Practice Quiz On Microbiology Exam

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Practice Quiz On Microbiology Exam

The final exams are upon us, and there is no doubt that you have been putting up a lot of effort to ensure that you do not fail. The quiz below is specifically designed to provide that you can refresh your mind on all that you have covered so far while at the same time giving you an idea on how the questions might be set. Give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Semmelweis showed that the transmission of disease could be interrupted by
    • A. 

      Pasteurizing milk

    • B. 

      Washing hands with chlorine water

    • C. 

      Disinfecting water supplies

    • D. 

      Killing disease-carrying mosquitos

  • 2. 
    All of the following characteristics apply to the prokaryotes except
    • A. 

      They reproduce only by mitosis

    • B. 

      They include the bacteria

    • C. 

      They lack a nucleus

    • D. 

      They are composed of single cells

  • 3. 
    Microbiology failed to rapidly develop after Leeuwenhoek's time because
    • A. 

      Pure culture techniques were lacking

    • B. 

      The relationship of microorganisms of disease was not established

    • C. 

      Vaccines were in common use

    • D. 

      The Netherlands was in the midst of a war in England

  • 4. 
    Pasteurs study of fermantation was critical to the development of microbiology because
    • A. 

      Fermentation chemistry occurs in the living body

    • B. 

      It showed that microorganisms bring about chemical changes

    • C. 

      It demonstrated that yeasts are involved in diseases

    • D. 

      The body undergoes rapid fermentation after death

  • 5. 
    Koch's postulates provided guidelines for
    • A. 

      Relating certain microorganisms with certain diseases

    • B. 

      Sterilizing laboratory supples

    • C. 

      Perparing pure cultures

    • D. 

      Testing the sensitivity of microbes to antibiotics

  • 6. 
    The classical Golden Age of microbiology came to an end partly due to the
    • A. 

      All infectious disease were known

    • B. 

      Death of Anton van Leeuwenhoek

    • C. 

      The advent of World War 1

    • D. 

      End of the Renaissance

  • 7. 
    Which one of the following groups is not resolved with the light microscope
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Fungi

    • C. 

      Viruses

    • D. 

      Molds

  • 8. 
    All of the following characteristics of prokaryotes except
    • A. 

      Prokaryotes have organelles

    • B. 

      Prokaryotes have ribosomes

    • C. 

      Prokaryotes lack a nucleus

    • D. 

      Prokaryotes have genes

  • 9. 
    Prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ primarily with regard to the absence or presence of a cell
    • A. 

      Membrane

    • B. 

      Wall

    • C. 

      Spore

    • D. 

      Nucleus

  • 10. 
    Which one of the following sequences exhibits increasing size
    • A. 

      Viruses to protozoa to bacteria

    • B. 

      Bacteria to viruses to fungi

    • C. 

      Fungi to protozoa to bacteria

    • D. 

      Viruses to bacteria to protozoa

  • 11. 
    The gram stain technique is valuable in distinguishing
    • A. 

      Type of fungi

    • B. 

      The size and structure of viruses

    • C. 

      The nucleus of bacteria from other cellular organelles

    • D. 

      Types of bacteria

  • 12. 
    Unicellular photosynthetic microbes that are eukaryotic are members of the
    • A. 

      Protista

    • B. 

      Monera

    • C. 

      Plantae

    • D. 

      Fungi

  • 13. 
    In the log phased of growth
    • A. 

      The death rate is equivalent to the reproductive rate

    • B. 

      The number of cells in the population increases rapidly

    • C. 

      The growth curve is at a plateau

    • D. 

      Spore formation is a common event

  • 14. 
    All the following are functions of the bacterial cell membrane except
    • A. 

      Lends ridigity to the cell

    • B. 

      Site of enzymes for energy production in the cell

    • C. 

      Enclosure for the cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Control of passage of biological molecules into the cytoplasm

  • 15. 
    Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ with respect to their
    • A. 

