3D153 CDC Vol. 1

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| By Thomas Stege
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Thomas Stege
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1. Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and comparing the fingerprint of an individual, biometric systems can accurately authenticate and grant access to authorized users. This method is considered highly secure as fingerprints are difficult to replicate, providing an effective means of identity verification.

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3D153 CDC Vol. 1 - Quiz

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2. Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the indiscriminate sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages to a large number of recipients. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it typically does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or its data. On the other hand, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are specifically designed to infiltrate systems, steal information, or cause damage, making them more dangerous and malicious threat vectors.

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3. The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is

Explanation

A current of 50 mA is considered the minimum amount that can result in cardiac arrest and potentially cause death. This level of current is enough to disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to an irregular heartbeat and potentially stopping the heart altogether. It is important to note that individual susceptibility to electric shock may vary, and factors such as the path of the current, duration of exposure, and overall health can also influence the severity of the effects.

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4. Two types of network cables are

Explanation

The correct answer is "Straight through and crossover" because these are the two types of network cables commonly used in networking. A straight-through cable is used to connect different types of devices, such as a computer to a switch or a router to a modem. On the other hand, a crossover cable is used to connect similar devices, such as a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. These cables have different wiring configurations, which determine the way data is transmitted between devices.

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5. When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

Explanation

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person taking the reading and to prevent any potential damage to the meter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electrical shock or short-circuiting is minimized, allowing for a safe and accurate resistance measurement to be taken.

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6. Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?

Explanation

The statement "Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier" is true concerning shielding. Shielding is used to protect sensitive equipment from electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI). By locating sensitive equipment within a shielded barrier, it can be protected from external electromagnetic disturbances that could potentially disrupt its operation. This ensures that the equipment functions properly without any interference from external sources.

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7. Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?

Explanation

Single mode fiber is the hardest to splice because it has a smaller core size compared to multimode fibers. The small core size of single mode fiber requires more precision and skill during the splicing process. Additionally, single mode fiber has a higher bandwidth and is designed for long-distance transmission, making it more sensitive to losses caused by splicing. Therefore, the difficulty in splicing single mode fiber arises from its smaller core size and the need for precise alignment to maintain its high performance characteristics.

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8. If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?

Explanation

In synchronous transmission, data is transmitted in blocks. Each block consists of multiple characters, and these blocks are transmitted one after the other. If an error occurs during the transmission, it means that one or more characters within a block of data are lost. Therefore, the correct answer is "Block of data."

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9. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

Explanation

A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault in the power line or a sudden increase in demand. This can lead to a decrease in the performance of electrical equipment connected to the power line, as they may not receive enough power to operate properly. A sag is different from a blackout, which is a complete loss of power, and spikes and noise, which involve sudden increases or disturbances in voltage levels.

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10. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Explanation

A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, meaning that there is no electricity available. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems relying on utility power will cease to function. This is different from other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause fluctuations or disturbances in power supply but do not result in a total loss of utility power.

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11. What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames?

Explanation

Video compression circuits use compression and decompression (codec) algorithms to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames. These algorithms analyze the data in the frames and apply various techniques to reduce redundancy and efficiently represent the video information. By using these algorithms, video compression circuits can determine the changes between frames and encode the video in a compressed format, which can then be decoded and decompressed for playback.

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12. What are the three main functions of grounding?

Explanation

The three main functions of grounding are personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks to individuals by providing a path for electric current to flow safely into the ground. It also protects equipment by providing a reference point for electrical circuits and preventing damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding helps to reduce noise interference in electrical systems, improving the quality of signals and preventing disruptions.

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13. What test equipment combines the operations of the many test instruments into a single compact unit?

Explanation

A communication service monitor combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit. It is designed to perform various tests and measurements related to communication systems, such as signal analysis, modulation and demodulation, spectrum analysis, power measurements, and frequency measurements. This versatile equipment eliminates the need for multiple individual test instruments, making it convenient and efficient for technicians and engineers in the field of communication.

