B4N051 CDC Volume 1 Ure's (2018, Edit Code 05)

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1. Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Explanation

A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts its normal functioning. Pathogens can harm the host by releasing toxins, damaging cells, or triggering an immune response. They can be transmitted through various means such as direct contact, contaminated food or water, or through the air. Identifying and understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.

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About This Quiz
B4N051 CDC Volume 1 Ures (2018, Edit Code 05) - Quiz

This quiz focuses on hospital accreditation, operation instructions review, and understanding of infectious agents and conditions necessary for virus multiplication, based on CDC guidelines.

2. In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?

Explanation

A back-check valve prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup. This valve is designed to allow fluid flow in only one direction, preventing any backflow or mixing of fluids. It ensures that the primary and secondary infusions remain separate and do not contaminate each other. This helps maintain the integrity and effectiveness of both infusions and ensures patient safety during the administration of medications or fluids.

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3. Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

Explanation

The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation refers to the stage of infection when the infectious agent has entered the body but the person does not yet exhibit any symptoms of the disease. During this stage, the agent multiplies and begins to spread within the body. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific disease and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period is over, the person may start experiencing symptoms and enter the next stage of the infection.

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4. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the

Explanation

A proctoscopy is a medical procedure used to visually examine the rectum. It involves the insertion of a proctoscope, a thin tube with a light and camera, into the rectum to allow for a detailed inspection. During the procedure, the healthcare professional can assess the rectal lining for any abnormalities or signs of disease. The rectum is the correct answer because it is the specific area being examined during a proctoscopy.

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5. Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?

Explanation

The signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment that would be expected in an intoxicated patient include impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes. These symptoms are commonly associated with the effects of alcohol or drug intoxication on the central nervous system. Impaired vision can occur due to alcohol's impact on the optic nerves, while uncoordinated movement is a result of the alcohol's effects on motor control. Behavioral changes can range from mood swings to aggression or depression and are often observed in intoxicated individuals.

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6. One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

Explanation

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various complications in females. One of the most common and serious complications is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and other reproductive organs. It can cause severe pain, inflammation, and damage to these organs, leading to long-term complications such as infertility. While irregular menstrual cycles and vaginal discharge can also be symptoms of gonorrhea, PID is a more severe and significant complication. Chlamydia is another sexually transmitted infection that can cause similar complications but is not the correct answer in this case.

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7. Which medical term means the absence of infection?

Explanation

Asepsis refers to the absence of infection. It is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms. Antimicrobial refers to substances that can kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms, while antiseptic refers to substances that can prevent infection. Sepsis, on the other hand, is a severe and life-threatening condition caused by the body's response to an infection. Therefore, asepsis is the correct answer as it directly means the absence of infection.

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8. What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

Explanation

The correct answer is "When package integrity is compromised." This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method is determined by the condition of the packaging. If the packaging is compromised or damaged, the equipment may no longer be considered sterile and should not be used. The specific time frame for shelf life is not provided in the answer options.

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9. What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

Explanation

The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure accurate identification of patients and to prevent any potential errors or mix-ups. Using the patient's full name helps to differentiate between patients with similar names, while the date of birth adds an additional layer of specificity to confirm the patient's identity. This combination of identifiers helps to maintain patient safety and ensure that the correct care is provided to each individual.

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10. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called

Explanation

Artifacts refer to any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include interference from external sources, such as electrical equipment, as well as internal factors like patient movement or poor electrode placement. Artifacts can distort the ECG waveform and make it difficult to accurately interpret the results. Therefore, artifacts need to be recognized and minimized to ensure the reliability and accuracy of the electrocardiogram.

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11. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?

Explanation

Arrhythmia is the correct answer because it refers to any abnormality in the regular electrical rate or pattern of cardiac activities observed on an electrocardiogram. It can manifest as a slow, fast, or irregular heartbeat, and can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, medication side effects, or electrolyte imbalances. Arrhythmias can range from harmless to life-threatening, and their detection and management are crucial in maintaining cardiac health. Cardiac arrest, depolarization, and atrial excitation are not the correct terms for describing variances in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities.