      Oxygen requirements

    • B. 

      Ability to tolerate salt

    • C. 

      PH requirements

    • D. 

      Best temperature for growth

  • 16. 
    An organism having pili has the advantage over one that alcks pili because
    • A. 

      It can move actively

    • B. 

      It can attach to specific surfaces

    • C. 

      It can obtain nutrients from beef broth

    • D. 

      It can be stained easily

  • 17. 
    Facultative bacteria are those that
    • A. 

      Grow on natural and synthetic media

    • B. 

      Produce spores or capsules, but not both

    • C. 

      Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

    • D. 

      Possess cell membranes but no cell walls

  • 18. 
    ATP releases its energy by
    • A. 

      Activating its protons to form ions

    • B. 

      Absorbing heat from the enviornment

    • C. 

      Combing with other ATP molecules

    • D. 

      Splitting into a phosphate and ADP

  • 19. 
    In order for oxidative phosphorylation to take place, the environment must contain a certain amound of
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Sunlight

    • C. 

      Energy supplied by atp

    • D. 

      Isotopes

  • 20. 
    The krebs cycle accounts for all the following except
    • A. 

      Production of CO2 molecules

    • B. 

      Production of NADH and FADH2

    • C. 

      Production of pyruvate from glucose

    • D. 

      Production of electrons for oxidative phosphorylation

  • 21. 
    The peptidoglycan of a bacterium
    • A. 

      Is embedded within the capsule

    • B. 

      Cannot be assembled if penicillin is present

    • C. 

      Is part of the cell membrane

    • D. 

      Is found in gram-positive bacteria only

  • 22. 
    Monotrichous and pritrichous bacteria differ in
    • A. 

      Their nutritional requirements

    • B. 

      Layers of the cell wall

    • C. 

      Spores formed per cell

    • D. 

      Number and position of the flagella

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Break down to release metal ions

    • B. 

      Lower the amount of activation energy required for a reaction

    • C. 

      Raise the ionic strength of a water solution

    • D. 

      Retain the pH at the neutral level preferred by most microorganisms

  • 24. 
    Two important coenzymes that function inoxidative phosphorylation are
    • A. 

      ATP and acetyl CoA

    • B. 

      DNA and ATP

    • C. 

      NADP and ATP

    • D. 

      FAD and NAD+

  • 25. 
    Electrons for oxidative phosphorylation can originate from
    • A. 

      Only the Krebs cycle reactions

    • B. 

      Only the reactions of fermentation

    • C. 

      Only the reactions of glycolysis

    • D. 

      Both the krebs cycle and glycolysis reactions

  • 26. 
    All of the following characteristics apply to enzymes except
    • A. 

      Some enzymes are made entirely of protein

    • B. 

      ATP is an enzyme

    • C. 

      Heat alters the tertiary structure of enzymes

    • D. 

      Enzymes are reusable

  • 27. 
    The catabolic process in which glucose is converted into pyruvate is called
    • A. 

      Glycolysis

    • B. 

      The Krebs Cycle

    • C. 

      Fermentation

    • D. 

      Oxidative phosphorylation

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Dissolving the cell membrane of a bacterium

    • B. 

      Preventing synthesis of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation

    • C. 

      Restricting transcription of RNA molecules

    • D. 

      Binding together adjacent thymine molecules on the DNA molecule

  • 29. 
    The base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule that is complementary to the sequence CGTTAGA would be expressed as
    • A. 

      CGTTAGA

    • B. 

      GCAAUCU

    • C. 

      GCUUTCT

    • D. 

      GCAATCT

  • 30. 
    The major activity of transcription is to
    • A. 

      Copy DNA

    • B. 

      Pair codons with anticodons

    • C. 

      Produce amino acids

    • D. 

      Produce RNA molecules

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      The mRNA sequence is the same as that on the DNA template strand

    • B. 

      Amino acids are joined to one another at the ribosome

    • C. 

