B4N051 CDC Volume 1 Ure's (2018, Edit Code 05)
-
What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation?
-
The Joint Commision
-
Infection control committee
-
American College of Surgeons
-
Center of Disease Control
-
This quiz focuses on hospital accreditation, operation instructions review, and understanding of infectious agents and conditions necessary for virus multiplication, based on CDC guidelines.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
-
Antigen
-
Antibody
-
Pathogen
-
Micro-organizsm
Correct Answer
A. PathogenExplanation
A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts its normal functioning. Pathogens can harm the host by releasing toxins, damaging cells, or triggering an immune response. They can be transmitted through various means such as direct contact, contaminated food or water, or through the air. Identifying and understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?
-
Option 1
-
Virulence
-
Incubation
-
Convalescence
Correct Answer
A. IncubationExplanation
The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation refers to the stage of infection when the infectious agent has entered the body but the person does not yet exhibit any symptoms of the disease. During this stage, the agent multiplies and begins to spread within the body. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific disease and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period is over, the person may start experiencing symptoms and enter the next stage of the infection.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is
-
Pelvic inflammatory disease.
-
Irregular menstrual cycles.
-
Vaginal discharge
-
Chlamydia.
Correct Answer
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease.Explanation
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various complications in females. One of the most common and serious complications is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and other reproductive organs. It can cause severe pain, inflammation, and damage to these organs, leading to long-term complications such as infertility. While irregular menstrual cycles and vaginal discharge can also be symptoms of gonorrhea, PID is a more severe and significant complication. Chlamydia is another sexually transmitted infection that can cause similar complications but is not the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which medical term means the absence of infection?
-
Antimicrobial.
-
Antiseptic.
-
Asepsis.
-
Sepsis.
Correct Answer
A. Asepsis.Explanation
Asepsis refers to the absence of infection. It is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms. Antimicrobial refers to substances that can kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms, while antiseptic refers to substances that can prevent infection. Sepsis, on the other hand, is a severe and life-threatening condition caused by the body's response to an infection. Therefore, asepsis is the correct answer as it directly means the absence of infection.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?
-
30 days
-
45 days.
-
6 months
-
When package integrity is compromised.
Correct Answer
A. When package integrity is compromised.Explanation
The correct answer is "When package integrity is compromised." This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method is determined by the condition of the packaging. If the packaging is compromised or damaged, the equipment may no longer be considered sterile and should not be used. The specific time frame for shelf life is not provided in the answer options.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?
-
Patient’s full name and date of birth.
-
Patient’s full name and Social Security Number
-
Patient’s Social Security Number and date of birth
-
Patient’s last name, age, and Social Security Number
Correct Answer
A. Patient’s full name and date of birth.Explanation
The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure accurate identification of patients and to prevent any potential errors or mix-ups. Using the patient's full name helps to differentiate between patients with similar names, while the date of birth adds an additional layer of specificity to confirm the patient's identity. This combination of identifiers helps to maintain patient safety and ensure that the correct care is provided to each individual.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
A good source of protein is
-
fruits
-
Rice.
-
Poultry
-
Vitamins
Correct Answer
A. PoultryExplanation
Poultry is a good source of protein because it is high in quality protein and contains all the essential amino acids that the body needs. It is also a lean meat option, which means it is low in fat and cholesterol. Poultry, such as chicken and turkey, is also rich in vitamins and minerals, including B vitamins, iron, and zinc. Including poultry in the diet can help build and repair tissues, support immune function, and promote overall health and wellbeing.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
A sign of vitamin A deficiency include
-
Myopia.
-
Presbyopia.
-
Night blindness.
-
Macular degeneration.
Correct Answer
A. Night blindness.Explanation
Night blindness is a sign of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that helps with vision in low light conditions. When there is a deficiency of vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, leading to difficulty seeing in dim light or darkness, which is known as night blindness. Myopia refers to nearsightedness, presbyopia is age-related farsightedness, and macular degeneration is a condition that affects the central part of the retina, causing loss of vision in the center of the visual field.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
-
During a blood transfusion
-
As a result of not using table salt
-
When a individual is unable to sink in water.
-
Through an excessive amount of fluid loss.
Correct Answer
A. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss.Explanation
The correct answer is through an excessive amount of fluid loss. Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, the body can become deficient in sodium chloride. This deficiency can result in symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, fatigue, and dizziness. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Complex carbohydrates are called
-
Bisaccharides
-
disaccharides
-
polysaccharides
-
Monosaccharides.
