3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 1 CDC

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1. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is a weapon system that specifically identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is designed to analyze and assess the security of cyberspace, helping to protect critical networks and ensure mission success. The other options listed are not specifically focused on vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive risk assessment.

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About This Quiz
3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 1 CDC - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in the 3D1X3 RF TRANS Z3DX5X specialty, focusing on responsibilities like RF transmission, cable systems, and career field management. It evaluates understanding of Air Force training programs and career field education requirements, essential for professionals in this military domain.

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2. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, communication and coordination can be streamlined, leading to faster response times and more effective problem-solving. This consolidation eliminates redundancies and improves the overall effectiveness of the network management and support processes.

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3. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Explanation

The On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program is the correct answer because it provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. OJT involves hands-on training and learning while actually performing the job tasks, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and develop the necessary skills in their specific field. This program is designed to enhance job performance and ensure that personnel are adequately trained to fulfill their responsibilities.

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4. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit Type Codes are the basic building blocks used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). These codes are used to identify and categorize different types of units within the military, allowing for efficient organization and coordination during deployments. By using Unit Type Codes, commanders can easily determine the capabilities and resources available within each unit, enabling them to effectively plan and execute missions.

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5. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Draft records are typically in a preliminary or unfinished state, allowing for alterations and revisions before they are officially released. These records are not considered final or official, hence they are not officially released.

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6. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilites include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line of sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This specialty is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard RF line of sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They are experts in managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity for military operations.

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7. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity? 

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This unit focuses on providing enterprise-level services and support to enhance operational capabilities and efficiency. By centralizing and streamlining services, the ESU aims to minimize the need for extensive training and allow warfighters to focus on their core mission.

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8. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It evaluates the unit's ability to meet mission requirements, comply with regulations, and maintain readiness. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and identifies areas for improvement. It is a more holistic approach compared to other inspections such as Management Inspection (MI), Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI), and Commanders Inspection Program (CCIP), which may focus on specific aspects of unit performance.

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9. The UCMJ is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The UCMJ, or Uniform Code of Military Justice, is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, and it outlines the legal framework for military justice in the United States. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of military personnel and includes provisions for military offenses, disciplinary procedures, and the rights of service members. It is important for military personnel to be familiar with the UCMJ as it establishes the legal standards and procedures that apply to them.

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10. Which document in NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library references or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are typically curated and organized by libraries or museums, rather than being official documents produced by the government. Official government records are typically documents created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties, such as published doctrines, geographical base maps, or photographs of a retreat ceremony.

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11. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

Explanation

Active and Reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to cyber threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack by implementing countermeasures, isolating affected systems, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to detect and respond to cyber threats in real-time, minimizing the impact of attacks and protecting the network.

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12. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM). This individual is responsible for managing and coordinating the cyberspace operations within their assigned base. They oversee the functional aspects of the cyberspace operations and ensure that the base's systems and networks are secure and operational. The BFM works closely with other units and personnel to ensure the efficient and effective use of cyberspace resources at the base.

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13. Which Agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure? 

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency of the United States Department of Defense, and its mission is to provide, operate, and assure command and control, information sharing capabilities, and a globally accessible enterprise information infrastructure in direct support to joint warfighters, national level leaders, and other mission and coalition partners across the full spectrum of military operations. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of the GIG infrastructure.

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14. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They are capable of performing these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication systems are in place for effective military operations.

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15. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC), which is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career field. By using the data from occupational surveys, a CDC can be tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of the job roles identified in the survey. This helps in providing targeted and effective training to individuals, enabling them to excel in their careers.

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16. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for continuous improvement and proactive decision-making. It provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of the QA system and helps in making data-driven decisions to enhance quality.

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17. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, user responsibilities and guidance for information systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, user responsibilities and guidance for information systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Article 92 covers the offense of failure to obey an order or regulation, which includes the failure to follow the guidelines and responsibilities outlined in AFMAN 33-153. This article ensures that military personnel adhere to the rules and regulations set forth for information systems, emphasizing the importance of maintaining security and confidentiality.

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18. What automated information system manages the entire life cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire life cycle of IT assets, from procurement through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, asset tracking, and retirement processes, ensuring that organizations have accurate and up-to-date information about their IT assets throughout their life cycle.

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19. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordiante agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title is often referred to as the "Armed Forces" title and provides the legal framework for the organization, structure, and operations of the military branches under the DOD.

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20. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record"?

Explanation

AFI 33-322 is the correct answer as it defines an "official government record". The other options, AFI 33-321, AFI 33-329, and AFI 33-332, do not specifically define an official government record.

