Practice Quiz On Microbiology Exam

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Practice Quiz On Microbiology Exam - Quiz

The final exams are upon us, and there is no doubt that you have been putting up a lot of effort to ensure that you do not fail. The quiz below is specifically designed to provide that you can refresh your mind on all that you have covered so far while at the same time giving you an idea on how the questions might be set. Give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Semmelweis showed that the transmission of disease could be interrupted by

    • A.

      Pasteurizing milk

    • B.

      Washing hands with chlorine water

    • C.

      Disinfecting water supplies

    • D.

      Killing disease-carrying mosquitos

    Correct Answer
    B. Washing hands with chlorine water
    Explanation
    Semmelweis demonstrated that the transmission of disease could be interrupted by washing hands with chlorine water. He observed that there was a high mortality rate among women giving birth in hospitals, and he noticed that the doctors who performed autopsies before delivering babies had a significantly higher mortality rate. By implementing handwashing with chlorine water, he reduced the mortality rate drastically, proving that proper hand hygiene could prevent the spread of diseases.

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  • 2. 

    All of the following characteristics apply to the prokaryotes except

    • A.

      They reproduce only by mitosis

    • B.

      They include the bacteria

    • C.

      They lack a nucleus

    • D.

      They are composed of single cells

    Correct Answer
    A. They reproduce only by mitosis
    Explanation
    Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that lack a nucleus and include bacteria. They reproduce through a process called binary fission, not mitosis. In binary fission, the prokaryotic cell divides into two identical daughter cells. Mitosis, on the other hand, is a process that occurs in eukaryotic cells where the nucleus divides to produce two identical nuclei. Therefore, the statement "they reproduce only by mitosis" does not apply to prokaryotes.

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  • 3. 

    Microbiology failed to rapidly develop after Leeuwenhoek's time because

    • A.

      Pure culture techniques were lacking

    • B.

      The relationship of microorganisms of disease was not established

    • C.

      Vaccines were in common use

    • D.

      The Netherlands was in the midst of a war in England

    Correct Answer
    B. The relationship of microorganisms of disease was not established
    Explanation
    Microbiology failed to rapidly develop after Leeuwenhoek's time because the relationship between microorganisms and disease was not established. This means that scientists did not yet understand that microorganisms could cause diseases, which hindered the progress of microbiology as a field. Without this understanding, researchers were unable to effectively study and combat diseases caused by microorganisms. The lack of knowledge about the role of microorganisms in disease slowed down the development of microbiology.

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  • 4. 

    Pasteurs study of fermantation was critical to the development of microbiology because

    • A.

      Fermentation chemistry occurs in the living body

    • B.

      It showed that microorganisms bring about chemical changes

    • C.

      It demonstrated that yeasts are involved in diseases

    • D.

      The body undergoes rapid fermentation after death

    Correct Answer
    B. It showed that microorganisms bring about chemical changes
    Explanation
    Pasteur's study of fermentation was critical to the development of microbiology because it showed that microorganisms bring about chemical changes. This discovery challenged the prevailing belief at the time that fermentation was a purely chemical process. Pasteur's experiments demonstrated that microorganisms, specifically yeast, were responsible for the conversion of sugar into alcohol during fermentation. This groundbreaking finding paved the way for further research in microbiology and helped establish the importance of microorganisms in various chemical processes, including disease-causing ones.

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  • 5. 

    Koch's postulates provided guidelines for

    • A.

      Relating certain microorganisms with certain diseases

    • B.

      Sterilizing laboratory supples

    • C.

      Perparing pure cultures

    • D.

      Testing the sensitivity of microbes to antibiotics

    Correct Answer
    A. Relating certain microorganisms with certain diseases
    Explanation
    Koch's postulates provided guidelines for relating certain microorganisms with certain diseases. These postulates outline a series of steps to establish a causative relationship between a specific microorganism and a particular disease. They include isolating the microorganism from an infected individual, culturing it in a laboratory, introducing it into a healthy individual, and observing the development of the same disease. By following these guidelines, scientists can determine whether a specific microorganism is responsible for causing a particular disease.

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  • 6. 

    The classical Golden Age of microbiology came to an end partly due to the

    • A.

      All infectious disease were known

    • B.

      Death of Anton van Leeuwenhoek

    • C.

      The advent of World War 1

    • D.