Correct Answer
A. polysaccharidesExplanation
Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple monosaccharide units joined together through glycosidic bonds. They are large molecules and can be found in foods such as grains, potatoes, and legumes. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. Unlike monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are smaller and simpler carbohydrates, polysaccharides provide a longer-lasting source of energy due to their complex structure and slower digestion.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?
-
Stomach.
-
Heart.
-
Brain.
-
Liver.
Correct Answer
A. Liver.Explanation
The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids. It produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also regulates the level of cholesterol in the body by synthesizing it and removing excess cholesterol from the bloodstream. Additionally, it is involved in converting excess glucose into triglycerides for storage as fat. Overall, the liver acts as a central hub for lipid metabolism, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?
-
Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.
-
Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath.
-
Muscle tremors, behavior changes, rapid pulse rate
-
Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors.
Correct Answer
A. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.Explanation
The signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment that would be expected in an intoxicated patient include impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes. These symptoms are commonly associated with the effects of alcohol or drug intoxication on the central nervous system. Impaired vision can occur due to alcohol's impact on the optic nerves, while uncoordinated movement is a result of the alcohol's effects on motor control. Behavioral changes can range from mood swings to aggression or depression and are often observed in intoxicated individuals.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?
-
Vent port
-
In-line filter
-
Back-check valve.
-
Self-sealing rubber cover
Correct Answer
A. Back-check valve.Explanation
A back-check valve prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup. This valve is designed to allow fluid flow in only one direction, preventing any backflow or mixing of fluids. It ensures that the primary and secondary infusions remain separate and do not contaminate each other. This helps maintain the integrity and effectiveness of both infusions and ensures patient safety during the administration of medications or fluids.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?
-
Call the nurse to come see the patient.
-
Call the doctor to come see the patient
-
Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab.
-
Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse.
Correct Answer
A. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse.Explanation
If a small object is identified while straining urine, the correct step to take is to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This is important because the object may need to be further examined or analyzed in the lab to determine its significance or potential impact on the patient's health. The nurse can then take appropriate actions based on the information provided.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?
-
Read the operating instructions.
-
Confirm the order with a co-worker
-
Choose a site to obtain a blood sample
-
Ask all family members to leave the room
Correct Answer
A. Read the operating instructions.Explanation
Prior to operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This is necessary to understand how to properly use the meter, calibrate it if required, and interpret the results accurately. Reading the operating instructions ensures that the user is aware of any specific guidelines or precautions that need to be followed while using the meter, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the glucose testing process.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
-
Rectum
-
Sigmoid colon
-
Ascending colon
-
Transverse colon
Correct Answer
A. RectumExplanation
A proctoscopy is a medical procedure used to visually examine the rectum. It involves the insertion of a proctoscope, a thin tube with a light and camera, into the rectum to allow for a detailed inspection. During the procedure, the healthcare professional can assess the rectal lining for any abnormalities or signs of disease. The rectum is the correct answer because it is the specific area being examined during a proctoscopy.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called
-
artifacts
-
Disturbances
-
Random waves
-
Deflection waves
Correct Answer
A. artifactsExplanation
Artifacts refer to any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include interference from external sources, such as electrical equipment, as well as internal factors like patient movement or poor electrode placement. Artifacts can distort the ECG waveform and make it difficult to accurately interpret the results. Therefore, artifacts need to be recognized and minimized to ensure the reliability and accuracy of the electrocardiogram.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?
-
Arrythmia
-
Cardiac arrest.
-
Depolarization
-
Atrial excitation
Correct Answer
A. ArrythmiaExplanation
Arrhythmia is the correct answer because it refers to any abnormality in the regular electrical rate or pattern of cardiac activities observed on an electrocardiogram. It can manifest as a slow, fast, or irregular heartbeat, and can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, medication side effects, or electrolyte imbalances. Arrhythmias can range from harmless to life-threatening, and their detection and management are crucial in maintaining cardiac health. Cardiac arrest, depolarization, and atrial excitation are not the correct terms for describing variances in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
-
When the provider says its time.