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14. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) recommends a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less. This recommendation is based on safety standards and best practices in electrical systems. A lower ground resistance value ensures effective grounding of electrical equipment and reduces the risk of electrical shock or damage. It also helps in minimizing voltage fluctuations and ensuring proper functioning of electrical systems. Therefore, a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less is considered ideal for maintaining a safe and efficient electrical infrastructure.

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15. Which vulnerability preventative measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

Explanation

Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to address flaws found in the original code of a program. These flaws, also known as vulnerabilities, can be exploited by hackers to gain unauthorized access or cause harm to the system. Patches are released by software developers as updates to fix these vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. They are essential in preventing potential attacks and ensuring the software remains secure and reliable.

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16. What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?

Explanation

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a physical security implementation that ensures continuous operation of critical network equipment. It provides backup power in case of a power outage or disruption, allowing the equipment to continue functioning without interruption. This is crucial for maintaining the availability and reliability of the network infrastructure, as any downtime can result in significant financial losses and disruption of services. Therefore, implementing a UPS helps safeguard against power failures and ensures the continuous operation of critical network equipment.

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17. Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Explanation

AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions or practices in order to prevent accidents or damage. By reporting these hazards, the Air Force can take appropriate measures to mitigate the risks and ensure the safety of its personnel and property.

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18. When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?

Explanation

If the display on the multimeter is unreadable due to fluctuations, the "Display hold" option should be used. This option allows the multimeter to freeze the reading on the display, allowing the user to view and record the measurement without it constantly changing. By using the display hold option, the user can ensure accurate readings even in situations where the display is unstable or fluctuating.

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19. Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts?

Explanation

Class I electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) devices have a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts. This means that they are able to detect and be affected by electrostatic discharges within this voltage range. Class II, Class III, and Class IV may have different sensitivity ranges, but the question specifically asks for the class that covers 0 - 999 volts, which is Class I.

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20. Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on a carpet, friction is created between our shoes and the carpet fibers. This friction causes the transfer of electrons from the carpet to our shoes, resulting in an accumulation of static electricity. As a result, walking across carpet can generate a significant amount of electrostatic voltage.

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21. What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

Explanation

The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is a widely used active test that is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the destination node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it confirms that the node is connected and responding. PING is commonly used for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and measuring network performance.

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22. What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?

Explanation

Bit slip is the correct answer because it refers to the error that occurs when a bit is not positioned where it should be. This can happen during data transmission, where a bit may shift its position within a stream of bits, leading to errors in the received data. Bit slip is a common issue in synchronous communication systems and can cause data corruption if not properly addressed.

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23. Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources, such as files and applications, from any location that has an internet connection. By using encryption and other security measures, VPNs ensure that data transmitted over the public network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This allows the AF to connect to and utilize resources on the public network as if they were directly connected to a local area network, providing flexibility and accessibility.

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24. Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

Explanation

To upgrade to 3D153, one must complete the Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X, complete the Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153, and complete all core tasks identified for the 5 skill-level. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153 is not mentioned as a requirement.

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25. What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

Explanation

Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are commonly associated with the power line fault category known as "Noise." Noise refers to any unwanted electrical signal that can disrupt the normal operation of electronic devices. EMI and RFI are types of noise that can be caused by electromagnetic radiation from various sources, such as power lines, radio transmitters, or electronic equipment. They can interfere with the proper functioning of sensitive electronic devices, leading to signal degradation, data corruption, or even equipment failure.

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26. What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians?

Explanation

A passive standby UPS is traditionally referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS operates by allowing the connected devices to run on utility power directly, without any power conditioning or battery backup. In the event of a power outage or disturbance, the UPS quickly switches to battery power, providing backup power to the connected devices. The term "offline" is used because the UPS is not actively regulating or conditioning the power supply, but rather stands by passively until needed.