      End of the Renaissance

    Correct Answer
    C. The advent of World War 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the advent of World War 1". The classical Golden Age of microbiology, which spanned from the late 19th to early 20th century, saw significant advancements in the field. However, the outbreak of World War 1 in 1914 diverted scientific resources and attention away from microbiology. Many scientists and researchers were involved in war-related efforts, leading to a decline in microbiological research and discoveries. This shift in focus and resources contributed to the end of the Golden Age of microbiology.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the following groups is not resolved with the light microscope

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Fungi

    • C.

      Viruses

    • D.

      Molds

    Correct Answer
    C. Viruses
    Explanation
    Viruses are not resolved with the light microscope because they are much smaller than bacteria, fungi, and molds. The resolution of a light microscope is limited to about 200 nanometers, while viruses typically range in size from 20 to 300 nanometers. Therefore, viruses cannot be seen or resolved using a light microscope, and other techniques such as electron microscopy are required to visualize them.

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  • 8. 

    All of the following characteristics of prokaryotes except

    • A.

      Prokaryotes have organelles

    • B.

      Prokaryotes have ribosomes

    • C.

      Prokaryotes lack a nucleus

    • D.

      Prokaryotes have genes

    Correct Answer
    A. Prokaryotes have organelles
    Explanation
    Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus. They have genetic material in the form of genes, which are responsible for their functioning. Prokaryotes also have ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis. However, unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes do not have membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria or chloroplasts. Therefore, the statement "prokaryotes have organelles" is incorrect.

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  • 9. 

    Prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ primarily with regard to the absence or presence of a cell

    • A.

      Membrane

    • B.

      Wall

    • C.

      Spore

    • D.

      Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    D. Nucleus
    Explanation
    Prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ primarily with regard to the presence or absence of a nucleus. Prokaryotes, such as bacteria, do not have a nucleus and their genetic material floats freely in the cytoplasm. On the other hand, eukaryotes, including plants, animals, fungi, and protists, have a defined nucleus that contains their DNA. The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle that houses the genetic material and controls the cell's activities. This fundamental difference in the organization of genetic material is one of the key distinctions between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following sequences exhibits increasing size

    • A.

      Viruses to protozoa to bacteria

    • B.

      Bacteria to viruses to fungi

    • C.

      Fungi to protozoa to bacteria

    • D.

      Viruses to bacteria to protozoa

    Correct Answer
    D. Viruses to bacteria to protozoa
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "viruses to bacteria to protozoa." This sequence exhibits increasing size because viruses are the smallest of the three, followed by bacteria, and then protozoa, which are the largest.

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  • 11. 

    The gram stain technique is valuable in distinguishing

    • A.

      Type of fungi

    • B.

      The size and structure of viruses

    • C.

      The nucleus of bacteria from other cellular organelles

    • D.

      Types of bacteria

    Correct Answer
    D. Types of bacteria
    Explanation
    The gram stain technique is valuable in distinguishing types of bacteria. This technique involves staining bacterial cells with crystal violet dye, followed by iodine treatment and alcohol wash. The staining properties of bacteria help classify them into two groups: gram-positive (retain the stain) and gram-negative (do not retain the stain). This differentiation is crucial in identifying and characterizing different types of bacteria, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of bacterial infections.

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  • 12. 

    Unicellular photosynthetic microbes that are eukaryotic are members of the

    • A.

      Protista

    • B.

      Monera

    • C.

      Plantae

    • D.

      Fungi

    Correct Answer
    A. Protista
    Explanation
    Unicellular photosynthetic microbes that are eukaryotic are members of the Protista. This group includes various organisms such as algae, protozoa, and slime molds. These organisms are characterized by having a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They can perform photosynthesis, utilizing sunlight to produce energy. The Protista kingdom is a diverse group, encompassing a wide range of organisms with different characteristics and modes of nutrition.

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  • 13. 

    In the log phased of growth

    • A.

      The death rate is equivalent to the reproductive rate

    • B.

      The number of cells in the population increases rapidly

    • C.

      The growth curve is at a plateau

    • D.

      Spore formation is a common event

    Correct Answer
    B. The number of cells in the population increases rapidly
    Explanation
    In the log phase of growth, the number of cells in the population increases rapidly. This is because during this phase, the cells are actively dividing and multiplying, resulting in a rapid increase in population size. The growth curve is characterized by a steep upward slope, indicating the exponential growth of cells. This phase is typically associated with optimal conditions for growth, such as abundant nutrients and favorable environmental factors. As the cells continue to divide, the population size increases rapidly until it reaches a point where resources become limited or waste products accumulate, leading to the next phase of growth.

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  • 14. 

    All the following are functions of the bacterial cell membrane except

    • A.

