The Ultimate Microbiology Trivia Test! Quiz

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The Ultimate Microbiology Trivia Test! Quiz - Quiz

The test below is a prep for Micro test 1 Chapters 1 - 6 from Burton's Microbiology for the Health Sciences by Paul G. Engelkirk Janet Duben-Engelkirk. If you are a microbiology student looking for the ultimate trivia test that will refresh your memory on some chapters, consider giving this a shot and get to see which chapters you are having a hard time with and put more effort on them.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Microbiology is the study of

    Explanation
    Microbiology is the study of microbes, which are microscopic organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. These organisms are too small to be seen with the naked eye and can only be observed using a microscope. Microbiology involves studying various aspects of microbes, including their structure, function, growth, and interactions with other organisms. This field is important in understanding the role of microbes in disease, food production, environmental processes, and other areas of scientific research.

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  • 2. 

    Idividual microbes can be observed with the use of what?

    Explanation
    Microbes are very small organisms that cannot be seen with the naked eye. In order to observe individual microbes, various types of microscopes are used. These microscopes have different magnification levels and techniques, such as light microscopes, electron microscopes, and fluorescence microscopes. These instruments allow scientists to study the structure, behavior, and characteristics of microbes, helping to advance our understanding of these tiny organisms and their impact on the environment and human health.

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  • 3. 

    Two major categories of microbes are called what?

    • A.

      Eucaryotes and Procaryotes

    • B.

      Acellular and cellular

    • C.

      Pathogentic and Nonpathogenic

    Correct Answer
    B. Acellular and cellular
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Acellular and cellular." This answer refers to the two major categories of microbes based on their cellular structure. Acellular microbes, such as viruses, do not have cells and are composed of genetic material surrounded by a protein coat. Cellular microbes, on the other hand, have cells and can be further classified as eukaryotes or prokaryotes based on the presence or absence of a nucleus. This answer accurately identifies the two main categories of microbes based on their cellular structure.

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  • 4. 

    Another name for acellular microbes are _____ and another name for cellular microbes are ____.

    Correct Answer
    infectious particles and microorganisims
    Explanation
    The correct answer is infectious particles and microorganisms. Acellular microbes, also known as infectious particles, are non-living entities that are capable of infecting and replicating within host cells. Examples include viruses and prions. On the other hand, cellular microbes, also known as microorganisms, are living entities that consist of one or more cells. They can be unicellular (e.g., bacteria) or multicellular (e.g., fungi). Both infectious particles and microorganisms play significant roles in causing diseases and infections.

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  • 5. 

    3 Microbes that do not cause disease are known as pathogens.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because pathogens are actually microbes that do cause disease. Non-pathogenic microbes, on the other hand, do not cause disease. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 6. 

    Nondisease causing microbes are considered to be nonpathogenic.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Nondisease causing microbes are considered to be nonpathogenic because they do not cause any harm or illness to the host organism. These microbes may exist in or on the body without causing any negative effects. Pathogenic microbes, on the other hand, are capable of causing diseases and can harm the host organism. Therefore, the statement "Nondisease causing microbes are considered to be nonpathogenic" is true.

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  • 7. 

    Microbes that live on and in the human body are referred to as our ____.

    Correct Answer
    Indigenous microflora
    Explanation
    The correct answer is indigenous microflora. Indigenous microflora refers to the microbes that naturally inhabit and live on or in the human body. These microbes are a part of our normal microbiota and play important roles in maintaining our health and wellbeing. They help with digestion, nutrient absorption, and protecting against harmful pathogens.

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  • 8. 

    Define opportunistic pathogens.

  • 9. 

    Pathogens cause 2 major types of diseases: infectious diseases and microbial diseases.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because pathogens, which are disease-causing microorganisms, can cause both infectious diseases and microbial diseases. Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites that can be transmitted from person to person. Microbial diseases, on the other hand, are caused by microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi that can infect various parts of the body and cause illness. Therefore, pathogens can lead to both types of diseases.

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  • 10. 

    Pathogens cause what 2 major types of diseases?