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27. Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

Explanation

Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation is important to minimize transmission loss. Each splice point in a fiber optic cable introduces a certain amount of signal loss, so by minimizing the number of splices, the overall transmission loss can be reduced. This is crucial for maintaining the quality and integrity of the transmitted data.

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28. Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet Protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

Explanation

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as IP detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This field deals with the management and maintenance of network systems and ensures their proper functioning and security.

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29. A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz.  What is the modulation index?

Explanation

The modulation index is a measure of how much a carrier signal is modulated by a modulating signal. In this case, the modulating signal has a frequency of 5 kHz and is causing a deviation of 15 kHz. The modulation index can be calculated by dividing the deviation by the modulating frequency, which gives a value of 3. This means that the carrier signal is modulated 3 times its original frequency by the modulating signal.

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30. Which hazard is cause by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Explanation

Stress is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers. These factors can lead to increased levels of stress, which can have negative effects on an individual's physical and mental health.

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31. What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?

Explanation

A guard band is a narrow frequency band that is placed between adjacent stations to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping. This ensures that there is no interference or signal distortion between the neighboring stations. The guard band acts as a buffer zone, providing a separation between the frequencies used by different stations, thus maintaining the integrity and quality of the transmitted signals.

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32. What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?

Explanation

The area of a digital storage oscilloscope that takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations is the microprocessors. This component is responsible for processing and analyzing the captured data, allowing for various calculations and measurements to be performed on the acquired signals.

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33. Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?

Explanation

The correct answer is Hazard reporting program. This program provides a means for reporting any hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety. It allows individuals to report any potential dangers or risks that they observe, ensuring that they are addressed and mitigated to maintain a safe environment for all operations.

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34. When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by

Explanation

When the transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it results in a 3 dB increase. This is because the decibel scale is logarithmic, and a doubling of power corresponds to a 3 dB increase.

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35. What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

Explanation

A rapid tuning transmitter often generates many spurious emissions. This is because rapid tuning transmitters are designed to quickly change frequencies, which can result in unintended emissions outside of the desired frequency range. These spurious emissions can cause interference with other equipment and can be a problem in radio communication systems.

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36. What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?

Explanation

VRC (Vertical Redundancy Check) and LRC (Longitudinal Redundancy Check) are two error detection methods that, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors. VRC checks for errors by adding a parity bit to each character, while LRC checks for errors by adding a parity bit to each block of characters. By combining these two methods, a high level of error detection can be achieved.

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37. What secondary cell is prone to memory effect?

Explanation

Nickel cadmium is prone to memory effect. Memory effect is a phenomenon in which the battery "remembers" its shallow discharge cycles and loses capacity over time. This occurs when the battery is repeatedly charged before it is fully discharged, causing the battery to remember the reduced capacity and not utilize its full potential. Nickel cadmium batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, requiring them to be fully discharged before recharging to avoid capacity loss.

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38. How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

Explanation

In industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power provides a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical power compared to single or double phases. It allows for higher power transmission, reduces voltage drop, and enables the use of three-phase motors that are commonly used in industrial machinery. Therefore, three phases of generator power are preferred in order to meet the power demands of industrial and commercial settings effectively.

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39. What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?

Explanation

The three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today are amplitude, frequency, and phase. Modulation is the process of varying one or more properties of a carrier signal in order to transmit information. In amplitude modulation (AM), the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to encode the information. In frequency modulation (FM), the frequency of the carrier signal is varied. In phase modulation (PM), the phase of the carrier signal is varied. These three categories are widely used in RF transmission to encode and transmit data efficiently and effectively.

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40. Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command?

Explanation

The SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It includes various commands to interact with these devices. The "Get" command is a basic SNMP command used to retrieve information from a network device. Therefore, it is not correct to say that "Get" is not a basic SNMP command.

