3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 1 CDC
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilites include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line of sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations
- B.
Ground Radar Systems
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency TransmissionExplanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This specialty is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard RF line of sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They are experts in managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity for military operations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations
- B.
Ground Radar Systems
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna SystemsExplanation
Cable and Antenna Systems responsibilities include the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring for both fixed and deployed operations. This involves ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and maintained to support the communication needs of the Air Force. Cable and Antenna Systems specialists are responsible for ensuring that the network wiring is functioning correctly and can effectively transmit data and communication signals. They play a crucial role in maintaining the connectivity and communication capabilities of the Air Force in various operational settings.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
Core Task
- B.
Duty Competency
- C.
Core Competency
- D.
Duty Position Tasks
Correct Answer
D. Duty Position TasksExplanation
According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor assigns Duty Position Tasks as part of the enlisted training element. These tasks are specific to the duties and responsibilities of a particular position within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development and advancement. The AFCFM works closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure the overall success and effectiveness of the career field.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). They have the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions based on individual circumstances or needs. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, ensuring that the personnel receive the necessary training and education to excel in their roles. Therefore, they have the authority to waive certain requirements if they deem it appropriate.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM)Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, ensuring that the training and utilization of personnel in the career field align with the goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. The MFM acts as a liaison between the career field and the MAJCOM, advocating for the career field's requirements and priorities during the decision-making process.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM)Explanation
The Major command functional manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). They have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who are qualified and knowledgeable in the specific career field, ensuring that the tests and courses are accurate and relevant. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the training and development of individuals in the Air Force is effective and aligned with the requirements of their career field.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM)Explanation
The on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM). This individual is responsible for managing and coordinating the cyberspace operations within their assigned base. They oversee the functional aspects of the cyberspace operations and ensure that the base's systems and networks are secure and operational. The BFM works closely with other units and personnel to ensure the efficient and effective use of cyberspace resources at the base.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
Modify local training
- B.
Allocate manpower
- C.
Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
- D.
Assist the unit training manager in course development
Correct Answer
C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)Explanation
Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC), which is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career field. By using the data from occupational surveys, a CDC can be tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of the job roles identified in the survey. This helps in providing targeted and effective training to individuals, enabling them to excel in their careers.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Conduct climate training surveys
- B.
Develop Career Development Courses
- C.
Review the occupational analysis report
- D.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
Correct Answer
D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is essential for providing structured and comprehensive training to individuals in a specific career field. It outlines the necessary education, training, and development requirements for career progression and ensures that the workforce is equipped with the skills and knowledge needed to perform their duties effectively. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their employees receive the necessary training and development opportunities to excel in their careers.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
Air Force Career Field Manager (ACFCM) in conjunction with the SME
- C.
MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME)
- D.
AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM
Correct Answer
D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPMExplanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT), in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM, who manages the training pipeline, to determine and coordinate the scheduling of the STRT.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- B.
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)
- C.
On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program
- D.
Occupational Analysis program
Correct Answer
C. On-The-Job Training (OJT) ProgramExplanation
The On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program is the correct answer because it provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. OJT involves hands-on training and learning while actually performing the job tasks, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and develop the necessary skills in their specific field. This program is designed to enhance job performance and ensure that personnel are adequately trained to fulfill their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Quality Assessment
- B.
Quality Assurance
- C.
Quality System
- D.
Trend Analysis
Correct Answer
B. Quality AssuranceExplanation
Quality Assurance (QA) is a systematic process that ensures the quality of a product or service. It involves various elements such as quality assessment, quality system, and trend analysis. Quality assessment is a crucial element in a QA program as it involves evaluating the quality of the product or service. Quality system refers to the framework and processes that are in place to ensure quality. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in quality data. Therefore, the correct answer is Quality Assurance, as it is the main element in a QA program.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Technical Evaluation
- B.
Personnel Evluation
- C.
Managerial Evaluation
- D.
Standard Evaluation
Correct Answer
D. Standard EvaluationExplanation
In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on assessing the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance and skills of the personnel involved in the program, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the program's management. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific type of assessment in a QA program. It is possible that this option refers to the use of standards or benchmarks in the evaluations, rather than being a distinct evaluation type itself.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
Trend Analysis
- B.
