security group, open port 22 for IP 10.20.30.40/24  

    • D.

      In the security group, open port 22 for IP 10.20.30.40/0 

    Correct Answer
    B. In the security group, open port 22 for IP 10.20.30.40/32
    Explanation
    In AWS EC2, while configuring a security group, the user needs to specify the IP address in CIDR notation. The CIDR IP range 10.20.30.40/32 says it is for a single IP 10.20.30.40. If the user specifies the IP as 10.20.30.40 only, the security group will not accept and ask it in a CIRD format.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements is true of creating a launch configuration using an EC2 instance?    

    • A.

      The launch configuration can be created only using the Query APIs. 

    • B.

      Auto Scaling automatically creates a launch configuration directly from an EC2 instance. 

    • C.

       A user should manually create a launch configuration before creating an Auto Scaling group. 

    • D.

       The launch configuration should be created manually from the AWS CLI. 

    Correct Answer
    B. Auto Scaling automatically creates a launch configuration directly from an EC2 instance. 
    Explanation
    You can create an Auto Scaling group directly from an EC2 instance. When you use this feature, Auto Scaling automatically creates a launch configuration for you as well.

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  • 26. 

    You need to set up a high level of security for an Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS) you have just built in order to protect the confidential information stored in it. What are all the possible security groups that RDS uses? 

    • A.

      DB security groups, VPC security groups, and EC2 security groups

    • B.

       DB security groups only. 

    • C.

      EC2 security groups only. 

    • D.

      VPC security groups, and EC2 security groups. 

    Correct Answer
    A. DB security groups, VPC security groups, and EC2 security groups
    Explanation
    A security group controls the access to a DB instance. It does so by allowing access to IP address ranges or Amazon EC2 instances that you specify. Amazon RDS uses DB security groups, VPC security groups, and EC2 security groups. In simple terms, a DB security group controls access to a DB instance that is not in a VPC, a VPC security group controls access to a DB instance inside a VPC, and an Amazon EC2 security group controls access to an EC2 instance and can be used with a DB instance.

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  • 27. 

    You have been using T2 instances as your CPU requirements have not been that intensive. However you now start to think about larger instance types and start looking at M and IV|3 instances. You are a little confused as to the differences between them as they both seem to have the same ratio of CPU and memory. Which statement below is incorrect as to why you would use one over the other?    

    • A.

       M3 instances are less expensive than M1 instances

    • B.

      IV|3 instances are configured with more swap memory than M instances

    • C.

       IV|3 instances provide better, more consistent performance that M instances for most usecases. 

    • D.

       M3 instances also offer SSD-based instance storage that delivers higher I/O performance.

    Correct Answer
    B. IV|3 instances are configured with more swap memory than M instances
    Explanation
    Amazon EC2 allows you to set up and configure everything about your instances from your operating system up to your applications. An Amazon Nlachine Image (AMI) is simply a packaged-up environment that includes all the necessary bits to set up and boot your instance. M1 and M3 Standard instances have the same ratio of CPU and memory, some reasons below as to why you would use one over the other. IV|3 instances provide better, more consistent performance that M instances for most usecases. M3 instances also offer SSD-based instance storage that delivers higher I/O performance. M3 instances are also less expensive than M1 instances. Due to these reasons, we recommend M3 for applications that require general purpose instances with a balance of compute, memory, and network resources. However, if you need more disk storage than what is provided in M3 instances, you may still find M1 instances useful for running your applications.

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  • 28. 

    You have set up an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) with the usual default settings, which route each request independently to the application instance with the smallest load. However, someone has asked you to bind a user's session to a specific application instance so as to ensure that all requests coming from the user during the session will be sent to the same application instance. AWS has a feature to do this. What is it called? 

    • A.

      Connection draining 

    • B.

       Proxy protocol 

    • C.

      Tagging

    • D.