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12. What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

Explanation

If a small object is identified while straining urine, the correct step to take is to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This is important because the object may need to be further examined or analyzed in the lab to determine its significance or potential impact on the patient's health. The nurse can then take appropriate actions based on the information provided.

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13. A good source of protein is

Explanation

Poultry is a good source of protein because it is high in quality protein and contains all the essential amino acids that the body needs. It is also a lean meat option, which means it is low in fat and cholesterol. Poultry, such as chicken and turkey, is also rich in vitamins and minerals, including B vitamins, iron, and zinc. Including poultry in the diet can help build and repair tissues, support immune function, and promote overall health and wellbeing.

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14. When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

Explanation

The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because obtaining the patient's consent is an important ethical and legal requirement before any medical procedure can take place. The consent form ensures that the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure and gives their voluntary agreement to undergo it. Once the consent form is signed, the healthcare provider has the necessary authorization to proceed with the surgery.

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15. What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation?

Explanation

The Joint Commission is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation. They are an independent, non-profit organization that sets standards for healthcare organizations and evaluates their compliance with these standards. The Joint Commission's accreditation is recognized nationwide as a symbol of quality and safety in healthcare. They work closely with healthcare professionals and organizations to continuously improve the quality of patient care and promote patient safety.

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16. A sign of vitamin A deficiency include

Explanation

Night blindness is a sign of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that helps with vision in low light conditions. When there is a deficiency of vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, leading to difficulty seeing in dim light or darkness, which is known as night blindness. Myopia refers to nearsightedness, presbyopia is age-related farsightedness, and macular degeneration is a condition that affects the central part of the retina, causing loss of vision in the center of the visual field.

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17. Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

Explanation

The correct answer is through an excessive amount of fluid loss. Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, the body can become deficient in sodium chloride. This deficiency can result in symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, fatigue, and dizziness. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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18. When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Explanation

The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important to remove any foreign material or debris that may be present in the wound. Flushing the wound helps to clean it thoroughly and reduce the risk of infection. It is a standard procedure in wound care to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

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19. Complex carbohydrates are called

Explanation

Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple monosaccharide units joined together through glycosidic bonds. They are large molecules and can be found in foods such as grains, potatoes, and legumes. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. Unlike monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are smaller and simpler carbohydrates, polysaccharides provide a longer-lasting source of energy due to their complex structure and slower digestion.

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20. When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?

Explanation

After ensuring that the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate, the next step is to annotate the date and time on a rhythm strip. This is important for documentation purposes as it provides a record of the patient's cardiac rhythm at a specific time. It allows healthcare professionals to track any changes or abnormalities in the patient's rhythm over time, which can be crucial for diagnosis and treatment decisions.

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21. In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

Explanation

The correct answer is "when local protocol authorizes it." This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only allowed when the local protocol, which refers to the specific rules and regulations set by the local authorities or organization, gives authorization for it. This ensures that the use of lights and sirens is done in a controlled and appropriate manner, based on the guidelines established by the local protocol.

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22. What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

Explanation

The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids. It produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also regulates the level of cholesterol in the body by synthesizing it and removing excess cholesterol from the bloodstream. Additionally, it is involved in converting excess glucose into triglycerides for storage as fat. Overall, the liver acts as a central hub for lipid metabolism, making it the correct answer.

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23. The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called

Explanation

The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called scene sizeup. This involves evaluating the safety of the scene, identifying potential hazards, determining the number of patients, and gathering information about the mechanism of injury. By performing a scene sizeup, the EMT can effectively plan and prioritize their actions, ensuring the safety of themselves, the patients, and any bystanders.

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24. When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?

Explanation

If a patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly during an initial assessment, it indicates that the patient is alert. This means that the patient is awake, attentive, and able to respond appropriately to their surroundings. Assessing a patient's mental status involves evaluating their level of consciousness, orientation to person, place, and time, and their ability to follow commands and communicate effectively. In this case, the patient's alertness suggests that their mental status is intact and they are fully aware of their surroundings.

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25. What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

Explanation

Prior to operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This is necessary to understand how to properly use the meter, calibrate it if required, and interpret the results accurately. Reading the operating instructions ensures that the user is aware of any specific guidelines or precautions that need to be followed while using the meter, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the glucose testing process.

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26. Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds?