Quality System
- C.
Quality Assessments
- D.
Managerial Assessments
Correct Answer
A. Trend AnalysisExplanation
Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for continuous improvement and proactive decision-making. It provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of the QA system and helps in making data-driven decisions to enhance quality.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
Management Inspection (MI)
- B.
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
- C.
Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)
- D.
Commanders Inspection Program (CCIP)
Correct Answer
B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)Explanation
The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It evaluates the unit's ability to meet mission requirements, comply with regulations, and maintain readiness. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and identifies areas for improvement. It is a more holistic approach compared to other inspections such as Management Inspection (MI), Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI), and Commanders Inspection Program (CCIP), which may focus on specific aspects of unit performance.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What automated information system manages the entire life cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Training Business Area
- C.
Telephone Management System
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System
Correct Answer
A. RemedyExplanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire life cycle of IT assets, from procurement through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, asset tracking, and retirement processes, ensuring that organizations have accurate and up-to-date information about their IT assets throughout their life cycle.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordiante agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
Title 10
- B.
Title 18
- C.
Title 32
- D.
Title 50
Correct Answer
A. Title 10Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title is often referred to as the "Armed Forces" title and provides the legal framework for the organization, structure, and operations of the military branches under the DOD.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The UCMJ is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
Title 3
- B.
Title 8
- C.
Title 10
- D.
Title 18
Correct Answer
C. Title 10Explanation
The correct answer is Title 10. The UCMJ, or Uniform Code of Military Justice, is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, and it outlines the legal framework for military justice in the United States. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of military personnel and includes provisions for military offenses, disciplinary procedures, and the rights of service members. It is important for military personnel to be familiar with the UCMJ as it establishes the legal standards and procedures that apply to them.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
National Military Cyberspace Strategy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace
- D.
National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure CyberspaceExplanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a document that outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for protecting the nation's critical infrastructure, promoting cybersecurity awareness, and fostering collaboration between the government, private sector, and international partners. This strategy focuses on enhancing cybersecurity capabilities, improving incident response and recovery, and promoting innovation and research in the field of cybersecurity. It serves as a guiding document for the nation's efforts to address the evolving cyber threats and ensure the security of cyberspace.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
National Security Policy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
Comprehensive National Cyber Security Initiative
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure CyberspaceExplanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. This strategy outlines the government's approach to protecting the nation's cyberspace and focuses on safeguarding key sectors such as energy, transportation, and communication. By addressing vulnerabilities and promoting collaboration between government agencies, private sector organizations, and individual users, this policy aims to enhance the security and resilience of the country's critical infrastructure against cyber threats.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What policy outlines the United States Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
National Security Policy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
Comprehensive National Cyber security Initiative
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyber Space Operations
Correct Answer
D. National Military Strategy for Cyber Space OperationsExplanation
The National Military Strategy for Cyber Space Operations outlines the United States Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on cyber space operations and their role in maintaining the US military's advantage in cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for military operations in the cyber domain, ensuring that the US remains secure and dominant in this critical domain.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
Title 10
- B.
Title 30
- C.
Title 50
- D.
Title 52
Correct Answer
A. Title 10Explanation
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, they must be in Title 10 status to execute those missions. This is because Title 10 of the United States Code governs the organization and role of the military, including the Air National Guard. Title 32 status refers to the state control of the National Guard, while Title 10 status refers to federal control. Therefore, in order to perform cyber operations, which typically fall under federal jurisdiction, personnel must be in Title 10 status.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
Misuse of position
- B.
Covered relationships
- C.
Non-public information
- D.
Personal conflict of interest
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationshipsExplanation
Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that individuals involved in the relationship may give preferential treatment or biased decisions based on their personal connection, rather than on merit or fairness. This can create an unfair and unprofessional work environment, compromising the integrity and objectivity of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
Misuse of position
- B.
Covered relationship
- C.
Personal conflict of interest
- D.