      Lends ridigity to the cell

    • B.

      Site of enzymes for energy production in the cell

    • C.

      Enclosure for the cytoplasm

    • D.

      Control of passage of biological molecules into the cytoplasm

    Correct Answer
    A. Lends ridigity to the cell
    Explanation
    The bacterial cell membrane has several functions, including providing rigidity to the cell, serving as the site of enzymes for energy production, acting as an enclosure for the cytoplasm, and controlling the passage of biological molecules into the cytoplasm. Therefore, the statement "lends rigidity to the cell" is incorrect as it is indeed one of the functions of the bacterial cell membrane.

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  • 15. 

    Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ with respect to their

    • A.

      Oxygen requirements

    • B.

      Ability to tolerate salt

    • C.

      PH requirements

    • D.

      Best temperature for growth

    Correct Answer
    D. Best temperature for growth
    Explanation
    Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ in terms of their best temperature for growth. Psychrophiles are microorganisms that thrive in cold temperatures, typically below 20 degrees Celsius. They have adapted to survive and reproduce in cold environments such as polar regions. On the other hand, thermophiles are microorganisms that thrive in high temperatures, typically above 45 degrees Celsius. They have adapted to survive and reproduce in hot environments such as geothermal springs. The difference in their optimal temperature range for growth is the main factor that sets them apart.

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  • 16. 

    An organism having pili has the advantage over one that alcks pili because

    • A.

      It can move actively

    • B.

      It can attach to specific surfaces

    • C.

      It can obtain nutrients from beef broth

    • D.

      It can be stained easily

    Correct Answer
    B. It can attach to specific surfaces
    Explanation
    An organism having pili has the advantage over one that lacks pili because pili are hair-like appendages that enable the organism to attach to specific surfaces. This allows the organism to establish a stable foothold and potentially access nutrients or resources that may be available on those surfaces. Additionally, attachment to specific surfaces can also facilitate interactions with other organisms or promote colonization in certain environments.

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  • 17. 

    Facultative bacteria are those that

    • A.

      Grow on natural and synthetic media

    • B.

      Produce spores or capsules, but not both

    • C.

      Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

    • D.

      Possess cell membranes but no cell walls

    Correct Answer
    C. Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
    Explanation
    Facultative bacteria are able to grow in the presence or absence of oxygen. This means that they have the ability to switch between aerobic (oxygen-rich) and anaerobic (oxygen-poor) conditions for their growth and metabolism. They can use oxygen if it is available, but they can also survive and grow in environments where oxygen is limited or absent. This adaptability allows facultative bacteria to thrive in a wide range of habitats, making them versatile and resilient microorganisms.

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  • 18. 

    ATP releases its energy by

    • A.

      Activating its protons to form ions

    • B.

      Absorbing heat from the enviornment

    • C.

      Combing with other ATP molecules

    • D.

      Splitting into a phosphate and ADP

    Correct Answer
    D. Splitting into a phosphate and ADP
    Explanation
    ATP releases its energy by splitting into a phosphate and ADP. This process is called hydrolysis, in which a water molecule is used to break the bond between the last two phosphate groups of ATP. This releases a large amount of energy that can be used by cells for various metabolic processes. The resulting products, ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate, can then be used to regenerate ATP through cellular respiration.

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  • 19. 

    In order for oxidative phosphorylation to take place, the environment must contain a certain amound of

    • A.

      Oxygen

    • B.

      Sunlight

    • C.

      Energy supplied by atp

    • D.

      Isotopes

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen
    Explanation
    Oxidative phosphorylation is a process that occurs in the mitochondria of cells and is responsible for producing ATP, the energy currency of the cell. Oxygen is required for oxidative phosphorylation to take place because it serves as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain. Without oxygen, the electron transport chain cannot function properly, leading to a decrease in ATP production. Therefore, the presence of oxygen is necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to occur.

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  • 20. 

    The krebs cycle accounts for all the following except

    • A.

      Production of CO2 molecules

    • B.

      Production of NADH and FADH2

    • C.

      Production of pyruvate from glucose

    • D.

      Production of electrons for oxidative phosphorylation

    Correct Answer
    C. Production of pyruvate from glucose
    Explanation
    The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells. It is responsible for the production of energy-rich molecules such as NADH and FADH2, which are used in oxidative phosphorylation to generate ATP. Additionally, the Krebs cycle produces CO2 molecules as byproducts. However, the production of pyruvate from glucose occurs during the process of glycolysis, which is the initial step of cellular respiration and not a part of the Krebs cycle. Therefore, the correct answer is "production of pyruvate from glucose".