Explanation

Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only infectious agent that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Yeast refers to single-celled fungi, while molds refer to multicellular fungi that form thread-like structures. Viruses, bacteria, and chlamydiae do not have these specific structural categories.

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27. A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by

Explanation

The correct answer is "using the telephone or locally derived form." This means that a health care provider can notify Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by either calling them on the phone or filling out a form that is specific to their local area. This allows for quick and efficient communication of important information regarding the potential spread of a disease.

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28. Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

Explanation

Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood because as individuals age, they tend to lose muscle mass and strength. This can result in decreased mobility, difficulty performing daily activities, and increased risk of falls and injuries. Regular exercise and strength training can help mitigate muscle atrophy in older adults. Caring for elderly parents, increased cellular oxygen content, and calcium loss in females being first noticed are not specific characteristics of late adulthood.

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29. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

Explanation

Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help to assess and monitor employees' overall health and well-being. By regularly measuring blood pressure, employers can identify individuals at risk for hypertension and provide appropriate interventions and resources to promote better health. This proactive approach to healthcare can help prevent chronic diseases and improve the overall wellness of employees, leading to increased productivity and reduced healthcare costs for the company.

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30. After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for

Explanation

After obtaining a blood sample, it is important to instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for 2 to 3 minutes. This is necessary to prevent bleeding and promote clotting at the puncture site. Applying pressure for this duration allows the blood vessel to seal properly, reducing the risk of hematoma or excessive bleeding. It is crucial to follow this instruction to ensure the patient's safety and minimize any potential complications.

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31. Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with

Explanation

Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may cause newborns to be born with seizures. B6, also known as pyridoxine, is an important nutrient for the development of the nervous system. However, excessive intake of B6 during pregnancy can lead to toxicity, which can affect the baby's brain and nervous system. Seizures are a common symptom of B6 toxicity in newborns, as the excessive levels of B6 can disrupt the normal functioning of the brain. It is important for pregnant women to maintain a balanced and appropriate intake of B6 to avoid any potential harm to their babies.

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32. When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a

Explanation

When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use mayo scissors. Mayo scissors are commonly used in surgical procedures to cut through tough tissues, including muscles. They have a robust design with curved blades and blunt tips, allowing for precise and controlled cutting. The scissors are strong enough to handle the resistance offered by thick muscular skin, making them the ideal tool for this situation.

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33. Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except

Explanation

Calcium can be found in kale, salmon, and turnip greens, but not in pork. Pork is not a significant source of calcium compared to the other options listed.

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34. How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?

Explanation

Suction units must provide a vacuum of 300 mm Hg when the tube is clamped. This level of vacuum is necessary to effectively remove fluids or gases from the body during medical procedures. It ensures that the suction is strong enough to efficiently clear the area being treated.

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35. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

Explanation

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the information that should not be broadcast is the patient's name. This is because broadcasting the patient's name violates their privacy and confidentiality. Medical information should only be shared on a need-to-know basis, and disclosing a patient's name without a valid reason can lead to breaches in patient privacy and potential legal consequences.

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36. Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of

Explanation

Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of proteins. Proteins are made up of long chains of amino acids that are linked together. These chains fold into specific shapes, which determine the protein's function. Lipids, glucose, and carbohydrates are not composed of amino acids and do not serve as building blocks for proteins.

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37. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

Explanation

If a patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates a potential respiratory emergency. In this situation, providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen is the most appropriate course of action. The BVM allows for manual control of the patient's breathing by squeezing the bag, ensuring adequate oxygenation. High-flow oxygen is necessary to deliver a high concentration of oxygen to the patient's lungs. This combination of ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen helps to support the patient's respiratory function and increase their oxygen levels efficiently.

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38. What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

Explanation

Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages, on the other hand, are responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens and debris. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and eliminate harmful microorganisms, making them essential components of the immune system's defense mechanism.

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39. A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with

Explanation

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury because this indicates that there is a higher likelihood of severe injuries that could be life-threatening. By focusing on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are, medical professionals can quickly identify and address any critical injuries that need immediate attention. This approach helps prioritize the patient's care and ensures that life-threatening conditions are treated promptly.

