3D153 CDC Vol. 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is

    • 100 mA
    • 75 mA
    • 50 mA
    • 25 mA
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3D153 CDC Vol. 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?

    • Cables should be of unshielded construction.

    • Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.

    • Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

    • All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
    Explanation
    The statement "Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier" is true concerning shielding. Shielding is used to protect sensitive equipment from electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI). By locating sensitive equipment within a shielded barrier, it can be protected from external electromagnetic disturbances that could potentially disrupt its operation. This ensures that the equipment functions properly without any interference from external sources.

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  • 3. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Sag
    Explanation
    A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault in the power line or a sudden increase in demand. This can lead to a decrease in the performance of electrical equipment connected to the power line, as they may not receive enough power to operate properly. A sag is different from a blackout, which is a complete loss of power, and spikes and noise, which involve sudden increases or disturbances in voltage levels.

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  • 4. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Blackout
    Explanation
    A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, meaning that there is no electricity available. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems relying on utility power will cease to function. This is different from other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause fluctuations or disturbances in power supply but do not result in a total loss of utility power.

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  • 5. 

    If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?

    • One character

    • Block of data

    • A parity bit

    • A stop bit

    Correct Answer
    A. Block of data
    Explanation
    In synchronous transmission, data is transmitted in blocks. Each block consists of multiple characters, and these blocks are transmitted one after the other. If an error occurs during the transmission, it means that one or more characters within a block of data are lost. Therefore, the correct answer is "Block of data."

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  • 6. 

    Two types of network cables are

    • Straight through and crossover

    • Straight through and flip/flop

    • High and low baud

    • "n" and "g"

    Correct Answer
    A. Straight through and crossover
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Straight through and crossover" because these are the two types of network cables commonly used in networking. A straight-through cable is used to connect different types of devices, such as a computer to a switch or a router to a modem. On the other hand, a crossover cable is used to connect similar devices, such as a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. These cables have different wiring configurations, which determine the way data is transmitted between devices.

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  • 7. 

    Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?

    • Multimode graded-index fiber

    • Multimode step index fiber

    • Unshielded twisted pair

    • Single mode fiber

    Correct Answer
    A. Single mode fiber
    Explanation
    Single mode fiber is the hardest to splice because it has a smaller core size compared to multimode fibers. The small core size of single mode fiber requires more precision and skill during the splicing process. Additionally, single mode fiber has a higher bandwidth and is designed for long-distance transmission, making it more sensitive to losses caused by splicing. Therefore, the difficulty in splicing single mode fiber arises from its smaller core size and the need for precise alignment to maintain its high performance characteristics.

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  • 8. 

    What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames?

    • Pixel

    • Buffer

    • Keyframe

    • Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm

    Correct Answer
    A. Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm
    Explanation
    Video compression circuits use compression and decompression (codec) algorithms to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames. These algorithms analyze the data in the frames and apply various techniques to reduce redundancy and efficiently represent the video information. By using these algorithms, video compression circuits can determine the changes between frames and encode the video in a compressed format, which can then be decoded and decompressed for playback.

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  • 9. 

    Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and comparing the fingerprint of an individual, biometric systems can accurately authenticate and grant access to authorized users. This method is considered highly secure as fingerprints are difficult to replicate, providing an effective means of identity verification.

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  • 10. 

    Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

    • Virus

    • Spam

    • Spyware

    • Phishing

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the indiscriminate sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages to a large number of recipients. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it typically does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or its data. On the other hand, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are specifically designed to infiltrate systems, steal information, or cause damage, making them more dangerous and malicious threat vectors.

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  • 11. 

    When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

    • Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.

    • Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

    • Place the meter in the frequency mode.

    • Set the range for maximum reading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
    Explanation
    When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person taking the reading and to prevent any potential damage to the meter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electrical shock or short-circuiting is minimized, allowing for a safe and accurate resistance measurement to be taken.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

    • Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.

    • Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.

    • Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153.

    • Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
    Explanation
    To upgrade to 3D153, one must complete the Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X, complete the Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153, and complete all core tasks identified for the 5 skill-level. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153 is not mentioned as a requirement.

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  • 13. 

    Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet Protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

    • Radio Frequency Transmissions Systems (3D1X3)

    • Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)

    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)

    • Client Systems (3D1X1)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)
    Explanation
    Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as IP detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This field deals with the management and maintenance of network systems and ensures their proper functioning and security.

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  • 14. 

    Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

    • 1118

    • 457

    • 55

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 457
    Explanation
    AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions or practices in order to prevent accidents or damage. By reporting these hazards, the Air Force can take appropriate measures to mitigate the risks and ensure the safety of its personnel and property.

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  • 15. 

    Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

    • Minimize transmission loss.

    • To aid in trouble shooting.

    • Reduce potential damage.

    • Prevent eavesdropping.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimize transmission loss.
    Explanation
    Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation is important to minimize transmission loss. Each splice point in a fiber optic cable introduces a certain amount of signal loss, so by minimizing the number of splices, the overall transmission loss can be reduced. This is crucial for maintaining the quality and integrity of the transmitted data.

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  • 16. 

    What are the three main functions of grounding?

    • Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

    • Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.

    • Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.

    • Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
    Explanation
    The three main functions of grounding are personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks to individuals by providing a path for electric current to flow safely into the ground. It also protects equipment by providing a reference point for electrical circuits and preventing damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding helps to reduce noise interference in electrical systems, improving the quality of signals and preventing disruptions.

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  • 17. 

    Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts?

    • Class I

    • Class II

    • Class III

    • Class IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I
    Explanation
    Class I electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) devices have a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts. This means that they are able to detect and be affected by electrostatic discharges within this voltage range. Class II, Class III, and Class IV may have different sensitivity ranges, but the question specifically asks for the class that covers 0 - 999 volts, which is Class I.

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  • 18. 

    Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

    • Working at a bench

    • Walking across carpet

    • Walking across a vinyl floor

    • Picking up a common plastic bag

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking across carpet
    Explanation
    Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on a carpet, friction is created between our shoes and the carpet fibers. This friction causes the transfer of electrons from the carpet to our shoes, resulting in an accumulation of static electricity. As a result, walking across carpet can generate a significant amount of electrostatic voltage.

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  • 19. 

    What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are commonly associated with the power line fault category known as "Noise." Noise refers to any unwanted electrical signal that can disrupt the normal operation of electronic devices. EMI and RFI are types of noise that can be caused by electromagnetic radiation from various sources, such as power lines, radio transmitters, or electronic equipment. They can interfere with the proper functioning of sensitive electronic devices, leading to signal degradation, data corruption, or even equipment failure.

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  • 20. 

    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians?

    • Passive standby

    • Line interactive

    • Double conversion

    • Ferro resonant standby

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive standby
    Explanation
    A passive standby UPS is traditionally referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS operates by allowing the connected devices to run on utility power directly, without any power conditioning or battery backup. In the event of a power outage or disturbance, the UPS quickly switches to battery power, providing backup power to the connected devices. The term "offline" is used because the UPS is not actively regulating or conditioning the power supply, but rather stands by passively until needed.

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  • 21. 

    Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

    • Department of Defense network

    • Air Force network

    • Local area network

    • Public network

    Correct Answer
    A. Public network
    Explanation
    VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources, such as files and applications, from any location that has an internet connection. By using encryption and other security measures, VPNs ensure that data transmitted over the public network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This allows the AF to connect to and utilize resources on the public network as if they were directly connected to a local area network, providing flexibility and accessibility.

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  • 22. 

    Which vulnerability preventative measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

    • Patches

    • Antivirus

    • Software removal

    • Vulnerability scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches
    Explanation
    Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to address flaws found in the original code of a program. These flaws, also known as vulnerabilities, can be exploited by hackers to gain unauthorized access or cause harm to the system. Patches are released by software developers as updates to fix these vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. They are essential in preventing potential attacks and ensuring the software remains secure and reliable.