None, this is not an example of an unethical situation
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationshipExplanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone in a professional context. In this case, the question suggests that members of a household or close relatives fall under this category. This type of situation can create conflicts of interest, favoritism, or biased decision-making, which can be considered unethical. Therefore, the answer "covered relationship" is the most appropriate option for this question.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What cyber space weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control SystemExplanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. It is a weapon system used in cyberspace to ensure the security and control of the Air Force's cyber operations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What Cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon Systems
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control SystemExplanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network. It is designed to enhance the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force. The system operates under three integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC) to ensure effective management and protection of Air Force networks.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What Cybersapce weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon SystemExplanation
The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). It is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that only authorized users have access to the network and its resources. This system plays a crucial role in defending against cyber threats and maintaining the security of the Air Force's information infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon SystemExplanation
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission SystemExplanation
The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide effective command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing the Air Force to maintain control over its cyber operations, defend against cyber threats, and ensure the availability and integrity of its networks and information systems. It plays a crucial role in enabling the Air Force to conduct its operations in cyberspace effectively and securely.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- C.
Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon SystemExplanation
The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is a weapon system that specifically identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is designed to analyze and assess the security of cyberspace, helping to protect critical networks and ensure mission success. The other options listed are not specifically focused on vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive risk assessment.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
- B.
Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
- C.
Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
- D.
Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air ForceExplanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This realignment was done to enhance the Air Force's capabilities in cyberspace operations and ensure a more focused and coordinated approach to cyber warfare. By bringing together the expertise and resources of these two commands, the Air Force aims to strengthen its ability to defend against cyber threats and conduct offensive cyber operations when necessary. The 24th Air Force, as a numbered Air Force under the command of Air Force Space Command, plays a crucial role in executing cyberspace operations and ensuring the security of Air Force networks and information systems.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- A.
Active and Reactive
- B.
Evasive and Decisive
- C.
Subversive and Divisive
- D.
Offensive and Defensive
Correct Answer
A. Active and ReactiveExplanation
Active and Reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to cyber threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack by implementing countermeasures, isolating affected systems, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to detect and respond to cyber threats in real-time, minimizing the impact of attacks and protecting the network.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
Counterintelligence (CI)
- B.
Operation Security (OPSEC)
- C.
Military Deception (MILDEC)
- D.
Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)
Correct Answer
C. Military Deception (MILDEC)Explanation
MILDEC activities are designed to mislead the enemy and create a false perception or understanding of military operations. In this case, since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, MILDEC would be the activity that is designed to mislead that audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and countering threats to security, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. None of these activities are specifically designed to mislead the audience.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
Strategic Considerations
- B.
Military Strategic Framework
- C.
Implementation and Assessment
- D.
Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning GuidanceExplanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the framework and direction for the Department of Defense's strategic planning efforts, including the development of plans for securing cyberspace. It outlines the priorities, goals, and strategies that the Department of Defense will pursue in order to protect and defend the nation's cyberspace.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which Agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
Defense Industrial Base (DIB)
- B.
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
- C.
National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)
- D.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
Correct Answer
D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency of the United States Department of Defense, and its mission is to provide, operate, and assure command and control, information sharing capabilities, and a globally accessible enterprise information infrastructure in direct support to joint warfighters, national level leaders, and other mission and coalition partners across the full spectrum of military operations. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of the GIG infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
644th Combat Communication Squadron
- B.
85th Engineering Installation Squadron
- C.
83rd Network Operations Squadron
- D.
4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing
Correct Answer
B. 85th Engineering Installation SquadronExplanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They are capable of performing these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication systems are in place for effective military operations.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC)
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)Explanation
The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This unit focuses on providing enterprise-level services and support to enhance operational capabilities and efficiency. By centralizing and streamlining services, the ESU aims to minimize the need for extensive training and allow warfighters to focus on their core mission.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Wb access, and storage?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
Area Processing center (APC)
- C.
Enterprise service desk (ESD)
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer
B. Area Processing center (APC)Explanation
An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. These centers are responsible for managing and maintaining the IT infrastructure and services for a specific geographical area. They ensure that businesses have access to essential services and resources for their operations. APCs play a crucial role in supporting enterprise-level functions and ensuring smooth communication and data management within an organization.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
Manpower
- B.