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40. Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

Explanation

The Army field litter is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations. It is designed to be lightweight, portable, and durable, making it ideal for use in challenging environments. The litter provides a secure and comfortable platform for transporting injured individuals, allowing for efficient and safe movement from the field to medical facilities.

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41. In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient?

Explanation

The recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient is 5 minutes. This means that medical professionals should regularly check and monitor the patient's condition every 5 minutes to ensure any changes or deterioration in their health are promptly identified and addressed. This frequent reassessment allows for timely interventions and adjustments in treatment plans, ultimately improving the patient's chances of stabilization and recovery.

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42. Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Explanation

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture. When assessing a patient for a fracture, EMTs look for signs of a painful, swollen deformity (PSD) in the affected area. This acronym helps them quickly identify and communicate the possibility of a fracture to other healthcare providers.

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43. The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to 

Explanation

Infusion therapy involves the administration of fluids directly into the circulatory system. This can be done through intravenous (IV) lines, allowing for a more rapid and controlled delivery of fluids, medications, or nutrients to the body. Infusion therapy is commonly used to restore and maintain fluid balance, provide essential nutrients, deliver medications, and manage various medical conditions. It is an effective method for quickly delivering fluids and medications to the bloodstream, ensuring that they reach the target organs and tissues efficiently.

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44. Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?

Explanation

Bacteria are primitive one-celled organisms that reproduce rapidly. They are considered infectious agents because they can cause infections in humans and other organisms. Unlike viruses, which are not considered living organisms, bacteria have their own cellular structure and can carry out various metabolic processes. They can be found in various environments and can cause a wide range of diseases in humans, animals, and plants. Therefore, bacteria are the correct answer to the question.

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45. What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

Explanation

For a virus to multiply, it requires a suitable environment that allows it to infect and replicate within living cells. Susceptible tissue refers to cells or organisms that are vulnerable to viral infection. This condition is necessary because viruses cannot multiply on their own and need to invade and take over host cells to reproduce. Therefore, the presence of susceptible tissue is crucial for the multiplication of viruses.

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46. Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?

Explanation

Specific gravity is a urine test that is done to determine the hydration level of the patient. It measures the concentration of particles in the urine, which can indicate the amount of water present in the body. A higher specific gravity value suggests dehydration, while a lower value indicates overhydration. By analyzing the specific gravity, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's hydration status and make appropriate recommendations for fluid intake or treatment.

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47. A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at

Explanation

A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months because this is the average age at which toddlers experience a significant growth spurt. By this age, they have had enough time to develop and grow, and their weight should have increased significantly from their birth weight. At 24 months, toddlers are also typically more active and eating a wider variety of foods, which contributes to their weight gain.

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48. Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

Explanation

Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial part of the immune system and play a vital role in protecting the body against diseases. They are responsible for defending the body against infections and other harmful substances at the cellular level. Leukocytes are involved in identifying and destroying pathogens, producing antibodies, and regulating the immune response. This accurate definition highlights the essential function of leukocytes in safeguarding the body from diseases by targeting and eliminating harmful agents at the cellular level.

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49. Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible?

Explanation

Open fractures are considered more serious because they involve a break in the skin, which can lead to greater blood loss and increase the risk of contamination and infection. In open fractures, the bone may protrude through the skin or there may be a wound that exposes the bone. This makes it easier for bacteria to enter the body, increasing the risk of infection. Additionally, the open wound can result in significant blood loss, which can be life-threatening if not controlled promptly. Closed fractures, on the other hand, do not break the skin, reducing the risk of infection and blood loss.

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50. While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?

Explanation

In this scenario, determining if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type is important because it can greatly impact the treatment plan. Chemical splashes can cause severe damage to the eye, and if the patient is wearing contact lenses, they need to be removed immediately to prevent further complications. Different types of contact lenses may require specific actions, such as rinsing with saline solution or seeking specialized care. Therefore, identifying if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type is crucial for providing appropriate and timely treatment.

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51. What should you do if your clothes become contaminated at work?

Explanation

If your clothes become contaminated at work, the best course of action is to change into clean clothes and bag the dirty clothes. Laundering them in hot soapy water will help remove any contaminants and prevent further spread of the contamination. Wiping off the affected area or continuing to wear the contaminated clothes can lead to the spread of contaminants and potential harm to yourself or others.