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21. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline the process of creating, revising, and distributing technical orders, ensuring that the most up-to-date information is available to users. ETIMS also provides a centralized repository for technical orders, making it easier for users to access and retrieve the information they need.

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22. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems responsibilities include the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring for both fixed and deployed operations. This involves ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and maintained to support the communication needs of the Air Force. Cable and Antenna Systems specialists are responsible for ensuring that the network wiring is functioning correctly and can effectively transmit data and communication signals. They play a crucial role in maintaining the connectivity and communication capabilities of the Air Force in various operational settings.

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23. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, they must be in Title 10 status to execute those missions. This is because Title 10 of the United States Code governs the organization and role of the military, including the Air National Guard. Title 32 status refers to the state control of the National Guard, while Title 10 status refers to federal control. Therefore, in order to perform cyber operations, which typically fall under federal jurisdiction, personnel must be in Title 10 status.

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24. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order if they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary knowledge and permission, they have the ability to make updates to the technical order. This allows for a more collaborative and inclusive approach to maintaining and improving technical orders, as it is not limited to a specific role or position.

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25. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is essential for providing structured and comprehensive training to individuals in a specific career field. It outlines the necessary education, training, and development requirements for career progression and ensures that the workforce is equipped with the skills and knowledge needed to perform their duties effectively. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their employees receive the necessary training and development opportunities to excel in their careers.

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26. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders, which provide instructions for the maintenance and operation of equipment, are properly distributed to the appropriate personnel. The TODO ensures that all personnel have access to the necessary technical orders and that they are kept up to date with any revisions or updates. This helps to ensure that equipment is maintained and operated correctly, promoting safety and efficiency within the organization.

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27. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor assigns Duty Position Tasks as part of the enlisted training element. These tasks are specific to the duties and responsibilities of a particular position within the Air Force.

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28. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

MILDEC activities are designed to mislead the enemy and create a false perception or understanding of military operations. In this case, since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, MILDEC would be the activity that is designed to mislead that audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and countering threats to security, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. None of these activities are specifically designed to mislead the audience.

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29. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the framework and direction for the Department of Defense's strategic planning efforts, including the development of plans for securing cyberspace. It outlines the priorities, goals, and strategies that the Department of Defense will pursue in order to protect and defend the nation's cyberspace.

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30. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force policy directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM) are directive publications that expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPMs have a limited lifespan and are subject to revision or replacement by higher-level directives such as AFPDs. AFPMs are typically used to provide temporary guidance or to address specific issues within the Air Force until a more comprehensive policy directive can be issued.

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31. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

JP 6-0, Joint Communications Systems is the correct answer because it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This means that it serves as the foundational document that provides guidance and standards for all other publications related to communication systems in joint operations. JP 5-0, Joint communications system and JP 5-0, Joint Operation Planning are incorrect answers as they do not specifically pertain to the communications-system series of publications. JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series is also incorrect as it does not specifically focus on communication systems.

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32. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development and advancement. The AFCFM works closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure the overall success and effectiveness of the career field.

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33. What Air Force publications are information and suggest guidance that you can modify to fir the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-Directive publications in the Air Force are sources of information and guidance that can be adapted or modified to fit specific circumstances. These publications provide a flexible framework for decision-making and allow for customization based on the unique needs and requirements of a situation. They offer suggestions and recommendations rather than strict directives, giving individuals the freedom to make informed choices and adjustments as necessary.

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34. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the DOD?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the DOD. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the Department of Defense and overseeing its operations. While the President is the commander-in-chief of the military, the Deputy Secretary holds a higher position within the DOD hierarchy. The Chief of Staff is a high-ranking military officer, but does not hold a civilian leadership position in the DOD. The Vice President is a political position and does not have a direct role in the DOD's leadership structure.

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35. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). They have the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions based on individual circumstances or needs. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, ensuring that the personnel receive the necessary training and education to excel in their roles. Therefore, they have the authority to waive certain requirements if they deem it appropriate.

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36. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This realignment was done to enhance the Air Force's capabilities in cyberspace operations and ensure a more focused and coordinated approach to cyber warfare. By bringing together the expertise and resources of these two commands, the Air Force aims to strengthen its ability to defend against cyber threats and conduct offensive cyber operations when necessary. The 24th Air Force, as a numbered Air Force under the command of Air Force Space Command, plays a crucial role in executing cyberspace operations and ensuring the security of Air Force networks and information systems.

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37. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on assessing the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance and skills of the personnel involved in the program, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the program's management. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific type of assessment in a QA program. It is possible that this option refers to the use of standards or benchmarks in the evaluations, rather than being a distinct evaluation type itself.