      Sticky session 

    Correct Answer
    D. Sticky session 
    Explanation
    An Elastic Load BaIancer(ELB) by default, routes each request independently to the application instance with the smallest load. However, you can use the sticky session feature (also known as session affinity), which enables the load balancer to bind a user's session to a specific application instance. This ensures that all requests coming from the user during the session will be sent to the same application instance. The key to managing the sticky session is determining how long your load balancer should consistently route the user's request to the same application instance. If your application has its own session cookie, then you can set Elastic Load Balancing to create the session cookie to follow the duration specified by the appIication's session cookie. If your application does not have its own session cookie, then you can set Elastic Load Balancing to create a session cookie by specifying your own stickiness duration. You can associate stickiness duration for only HTTP/HTTPS load balancer listeners. An application instance must always receive and send two cookies: A cookie that defines the stickiness duration and a special Elastic Load Balancing cookie named AWSELB, that has the mapping to the application instance.

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  • 29. 

    A user wants to achieve High Availability with PostgreSQL D B. Which of the below mentioned functionalities helps achieve HA? 

    • A.

      Mu|ti AZ 

    • B.

      Read Replica 

    • C.

      Multi region 

    • D.

       PostgreSQL does not support HA 

    Correct Answer
    A. Mu|ti AZ 
    Explanation
    The Multi AZ feature allows the user to achieve High Availability. For Multi AZ, Amazon RDS automatically provisions and maintains a synchronous "standby" replica in a different Availability

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  • 30. 

    A user has created an application which will be hosted on EC2. The application makes calls to DynamoDB to fetch certain data. The application is using the DynamoDB SDK to connect with from the EC2 instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the best practice for security in this scenario? 

    • A.

      The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB access and use its credentials within the application to connect with DynamoDB

    • B.

      The user should attach an IAM role with DynamoDB access to the EC2 instance

    • C.

      The user should create an IAM role, which has EC2 access so that it will allow deploying the application

    • D.

      The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB and EC2 access. Attach the user with the application so that it does not use the root account credentials 

    Correct Answer
    B. The user should attach an IAM role with DynamoDB access to the EC2 instance
    Explanation
    With AWS IAM a user is creating an application which runs on an EC2 instance and makes requests to AWS, such as DynamoDB or S3 calls. Here it is recommended that the user should not create an IAM user and pass the user's credentials to the application or embed those credentials inside the application. Instead, the user should use roles for EC2 and give that role access to DynamoDB /S3. When the roles are attached to EC2, it will give temporary security credentials to the application hosted on that EC2, to connect with DynamoDB / S3.

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  • 31. 

    After setting up several database instances in Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) you decide that you need to track the performance and health of your databases. How can you do this? 

    • A.

       Subscribe to Amazon RDS events to be notified when changes occur with a DB instance, DB snapshot, DB parameter group, or DB security group. 

    • B.

      Use the free Amazon CIoudWatch service to monitor the performance and health of a DB instance. 

    • C.

      All of the items listed will track the performance and health of a database.

    • D.

      View, download, or watch database log files using the Amazon RDS console or Amazon 

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the items listed will track the performance and health of a database.
    Explanation
    Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) is a web service that makes it easier to set up, operate, and scale a relational database in the cloud. It provides cost-efficient, resizeable capacity for an industry-standard relational database and manages common database administration tasks. There are several ways you can track the performance and health of a database or a DB instance. You can: Use the free Amazon CIoudWatch service to monitor the performance and health of a DB instance. Subscribe to Amazon RDS events to be notified when changes occur with a DB instance, DB snapshot, DB parameter group, or DB security group. View, download, or watch database log files using the Amazon RDS console or Amazon RDS APIs. You can also query some database log files that are loaded into database tables. Use the AWS CIoudTraiI service to record AWS calls made by your AWS account. The calls are recorded in log files and stored in an Amazon S3 bucket

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  • 32. 

    You are building a system to distribute confidential documents to employees. Using CIoudFront, what method could be used to serve content that is stored in S3, but not publically accessible from S3 directly?  

    • A.

      Add the CIoudFront account security group "amazon-cf/amazon-cf-sg" to the appropriate S3 bucket policy

    • B.

