3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 1 CDC

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  • 1/77 Questions

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilites include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line of sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • Spectrum Operations
    • Ground Radar Systems
    • Cable and Antenna Systems
    • Radio Frequency Transmission
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in the 3D1X3 RF TRANS Z3DX5X specialty, focusing on responsibilities like RF transmission, cable systems, and career field management. It evaluates understanding of Air Force training programs and career field education requirements, essential for professionals in this military domain.

3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 1 CDC - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)

    • On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program

    • Occupational Analysis program

    Correct Answer
    A. On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program
    Explanation
    The On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program is the correct answer because it provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. OJT involves hands-on training and learning while actually performing the job tasks, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and develop the necessary skills in their specific field. This program is designed to enhance job performance and ensure that personnel are adequately trained to fulfill their responsibilities.

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  • 3. 

    What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

    • Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

    • Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System

    • Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
    Explanation
    The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is a weapon system that specifically identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is designed to analyze and assess the security of cyberspace, helping to protect critical networks and ensure mission success. The other options listed are not specifically focused on vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive risk assessment.

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  • 4. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • Manpower

    • Efficiency

    • Reduce costs

    • Department of Defense 8570 mandate

    Correct Answer
    A. Efficiency
    Explanation
    The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, communication and coordination can be streamlined, leading to faster response times and more effective problem-solving. This consolidation eliminates redundancies and improves the overall effectiveness of the network management and support processes.

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  • 5. 

    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • Coding

    • Positioning

    • Tempo bands

    • Unit Type Codes

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Type Codes
    Explanation
    Unit Type Codes are the basic building blocks used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). These codes are used to identify and categorize different types of units within the military, allowing for efficient organization and coordination during deployments. By using Unit Type Codes, commanders can easily determine the capabilities and resources available within each unit, enabling them to effectively plan and execute missions.

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  • 6. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • Can be altered and are not officially released

    • Can't be altered, are not officially released

    • Can't be altered, and are officially signed

    • Officially signed and officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released
    Explanation
    Draft records are typically in a preliminary or unfinished state, allowing for alterations and revisions before they are officially released. These records are not considered final or official, hence they are not officially released.

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  • 7. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • Management Inspection (MI)

    • Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

    • Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)

    • Commanders Inspection Program (CCIP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It evaluates the unit's ability to meet mission requirements, comply with regulations, and maintain readiness. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and identifies areas for improvement. It is a more holistic approach compared to other inspections such as Management Inspection (MI), Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI), and Commanders Inspection Program (CCIP), which may focus on specific aspects of unit performance.

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  • 8. 

    The UCMJ is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • Title 3

    • Title 8

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The UCMJ, or Uniform Code of Military Justice, is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, and it outlines the legal framework for military justice in the United States. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of military personnel and includes provisions for military offenses, disciplinary procedures, and the rights of service members. It is important for military personnel to be familiar with the UCMJ as it establishes the legal standards and procedures that apply to them.

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  • 9. 

    Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity? 

    • Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • Area Processing Center (APC)

    • Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This unit focuses on providing enterprise-level services and support to enhance operational capabilities and efficiency. By centralizing and streamlining services, the ESU aims to minimize the need for extensive training and allow warfighters to focus on their core mission.

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  • 10. 

    Which document in NOT considered an official government record?

    • Published doctrines

    • Geographical base maps

    • Photographs of a retreat ceremony

    • Library reference or museum exhibitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Library reference or museum exhibitions
    Explanation
    Library references or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are typically curated and organized by libraries or museums, rather than being official documents produced by the government. Official government records are typically documents created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties, such as published doctrines, geographical base maps, or photographs of a retreat ceremony.

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  • 11. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems responsibilities include the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring for both fixed and deployed operations. This involves ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and maintained to support the communication needs of the Air Force. Cable and Antenna Systems specialists are responsible for ensuring that the network wiring is functioning correctly and can effectively transmit data and communication signals. They play a crucial role in maintaining the connectivity and communication capabilities of the Air Force in various operational settings.

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  • 12. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Base functional manager (BFM)
    Explanation
    The on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM). This individual is responsible for managing and coordinating the cyberspace operations within their assigned base. They oversee the functional aspects of the cyberspace operations and ensure that the base's systems and networks are secure and operational. The BFM works closely with other units and personnel to ensure the efficient and effective use of cyberspace resources at the base.