Efficiency
- C.
Reduce costs
- D.
Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer
B. EfficiencyExplanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, communication and coordination can be streamlined, leading to faster response times and more effective problem-solving. This consolidation eliminates redundancies and improves the overall effectiveness of the network management and support processes.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
2009
- B.
2010
- C.
2011
- D.
2012
Correct Answer
B. 2010Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support for all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
Subordinate unified command and geographical command
- B.
Unified command and subordinate unified command
- C.
Functional command and geographical command
- D.
Unified command and functional command
Correct Answer
B. Unified command and subordinate unified commandExplanation
Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. Unified command refers to the overall command that coordinates and directs the activities of multiple services or branches of the military. Subordinate unified command, on the other hand, refers to a command that is under the authority of a unified command and is responsible for specific geographic areas or functional areas of operations.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The command, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- A.
Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC)
- B.
Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC)
- C.
Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)
- D.
Joint Force Commanded (JFC)
Correct Answer
D. Joint Force Commanded (JFC)Explanation
The correct answer is Joint Force Commanded (JFC). The command, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR), commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commanded (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating the Air Force forces within a joint force, ensuring that they are effectively integrated and working towards the overall objectives of the joint force commander.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)
- B.
Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)
- C.
Unit type codes (UTC)
- D.
Stratum Levels (SL)
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)Explanation
The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a rotational cycle, ensuring that the Air Force is able to provide a continuous and sustainable presence in various regions around the world. The AEF system allows for the efficient utilization of resources and ensures that the Air Force is able to respond effectively to any operational requirements or contingencies that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
Coding
- B.
Positioning
- C.
Tempo bands
- D.
Unit Type Codes
Correct Answer
D. Unit Type CodesExplanation
Unit Type Codes are the basic building blocks used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). These codes are used to identify and categorize different types of units within the military, allowing for efficient organization and coordination during deployments. By using Unit Type Codes, commanders can easily determine the capabilities and resources available within each unit, enabling them to effectively plan and execute missions.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle Stages?
- A.
Service Transition
- B.
Service Strategy
- C.
Service Contact
- D.
Service Design
Correct Answer
C. Service ContactExplanation
The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle Stages is Service Contact. The ITIL framework consists of five stages, namely Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in the ITIL Service Life Cycle.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
Continual Service Improvement
- B.
Service Transition
- C.
Service Stratgey
- D.
Service Design
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service ImprovementExplanation
Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. CSI involves continuously monitoring and measuring service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance service delivery. It is an ongoing process that ensures services align with business objectives and meet customer needs. Service Transition, Service Strategy, and Service Design are other stages in the ITIL framework that focus on different aspects of service management, but they are not specifically dedicated to maintaining service quality.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- A.
Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment
- B.
Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment
- C.
Improve the effectiveness of the mission
- D.
Improve the efficiency of the mission
Correct Answer
B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environmentExplanation
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide tools and resources that allow organizations to effectively and efficiently utilize the vast amount of information available to them. By exploiting information, organizations can make informed decisions, identify opportunities, and gain a competitive advantage in the market. EIM helps to streamline processes, improve collaboration, and maximize the value of information across the entire enterprise.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, user responsibilities and guidance for information systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
Article 32
- B.
Article 40
- C.
Article 92
- D.
Article 100
Correct Answer
C. Article 92Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, user responsibilities and guidance for information systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Article 92 covers the offense of failure to obey an order or regulation, which includes the failure to follow the guidelines and responsibilities outlined in AFMAN 33-153. This article ensures that military personnel adhere to the rules and regulations set forth for information systems, emphasizing the importance of maintaining security and confidentiality.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules likely include guidelines such as being clear and concise in your message, using proper grammar and punctuation, avoiding the use of all caps or excessive exclamation points, being mindful of the tone and language used, and ensuring that the email is sent to the appropriate recipients. Following these rules can help ensure that your message is effectively communicated and understood by the recipient.Rate this question:
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Mar 15, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 27, 2018Quiz Created by
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