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41. Who determines of local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

Explanation

The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the specific needs and requirements of the equipment and ensure that appropriate checklists and work cards are in place for efficient and safe operations.

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42. Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

Explanation

When modulation is reduced to less than 100 percent, it means that the amplitude of the carrier signal is not completely modulated by the information signal. In this case, the carrier power remains unchanged because the modulation is not affecting the amplitude of the carrier signal. The reduction in modulation only affects the sideband power, which is the power carried by the modulated signal around the carrier frequency. Therefore, there is no reduction in carrier power.

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43. The facility ground system to uses surge arrestors is the

Explanation

The facility ground system uses surge arrestors for lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices that divert excess electrical energy caused by lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment and into the ground. This helps to prevent damage to the equipment and ensures the safety of the facility and its occupants. By installing surge arrestors, the facility's ground system can effectively protect against the potentially destructive effects of lightning strikes.

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44. What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO). This is because the JSTO is specifically designed to outline the mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG). The JSTO provides a structured framework for supervisors to ensure that all necessary training topics are covered in their guides, helping to promote a safe working environment. The other options, such as the Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO) and Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), may be related to safety but do not specifically address the preparation of job safety training guides. The Job Safety Training Instruction (JSTI) is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.

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45. What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

Explanation

Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This is done to ensure a strong and reliable connection between the surfaces, allowing for the efficient transfer of electrical current or signals. By bonding the surfaces together, any potential resistance or impedance is minimized, reducing the risk of signal loss or interference. This is commonly used in various industries, such as electronics and telecommunications, to maintain proper grounding and ensure optimal performance and safety.

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46. In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network by disabling the

Explanation

Disabling the auxiliary port is the correct answer because it is the port used for remote management and troubleshooting purposes. By denying direct dial-in access to the network through the auxiliary port, potential unauthorized access and security breaches can be prevented. The console port is used for local management, the interface ports are used for network connectivity, and the virtual terminal ports are used for remote access via telnet or SSH.

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47. An optical transmitter is comprised of

Explanation

The correct answer is A driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail. An optical transmitter is a device that converts electrical signals into optical signals for transmission over fiber optic cables. The driver is responsible for converting the electrical signals into a format that can be used by the optical source, which generates the optical signals. The fiber optic pigtail is used to connect the optical source to the fiber optic cable, allowing the optical signals to be transmitted.

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48. Which mode of triggering as oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?

Explanation

In Auto mode, the oscilloscope continuously triggers and displays the waveform on the screen, regardless of whether there is an input signal or not. This mode is useful for monitoring the noise floor or checking the stability of the instrument. It ensures that the trace is always visible, providing a constant reference for analysis and troubleshooting purposes.

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49. Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a piece of shielded wire?

Explanation

A passive 1:1 oscilloscope probe is essentially just a piece of shielded wire. It does not contain any active components like transistors or amplifiers. Instead, it is a simple probe that allows the user to directly measure the voltage signal without any amplification or attenuation. The shielded wire helps to minimize interference and noise, ensuring accurate measurements.

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50. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how man decibels?

Explanation

The bel is a unit used to express the ratio of power levels. It is a logarithmic unit, with 1 bel representing a power ratio of 10:1. Since decibels (dB) are also a logarithmic unit, with a ratio of 10:1 for each decibel, the 10:1 power ratio can be represented by 10 dB.

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51. Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

Explanation

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This means that the interfering signal remains constant regardless of the movement of the antenna. Enemy jamming refers to deliberate attempts by an adversary to disrupt or interfere with communication systems. In this case, the lack of variation in the interfering signal suggests that it is intentionally being maintained at a consistent level, indicating the presence of enemy jamming.

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52. Which of the following is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter?

Explanation

Decibels is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter. Power meters typically display power levels in units such as dBm, which is a logarithmic unit of power relative to 1 milliwatt, watts which is the standard unit of power, and milliwatts which is a smaller unit of power equal to one thousandth of a watt. Decibels, on the other hand, is a unit used to express the ratio of two power levels or the ratio of a power level to a reference level.