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52. Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid is not a commonly used disinfecting agent because it is a strong corrosive acid that can cause severe damage to living tissues. It is primarily used in industries for cleaning and etching purposes rather than as a disinfectant. Common disinfecting agents include formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol, which are more effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.

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53. At what ages is visual acuity at its best?

Explanation

Visual acuity refers to the sharpness and clarity of vision. It is generally at its best during the teenage years and early adulthood. During this period, the eyes are fully developed and have optimal functioning. As individuals age, visual acuity tends to decline gradually. Therefore, the age range of 15 to 20 is when visual acuity is typically at its peak.

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54. Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

Explanation

During the rehabilitation phase of nursing care, the focus is on helping patients regain their independence and achieve their highest level of functioning. Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization, such as promoting autonomy, encouraging self-care, and supporting patients in setting and achieving goals, are particularly relevant in this phase. The goal is to empower patients to take control of their own health and well-being, and to help them develop the skills and confidence necessary for successful reintegration into their daily lives.

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55. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below

Explanation

If the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below 97 percent, it is important to notify the nurse or physician immediately. This level of oxygen saturation indicates that the patient may not be receiving enough oxygen, which can be a serious concern. It is crucial to address this issue promptly to ensure the patient's well-being and prevent any potential complications.

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56. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

Explanation

After applying a topical anesthetic to a wound, it is important to assess sensory awareness next. This involves checking if the patient can feel any pain or discomfort in the area. This step is necessary to ensure that the anesthetic has taken effect and that the patient will not experience pain during further treatment. Once sensory awareness is assessed and confirmed, the next step would be to apply a sterile dressing to the wound to protect it from infection.

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57. As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the

Explanation

The correct answer is clavicles. Applying a cervical collar is generally recommended if there is any blow above the clavicles. The clavicles are the collarbones, and injuries to this area can potentially affect the cervical spine. Therefore, it is important to immobilize the neck and spine with a cervical collar in such cases to prevent further damage or injury.

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58. What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Explanation

As an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident, your responsibilities include caring for the injured individuals and monitoring their condition. Additionally, you are also responsible for rehabilitating the hazmat team members who may have been exposed to hazardous materials. This involves providing medical assistance, assessing their health, and ensuring their safety. Your primary focus is on providing immediate medical care and support to those affected by the incident, while also ensuring the safety and well-being of the hazmat team members.

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59. For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is

Explanation

When patients experience severe injuries or medical conditions, their initial psychological reaction is often shock and disorientation. This is because they are suddenly confronted with a traumatic event or a life-threatening situation, which can be overwhelming and disorienting. The shock response is a natural defense mechanism that temporarily numbs emotions and causes a state of disbelief. Disorientation may occur as patients struggle to comprehend and process the situation they find themselves in. Guilt, acceptance, and fear and anxiety may come later as patients begin to process their condition and its implications.

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60. Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure?

Explanation

Hypovolemia is a fluid imbalance characterized by a decrease in blood volume, resulting in symptoms such as dry mucous membranes, a weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure. This condition occurs when there is a loss of fluid from the body, such as through excessive sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, or due to inadequate fluid intake. Hypovolemia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, as it affects the body's ability to deliver oxygen and nutrients to tissues and organs.

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61. The eye can generally see wavelengths between

Explanation

The eye can generally see wavelengths between 400 and 750 nm. This range is known as the visible light spectrum and includes colors ranging from violet to red. Wavelengths below 400 nm are ultraviolet, which the human eye cannot see, while wavelengths above 750 nm are infrared, also not visible to the naked eye. Therefore, the correct answer is 400 and 750 nm.

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62. Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

Explanation

Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on non-living surfaces, antiseptics are specifically designed to be used on living tissue, such as skin. They help to prevent infections by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Antiseptics are commonly used in medical settings, such as before surgery or when cleaning wounds, to reduce the risk of infection.

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63. What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

Explanation

In a peracetic acid sterilizer, the temperature range of the sterilization cycle is between 122 and 131 degrees F. This temperature range is necessary to ensure effective sterilization of the equipment or items being processed. Temperatures within this range help to kill microorganisms and ensure the elimination of any potential contaminants.