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  • 13. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

    • Modify local training

    • Allocate manpower

    • Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

    • Assist the unit training manager in course development

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC), which is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career field. By using the data from occupational surveys, a CDC can be tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of the job roles identified in the survey. This helps in providing targeted and effective training to individuals, enabling them to excel in their careers.

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  • 14. 

    Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

    • Trend Analysis

    • Quality System

    • Quality Assessments

    • Managerial Assessments

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend Analysis
    Explanation
    Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for continuous improvement and proactive decision-making. It provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of the QA system and helps in making data-driven decisions to enhance quality.

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  • 15. 

    What automated information system manages the entire life cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • Remedy

    • Training Business Area

    • Telephone Management System

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire life cycle of IT assets, from procurement through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, asset tracking, and retirement processes, ensuring that organizations have accurate and up-to-date information about their IT assets throughout their life cycle.

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  • 16. 

    What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordiante agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    • Title 32

    • Title 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title is often referred to as the "Armed Forces" title and provides the legal framework for the organization, structure, and operations of the military branches under the DOD.

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  • 17. 

    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title must they be in to execute those missions?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, they must be in Title 10 status to execute those missions. This is because Title 10 of the United States Code governs the organization and role of the military, including the Air National Guard. Title 32 status refers to the state control of the National Guard, while Title 10 status refers to federal control. Therefore, in order to perform cyber operations, which typically fall under federal jurisdiction, personnel must be in Title 10 status.

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  • 18. 

    What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

    • Active and Reactive

    • Evasive and Decisive

    • Subversive and Divisive

    • Offensive and Defensive

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and Reactive
    Explanation
    Active and Reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to cyber threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack by implementing countermeasures, isolating affected systems, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to detect and respond to cyber threats in real-time, minimizing the impact of attacks and protecting the network.

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  • 19. 

    Which Agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure? 

    • Defense Industrial Base (DIB)

    • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

    • National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency of the United States Department of Defense, and its mission is to provide, operate, and assure command and control, information sharing capabilities, and a globally accessible enterprise information infrastructure in direct support to joint warfighters, national level leaders, and other mission and coalition partners across the full spectrum of military operations. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of the GIG infrastructure.

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  • 20. 

    What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

    • 644th Combat Communication Squadron

    • 85th Engineering Installation Squadron

    • 83rd Network Operations Squadron

    • 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing

    Correct Answer
    A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron
    Explanation
    The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They are capable of performing these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication systems are in place for effective military operations.

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  • 21. 

    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, user responsibilities and guidance for information systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

    • Article 32

    • Article 40

    • Article 92

    • Article 100

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 92
    Explanation
    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, user responsibilities and guidance for information systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Article 92 covers the offense of failure to obey an order or regulation, which includes the failure to follow the guidelines and responsibilities outlined in AFMAN 33-153. This article ensures that military personnel adhere to the rules and regulations set forth for information systems, emphasizing the importance of maintaining security and confidentiality.

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  • 22. 

    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record"?

    • AFI 33-321

    • AFI 33-322

    • AFI 33-329

    • AFI 33-332

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-322
    Explanation
    AFI 33-322 is the correct answer as it defines an "official government record". The other options, AFI 33-321, AFI 33-329, and AFI 33-332, do not specifically define an official government record.

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  • 23. 

    What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

    • Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

    • Office Automation System (OAS)

    • Decision Support System (DSS)

    • Training Business Area (TBA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline the process of creating, revising, and distributing technical orders, ensuring that the most up-to-date information is available to users. ETIMS also provides a centralized repository for technical orders, making it easier for users to access and retrieve the information they need.

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  • 24. 

    Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

    • Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

    • Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

    • Library custodian

    • Any user

    Correct Answer
    A. Any user
    Explanation
    Any user may post an update to a technical order if they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary knowledge and permission, they have the ability to make updates to the technical order. This allows for a more collaborative and inclusive approach to maintaining and improving technical orders, as it is not limited to a specific role or position.

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  • 25. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

    • Core Task

    • Duty Competency

    • Core Competency

    • Duty Position Tasks

    Correct Answer
    A. Duty Position Tasks
    Explanation
    According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor assigns Duty Position Tasks as part of the enlisted training element. These tasks are specific to the duties and responsibilities of a particular position within the Air Force.

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  • 26. 