      Create a S3 bucket policy that lists the C|oudFront distribution ID as the Principal and the target bucket as the Amazon Resource Name (ARN). 

    • C.

      Create an Identity and Access Management (IAM) User for CIoudFront and grant access to the objects in your S3 bucket to that IAM User. 

    • D.

      Create an Origin Access Identity (OAI) for CIoudFront and grant access to the objects in your S3 bucket to that OAI

    Correct Answer
    D. Create an Origin Access Identity (OAI) for CIoudFront and grant access to the objects in your S3 bucket to that OAI
    Explanation
    You restrict access to Amazon S3 content by creating an origin access identity, which is a special CIoudFront user. You change Amazon S3 permissions to give the origin access identity permission to access your objects, and to remove permissions from everyone else. When your users access your Amazon S3 objects using CIoudFront URLs, the CIoudFront origin access identity gets the objects on your users' behalf. If your users try to access objects using Amazon S3 URLs, they're denied access. The origin access identity has permission to access objects in your Amazon S3 bucket, but users don't.

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  • 33. 

    A user has attached 1 EBS volume to a VPC instance. The user wants to achieve the best fault tolerance of data possible. Which of the below mentioned options can help achieve fault tolerance?    

    • A.

      Attach one more volume with RAID 1 configuration

    • B.

      Attach one more volume with RAID 0 configuration. 

    • C.

      Connect multiple volumes and stripe them with RAID 6 configuration. 

    • D.

      Use the EBS volume as a root device. 

    Correct Answer
    A. Attach one more volume with RAID 1 configuration
    Explanation
    The user can join multiple provisioned IOPS volumes together in a RAID 1 configuration to achieve better fault tolerance. RAID 1 does not provide a write performance improvement; it requires more bandwidth than non-RAID configurations since the data is written simultaneously to multiple volumes.

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  • 34. 

    A user has created a subnet in VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user has not selected the option to assign the IP address while launching the instance. The user has 3 elastic IPs and is trying to assign one of the Elastic IPs to the VPC instance from the console. The console does not show any instance in the IP assignment screen. What is a possible reason that the instance is unavailable in the assigned IP console? 

    • A.

       The IP address may be attached to one of the instances 

    • B.

      The IP address belongs to a different zone than the subnet zone 

    • C.

       The user has not created an internet gateway 

    • D.

      The IP addresses belong to EC2 Classic; so they cannot be assigned to VPC 

    Correct Answer
    D. The IP addresses belong to EC2 Classic; so they cannot be assigned to VPC 
    Explanation
    A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is a virtual network dedicated to the user's AWS account. A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. When the user is launching an instance he needs to select an option which attaches a public IP to the instance. If the user has not selected the option to attach the public IP then it will only have a private IP when launched. If the user wants to connect to an instance from the internet he should create an elastic IP with VPC. If the elastic IP is a part of EC2 Classic it cannot be assigned to a VPC instance.

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  • 35. 

    A user is aware that a huge download is occurring on his instance. He has already set the Auto Scaling policy to increase the instance count when the network I/O increases beyond a certain limit. How can the user ensure that this temporary event does not result in scaling? 

    • A.

       The network I/O are not affected during data download 

    • B.

      The policy cannot be set on the network I/O 

    • C.

      There is no way the user can stop scaling as it is already configured

    • D.

      Suspend scaling 

    Correct Answer
    D. Suspend scaling 
    Explanation
    The user may want to stop the automated scaling processes on the Auto Scaling groups either to perform manual operations or during emergency situations. To perform this, the user can suspend one or more scaling processes at any time. Once it is completed, the user can resume all the suspended processes

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  • 36. 

    Select a true statement about Amazon EC2 Security Groups (EC2-Classic). 

    • A.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can't change its security groups

    • B.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can change its security groups only once.  

    • C.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can only add rules to a security group. 

    • D.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you cannot add or remove rules from a security group.   

    Correct Answer
    A. After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can't change its security groups
    Explanation
    After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can't change its security groups. However, you can add rules to or remove rules from a security group, and those changes are automatically applied to all instances that are associated with the security group.