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38. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules likely include guidelines such as being clear and concise in your message, using proper grammar and punctuation, avoiding the use of all caps or excessive exclamation points, being mindful of the tone and language used, and ensuring that the email is sent to the appropriate recipients. Following these rules can help ensure that your message is effectively communicated and understood by the recipient.

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39. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to accurately capture the main points of the message in a concise and clear manner. By doing so, it demonstrates your comprehension of the content and your ability to effectively communicate the main idea to others.

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40. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as 

Explanation

Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that individuals involved in the relationship may give preferential treatment or biased decisions based on their personal connection, rather than on merit or fairness. This can create an unfair and unprofessional work environment, compromising the integrity and objectivity of the organization.

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41. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support for all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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42. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. CSI involves continuously monitoring and measuring service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance service delivery. It is an ongoing process that ensures services align with business objectives and meet customer needs. Service Transition, Service Strategy, and Service Design are other stages in the ITIL framework that focus on different aspects of service management, but they are not specifically dedicated to maintaining service quality.

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43. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive reference for Air Force personnel to understand and follow the correct procedures and guidelines in various areas such as operations, administration, logistics, and training. AFIs are designed to ensure consistency, standardization, and compliance with established policies and regulations within the Air Force. They provide step-by-step instructions, requirements, and responsibilities for personnel to carry out their duties effectively and efficiently.

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44. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a Sharepoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server.

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45. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone in a professional context. In this case, the question suggests that members of a household or close relatives fall under this category. This type of situation can create conflicts of interest, favoritism, or biased decision-making, which can be considered unethical. Therefore, the answer "covered relationship" is the most appropriate option for this question.

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46. What policy outlines the United States Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyber Space Operations outlines the United States Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on cyber space operations and their role in maintaining the US military's advantage in cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for military operations in the cyber domain, ensuring that the US remains secure and dominant in this critical domain.

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47. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, ensuring that the training and utilization of personnel in the career field align with the goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. The MFM acts as a liaison between the career field and the MAJCOM, advocating for the career field's requirements and priorities during the decision-making process.

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48. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures". This answer is the only option that does not describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1. The other options all mention resources, infrastructure, and training required to manage and use TOs, which are all aspects covered in TO 00-5-1.

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49. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The chief of office of records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office, including the appointment of custodians who are responsible for the day-to-day handling and preservation of records. They have the ultimate decision-making power in this regard and are accountable for ensuring that records are properly maintained and accessible.

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50. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices. It focuses on providing guidelines and procedures for the installation of equipment and systems, ensuring proper installation practices are followed to maintain the functionality and reliability of the equipment.

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51. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. They work towards promoting the growth and success of the electronic component industry by providing resources, networking opportunities, and advocating for the industry's interests.

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52. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. Unified command refers to the overall command that coordinates and directs the activities of multiple services or branches of the military. Subordinate unified command, on the other hand, refers to a command that is under the authority of a unified command and is responsible for specific geographic areas or functional areas of operations.

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53. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

Quality Assurance (QA) is a systematic process that ensures the quality of a product or service. It involves various elements such as quality assessment, quality system, and trend analysis. Quality assessment is a crucial element in a QA program as it involves evaluating the quality of the product or service. Quality system refers to the framework and processes that are in place to ensure quality. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in quality data. Therefore, the correct answer is Quality Assurance, as it is the main element in a QA program.

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54. What Cybersapce weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). It is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that only authorized users have access to the network and its resources. This system plays a crucial role in defending against cyber threats and maintaining the security of the Air Force's information infrastructure.

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55. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle Stages?

Explanation

The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle Stages is Service Contact. The ITIL framework consists of five stages, namely Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in the ITIL Service Life Cycle.

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56. What entity assigns number to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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57. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a document that outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for protecting the nation's critical infrastructure, promoting cybersecurity awareness, and fostering collaboration between the government, private sector, and international partners. This strategy focuses on enhancing cybersecurity capabilities, improving incident response and recovery, and promoting innovation and research in the field of cybersecurity. It serves as a guiding document for the nation's efforts to address the evolving cyber threats and ensure the security of cyberspace.

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58. What department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes the requirement for all authorized users of DOD information systems to receive initial IA awareness orientation and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive ensures that users are educated and updated on information assurance practices and policies to maintain the security and integrity of DOD information systems.

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59. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Wb access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. These centers are responsible for managing and maintaining the IT infrastructure and services for a specific geographical area. They ensure that businesses have access to essential services and resources for their operations. APCs play a crucial role in supporting enterprise-level functions and ensuring smooth communication and data management within an organization.