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53. What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?

Explanation

Power lines can generate man-made noise due to voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges. These phenomena can cause disturbances in the electrical current flowing through the power lines, resulting in audible noise. This noise can interfere with communication systems and cause disruptions in nearby electronic devices. Therefore, power lines are the correct answer as they are known to produce noise in such situations.

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54. What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

Explanation

A bipolar violation is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules. Alternate mark inversion coding is a technique used in telecommunications to ensure the integrity of data transmission. According to this coding rule, logic one pulses should alternate in polarity. However, when two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity occur, it is considered a bipolar violation. This violation can cause errors in data transmission and disrupt the communication process. Therefore, the correct answer is bipolar violation.

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55. Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?

Explanation

The Joint Spectrum Center is tasked with providing interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum by military forces. This includes identifying and resolving any interference issues that may arise during military operations. The Joint Spectrum Center plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and efficient communication and coordination among military units.

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56. In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?

Explanation

In asynchronous transmissions, parity is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly. Parity is a simple error-checking technique that involves adding an extra bit to each transmitted character. This extra bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on whether the number of 1 bits in the character is even or odd. The receiving device can then compare the received parity bit with the calculated parity bit to determine if any errors occurred during transmission. If the parity bits match, it indicates that the transmission was received correctly.

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57. What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

Explanation

Distance and angles play a major role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations. By increasing the distance between the conductor and potential sources of interference, the conductor can reduce the likelihood of electromagnetic interference. Additionally, adjusting the angles at which the conductor is positioned can help to minimize the impact of electromagnetic fields. By considering both distance and angles, conductors can effectively minimize compromising emanations.

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58. Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Explanation

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is typically used for signal and control cables. This section is usually designated for these types of cables to ensure proper organization and separation from other types of cables. By placing signal and control cables in the upper section, it helps to minimize interference and maintain the integrity of the signals being transmitted.

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59. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

Explanation

When using forward error control as a method of error correction, error correction takes place at the receiving end. This means that the errors in the transmitted data are detected and corrected by the receiver before the data is processed or displayed. This ensures that the received data is accurate and reliable.

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60. Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?

Explanation

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves installing, supporting, and maintaining servers or other computer systems. It also includes responding to service outages and interruptions to network operations. This job requires knowledge and skills in managing and troubleshooting computer systems and networks, ensuring their smooth operation and addressing any issues that may arise.

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61. Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

Explanation

Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine-printed markings of indelible ink. Adhesive labels are commonly used for labeling various items and surfaces, and the machine-printed markings ensure clear and permanent identification. The indelible ink used on adhesive labels is resistant to fading, smudging, and other forms of damage, making it ideal for long-lasting labeling purposes.

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62. Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for

Explanation

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. This means that SNMP can provide insights and data on network usage, capacity, and trends, allowing administrators to make informed decisions about expanding or upgrading their network infrastructure to accommodate future growth. By monitoring network performance and identifying potential bottlenecks or areas of improvement, SNMP enables administrators to optimize their network for scalability and ensure that it can handle increasing demands in the future.

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63. The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulation increases in frequency with each 

Explanation

In frequency modulation (FM), the output of the oscillator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases during the positive half cycle, the frequency of the carrier signal also increases. This results in a modulation of the carrier signal's frequency, which is the basic principle of FM modulation.

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64. What operational capability of the communication service monitor produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms?

Explanation

The operational capability of a communication service monitor that produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms is the function generator. A function generator is a versatile tool used in electronic testing and design. It is capable of generating various waveforms, including sine, square, and triangle waves, which are essential for testing and analyzing communication systems and equipment.

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65. Within how many hours must a medical exam be concluded if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?