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64. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are

Explanation

During pulmonary function testing, it is important for the examinee to perform a minimum of 2 practice attempts in order to become familiar with the procedure and ensure accurate results. Additionally, the examinee must also produce at least 3 acceptable tracings to ensure consistency and reliability of the measurements. This helps to minimize any potential errors or variations in the results, ensuring that the pulmonary function testing is accurate and reliable.

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65. Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except

Explanation

Cheese does not naturally contain vitamin C. While citrus fruits (such as oranges and lemons), broccoli, and tomatoes are all good sources of vitamin C, cheese is not. Vitamin C is primarily found in fruits and vegetables, and dairy products like cheese do not typically contain significant amounts of this vitamin. Therefore, cheese is the only option among the given foods that does not naturally provide vitamin C.

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66. Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?

Explanation

Vitamin K is known for its role in blood clotting, and it is used to treat bleeding disorders caused by a deficiency of this vitamin. Ulcerative colitis, malabsorption syndromes, and prolonged use of salicylates are conditions that can lead to a deficiency of vitamin K or interfere with its absorption. However, heparin overdose is not directly related to vitamin K deficiency and is treated with other medications or interventions.

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67. What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for?

Explanation

Minerals are responsible for approximately 4% of the body's weight. These essential nutrients play a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone health, muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and fluid balance. They are required in small amounts but are vital for maintaining overall health and well-being.

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68. When administering potassium intravenously, you should

Explanation

When administering potassium intravenously, it is important to mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. This is because potassium can settle at the bottom of the container, and if not mixed properly, the patient may receive an unequal distribution of the medication. By mixing the potassium thoroughly, it ensures that the medication is evenly distributed and the patient receives the correct dosage.

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69. Which route is injectable iron administered?

Explanation

Injectable iron is not administered through the Z-track method. The Z-track technique is used for administering medications that may cause skin discoloration or irritation. Intra muscular, intra venous, and transdermal routes are commonly used for administering injectable iron.

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70. When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

Explanation

When there is an apparent vehicle fire, the ambulance should be parked 100 feet away from the affected vehicle. This distance ensures the safety of the ambulance crew and patients, as it helps to minimize the risk of the fire spreading or causing harm to those nearby. Being parked at a safe distance also allows the ambulance to maintain access to the scene and provide necessary medical assistance without being obstructed by the fire.

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71. The life span of lymphocytes is

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and destroying pathogens and foreign substances in the body. The life span of lymphocytes can vary depending on their subtype and the specific conditions in the body. Generally, lymphocytes can live for several years, ranging from a few years to decades. This allows them to provide long-term protection against infections and diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is "years".

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72. If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask

Explanation

The question asks what should be asked if an individual walks into a medical treatment facility and asks for assistance bringing in a family member. The correct answer is "what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device." This is because knowing the condition or ailment of the patient will help in determining the type of transfer device that should be used to safely assist them. This ensures that the appropriate equipment is used, minimizing the risk of further injury or discomfort during the transfer process.

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73. What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

Explanation

Hyperkalemia refers to an excessive amount of potassium in the blood. Elevated levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to dysrhythmias. These abnormal heart rhythms can be severe enough to cause cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest. Therefore, hyperkalemia is the electrolyte deficit or excess that can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest.

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74. Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

Explanation

Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a build-up of carbon dioxide in the blood due to slow or irregular shallow respirations. This leads to an imbalance in the body's pH levels, causing the blood to become more acidic. Metabolic acidosis, on the other hand, is caused by factors such as kidney dysfunction or excessive production of acids in the body. Metabolic alkalosis and respiratory alkalosis are conditions where the blood becomes more alkaline, which is not the case in this scenario. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory acidosis.

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75. What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?

Explanation

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76. To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for longterm therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous (IV) site?

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 48 to 72 hours. Changing a patient's intravenous (IV) site every 48 to 72 hours helps reduce the risk of infection and vessel damage. Frequent site changes can increase the risk of introducing pathogens into the bloodstream, while less frequent changes can lead to catheter-related bloodstream infections. Therefore, changing the IV site every 48 to 72 hours strikes a balance between preventing infection and minimizing vessel damage.