-
After the consent form is signed
-
Once a set of vital signs are repeated
-
Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room
Correct Answer
A. After the consent form is signedExplanation
The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because obtaining the patient's consent is an important ethical and legal requirement before any medical procedure can take place. The consent form ensures that the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure and gives their voluntary agreement to undergo it. Once the consent form is signed, the healthcare provider has the necessary authorization to proceed with the surgery.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male’s right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
-
Begin suturing
-
Flush the wound
-
Clean out the debris with an allis clamp
-
Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution
Correct Answer
A. Flush the woundExplanation
The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important to remove any foreign material or debris that may be present in the wound. Flushing the wound helps to clean it thoroughly and reduce the risk of infection. It is a standard procedure in wound care to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?
-
Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip
-
Remove paddles and release joules
-
Make a list of expired medications
-
Remove the battery and recharge
Correct Answer
A. Annotate date and time on a rhythm stripExplanation
After ensuring that the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate, the next step is to annotate the date and time on a rhythm strip. This is important for documentation purposes as it provides a record of the patient's cardiac rhythm at a specific time. It allows healthcare professionals to track any changes or abnormalities in the patient's rhythm over time, which can be crucial for diagnosis and treatment decisions.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only
-
When the senior medical technician on board approves it.
-
When local protocol authorizes it.
-
During the response phase
-
During the transport phase.
Correct Answer
A. When local protocol authorizes it.Explanation
The correct answer is "when local protocol authorizes it." This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only allowed when the local protocol, which refers to the specific rules and regulations set by the local authorities or organization, gives authorization for it. This ensures that the use of lights and sirens is done in a controlled and appropriate manner, based on the guidelines established by the local protocol.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called
-
Expanded primary survey
-
secondary survey
-
trauma history.
-
Scene sizeup.
Correct Answer
A. Scene sizeup.Explanation
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called scene sizeup. This involves evaluating the safety of the scene, identifying potential hazards, determining the number of patients, and gathering information about the mechanism of injury. By performing a scene sizeup, the EMT can effectively plan and prioritize their actions, ensuring the safety of themselves, the patients, and any bystanders.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient’s mental status?
-
Able.
-
Alert
-
Ambulatory
-
Asymptomatic
Correct Answer
A. AlertExplanation
If a patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly during an initial assessment, it indicates that the patient is alert. This means that the patient is awake, attentive, and able to respond appropriately to their surroundings. Assessing a patient's mental status involves evaluating their level of consciousness, orientation to person, place, and time, and their ability to follow commands and communicate effectively. In this case, the patient's alertness suggests that their mental status is intact and they are fully aware of their surroundings.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds?
-
Fungi
-
Viruses
-
Bacteria
-
Clymidiae
Correct Answer
A. FungiExplanation
Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only infectious agent that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Yeast refers to single-celled fungi, while molds refer to multicellular fungi that form thread-like structures. Viruses, bacteria, and chlamydiae do not have these specific structural categories.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by
-
using the telephone or locally derived form
-
Completing an Air Force (AF) Form 422, Physical Profile
-
Paging a Public Health representative to report to the clinic
-
Faxing a Standard Form (SF) 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care.
Correct Answer
A. using the telephone or locally derived formExplanation
The correct answer is "using the telephone or locally derived form." This means that a health care provider can notify Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by either calling them on the phone or filling out a form that is specific to their local area. This allows for quick and efficient communication of important information regarding the potential spread of a disease.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?
-
Muscle atrophy
-
Caring for elderly parents
-
Increased cellular oxygen content
-
Calcium loss in females is first noticed
Correct Answer
A. Muscle atrophyExplanation
Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood because as individuals age, they tend to lose muscle mass and strength. This can result in decreased mobility, difficulty performing daily activities, and increased risk of falls and injuries. Regular exercise and strength training can help mitigate muscle atrophy in older adults. Caring for elderly parents, increased cellular oxygen content, and calcium loss in females being first noticed are not specific characteristics of late adulthood.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
-
Blood pressure screenings
-
Assessing current fitness status.
-
Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants.
-
Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle
Correct Answer
A. Blood pressure screeningsExplanation
Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help to assess and monitor employees' overall health and well-being. By regularly measuring blood pressure, employers can identify individuals at risk for hypertension and provide appropriate interventions and resources to promote better health. This proactive approach to healthcare can help prevent chronic diseases and improve the overall wellness of employees, leading to increased productivity and reduced healthcare costs for the company.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with
-
Anemia.