Explanation

If non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs, a medical exam must be concluded within 72 hours. This is important because non-ionizing radiation can have harmful effects on the body, and prompt medical attention is necessary to assess the extent of the overexposure and provide appropriate treatment if needed. Waiting longer than 72 hours may result in delayed diagnosis and potential complications.

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66. Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is

Explanation

Quantization in pulse code modulation (PCM) is the process of converting a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal by placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values. In PCM, the continuous analog signal is sampled and then each sample is quantized by assigning it to the nearest available discrete value. This allows for the representation of the continuous signal using a finite number of discrete values, which can be easily encoded and transmitted.

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67. The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines

Explanation

In vertical redundancy check (VRC), the significance of the amount of ones in a data bit pattern is that it determines the parity. Parity refers to the property of having an even or odd number of ones in a binary sequence. By counting the number of ones in the data bit pattern, the VRC can determine whether the parity should be even or odd. This is important for error detection purposes, as the receiver can compare the parity received with the expected parity to check if any errors occurred during transmission.

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68. To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when items weigh more than 25 pounds. This means that when an object weighs more than 25 pounds, it is recommended to have multiple people lift it together to distribute the weight and reduce the risk of injury or strain. This practice helps to ensure the safety of individuals involved in manual handling tasks and prevents accidents or health issues that can arise from lifting heavy objects alone.

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69. Which technical order (TO) publication series cover standard Air Force installation practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 31-10 series. This series of technical order publications covers standard Air Force installation practices.

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70. What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns. When a radiated electromagnetic pulse occurs, it generates a primarily vertical electric field. This type of pulse affects antennas and bore site feedhorns, which are structures used for transmitting and receiving electromagnetic signals. The vertical electric field can induce high voltages and currents in these structures, potentially causing damage or disruption to their operation.

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71. Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

Explanation

A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and directs data between nodes on a network. It uses routing tables to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. Unlike bridges, which operate at the data link layer of the OSI model, routers operate at the network layer. Routers can connect multiple networks together and can also provide additional features such as network address translation (NAT) and firewall capabilities. Therefore, a router is the correct answer for this question.

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72. Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?

Explanation

A VPN concentrator is responsible for managing data transfer across the tunnel, encrypting and decrypting data, and establishing tunnels. Encapsulating data is not a function of a VPN concentrator. Encapsulation refers to the process of adding headers and trailers to data packets to ensure proper routing and delivery. This task is typically performed by network devices such as routers or switches, not by a VPN concentrator.

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73. How are connectorized cables labled?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM". This labeling system helps to identify the direction of the cable, indicating where it is going (TO) and where it is coming from (FROM). Placing the labels within a specific distance of each other ensures that they are easily visible and can be read together to determine the cable's direction.

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74. The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the

Explanation

The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the percent of modulation. This refers to the percentage of variation in the carrier signal caused by the modulating signal. It is a measure of how much the carrier signal is modified or modulated by the intelligence signal. The higher the percent of modulation, the greater the variation in the carrier signal, and thus the more information or intelligence is conveyed.

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75. What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?

Explanation

Multimode step-index optical fiber cable has a bandwidth of 10 MHz - 100 MHz/km. This means that the cable can transmit data at a rate between 10 MHz and 100 MHz per kilometer. The bandwidth of a fiber optic cable determines its capacity to carry data, with higher bandwidth allowing for faster data transmission. In the case of multimode step-index optical fiber cable, it has a relatively lower bandwidth compared to other types of fiber optic cables, making it suitable for shorter distance communication applications.

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76. A radio frequency generator is used to

Explanation

A radio frequency generator is used to align telemetry receivers. This means that it is used to adjust and calibrate the receivers so that they are properly tuned and functioning correctly. This ensures that the receivers are able to accurately receive and interpret the telemetry signals being transmitted to them.

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77. In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?