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  • 23. 

    What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?

    • Data encryption

    • Virtual private network

    • Uninterruptible power supply

    • Network management system

    Correct Answer
    A. Uninterruptible power supply
    Explanation
    An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a physical security implementation that ensures continuous operation of critical network equipment. It provides backup power in case of a power outage or disruption, allowing the equipment to continue functioning without interruption. This is crucial for maintaining the availability and reliability of the network infrastructure, as any downtime can result in significant financial losses and disruption of services. Therefore, implementing a UPS helps safeguard against power failures and ensures the continuous operation of critical network equipment.

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  • 24. 

    When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?

    • Range

    • Frequency

    • Display hold

    • Minimum/maximum

    Correct Answer
    A. Display hold
    Explanation
    If the display on the multimeter is unreadable due to fluctuations, the "Display hold" option should be used. This option allows the multimeter to freeze the reading on the display, allowing the user to view and record the measurement without it constantly changing. By using the display hold option, the user can ensure accurate readings even in situations where the display is unstable or fluctuating.

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  • 25. 

    What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?

    • Cyclic redundancy check

    • Bipolar variation

    • Bit slip

    • Frame

    Correct Answer
    A. Bit slip
    Explanation
    Bit slip is the correct answer because it refers to the error that occurs when a bit is not positioned where it should be. This can happen during data transmission, where a bit may shift its position within a stream of bits, leading to errors in the received data. Bit slip is a common issue in synchronous communication systems and can cause data corruption if not properly addressed.

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  • 26. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of

    • 5 ohms or less

    • 10 ohms or less

    • 20 ohms or less

    • 25 ohms or less

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 ohms or less
    Explanation
    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) recommends a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less. This recommendation is based on safety standards and best practices in electrical systems. A lower ground resistance value ensures effective grounding of electrical equipment and reduces the risk of electrical shock or damage. It also helps in minimizing voltage fluctuations and ensuring proper functioning of electrical systems. Therefore, a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less is considered ideal for maintaining a safe and efficient electrical infrastructure.

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  • 27. 

    What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING)

    • Traffic generator

    • Route generator

    • Trace route

    Correct Answer
    A. Packet internetwork groper (PING)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is a widely used active test that is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the destination node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it confirms that the node is connected and responding. PING is commonly used for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and measuring network performance.

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  • 28. 

    What test equipment combines the operations of the many test instruments into a single compact unit?

    • Volt meter

    • Oscilloscope

    • Impedance meter

    • Communication service monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Communication service monitor
    Explanation
    A communication service monitor combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit. It is designed to perform various tests and measurements related to communication systems, such as signal analysis, modulation and demodulation, spectrum analysis, power measurements, and frequency measurements. This versatile equipment eliminates the need for multiple individual test instruments, making it convenient and efficient for technicians and engineers in the field of communication.

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  • 29. 

    Which hazard is cause by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    • Physical

    • Stress

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress
    Explanation
    Stress is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers. These factors can lead to increased levels of stress, which can have negative effects on an individual's physical and mental health.

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  • 30. 

    Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?

    • Ground safety program

    • Hazard reporting program

    • Hazard communication program

    • Ground safety mishap prevention program

    Correct Answer
    A. Hazard reporting program
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Hazard reporting program. This program provides a means for reporting any hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety. It allows individuals to report any potential dangers or risks that they observe, ensuring that they are addressed and mitigated to maintain a safe environment for all operations.

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  • 31. 

    What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

    • Slow tuning receiver

    • Rapid tuning receiver

    • Slow tuning transmitter

    • Rapid tuning transmitter

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapid tuning transmitter
    Explanation
    A rapid tuning transmitter often generates many spurious emissions. This is because rapid tuning transmitters are designed to quickly change frequencies, which can result in unintended emissions outside of the desired frequency range. These spurious emissions can cause interference with other equipment and can be a problem in radio communication systems.