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  • 21. 

    The peptidoglycan of a bacterium

    • A.

      Is embedded within the capsule

    • B.

      Cannot be assembled if penicillin is present

    • C.

      Is part of the cell membrane

    • D.

      Is found in gram-positive bacteria only

    Correct Answer
    D. Is found in gram-positive bacteria only
    Explanation
    The peptidoglycan of a bacterium is found in gram-positive bacteria only. Peptidoglycan is a major component of the bacterial cell wall and provides structural support. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan, which is responsible for retaining the crystal violet stain during the Gram staining process. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a thinner layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane. Therefore, the presence of peptidoglycan exclusively in gram-positive bacteria is a characteristic feature that distinguishes them from gram-negative bacteria.

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  • 22. 

    Monotrichous and pritrichous bacteria differ in

    • A.

      Their nutritional requirements

    • B.

      Layers of the cell wall

    • C.

      Spores formed per cell

    • D.

      Number and position of the flagella

    Correct Answer
    D. Number and position of the flagella
    Explanation
    Monotrichous and peritrichous bacteria differ in the number and position of their flagella. Monotrichous bacteria have a single flagellum located at one end of the cell, while peritrichous bacteria have multiple flagella distributed all over the cell surface. This difference in flagella arrangement affects the motility and movement of the bacteria. Monotrichous bacteria can move in a straight line, while peritrichous bacteria can move in any direction due to the presence of flagella all around the cell.

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  • 23. 

    Enzymes play an important role in biological chemistry because they

    • A.

      Break down to release metal ions

    • B.

      Lower the amount of activation energy required for a reaction

    • C.

      Raise the ionic strength of a water solution

    • D.

      Retain the pH at the neutral level preferred by most microorganisms

    Correct Answer
    B. Lower the amount of activation energy required for a reaction
    Explanation
    Enzymes are catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in biological systems. They do so by lowering the amount of activation energy required for a reaction to occur. Activation energy is the energy needed to start a chemical reaction, and enzymes facilitate this process by providing an alternative pathway with a lower energy barrier. By reducing the activation energy, enzymes increase the rate at which reactions occur, making them essential for biological processes.

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  • 24. 

    Two important coenzymes that function inoxidative phosphorylation are

    • A.

      ATP and acetyl CoA

    • B.

      DNA and ATP

    • C.

      NADP and ATP

    • D.

      FAD and NAD+

    Correct Answer
    D. FAD and NAD+
    Explanation
    FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) and NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) are two important coenzymes that function in oxidative phosphorylation. They play a crucial role in the electron transport chain, which is a series of reactions that generate ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through the transfer of electrons. FAD and NAD+ act as electron carriers, accepting and donating electrons during the process. This allows for the production of ATP, the main energy currency of the cell.

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  • 25. 

    Electrons for oxidative phosphorylation can originate from

    • A.

      Only the Krebs cycle reactions

    • B.

      Only the reactions of fermentation

    • C.

      Only the reactions of glycolysis

    • D.

      Both the krebs cycle and glycolysis reactions

    Correct Answer
    D. Both the krebs cycle and glycolysis reactions
    Explanation
    Electrons for oxidative phosphorylation can originate from both the Krebs cycle and glycolysis reactions. During the Krebs cycle, electrons are transferred to electron carriers such as NADH and FADH2. These electron carriers then enter the electron transport chain, where the electrons are passed along a series of protein complexes, ultimately generating ATP. Similarly, during glycolysis, glucose is broken down into pyruvate, generating NADH. This NADH can also enter the electron transport chain and contribute to ATP production. Therefore, electrons for oxidative phosphorylation can come from both the Krebs cycle and glycolysis reactions.

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  • 26. 

    All of the following characteristics apply to enzymes except

    • A.

      Some enzymes are made entirely of protein

    • B.

      ATP is an enzyme

    • C.

      Heat alters the tertiary structure of enzymes

    • D.

      Enzymes are reusable

    Correct Answer
    B. ATP is an enzyme
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ATP is an enzyme. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule that serves as the primary energy source for cellular processes, but it is not an enzyme. Enzymes, on the other hand, are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in living organisms. They are not made entirely of protein, as some enzymes require non-protein components called cofactors. Heat can indeed alter the tertiary structure of enzymes, affecting their function, and enzymes are known for their reusability, as they can be used repeatedly in catalyzing reactions.

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  • 27. 

    The catabolic process in which glucose is converted into pyruvate is called

    • A.