Explanation

In real-time sampling, linear interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves. Linear interpolation involves connecting two data points with a straight line and estimating the values in between. This method provides a smooth and continuous representation of the pulse waveform by filling in the gaps between the sampled points with a straight line. It is a commonly used interpolation technique in signal processing to reconstruct continuous waveforms from discrete samples.

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78. A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a

Explanation

A patch cord is a short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end. It is commonly used to connect devices in a network or telecommunications system. The connectors on the patch cord allow for easy and quick connections between different devices or components. Patch cords are often used in data centers, server rooms, and other networking environments where frequent changes or additions to the network infrastructure are required.

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79. Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?

Explanation

The Wing Information Assurance Office (WIAO) is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation. They are responsible for ensuring that all communication and information systems are secure and protected from any potential threats or vulnerabilities. The WIAO works closely with other personnel, such as the Information Security Officer (IAO) and the Information Security Program Manager (ISPM), to implement and enforce EMSEC policies and procedures. The Communications and Information System Officer (CSO) may also play a role in EMSEC matters, but the WIAO is specifically designated as the focal point for these issues.

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80. Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use?

Explanation

Internet backbones use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as the routing protocol. BGP is designed to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It allows routers in different AS to communicate and exchange information about the best paths for routing data packets. BGP is widely used by internet service providers (ISPs) and large networks to establish and maintain routing policies, ensuring efficient and reliable data transmission across the internet.

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81. In telecommunications cable, the "tip" or "primary" wire color group order is

Explanation

The correct answer is White, red, black, yellow, and violet. This order is commonly used for telecommunications cable, specifically for the tip or primary wire color group. Each color represents a specific function or signal in the cable system. The order of these colors is standardized to ensure consistency and compatibility across different telecommunication systems.

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82. The RED designation is used for equipment processing

Explanation

The RED designation is used for equipment processing clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment is authorized to handle unencrypted, unclassified information that is considered sensitive and classified. This information can be accessed and processed without any encryption or additional security measures, but it is still classified and requires proper handling and protection.

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83. Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?

Explanation

The correct answer is Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters. These four classes of electronic counters are commonly used in various applications. Frequency counters are used to measure the frequency of a signal, while universal counters can measure frequency, period, time interval, and pulse width. Microwave counters are specifically designed to measure high-frequency signals, and reciprocal counters can measure both frequency and time interval. These four classes cover a wide range of measurement capabilities and are essential tools in electronic and telecommunications industries.

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84. What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?

Explanation

The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies outside a certain range. This is done to ensure that the signal can be accurately represented and sampled without any distortion or loss of information. Band limiting helps to prevent aliasing and ensures that the digital representation of the signal is as close to the original analog signal as possible.

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85. What is the first step in testing ground?

Explanation

The first step in testing ground is to disconnect the earth electrode under the test from its connection to the site. This is necessary in order to isolate the electrode and ensure accurate measurement of ground resistance.

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86. What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

Explanation

Trace route is the correct answer because it is an active test that allows users to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes for the packets to complete the trip. Trace route works by sending a series of packets with increasing time-to-live (TTL) values to a destination, and each router along the path sends back an ICMP time exceeded message. By analyzing these messages, the route and the time taken by the packets can be determined.

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87. What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

Explanation

Trunks allow the transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. Trunks are configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously, enabling efficient communication between switches. By using trunks, switches can transmit and receive frames from different VLANs over the same physical link, eliminating the need for separate links for each VLAN. This helps optimize network resources and simplifies network management.

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88. Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the

Explanation

The plug-in elements of a wattmeter are selected based on the frequency and power that need to be measured. Different frequencies and power levels require different plug-in elements to accurately measure the wattage. By selecting the appropriate plug-in elements, the wattmeter can provide accurate measurements for a wide range of frequencies and power levels.

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89. What function is not part of the communication service monitor?