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  • 32. 

    What secondary cell is prone to memory effect?

    • Nickel cadmium

    • Carbon zinc

    • Lead-acid

    • Lithium

    Correct Answer
    A. Nickel cadmium
    Explanation
    Nickel cadmium is prone to memory effect. Memory effect is a phenomenon in which the battery "remembers" its shallow discharge cycles and loses capacity over time. This occurs when the battery is repeatedly charged before it is fully discharged, causing the battery to remember the reduced capacity and not utilize its full potential. Nickel cadmium batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, requiring them to be fully discharged before recharging to avoid capacity loss.

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  • 33. 

    How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

    • Single

    • Double

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    In industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power provides a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical power compared to single or double phases. It allows for higher power transmission, reduces voltage drop, and enables the use of three-phase motors that are commonly used in industrial machinery. Therefore, three phases of generator power are preferred in order to meet the power demands of industrial and commercial settings effectively.

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  • 34. 

    What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?

    • Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying..

    • Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.

    • Amplitude, frequency, and phase.

    • Analog, digital, and shift keying.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
    Explanation
    The three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today are amplitude, frequency, and phase. Modulation is the process of varying one or more properties of a carrier signal in order to transmit information. In amplitude modulation (AM), the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to encode the information. In frequency modulation (FM), the frequency of the carrier signal is varied. In phase modulation (PM), the phase of the carrier signal is varied. These three categories are widely used in RF transmission to encode and transmit data efficiently and effectively.

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  • 35. 

    A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz.  What is the modulation index?

    • 5

    • 3

    • 0.5

    • 0.3

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The modulation index is a measure of how much a carrier signal is modulated by a modulating signal. In this case, the modulating signal has a frequency of 5 kHz and is causing a deviation of 15 kHz. The modulation index can be calculated by dividing the deviation by the modulating frequency, which gives a value of 3. This means that the carrier signal is modulated 3 times its original frequency by the modulating signal.

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  • 36. 

    What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?

    • Space

    • Guard band

    • Buffer zone

    • Prevention field

    Correct Answer
    A. Guard band
    Explanation
    A guard band is a narrow frequency band that is placed between adjacent stations to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping. This ensures that there is no interference or signal distortion between the neighboring stations. The guard band acts as a buffer zone, providing a separation between the frequencies used by different stations, thus maintaining the integrity and quality of the transmitted signals.

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  • 37. 

    What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?

    • Longitudinal redundancy check (LRC) and checksum

    • Checksum and cyclic redundancy check (CRC)

    • Vertical redundancy check (VRC) and CRC

    • VRC and LRC

    Correct Answer
    A. VRC and LRC
    Explanation
    VRC (Vertical Redundancy Check) and LRC (Longitudinal Redundancy Check) are two error detection methods that, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors. VRC checks for errors by adding a parity bit to each character, while LRC checks for errors by adding a parity bit to each block of characters. By combining these two methods, a high level of error detection can be achieved.

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  • 38. 

    What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?

    • Microprocessors

    • Acquisition

    • Memory

    • Input

    Correct Answer
    A. Microprocessors
    Explanation
    The area of a digital storage oscilloscope that takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations is the microprocessors. This component is responsible for processing and analyzing the captured data, allowing for various calculations and measurements to be performed on the acquired signals.

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  • 39. 

    When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by

    • 1 dB

    • 2dB

    • 3 dB

    • 4 dB

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 dB
    Explanation
    When the transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it results in a 3 dB increase. This is because the decibel scale is logarithmic, and a doubling of power corresponds to a 3 dB increase.

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  • 40. 

    Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?

    • Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1)

    • Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2)

    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X2)

    • Cyber Surety (3D0X3)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2)
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves installing, supporting, and maintaining servers or other computer systems. It also includes responding to service outages and interruptions to network operations. This job requires knowledge and skills in managing and troubleshooting computer systems and networks, ensuring their smooth operation and addressing any issues that may arise.