    Correct Answer
    infectious diseases and microbial intoxications
    Explanation
    Pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, can cause two major types of diseases. The first type is infectious diseases, which occur when pathogens invade and multiply within the body, leading to illness. Examples include the flu, tuberculosis, and malaria. The second type is microbial intoxications, which occur when toxins produced by pathogens are ingested or enter the body, causing illness. Examples include food poisoning caused by bacteria like Salmonella or toxins produced by certain strains of E. coli. Both infectious diseases and microbial intoxications are caused by pathogens and can have significant impacts on human health.

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  • 11. 

    The size of bacteria are expressed in nanometeres whereas the sizes of viruses are expressed in micrometers.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Bacteria are expressed in micrometers whereas viruses are expressed in nanometers

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  • 12. 

    What is used to measure the dimensions of objects being viewed with a compund light microscope?

    • A.

      Lens x Stage

    • B.

      An Ocular Lens

    • C.

      Ocular Micrometer

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Ocular Micrometer
    Explanation
    The ocular micrometer is used to measure the dimensions of objects being viewed with a compound light microscope. It is a calibrated glass disc with a scale that can be superimposed on the image seen through the microscope. By comparing the size of the object to the scale on the ocular micrometer, the dimensions can be accurately measured. The other options, lens x stage and an ocular lens, are not specifically used for measuring dimensions but rather for magnification and focusing purposes.

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  • 13. 

    A simple microscope contains only ___ magnifying lens, whereas as compound microscope contains ___ magnifying lens.

    Correct Answer
    one and one or more, one and many, one and multiple
    Explanation
    A simple microscope contains only one magnifying lens, whereas a compound microscope contains one or more magnifying lenses. This means that a compound microscope can have multiple lenses, while a simple microscope only has a single lens.

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  • 14. 

    A simple microscope contains 4 different magnifying lens.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    No a simple microscope only has one lens, if a microscope has more than one lens it is considered to be a compound microscope.

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  • 15. 

    Explain how to calculate the total magnification of the compound light microscope.

  • 16. 

    The resolving power of the unaided human eye is 0.2 mm

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The resolving power of the unaided human eye refers to its ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects. A resolving power of 0.2 mm means that the eye can distinguish between two points that are at least 0.2 mm apart. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 17. 

    When using a brightfield microscope a person observes objects _______ backgroud. When using a darkfield microscope a person observes objects _______background.

    Correct Answer
    against a bright background and against an illuminated
    Explanation
    When using a brightfield microscope, the objects are observed against a bright background because the light passes through the specimen, making it appear darker against the illuminated background. In contrast, when using a darkfield microscope, the objects are observed against an illuminated background because the light is directed at an angle, causing the specimen to scatter the light and appear brighter against the dark background.

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  • 18. 

    The resolving power of a transmission electron microscope is what?

    • A.

      Approximately 0.2 nanometeres

    • B.

      1 million times better that the human eye

    • C.

      1,000 times better than the resolving power of a compound microscope.

    • D.

      Both A and C

    • E.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The resolving power of a transmission electron microscope is a combination of both its ability to resolve details up to approximately 0.2 nanometers and its superior resolving power compared to a compound microscope, which is 1,000 times better. Additionally, the resolving power of a transmission electron microscope is also 1 million times better than the human eye. Therefore, all of the given options (A, B, and C) accurately describe the resolving power of a transmission electron microscope.

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  • 19. 

    Scanning electron microscopes have a resolving power of approxiamtely 20 nanometers which is about 100 times stronger than the resolving power of a transmission electron microscope.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Scanning electron microscopes are about 100 less strong than a transmission electron mircoscope.

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  • 20. 

    Photographs taken using compound light microscopes are called what?

    Correct Answer
    Photomicrographs
    Explanation
    Photographs taken using compound light microscopes are called photomicrographs. This term is derived from combining "photo" which refers to photography, and "micrograph" which means a photograph taken through a microscope. Therefore, photomicrographs specifically refer to images captured using compound light microscopes.

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  • 21. 

    Photographs taken using a transmission electron microscope or a scanning electron microscope are called transmission electron micrographs and scanning electron micrographs.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Photographs taken using a transmission electron microscope or a scanning electron microscope are indeed called transmission electron micrographs and scanning electron micrographs. These microscopes use different techniques to capture images of samples at high magnification and resolution. The transmission electron microscope works by transmitting a beam of electrons through a thin sample, while the scanning electron microscope scans a focused beam of electrons across the surface of the sample. Both types of microscopes produce detailed images that are referred to as transmission electron micrographs and scanning electron micrographs. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 22. 