Explanation

An analog multimeter is not part of the communication service monitor because it is primarily used for measuring electrical quantities such as voltage, current, and resistance. In contrast, a communication service monitor is specifically designed to analyze and monitor communication signals and systems. It typically includes functions such as signal generation, modulation analysis, spectrum analysis, and receiver testing. Therefore, an analog multimeter, which is not specialized for communication analysis, does not belong in a communication service monitor.

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90. Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the ewapon products and the earth's atmosphere?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Source." The question is asking about the distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse that is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere. The term "source" refers to the origin or starting point of something. In this context, it suggests that the electromagnetic pulse is generated at the source of the weapon products' interaction with the atmosphere.

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91. The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the 

Explanation

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the test pattern segment is determined by the number of bits needed to represent the entire test pattern. The more bits that are needed, the larger the size of the test pattern segment will be.

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92. Voltage potential is measured in the fall of potential ground testing method between the

Explanation

In the fall of potential ground testing method, voltage potential is measured between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground probe. This method involves driving a current into the ground through the earth test ground probe and measuring the voltage drop between the auxiliary potential electrode and the ground. This allows for the assessment of the resistance and impedance of the grounding system.

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93. What type of uninterruptible power supply uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

Explanation

A line interactive uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is able to regulate the voltage and filter out power disturbances, such as voltage sags or surges, without having to switch to battery power. It provides a more stable and reliable power supply to the load, making it a suitable choice for protecting sensitive equipment from power fluctuations.

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94. What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?

Explanation

The spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal is determined by the frequency of the modulating signal. In amplitude modulation, the modulating signal alters the amplitude of the carrier signal, resulting in the creation of sidebands. The frequency of the modulating signal directly affects the spacing between these sidebands. A higher frequency modulating signal will result in sidebands that are closer together, while a lower frequency modulating signal will result in sidebands that are further apart.

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95. A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the

Explanation

The correct answer is the Auxiliary current probe. The earth ground tester generates a known current between the earth ground electrode and the Auxiliary current probe. This probe is used to measure the current flowing through the ground system and determine if it meets the required standards for electrical safety. The other options, such as the Grounding point, Inner earth stake Y, and Auxiliary potential probe, are not directly involved in generating the known current for testing the ground system.

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96. Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Identifies the specialty training standard (STS)." The other options listed are all functions of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I. The CFETP is designed to provide guidance and structure for career field training and development. It includes information on source restraints, the purpose of the CFETP and how it should be used, as well as identifying duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and the career field path. However, identifying the specialty training standard (STS) is not one of the functions of the CFETP.

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97. What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs?

Explanation

The buffer component of a protocol analyzer is responsible for storing all frames based on the user configuration inputs. It acts as a temporary storage area where the captured frames are stored before they can be analyzed or processed further. The buffer allows the user to capture and store a large number of frames, ensuring that none of the captured data is lost. This helps in analyzing network traffic and troubleshooting issues effectively.

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98. What component on a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs?

Explanation

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) on a protocol analyzer is responsible for processing the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs. The CPU is the main component of a computer system that performs all the necessary calculations and operations. In the context of a protocol analyzer, the CPU processes the captured frames, applies any filters or configurations specified by the user, and performs the necessary analysis or actions based on the selected test. It is the core component that handles the processing and interpretation of the data captured by the protocol analyzer.

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99. When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains

Explanation

When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the resulting output signal contains the carrier signal, as well as the upper sideband and lower sideband. This is because the modulator combines the modulating signal with the carrier signal to create new frequencies that are the sum and difference of the original frequencies. The carrier signal represents the original frequency, while the upper and lower sidebands represent the frequencies that are higher and lower than the carrier frequency.

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100. What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?

Explanation

Adding more phase shifts can result in a smaller bit error rate. This is because with more phase shifts, the signal becomes more robust against noise and interference. Each phase shift represents a different symbol, and by increasing the number of possible symbols, the system can better distinguish between them and reduce the likelihood of errors. This can lead to a more reliable and accurate transmission of data, resulting in a smaller bit error rate.

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What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
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