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77. When educating the patient with psuedo folliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving

Explanation

When educating a patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, it is important to instruct them to avoid shaving in the opposite direction of hair growth, with facial skin stretched, and with slow strokes. Shaving in the direction of hair growth is actually the correct method to prevent PFB. This helps to minimize irritation and ingrown hairs by allowing the blade to cut the hair cleanly without pulling or tugging on it. Shaving against the direction of hair growth can increase the risk of ingrown hairs and further exacerbate PFB.

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78. When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

Explanation

The correct answer is to put the mask on before entering the unit and take it off before leaving. This ensures that the mask is worn while inside the isolation unit, where there may be a higher risk of exposure to harmful substances or pathogens. Wearing the mask before entering helps to prevent any potential contamination from entering the unit. Taking it off before leaving ensures that any contaminants on the mask do not spread outside of the unit.

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79. What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?

Explanation

Postural hypotension is another term for orthostatic hypotension. This condition refers to a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. It is characterized by symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting. The term "postural" refers to the change in position from sitting or lying to standing, which triggers the drop in blood pressure. Therefore, postural hypotension is the correct term to describe orthostatic hypotension.

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80. During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?

Explanation

During the inflammation stage of healing, immature fiber cells and capillaries are formed. This stage is characterized by the body's response to injury, which includes increased blood flow to the affected area, release of inflammatory mediators, and recruitment of immune cells. The formation of immature fiber cells and capillaries is crucial for the subsequent stages of healing, such as the reconstruction and maturation phases.

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81. If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the

Explanation

When performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of the electrocardiogram must be sent to the US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library. This library is responsible for collecting and storing electrocardiogram data for the US Air Force. By sending a copy of the electrocardiogram to this library, it ensures that the data is centralized and accessible for future reference and analysis. This helps in maintaining a comprehensive record of the electrocardiograms performed on rated individuals and allows for comparison and monitoring of their cardiac health over time.

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82. What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

Explanation

Florence Nightingale linked pure water with health and the environment. She believed that access to clean and uncontaminated water was crucial for maintaining good health and preventing diseases. Nightingale emphasized the importance of sanitation and proper hygiene practices, including the provision of clean water, in healthcare settings. She advocated for improved water supply and sanitation systems, recognizing their direct impact on overall health and well-being.

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83. What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?

Explanation

Blood pH alkalosis occurs when the pH of the blood becomes too alkaline, typically above 7.45. This can be caused by various factors such as hyperventilation, vomiting, or excessive use of certain medications. When blood pH is alkalotic, it can lead to symptoms such as dizziness and agitation. This is because alkalosis can disrupt the balance of electrolytes in the body, affecting nerve and muscle function. Therefore, feeling dizzy and agitated can be common symptoms of blood pH alkalosis.

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84. The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the

Explanation

The thymus gland is the primary central gland of the lymphatic system. It is responsible for the production and maturation of T lymphocytes, which are crucial for immune system function. The thymus gland is located in the upper chest, behind the sternum, and it plays a vital role in the development of the immune system, particularly during childhood. The parathyroid glands are responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body, the pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" as it controls the function of other endocrine glands, and the thyroid gland regulates metabolism and produces hormones.

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85. Which of the following best states the purpose of standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

Explanation

Standard precautions are recommended by the CDC to reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. This means that these precautions are put in place to prevent the spread of infectious agents, regardless of whether the source of infection is known or not. By following standard precautions, healthcare workers can minimize the transmission of micro-organisms and protect themselves and others from infections in healthcare settings.

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86. Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

Explanation

Count sheets may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer because they are typically made of paper or cloth material, which can be damaged or degraded by the sterilization process. Hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers use low-temperature plasma to kill microorganisms, and this process may not be suitable for count sheets made of non-resistant materials. Plastic trays, metal instruments, and nonmetal instruments are generally compatible with the sterilization process and can be safely placed in the hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer.

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87. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second ( FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?

Explanation

According to Air Force standards, abnormal pulmonary function test results are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than 80.

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88. While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?

Explanation

When asking a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, the healthcare provider is trying to determine the time pattern of the pain. This information helps in understanding how frequently the pain occurs and if there are any specific triggers or patterns associated with it. It can also provide insights into the potential causes and help guide further diagnostic and treatment decisions.