    What do Eucaryote cells possess that Procaryote cell do not?

    • A.

      A true nucleus

    • B.

      A cell wall

    • C.

      Ability to be selectively permeable

    • D.

      Both B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A true nucleus
    Explanation
    Eukaryote cells possess a true nucleus, which is a membrane-bound organelle that contains the cell's genetic material. This is in contrast to prokaryote cells, which do not have a nucleus and instead have their genetic material floating freely in the cytoplasm. The presence of a true nucleus allows eukaryote cells to have more complex and organized genetic processes, such as DNA replication and transcription, which prokaryote cells lack. Additionally, eukaryote cells have other membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum, which contribute to their increased complexity and functionality compared to prokaryote cells.

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  • 23. 

    A "true nucleus" consists of neucleoplasm, chromosomes, and a nuclear membrane.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A "true nucleus" refers to a structure found in eukaryotic cells that contains the genetic material. It consists of neucleoplasm, which is the fluid inside the nucleus, chromosomes, which are the condensed DNA molecules, and a nuclear membrane, which surrounds and protects the nucleus. This statement is true because all these components are indeed present in a true nucleus.

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  • 24. 

    What are the three parts of a "true nucleus"?

    Correct Answer
    Neucleoplasm, chromosomes, and a nuclear membrane
    Explanation
    A "true nucleus" consists of three main components: nucleoplasm, chromosomes, and a nuclear membrane. The nucleoplasm is the fluid inside the nucleus that contains various molecules and ions necessary for cellular processes. Chromosomes are the structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are found inside the nucleoplasm and are responsible for transmitting traits from one generation to the next. The nuclear membrane surrounds the nucleus and acts as a barrier, controlling the movement of substances in and out of the nucleus. These three parts work together to maintain the integrity and function of the nucleus.

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  • 25. 

    An organisims complete collection of genes is referred to as what?

    • A.

      Genome

    • B.

      Genotype

    • C.

      A complete cell

    • D.

      A true nucleus

    • E.

      Both A & B

    • F.

      Both C & D

    Correct Answer
    E. Both A & B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both A & B". An organism's complete collection of genes is referred to as its genome. The genome includes all the genetic material, including both the coding and non-coding regions. Genotype, on the other hand, refers to the specific genetic makeup of an individual organism. Therefore, both A (genome) and B (genotype) accurately describe an organism's complete collection of genes.

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  • 26. 

    ___are the sites of protein synthesis.

    Correct Answer
    Ribosomes
    Explanation
    Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. They are small, complex structures found in the cytoplasm of cells. Ribosomes play a crucial role in translating the genetic information stored in DNA into functional proteins. They are responsible for assembling amino acids in the correct order to form polypeptide chains, which then fold into functional proteins. Ribosomes can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, and they are composed of two subunits that come together during protein synthesis. Overall, ribosomes are essential for the production of proteins, which are vital for the structure and function of cells and organisms.

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  • 27. 

    Which organelle is considered to be a "packaging plant" ?

    • A.

      Rough ER

    • B.

      Smooth ER

    • C.

      Golgi Apparatus

    • D.

      Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    C. Golgi Apparatus
    Explanation
    The Golgi Apparatus is considered to be a "packaging plant" because it is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles for transport to their final destinations. It receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and modifies them by adding sugars, lipids, and other molecules. It then sorts and packages these modified molecules into vesicles, which bud off from the Golgi Apparatus and are transported to various parts of the cell or outside of the cell. Therefore, the Golgi Apparatus plays a crucial role in the packaging and distribution of molecules within the cell.

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  • 28. 

    Which organelle can be considered "power plants" or "energy factories"

    • A.

      Rough ER

    • B.

      Smooth ER

    • C.

      Golgi Apparatus

    • D.

      Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    D. Mitochondria
    Explanation
    Mitochondria can be considered "power plants" or "energy factories" because they are responsible for producing adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the main source of energy for cells. ATP is generated through the process of cellular respiration, which takes place in the mitochondria. This organelle contains enzymes and proteins that carry out the various steps of cellular respiration, including the breakdown of glucose and the production of ATP. Therefore, mitochondria play a crucial role in providing energy for the cell's metabolic activities, making them the "power plants" or "energy factories" of the cell.

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  • 29. 

    What is the site of photosynthesis?

    Correct Answer
    Plastids
    Explanation
    Plastids are the site of photosynthesis in plants. They are specialized organelles found in plant cells that contain chlorophyll, which is responsible for capturing sunlight and converting it into energy through the process of photosynthesis. Plastids, specifically chloroplasts, are where the green pigment chlorophyll is located, allowing plants to absorb light energy and convert it into chemical energy in the form of glucose. Therefore, the correct answer is Plastids.

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  • 30. 

    If a eucaryotic cell is motile is does not posses any flagella or cillia.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Motile eucaryotes do posses flagella and cillia, nonmotile eucaryotes do not posses flagella or cillia.

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  • 31. 

    Bacterial cells are commonly surrounded by a glycocalyx. What are the two types of gycocalyx?

    Correct Answer
    Slime layers and capsules.
    Explanation
    Bacterial cells are commonly surrounded by a glycocalyx, which is a layer of polysaccharides. The glycocalyx can exist in two forms: slime layers and capsules. Slime layers are loosely attached to the cell surface and can be easily washed off, while capsules are tightly bound to the cell and are more difficult to remove. Slime layers and capsules serve various functions, such as protecting the bacteria from desiccation, promoting adhesion to surfaces, and evading the host immune system.

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  • 32. 

    Explain the function of glycocalyx capsules as it relates to bacterial cells.

  • 33. 

    Bacteria never posses any cilia.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that lack complex structures like cilia. Cilia are hair-like structures that are found in certain types of cells and are responsible for various functions such as movement and sensory perception. Since bacteria are simple organisms, they do not possess cilia, making the statement "Bacteria never possess any cilia" true.

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  • 34. 

    What are organelles of attachment, that enable bacteria to adhere to surfaces?

    • A.

      Cilia

    • B.

      Glycolipids

    • C.

      Glycoproteins

    • D.

      Pili

    Correct Answer
    D. Pili
    Explanation
    Pili are organelles of attachment that enable bacteria to adhere to surfaces. Pili are hair-like structures found on the surface of bacteria that help them to attach to surfaces such as tissues or other bacteria. They are made up of proteins and play a crucial role in bacterial adhesion, allowing them to colonize and form biofilms on various surfaces. This enables bacteria to establish infections and resist removal by the host immune system or antimicrobial agents.

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  • 35. 

    ____ enables the transfer of genetic material from one bacterial cell to another.

    Correct Answer
    Sex pili
    Sex Pilus
    Explanation
    Sex pili, also known as sex pilus, enable the transfer of genetic material from one bacterial cell to another. These structures are thin, filamentous appendages that extend from the surface of certain bacteria. They play a crucial role in a process called bacterial conjugation, where genetic material, such as plasmids, can be transferred between cells. The sex pili allow for physical contact and the formation of a mating bridge between the donor and recipient cells, facilitating the transfer of genetic material.

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  • 36. 

    A sex pilus enables what?

    Correct Answer
    The transfer of genetic materical from one bacterial cell to another
    Explanation
    A sex pilus is a thin, hair-like appendage found on the surface of certain bacteria. It plays a crucial role in the process of bacterial conjugation, which is the transfer of genetic material from one bacterial cell to another. During conjugation, the sex pilus acts as a bridge between the two cells, allowing the transfer of plasmids or other genetic material. This enables the exchange of traits such as antibiotic resistance, virulence factors, or metabolic capabilities between bacterial cells, contributing to genetic diversity and adaptation.

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  • 37. 

    What enables bacteria to survive asverse conditions such as temperate extremes, dessication, and lack of nutients?