-
Seizures
-
Strabismus
-
Disfigurement
Correct Answer
A. SeizuresExplanation
Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may cause newborns to be born with seizures. B6, also known as pyridoxine, is an important nutrient for the development of the nervous system. However, excessive intake of B6 during pregnancy can lead to toxicity, which can affect the baby's brain and nervous system. Seizures are a common symptom of B6 toxicity in newborns, as the excessive levels of B6 can disrupt the normal functioning of the brain. It is important for pregnant women to maintain a balanced and appropriate intake of B6 to avoid any potential harm to their babies.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except
-
kale.
-
pork
-
Salmon.
-
Turnip greens.
Correct Answer
A. porkExplanation
Calcium can be found in kale, salmon, and turnip greens, but not in pork. Pork is not a significant source of calcium compared to the other options listed.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of
-
lipids.
-
Proteins.
-
Glucose.
-
Carbohydrates.
Correct Answer
A. Proteins.Explanation
Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of proteins. Proteins are made up of long chains of amino acids that are linked together. These chains fold into specific shapes, which determine the protein's function. Lipids, glucose, and carbohydrates are not composed of amino acids and do not serve as building blocks for proteins.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?
-
Lymphocytes and macrophages
-
Polyleukocytes and monocytes
-
Monocytes and phagocytes.
-
Neutrophils and leukocytes.
Correct Answer
A. Lymphocytes and macrophagesExplanation
Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages, on the other hand, are responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens and debris. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and eliminate harmful microorganisms, making them essential components of the immune system's defense mechanism.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to
-
Administer fluids into the circulatory system
-
Increase overall muscular strength
-
Decrease susceptibility to infection
-
Control blood loss
Correct Answer
A. Administer fluids into the circulatory systemExplanation
Infusion therapy involves the administration of fluids directly into the circulatory system. This can be done through intravenous (IV) lines, allowing for a more rapid and controlled delivery of fluids, medications, or nutrients to the body. Infusion therapy is commonly used to restore and maintain fluid balance, provide essential nutrients, deliver medications, and manage various medical conditions. It is an effective method for quickly delivering fluids and medications to the bloodstream, ensuring that they reach the target organs and tissues efficiently.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for
-
1 to 2 minutes
-
2 to 3 minutes
-
3 to 4 minutes
-
4 to 5 minutes.
Correct Answer
A. 2 to 3 minutesExplanation
After obtaining a blood sample, it is important to instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for 2 to 3 minutes. This is necessary to prevent bleeding and promote clotting at the puncture site. Applying pressure for this duration allows the blood vessel to seal properly, reducing the risk of hematoma or excessive bleeding. It is crucial to follow this instruction to ensure the patient's safety and minimize any potential complications.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a
-
Retractor
-
Allis clamp
-
iris scissors
-
Mayo scissors
Correct Answer
A. Mayo scissorsExplanation
When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use mayo scissors. Mayo scissors are commonly used in surgical procedures to cut through tough tissues, including muscles. They have a robust design with curved blades and blunt tips, allowing for precise and controlled cutting. The scissors are strong enough to handle the resistance offered by thick muscular skin, making them the ideal tool for this situation.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
-
100 mm Hg
-
150 mm Hg
-
200 mm Hg
-
300 mm Hg
Correct Answer
A. 300 mm HgExplanation
Suction units must provide a vacuum of 300 mm Hg when the tube is clamped. This level of vacuum is necessary to effectively remove fluids or gases from the body during medical procedures. It ensures that the suction is strong enough to efficiently clear the area being treated.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?
-
Age.
-
Name.
-
Chief complaint
-
Medications and allergies
Correct Answer
A. Name.Explanation
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the information that should not be broadcast is the patient's name. This is because broadcasting the patient's name violates their privacy and confidentiality. Medical information should only be shared on a need-to-know basis, and disclosing a patient's name without a valid reason can lead to breaches in patient privacy and potential legal consequences.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
-
High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask.
-
Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen.
-
High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask.
-
Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula.
Correct Answer
A. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen.Explanation
If a patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates a potential respiratory emergency. In this situation, providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen is the most appropriate course of action. The BVM allows for manual control of the patient's breathing by squeezing the bag, ensuring adequate oxygenation. High-flow oxygen is necessary to deliver a high concentration of oxygen to the patient's lungs. This combination of ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen helps to support the patient's respiratory function and increase their oxygen levels efficiently.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
-
a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
-
An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.
-
A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to.
-
An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to.