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60. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establishes the official mission, responsibilities, functions, relationships, and authority of Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives provide a framework for the organization and operation of these entities within the OSD, outlining their specific roles and responsibilities.

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61. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publications is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

AF Handbooks (AFH) are a type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication that is not subject to frequent change. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlets, and AF Visual Aids, which may need to be updated regularly to reflect new policies, procedures, or technology, AF Handbooks are typically designed to provide long-lasting guidance and information. They are meant to serve as a comprehensive resource that can be relied upon for an extended period of time without the need for frequent updates.

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62. The command, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a 

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Force Commanded (JFC). The command, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR), commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commanded (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating the Air Force forces within a joint force, ensuring that they are effectively integrated and working towards the overall objectives of the joint force commander.

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63. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) are the directive publications that prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units. These directives provide specific guidance and instructions for these entities to carry out their assigned missions and responsibilities. AFMDs help to establish a clear chain of command and ensure effective communication and coordination within the Air Force.

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64. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT), in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM, who manages the training pipeline, to determine and coordinate the scheduling of the STRT.

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65. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI).

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66. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide tools and resources that allow organizations to effectively and efficiently utilize the vast amount of information available to them. By exploiting information, organizations can make informed decisions, identify opportunities, and gain a competitive advantage in the market. EIM helps to streamline processes, improve collaboration, and maximize the value of information across the entire enterprise.

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67. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a rotational cycle, ensuring that the Air Force is able to provide a continuous and sustainable presence in various regions around the world. The AEF system allows for the efficient utilization of resources and ensures that the Air Force is able to respond effectively to any operational requirements or contingencies that may arise.

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68. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority? 

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. This strategy outlines the government's approach to protecting the nation's cyberspace and focuses on safeguarding key sectors such as energy, transportation, and communication. By addressing vulnerabilities and promoting collaboration between government agencies, private sector organizations, and individual users, this policy aims to enhance the security and resilience of the country's critical infrastructure against cyber threats.

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69. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. These directives provide clear and specific guidance to Air Force personnel on how to carry out their duties and responsibilities. They serve as a framework for decision-making and ensure consistency and compliance with established policies.

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70. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management? 

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and organizing records within their specific functional area, ensuring that all records are properly maintained and accessible. They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of records within their area of expertise.

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71. What cyber space weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. It is a weapon system used in cyberspace to ensure the security and control of the Air Force's cyber operations.

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72. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The base records manager is responsible for providing assistance, managing staging areas, and conducting records training. This role involves overseeing the organization and maintenance of records within a military or government base. They ensure that records are properly stored, classified, and easily accessible to authorized personnel. Additionally, they may assist in the preparation and execution of records management plans and policies.

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73. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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74. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide effective command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing the Air Force to maintain control over its cyber operations, defend against cyber threats, and ensure the availability and integrity of its networks and information systems. It plays a crucial role in enabling the Air Force to conduct its operations in cyberspace effectively and securely.

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75. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). They have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who are qualified and knowledgeable in the specific career field, ensuring that the tests and courses are accurate and relevant. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the training and development of individuals in the Air Force is effective and aligned with the requirements of their career field.

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76. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records manager?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role involves providing guidance and instruction on the proper management and maintenance of records within the command. The command records manager ensures that all base records managers are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively carry out their duties in managing records.

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77. What Cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network. It is designed to enhance the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force. The system operates under three integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC) to ensure effective management and protection of Air Force networks.

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What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides...
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control...
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and...
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and...
Records that are considered to be in draft format
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilites include the...
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps)...
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with...
The UCMJ is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
Which document in NOT considered an official government record?
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and...
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D...
Which Agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the...
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for...
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test...
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles,...
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN...
What automated information system manages the entire life cycle of...
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the...
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official...
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical...
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for...
Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained...
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop...
What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution...
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in...
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public...
What document directs the development of the National Military...
What directive publications expire one year after their effective date...
What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the...
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
What Air Force publications are information and suggest guidance...
Who is the second-highest ranking official in the DOD?
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training...
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to...
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA)...
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability...
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of...
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy...
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an...
What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on...
How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a Sharepoint...
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close...
What policy outlines the United States Armed Forces' comprehensive...
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during...
Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in...
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of...
Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator...
Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and...
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance...
What Cybersapce weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry...
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
What entity assigns number to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances...
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United...
What department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all...
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services...
What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office...
What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publications is not subject...
The command, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air...
What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of...
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements...
How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI)...
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide...
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to...
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's...
What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force...
Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within...
What cyber space weapon system includes the Integrate Network...
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and...
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of...
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission...
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter...
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for...
What Cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative...
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