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  • 37. 

    Select a true statement about Amazon EC2 Security Groups (EC2-Classic).  

    • A.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can't change its security groups

    • B.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can change its security groups only once.  

    • C.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can only add rules to a security group. 

    • D.

      After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you cannot add or remove rules from a security group

    Correct Answer
    A. After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can't change its security groups
    Explanation
    After you launch an instance in EC2-Classic, you can't change its security groups. However, you can add rules to or remove rules from a security group, and those changes are automatically applied to all instances that are associated with the security group.

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  • 38. 

    A user has created photo editing software and hosted it on EC2. The software accepts requests from the user about the photo format and resolution and sends a message to S3 to enhance the picture accordingly. Which of the below mentioned AWS services will help make a scalable software with the AWS infrastructure in this scenario?   

    • A.

      AWS Simple Notification Service 

    • B.

       AWS Simple Queue Service 

    • C.

      AWS Elastic Transcoder 

    • D.

      AWS Glacier 

    Correct Answer
    B.  AWS Simple Queue Service 
    Explanation
    Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) is a fast, reliable, scalable, and fully managed message queuing service. SQS provides a simple and cost-effective way to decouple the components of an application. The user can configure SQS, which will decouple the call between the EC2 application and S3. Thus, the application does not keep waiting for S3 to provide the data.

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  • 39. 

      Which one of the following answers is not a possible state of Amazon CIoudWatch Alarm?

    • A.

       INSUFFICIENT_DATA 

    • B.

      ALARM

    • C.

       OK 

    • D.

      STATUS_CHECK_FAILED 

    Correct Answer
    D. STATUS_CHECK_FAILED 
    Explanation
    Amazon CIoudWatch Alarms have three possible states: OK: The metric is within the defined threshold ALARM: The metric is outside of the defined threshold INSUFFICIENT_DATA: The alarm has just started, the metric is not available, or not enough data is available for the metric to determine the alarm state

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  • 40. 

    An accountant asks you to design a small VPC network for him and, due to the nature of his business, just needs something where the workload on the network will be low, and dynamic data will be accessed infrequently. Being an accountant, low cost is also a major factor. Which EBS volume type would best suit his requirements?   

    • A.

      Magnetic 

    • B.

      Any, as they all perform the same and cost the same. 

    • C.

      General Purpose (SSD) 

    • D.

      Magnetic or Provisioned IOPS (SSD) 

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetic 
    Explanation
    You can choose between three EBS volume types to best meet the needs of their workloads: General Purpose (SSD), Provisioned IOPS (SSD), and Magnetic. General Purpose (SSD) is the new, SSD-backed, general purpose EBS volume type that we recommend as the default choice for customers. General Purpose (SSD) volumes are suitable for a broad range of workloads, including small to medium sized databases, development and test environments, and boot volumes. Provisioned IOPS (SSD) volumes offer storage with consistent and low-latency performance, and are designed for I/O intensive applications such as large relational or NoSQL databases. Magnetic volumes provide the lowest cost per gigabyte of all EBS volume types. Magnetic volumes are ideal for workloads where data is accessed infrequently, and applications where the lowest storage cost is important.

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  • 41. 

    A user is planning to launch a scalable web application. Which of the below mentioned options will not affect the latency of the application? 

    • A.

      Region. 

    • B.

      Provisioned IOPS. 

    • C.

      Availability Zone. 

    • D.

       Instance size. 

    Correct Answer
    C. Availability Zone. 
    Explanation
    In AWS, the instance size decides the I/O characteristics. The provisioned IOPS ensures higher throughput, and lower latency. The region does affect the latency; latency will always be less when the instance is near to the end user. Within a region the user uses any AZ and this does not affect the latency. The AZ is mainly for fault toleration or HA.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following strategies can be used to control access to your Amazon EC2 instances? 

    • A.

      DB security groups 

    • B.

       IAM policies 

    • C.

       None of these 

    • D.