    What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • Conduct climate training surveys

    • Develop Career Development Courses

    • Review the occupational analysis report

    • Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is essential for providing structured and comprehensive training to individuals in a specific career field. It outlines the necessary education, training, and development requirements for career progression and ensures that the workforce is equipped with the skills and knowledge needed to perform their duties effectively. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their employees receive the necessary training and development opportunities to excel in their careers.

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  • 27. 

    What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

    • Library custodian

    • Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

    • Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

    • Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
    Explanation
    The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders, which provide instructions for the maintenance and operation of equipment, are properly distributed to the appropriate personnel. The TODO ensures that all personnel have access to the necessary technical orders and that they are kept up to date with any revisions or updates. This helps to ensure that equipment is maintained and operated correctly, promoting safety and efficiency within the organization.

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  • 28. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development and advancement. The AFCFM works closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure the overall success and effectiveness of the career field.

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  • 29. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). They have the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions based on individual circumstances or needs. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, ensuring that the personnel receive the necessary training and education to excel in their roles. Therefore, they have the authority to waive certain requirements if they deem it appropriate.

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  • 30. 

    Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • Counterintelligence (CI)

    • Operation Security (OPSEC)

    • Military Deception (MILDEC)

    • Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Deception (MILDEC)
    Explanation
    MILDEC activities are designed to mislead the enemy and create a false perception or understanding of military operations. In this case, since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, MILDEC would be the activity that is designed to mislead that audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and countering threats to security, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. None of these activities are specifically designed to mislead the audience.

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  • 31. 

    What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

    • Strategic Considerations

    • Military Strategic Framework

    • Implementation and Assessment

    • Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the framework and direction for the Department of Defense's strategic planning efforts, including the development of plans for securing cyberspace. It outlines the priorities, goals, and strategies that the Department of Defense will pursue in order to protect and defend the nation's cyberspace.

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  • 32. 

    Who is the second-highest ranking official in the DOD?

    • The President

    • The chief of Staff

    • The Vice President

    • The Deputy Secretary

    Correct Answer
    A. The Deputy Secretary
    Explanation
    The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the DOD. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the Department of Defense and overseeing its operations. While the President is the commander-in-chief of the military, the Deputy Secretary holds a higher position within the DOD hierarchy. The Chief of Staff is a high-ranking military officer, but does not hold a civilian leadership position in the DOD. The Vice President is a political position and does not have a direct role in the DOD's leadership structure.

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  • 33. 

    What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

    • JP 6-0, Joint Communications Systems

    • JP 5-0, Joint communications system

    • JP 5-0, Joint Operation Planning

    • JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series

    Correct Answer
    A. JP 6-0, Joint Communications Systems
    Explanation
    JP 6-0, Joint Communications Systems is the correct answer because it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This means that it serves as the foundational document that provides guidance and standards for all other publications related to communication systems in joint operations. JP 5-0, Joint communications system and JP 5-0, Joint Operation Planning are incorrect answers as they do not specifically pertain to the communications-system series of publications. JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series is also incorrect as it does not specifically focus on communication systems.

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  • 34. 

    What Air Force publications are information and suggest guidance that you can modify to fir the circumstances?

    • Directive

    • Non-Directive

    • Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM)

    • Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-Directive
    Explanation
    Non-Directive publications in the Air Force are sources of information and guidance that can be adapted or modified to fit specific circumstances. These publications provide a flexible framework for decision-making and allow for customization based on the unique needs and requirements of a situation. They offer suggestions and recommendations rather than strict directives, giving individuals the freedom to make informed choices and adjustments as necessary.

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  • 35. 

    What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force policy directive (AFPD)?

    • Air Force Instructions (AFI)

    • Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

    • Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

    • Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)
    Explanation
    Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM) are directive publications that expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPMs have a limited lifespan and are subject to revision or replacement by higher-level directives such as AFPDs. AFPMs are typically used to provide temporary guidance or to address specific issues within the Air Force until a more comprehensive policy directive can be issued.

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  • 36. 

    Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • Technical Evaluation

    • Personnel Evluation

    • Managerial Evaluation

    • Standard Evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Evaluation
    Explanation
    In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on assessing the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance and skills of the personnel involved in the program, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the program's management. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific type of assessment in a QA program. It is possible that this option refers to the use of standards or benchmarks in the evaluations, rather than being a distinct evaluation type itself.

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  • 37. 