Correct Answer
A. a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient areExplanation
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury because this indicates that there is a higher likelihood of severe injuries that could be life-threatening. By focusing on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are, medical professionals can quickly identify and address any critical injuries that need immediate attention. This approach helps prioritize the patient's care and ensures that life-threatening conditions are treated promptly.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?
-
Army field litter
-
Long backboard
-
Scoop stretcher
-
Stoke’s basket
Correct Answer
A. Army field litterExplanation
The Army field litter is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations. It is designed to be lightweight, portable, and durable, making it ideal for use in challenging environments. The litter provides a secure and comfortable platform for transporting injured individuals, allowing for efficient and safe movement from the field to medical facilities.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient?
-
5
-
10
-
15
-
30
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
The recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient is 5 minutes. This means that medical professionals should regularly check and monitor the patient's condition every 5 minutes to ensure any changes or deterioration in their health are promptly identified and addressed. This frequent reassessment allows for timely interventions and adjustments in treatment plans, ultimately improving the patient's chances of stabilization and recovery.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?
-
Range of motion (ROM)
-
Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
-
Purified protein derivative (PPD).
-
Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (AVPU)
Correct Answer
A. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)Explanation
Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture. When assessing a patient for a fracture, EMTs look for signs of a painful, swollen deformity (PSD) in the affected area. This acronym helps them quickly identify and communicate the possibility of a fracture to other healthcare providers.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?
-
Helminths
-
Viruses
-
Bacteria
-
Fungi
Correct Answer
A. BacteriaExplanation
Bacteria are primitive one-celled organisms that reproduce rapidly. They are considered infectious agents because they can cause infections in humans and other organisms. Unlike viruses, which are not considered living organisms, bacteria have their own cellular structure and can carry out various metabolic processes. They can be found in various environments and can cause a wide range of diseases in humans, animals, and plants. Therefore, bacteria are the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?
-
Water and soil
-
Cool and dry
-
Warm and Moist
-
Susceptible tissue
Correct Answer
A. Susceptible tissueExplanation
For a virus to multiply, it requires a suitable environment that allows it to infect and replicate within living cells. Susceptible tissue refers to cells or organisms that are vulnerable to viral infection. This condition is necessary because viruses cannot multiply on their own and need to invade and take over host cells to reproduce. Therefore, the presence of susceptible tissue is crucial for the multiplication of viruses.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at
-
12 months
-
18 months
-
24 months
-
36 months
Correct Answer
A. 24 monthsExplanation
A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months because this is the average age at which toddlers experience a significant growth spurt. By this age, they have had enough time to develop and grow, and their weight should have increased significantly from their birth weight. At 24 months, toddlers are also typically more active and eating a wider variety of foods, which contributes to their weight gain.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
-
Protect against disease at the cellular level.
-
The body’s only defense against infection
-
Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body
-
Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion
Correct Answer
A. Protect against disease at the cellular level.Explanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial part of the immune system and play a vital role in protecting the body against diseases. They are responsible for defending the body against infections and other harmful substances at the cellular level. Leukocytes are involved in identifying and destroying pathogens, producing antibodies, and regulating the immune response. This accurate definition highlights the essential function of leukocytes in safeguarding the body from diseases by targeting and eliminating harmful agents at the cellular level.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?
-
Hematest.
-
Specific gravity
-
Sugar and acetone
-
Clean catch mid stream
Correct Answer
A. Specific gravityExplanation
Specific gravity is a urine test that is done to determine the hydration level of the patient. It measures the concentration of particles in the urine, which can indicate the amount of water present in the body. A higher specific gravity value suggests dehydration, while a lower value indicates overhydration. By analyzing the specific gravity, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's hydration status and make appropriate recommendations for fluid intake or treatment.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible?
-
Open
-
Closed.
-
Internal fixation
-
External fixation.
Correct Answer
A. OpenExplanation
Open fractures are considered more serious because they involve a break in the skin, which can lead to greater blood loss and increase the risk of contamination and infection. In open fractures, the bone may protrude through the skin or there may be a wound that exposes the bone. This makes it easier for bacteria to enter the body, increasing the risk of infection. Additionally, the open wound can result in significant blood loss, which can be life-threatening if not controlled promptly. Closed fractures, on the other hand, do not break the skin, reducing the risk of infection and blood loss.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 17, 2018Quiz Created by
Akamoosejr
Back to top