       EC2 security groups 

    Correct Answer
    D.  EC2 security groups 
    Explanation
    IAM policies allow you to specify what actions your IAM users are allowed to perform against your EC2 Instances. However, when it comes to access control, security groups are what you need in order to define and control the way you want your instances to be accessed, and whether or not certain kind of communications are allowed or not.

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  • 43. 

    A user has launched one EC2 instance in the US East region and one in the US West region. The user has launched an RDS instance in the US East region. How can the user configure access from both the EC2 instances to RDS? 

    • A.

      It is not possible to access RDS of the US East region from the US West region

    • B.

      Configure the US West region's security group to allow a request from the US East region's instance and configure the RDS security group's ingress rule for the US East EC2 group  

    • C.

      Configure the security group of the US East region to allow traffic from the US West region's instance and configure the RDS security group's ingress rule for the US East EC2 group 

    • D.

      Configure the security group of both instances in the ingress rule of the RDS security group 

    Correct Answer
    C. Configure the security group of the US East region to allow traffic from the US West region's instance and configure the RDS security group's ingress rule for the US East EC2 group 
    Explanation
    The user cannot authorize an Amazon EC2 security group if it is in a different AWS Region than the RDS DB instance. The user can authorize an IP range or specify an Amazon EC2 security group in the same region that refers to an IP address in another region. In this case allow IP of US West

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  • 44. 

    In Amazon EC2, if your EBS volume stays in the detaching state, you can force the detachment by clicking . 

    • A.

      Force Detach 

    • B.

       Detach Instance 

    • C.

      AttachVoIume 

    • D.

      Attachlnstance 

    Correct Answer
    A. Force Detach 
    Explanation
    If your volume stays in the detaching state, you can force the detachment by clicking Force Detach.

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  • 45. 

    Do you need to shutdown your EC2 instance when you create a snapshot of EBS volumes that serve as root devices? 

    • A.

      No, you only need to shutdown an instance before deleting it. 

    • B.

      Yes

    • C.

      No, the snapshot would turn off your instance automatically. 

    • D.

      No

    Correct Answer
    B. Yes
    Explanation
    Yes, to create a snapshot for Amazon EBS volumes that serve as root devices, you should stop the instance before taking the snapshot.

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  • 46. 

    An organization has a statutory requirement to protect the data at rest for data stored in EBS volumes. Which of the below mentioned options can the organization use to achieve data protection?    

    • A.

       Data replication

    • B.

      Data encryption

    • C.

      Data snapshot

    • D.

       All the options listed here

    Correct Answer
    D.  All the options listed here
    Explanation
    For protecting the Amazon EBS data at REST, the user can use options, such as Data Encryption (Windows / Linux / third party based), Data Replication (AWS internally replicates data for redundancy), and Data Snapshot (for point in time backup).

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  • 47. 

    A client of yours has a huge amount of data stored on Amazon S3, but is concerned about someone stealing it while it is in transit. You know that all data is encrypted in transit on AWS, but which of the following is wrong when describing server-side encryption on AWS?    

    • A.

       Amazon S3 server-side encryption employs strong multi-factor encryption. 

    • B.

      Amazon S3 server-side encryption uses one of the strongest block ciphers available, 256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-256), to encrypt your data. 

    • C.

      In server-side encryption, you manage encryption/decryption of your data, the encryption keys, and related tools. 

    • D.

      Server-side encryption is about data encryption at rest--that is, Amazon S3 encrypts your data as it writes it to disks. 