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  • 41. 

    What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

    • Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO)

    • Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI)

    • Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO)

    • Job Safety Training Instruction (JSTI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO). This is because the JSTO is specifically designed to outline the mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG). The JSTO provides a structured framework for supervisors to ensure that all necessary training topics are covered in their guides, helping to promote a safe working environment. The other options, such as the Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO) and Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), may be related to safety but do not specifically address the preparation of job safety training guides. The Job Safety Training Instruction (JSTI) is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.

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  • 42. 

    Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

    • Lower

    • Upper

    • Right

    • Left

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper
    Explanation
    The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is typically used for signal and control cables. This section is usually designated for these types of cables to ensure proper organization and separation from other types of cables. By placing signal and control cables in the upper section, it helps to minimize interference and maintain the integrity of the signals being transmitted.

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  • 43. 

    Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

    • Adhesive

    • Special foil

    • Cable sheath

    • Heat shrink tubing

    Correct Answer
    A. Adhesive
    Explanation
    Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine-printed markings of indelible ink. Adhesive labels are commonly used for labeling various items and surfaces, and the machine-printed markings ensure clear and permanent identification. The indelible ink used on adhesive labels is resistant to fading, smudging, and other forms of damage, making it ideal for long-lasting labeling purposes.

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  • 44. 

    Who determines of local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

    • Supervisor

    • Job control

    • Commander

    • Flight commander/chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight commander/chief
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the specific needs and requirements of the equipment and ensure that appropriate checklists and work cards are in place for efficient and safe operations.

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  • 45. 

    The facility ground system to uses surge arrestors is the

    • Earth electrode

    • Fault protection

    • Signal reference

    • Lightning protection

    Correct Answer
    A. Lightning protection
    Explanation
    The facility ground system uses surge arrestors for lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices that divert excess electrical energy caused by lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment and into the ground. This helps to prevent damage to the equipment and ensures the safety of the facility and its occupants. By installing surge arrestors, the facility's ground system can effectively protect against the potentially destructive effects of lightning strikes.

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  • 46. 

    What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

    • Bonding

    • Shielding

    • Annealing

    • Grounding

    Correct Answer
    A. Bonding
    Explanation
    Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This is done to ensure a strong and reliable connection between the surfaces, allowing for the efficient transfer of electrical current or signals. By bonding the surfaces together, any potential resistance or impedance is minimized, reducing the risk of signal loss or interference. This is commonly used in various industries, such as electronics and telecommunications, to maintain proper grounding and ensure optimal performance and safety.

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  • 47. 

    Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

    • Enemy jamming

    • Internal interference

    • Radio receiver trouble

    • Unintentional interference

    Correct Answer
    A. Enemy jamming
    Explanation
    Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This means that the interfering signal remains constant regardless of the movement of the antenna. Enemy jamming refers to deliberate attempts by an adversary to disrupt or interfere with communication systems. In this case, the lack of variation in the interfering signal suggests that it is intentionally being maintained at a consistent level, indicating the presence of enemy jamming.

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  • 48. 

    What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?

    • Relays

    • Lighting

    • Power line

    • Switching equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Power line
    Explanation
    Power lines can generate man-made noise due to voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges. These phenomena can cause disturbances in the electrical current flowing through the power lines, resulting in audible noise. This noise can interfere with communication systems and cause disruptions in nearby electronic devices. Therefore, power lines are the correct answer as they are known to produce noise in such situations.

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  • 49. 

    Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?

    • The operator

    • Joint Spectrum Center

    • Installation spectrum manager

    • Federal Communications Commission

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Spectrum Center
    Explanation
    The Joint Spectrum Center is tasked with providing interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum by military forces. This includes identifying and resolving any interference issues that may arise during military operations. The Joint Spectrum Center plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and efficient communication and coordination among military units.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 20, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Thomas Stege
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