      The process requires expenditure of energy

    • D. 

      The gene must unwind before mRNA can be synthesized

  • 32. 
    All the following function in the process of protein synthesis except
    • A. 

      RNA polymerase

    • B. 

      Electron transport

    • C. 

      Cytosine and uracil

    • D. 

      Amino acids

  • 33. 
    The mRNA that codes for a particular protein will have ___ nucleotides for each amino acid in the protein
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

  • 34. 
    In the operon, genes that code for enzymes are called
    • A. 

      Structural genes

    • B. 

      Operator genes

    • C. 

      Repressor genes

    • D. 

      Inducer genes

  • 35. 
    The chromosome of Escherichia coli
    • A. 

      Is a linear chromosome

    • B. 

      Has about 4300 genes

    • C. 

      Is surrounded by a membraned

    • D. 

      Contains some 35000 genes

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      All the structural genes in the chromosome

    • B. 

      The complete set of genetic information

    • C. 

      All the RnA molecule in a cell

    • D. 

      All the proteins in a cell

  • 37. 
    Restriction enzymes are notable for their ability to
    • A. 

      Stitch together fragments of DNA

    • B. 

      Produce Okazaki fragments from plasmids

    • C. 

      Split nucleic acid molecules at a specific point

    • D. 

      Induce transformations

  • 38. 
    Generalized transduction is carried out by
    • A. 

      Virulent phages that have a lysogenic cycle

    • B. 

      Temperate phages that undergo lysogeny

    • C. 

      Virulent phages that have a lytic cycle

    • D. 

      Temperate phages that are incapable of lysogeny

  • 39. 
    Through the techniques of genetic engineering, you have produced a plasmid that contains a gene for human insulin. Such a plasmid is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Human plasmid

    • B. 

      Recombinant plasmid

    • C. 

      F' prime plasmid

    • D. 

      F* plasmid

  • 40. 
    In the prodromal phase, symptoms
    • A. 

      Are their height

    • B. 

      May include nausea, fever, and headache

    • C. 

      Have begun to disappear

    • D. 

      Have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease

  • 41. 
    Which one of the following does not apply to endotoxins
    • A. 

      They are composed exclusively of protein

    • B. 

      They are part of the bacterial cell wall

    • C. 

      They are present in gram-negative bacteria

    • D. 

      All the above (A-C) are correct

  • 42. 
    A normal flora may be found in all the following enviornments except
    • A. 

      The blood

    • B. 

      The pharynx

    • C. 

      The vagina

    • D. 

      The upper respiratory tract

  • 43. 
    Hyaluronidase is a bacterial enzyme that
    • A. 

      Induces blood clot formation in the host

    • B. 

      Encourages movement in the organism

    • C. 

      Enhances penetration through the host tissues

    • D. 

      Convert toxins to toxoids

  • 44. 
    The cell that matures in the thymus gland
    • A. 

      Localizes in the skin tissues

    • B. 

      Becomes a plasma cell

    • C. 

      Is responsible for cell-mediated immunity

    • D. 

      Produces antibodies

  • 45. 
    Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation
    • A. 

      Lysis of the cell through cytoplasm leakage

    • B. 

      Attraction of phagocytes

    • C. 

      Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interactions

    • D. 

      Formation of an attack complex

  • 46. 
    A non-specific resistance factor effective against viral infection is
    • A. 

      Lysozyme

    • B. 

      Bile

    • C. 

      Interferon

    • D. 

      Complement

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      NK cells have special receptors on th esurface of their membrane

    • B. 

      NK cells recognize the body's cells and do not attack them

    • C. 

      NK cells bind to the target cell and induce lysis

    • D. 

      NK cells rely on class II MHC proteins to seperate normal cells from target cells

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Are phagocytes

    • B. 

      Have large granules in the cytoplasm

    • C. 

      Lack a nucleus

    • D. 

      Have a life span of about 10 years.