    Correct Answer
    C. In server-side encryption, you manage encryption/decryption of your data, the encryption keys, and related tools. 
    Explanation
    Amazon S3 encrypts your object before saving it on disks in its data centers and decrypts it when you download the objects. You have two options depending on how you choose to manage the encryption keys: Server-side encryption and client-side encryption. Server-side encryption is about data encryption at rest--that is, Amazon S3 encrypts your data as it writes it to disks in its data centers and decrypts it for you when you access it. As long as you authenticate your request and you have access permissions, there is no difference in the way you access encrypted or unencrypted objects. Amazon S3 manages encryption and decryption for you. For example, if you share your objects using a pre-signed URL, that URL works the same way for both encrypted and unencrypted objects. In client-side encryption, you manage encryption/decryption of your data, the encryption keys, and related tools. Server-side encryption is an alternative to client-side encryption in which Amazon S3 manages the encryption of your data, freeing you from the tasks of managing encryption and encryption keys. Amazon S3 server-side encryption employs strong multi-factor encryption. Amazon S3 encrypts each object with a unique key. As an additional safeguard, it encrypts the key itself with a master key that it regularly rotates. Amazon S3 server-side encryption uses one of the strongest block ciphers available, 256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-256), to encrypt your data.

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  • 48. 

    A user is running a batch process which runs for 1 hour every day. Which of the below mentioned options is the right instance type and costing model in this case if the user performs the same task for the whole year? 

    • A.

      EBS backed instance with on-demand instance pricing. 

    • B.

      EBS backed instance with heavy utilized reserved instance pricing. 

    • C.

       EBS backed instance with low utilized reserved instance pricing

    • D.

       Instance store backed instance with spot instance pricing. 

    Correct Answer
    A. EBS backed instance with on-demand instance pricing. 
    Explanation
    For Amazon Web Services, the reserved instance helps the user save money if the user is going to run the same instance for a longer period. Generally if the user uses the instances around 30-40% annually it is recommended to use RI. Here as the instance runs only for 1 hour daily it is not recommended to have RI as it will be costlier. The user should use on-demand with EBS in this case.

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  • 49. 

    You have just set up a large site for a client which involved a huge database which you set up with Amazon RDS to run as a Mu|ti-AZ deployment. You now start to worry about what will happen if the database instance fails. Which statement best describes how this database will function if there is a database failure? 

    • A.

      Updates to your DB Instance are synchronously replicated across Availability Zones to the standby in order to keep both in sync and protect your latest database updates against DB Instance failure. 

    • B.

      Your database will not resume operation without manual administrative intervention.

    • C.

      Updates to your DB Instance are asynchronously replicated across Availability Zones to the standby in order to keep both in sync and protect your latest database updates against DB Instance failure. 

    • D.

      Updates to your DB Instance are synchronously replicated across S3 to the standby in order to keep both in sync and protect your latest database updates against DB Instance failure. 

    Correct Answer
    A. Updates to your DB Instance are synchronously replicated across Availability Zones to the standby in order to keep both in sync and protect your latest database updates against DB Instance failure. 
    Explanation
    Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) is a managed service that makes it easy to set up, operate, and scale a relational database in the cloud. It provides cost-efficient and resizable capacity, while managing time-consuming database administration tasks, freeing you up to focus on your applications and business. When you create or modify your DB Instance to run as a MuIti-AZ deployment, Amazon RDS automatically provisions and maintains a synchronous "standby" replica in a different Availability Zone. Updates to your DB Instance are synchronously replicated across Availability Zones to the standby in order to keep both in sync and protect your latest database updates against DB Instance failure. During certain types of planned maintenance, or in the unlikely event of DB Instance failure or Availability Zone failure, Amazon RDS will automatically failover to the standby so that you can resume database writes and reads as soon as the standby is promoted. Since the name record for your DB Instance remains the same, you application can resume database operation without the need for manual administrative intervention. With Mu|ti-AZ deployments, replication is transparent: you do not interact directly with the standby, and it cannot be used to serve read traffic. If you are using Amazon RDS for MySQL and are looking to scale read traffic beyond the capacity constraints of a single DB Instance, you can deploy one or more Read Replicas.

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  • 50. 

    Which IAM role do you use to grant AWS Lambda permission to access a DynamoDB Stream?    

    • A.

      Dynamic role 

    • B.

      Invocation role 

    • C.

       Execution role 

    • D.

       Event Source role 

    Correct Answer
    C.  Execution role 
    Explanation
    You grant AWS Lambda permission to access a DynamoDB Stream using an IAM role known as the "execution ro|e".

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 22, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Firezer
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