    An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as 

    • Misuse of position

    • Covered relationships

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered relationships
    Explanation
    Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that individuals involved in the relationship may give preferential treatment or biased decisions based on their personal connection, rather than on merit or fairness. This can create an unfair and unprofessional work environment, compromising the integrity and objectivity of the organization.

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  • 38. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

    • Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

    • Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

    • Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
    Explanation
    Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This realignment was done to enhance the Air Force's capabilities in cyberspace operations and ensure a more focused and coordinated approach to cyber warfare. By bringing together the expertise and resources of these two commands, the Air Force aims to strengthen its ability to defend against cyber threats and conduct offensive cyber operations when necessary. The 24th Air Force, as a numbered Air Force under the command of Air Force Space Command, plays a crucial role in executing cyberspace operations and ensuring the security of Air Force networks and information systems.

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  • 39. 

    How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules likely include guidelines such as being clear and concise in your message, using proper grammar and punctuation, avoiding the use of all caps or excessive exclamation points, being mindful of the tone and language used, and ensuring that the email is sent to the appropriate recipients. Following these rules can help ensure that your message is effectively communicated and understood by the recipient.

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  • 40. 

    What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

    • A re-writing of the main point

    • A well-written summary

    • A postscript message

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A well-written summary
    Explanation
    A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to accurately capture the main points of the message in a concise and clear manner. By doing so, it demonstrates your comprehension of the content and your ability to effectively communicate the main idea to others.

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  • 41. 

    What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

    • 2009

    • 2010

    • 2011

    • 2012

    Correct Answer
    A. 2010
    Explanation
    In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support for all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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  • 42. 

    What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

    • Continual Service Improvement

    • Service Transition

    • Service Stratgey

    • Service Design

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual Service Improvement
    Explanation
    Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. CSI involves continuously monitoring and measuring service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance service delivery. It is an ongoing process that ensures services align with business objectives and meet customer needs. Service Transition, Service Strategy, and Service Design are other stages in the ITIL framework that focus on different aspects of service management, but they are not specifically dedicated to maintaining service quality.

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  • 43. 

    Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

    • Misuse of position

    • Covered relationship

    • Personal conflict of interest

    • None, this is not an example of an unethical situation

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered relationship
    Explanation
    A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone in a professional context. In this case, the question suggests that members of a household or close relatives fall under this category. This type of situation can create conflicts of interest, favoritism, or biased decision-making, which can be considered unethical. Therefore, the answer "covered relationship" is the most appropriate option for this question.

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  • 44. 

    How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a Sharepoint Server?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server.

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  • 45. 

    What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

    • Air Force Instructions (AFI)

    • Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

    • Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

    • Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Instructions (AFI)
    Explanation
    Air Force Instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive reference for Air Force personnel to understand and follow the correct procedures and guidelines in various areas such as operations, administration, logistics, and training. AFIs are designed to ensure consistency, standardization, and compliance with established policies and regulations within the Air Force. They provide step-by-step instructions, requirements, and responsibilities for personnel to carry out their duties effectively and efficiently.

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  • 46. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command functional manager (MFM)
    Explanation
    The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, ensuring that the training and utilization of personnel in the career field align with the goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. The MFM acts as a liaison between the career field and the MAJCOM, advocating for the career field's requirements and priorities during the decision-making process.

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  • 47. 

    What policy outlines the United States Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

    • National Security Policy

    • National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    • Comprehensive National Cyber security Initiative

    • National Military Strategy for Cyber Space Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. National Military Strategy for Cyber Space Operations
    Explanation
    The National Military Strategy for Cyber Space Operations outlines the United States Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on cyber space operations and their role in maintaining the US military's advantage in cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for military operations in the cyber domain, ensuring that the US remains secure and dominant in this critical domain.

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  • 48. 

    Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

    • Base records manager

    • Command records manager

    • Chief of office of records

    • Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief of office of records
    Explanation
    The chief of office of records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office, including the appointment of custodians who are responsible for the day-to-day handling and preservation of records. They have the ultimate decision-making power in this regard and are accountable for ensuring that records are properly maintained and accessible.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1?

    • Time compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

    • Resources required to manage and use TOs

    • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

    • Training to manage and use TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. Time compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Time compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures". This answer is the only option that does not describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1. The other options all mention resources, infrastructure, and training required to manage and use TOs, which are all aspects covered in TO 00-5-1.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 15, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 27, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Napolchr000
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