    Correct Answer
    Endospores
    Explanation
    Endospores are a unique survival mechanism that enables bacteria to withstand adverse conditions such as extreme temperatures, dessication (drying out), and lack of nutrients. Endospores are dormant, highly resistant structures that form within the bacterial cell. When conditions become unfavorable, the bacteria undergoes sporulation, where it produces an endospore. The endospore is a tough, protective shell that encases the bacterial DNA and essential components. This allows the bacteria to remain dormant and survive in harsh environments until conditions become favorable again, at which point the endospore can germinate and the bacteria can resume growth and reproduction.

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  • 38. 

    Endospores enable bacteria to do what?

    Correct Answer
    Survive extreme temperatures, dessication, and lack of nutrients.
    Explanation
    Endospores are a protective mechanism used by certain bacteria to survive unfavorable conditions such as extreme temperatures, dessication (drying out), and lack of nutrients. These spores are highly resistant structures that allow the bacteria to enter a dormant state and withstand harsh environments until more favorable conditions arise. This adaptive strategy ensures the survival and persistence of the bacteria in challenging conditions.

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  • 39. 

    How do bacteria reproduce?

    • A.

      Binary Fission

    • B.

      Mitosis

    • C.

      Meosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Binary Fission
    Explanation
    Bacteria reproduce through a process called binary fission. In this process, a single bacterium divides into two identical daughter cells. The parent bacterium first duplicates its genetic material and then divides into two equal halves, each containing a copy of the genetic material. This results in the formation of two genetically identical daughter cells. Binary fission is a common method of reproduction for bacteria and allows them to rapidly increase their population size.

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  • 40. 

    The length of time it takes for one bacteria cell to split into two cells is referred to as what?

    • A.

      Cell Life

    • B.

      Cytokinesis

    • C.

      Generation Time

    • D.

      Mitosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Generation Time
    Explanation
    Generation time refers to the length of time it takes for one bacteria cell to split into two cells. It is the time required for a population of bacteria to double in number through binary fission. This term is commonly used in microbiology to measure the growth rate and reproductive capacity of bacterial cells.

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  • 41. 

    Define and explin genotype and phenotype.

  • 42. 

    Name the 3 domains in the 3-Domain system.

    • A.

      Archaea

    • B.

      Bacteria

    • C.

      Eucarya

    • D.

      Procarya

    • E.

      Fungi

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Archaea
    B. Bacteria
    C. Eucarya
    Explanation
    The 3 domains in the 3-Domain system are Archaea, Bacteria, and Eucarya. This system categorizes all living organisms into three domains based on their cellular structure, genetic makeup, and evolutionary history. Archaea are single-celled microorganisms that can survive in extreme environments. Bacteria are also single-celled organisms that can be found in various habitats. Eucarya includes all organisms with eukaryotic cells, which have a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. This classification system helps scientists understand the diversity and relationships between different organisms.

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  • 43. 

    Relatedness among organisims is determined by analysis of genes that code for small subunit ribosomes DNA.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Relatedness amoung organisims are determined by analysis of genes that code for small subunit ribosomes RNA.

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  • 44. 

    Viruses are not alive so in order to replicate themselves they must invade a live host.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Viruses are considered non-living entities because they lack the ability to carry out essential life processes on their own. They cannot reproduce or generate energy independently. Therefore, in order to replicate themselves, viruses need to invade a living host cell and hijack its cellular machinery. Once inside the host cell, the virus uses the host's resources to replicate its genetic material and produce more virus particles. This process ultimately leads to the destruction of the host cell and the release of new virus particles, which can then go on to infect other host cells. Hence, the statement "Viruses are not alive, so in order to replicate themselves they must invade a live host" is true.

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  • 45. 

    All viruses have to have both DNA and RNA present.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false. Not all viruses have both DNA and RNA present. Viruses can either have DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but not both. Some viruses, such as the influenza virus, have RNA as their genetic material, while others, like the herpes virus, have DNA.

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  • 46. 

    Since viruses are not considered to be living organisims, they are referred to as what?

    Correct Answer
    acellular microbes
    infectious particles
    Explanation
    Viruses are not considered living organisms because they lack the ability to carry out essential life processes on their own. They cannot reproduce or metabolize without a host cell. Therefore, they are referred to as acellular microbes. Additionally, viruses are infectious particles because they have the ability to invade and infect host cells, causing various diseases.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 21, 2011
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