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89. In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?

Explanation

When using a temporary external pulse generator system, the pacemaker lead is inserted in the right atrium. This is because the right atrium is responsible for receiving deoxygenated blood from the body and pumping it into the right ventricle. By placing the pacemaker lead in the right atrium, it can help regulate the heart's electrical signals and ensure proper functioning of the heart.

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90. What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

Explanation

The foundations of safe and effective healthcare include proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. This means that healthcare providers should actively identify potential risks, assess their impact on patient safety, and implement appropriate measures to control and mitigate these risks. By taking a proactive approach, healthcare organizations can prevent adverse events and promote a culture of safety. This involves continuously monitoring and evaluating potential risks, implementing strategies to minimize them, and ensuring that all staff members are trained and competent in patient-centered care.

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91. The very low-density lipoproteins transport

Explanation

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92. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by

Explanation

Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is necessary for the production of healthy red blood cells. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency, such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath, are often first noticed in patients with pernicious anemia. This condition occurs when the body is unable to absorb B12 properly, leading to a decrease in red blood cell production and subsequent anemia.

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93. Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

Explanation

Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that have a pH less than 7 and can donate hydrogen ions when dissolved in water. This donation of hydrogen ions creates a positively charged hydrogen ion (H+) in the solution. Therefore, acids are the correct answer as they release hydrogen ions in water. Salts, catalyzed, and synthesized are not the correct answers as they do not specifically refer to substances that release hydrogen ions in water.

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94. When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about

Explanation

When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about provocation. This means you are inquiring about any specific actions, movements, or factors that may have caused or worsened the pain. By asking about provocation, you are trying to identify the specific triggers or factors that may be associated with the onset of the pain.

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95. In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?

Explanation

The slowest possible flow rate per hour for an intravenous (IV) solution is 10 to 50 cc. This range ensures a slow and controlled administration of the solution, allowing the body to properly absorb it without overwhelming the system. Flow rates lower than 10 cc may result in inadequate hydration or medication delivery, while rates higher than 50 cc may cause fluid overload or other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 to 50 cc.

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96. Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?

Explanation

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilating because hyperventilation leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Carbon dioxide is an acidic waste product that combines with water in the body to form carbonic acid. When carbon dioxide levels decrease, the concentration of carbonic acid decreases as well, resulting in an increase in pH and a shift towards alkalinity. This leads to respiratory alkalosis, which is characterized by a higher pH and lower levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.

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97. In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's

Explanation

In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's pulse rate. This is because the pulse rate can provide important information about the patient's cardiovascular health and overall well-being. By monitoring the pulse rate, healthcare providers can assess the patient's heart rate, rhythm, and overall cardiovascular function. This information can help in diagnosing and managing various health conditions. Additionally, changes in the pulse rate can indicate the effectiveness of treatments or interventions. Therefore, accurately identifying and documenting the patient's pulse rate is crucial in providing comprehensive and effective healthcare.

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98. As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operation instructions (OI) be reviewed?

Explanation

Area-specific general operation instructions (OI) should be reviewed annually to ensure that they are up-to-date and in compliance with any changes in regulations, procedures, or best practices. This regular review allows for any necessary updates or revisions to be made, ensuring that the instructions accurately reflect the current operating conditions and requirements. By reviewing the OIs annually, organizations can maintain a high level of safety, efficiency, and effectiveness in their operations.

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99. If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the

Explanation

In a situation where a severely injured patient has a life-threatening problem, it may be necessary to skip the initial patient assessment. This is because the patient's condition is critical and immediate intervention is required to stabilize their condition and prevent further deterioration. The initial patient assessment usually involves obtaining a history, performing a physical examination, and assessing vital signs. However, in this scenario, time is of the essence and it may be more important to prioritize interventions such as administering life-saving treatments or procedures.

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100. Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a

Explanation

The correct answer is "partial immune response." When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's immune system will initiate a primary immune response. This response involves the recognition of the virus by immune cells, the production of specific antibodies, and the activation of immune defenses to eliminate the virus. However, since it is Nathan's first exposure to chickenpox, his immune system may not be fully prepared to mount a complete and effective response, resulting in a partial immune response.

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