      Glycolysis

    • B.

      The Krebs Cycle

    • C.

      Fermentation

    • D.

      Oxidative phosphorylation

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycolysis
    Explanation
    Glycolysis is the correct answer because it is the catabolic process in which glucose is converted into pyruvate. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate through a series of enzymatic reactions. This process occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. The Krebs Cycle, fermentation, and oxidative phosphorylation are all subsequent steps in cellular respiration, but they do not directly convert glucose into pyruvate.

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  • 28. 

    UV light may induce a mutation by

    • A.

      Dissolving the cell membrane of a bacterium

    • B.

      Preventing synthesis of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation

    • C.

      Restricting transcription of RNA molecules

    • D.

      Binding together adjacent thymine molecules on the DNA molecule

    Correct Answer
    D. Binding together adjacent thymine molecules on the DNA molecule
    Explanation
    UV light can induce a mutation by binding together adjacent thymine molecules on the DNA molecule. This process is known as thymine dimer formation. UV light causes the formation of covalent bonds between two adjacent thymine bases, leading to the formation of a thymine dimer. This distorts the DNA structure and disrupts the normal replication and transcription processes. These mutations can result in genetic alterations and potentially lead to the development of diseases such as cancer.

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  • 29. 

    The base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule that is complementary to the sequence CGTTAGA would be expressed as

    • A.

      CGTTAGA

    • B.

      GCAAUCU

    • C.

      GCUUTCT

    • D.

      GCAATCT

    Correct Answer
    B. GCAAUCU
    Explanation
    The base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule is complementary to the original DNA sequence. In DNA, the bases are represented by the letters A, T, G, and C, while in RNA, the base T is replaced by U. Therefore, the complementary sequence to CGTTAGA would be GCAAUCU.

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  • 30. 

    The major activity of transcription is to

    • A.

      Copy DNA

    • B.

      Pair codons with anticodons

    • C.

      Produce amino acids

    • D.

      Produce RNA molecules

    Correct Answer
    D. Produce RNA molecules
    Explanation
    Transcription is the process in which RNA molecules are produced from a DNA template. During transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to a specific region of the DNA called the promoter and begins synthesizing a complementary RNA molecule. This RNA molecule is then processed and modified to produce different types of RNA, such as messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). These RNA molecules play crucial roles in protein synthesis and gene expression. Therefore, the major activity of transcription is to produce RNA molecules.

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  • 31. 

    All the following apply to the process of protein synthesis except

    • A.

      The mRNA sequence is the same as that on the DNA template strand

    • B.

      Amino acids are joined to one another at the ribosome

    • C.

      The process requires expenditure of energy

    • D.

      The gene must unwind before mRNA can be synthesized

    Correct Answer
    A. The mRNA sequence is the same as that on the DNA template strand
    Explanation
    During the process of protein synthesis, the mRNA sequence is not the same as that on the DNA template strand. Instead, the mRNA sequence is complementary to the DNA template strand. This is because the DNA template strand serves as a template for the synthesis of mRNA, and during transcription, RNA polymerase synthesizes an mRNA molecule that is complementary to the DNA template strand. The mRNA sequence contains codons that code for specific amino acids, which are then joined together at the ribosome to form a protein. The process of protein synthesis does require the expenditure of energy, and the gene must unwind before mRNA can be synthesized.

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  • 32. 

    All the following function in the process of protein synthesis except

    • A.

      RNA polymerase

    • B.

      Electron transport

    • C.

      Cytosine and uracil

    • D.

      Amino acids

    Correct Answer
    B. Electron transport
    Explanation
    The process of protein synthesis involves various steps, including transcription and translation. RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA, cytosine and uracil are nucleotides that are used in the formation of RNA, and amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. However, electron transport is not directly involved in protein synthesis. It is a process that occurs in the mitochondria and is part of cellular respiration, where electrons are transferred along the electron transport chain to generate ATP.

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  • 33. 

    The mRNA that codes for a particular protein will have ___ nucleotides for each amino acid in the protein

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The mRNA that codes for a particular protein will have 3 nucleotides for each amino acid in the protein. This is because the genetic code is read in groups of three nucleotides called codons, and each codon codes for a specific amino acid. Therefore, for each amino acid in the protein, there will be 3 nucleotides in the mRNA sequence.

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  • 34. 

    In the operon, genes that code for enzymes are called

    • A.

      Structural genes

    • B.

      Operator genes

    • C.

      Repressor genes

    • D.

      Inducer genes

    Correct Answer
    A. Structural genes
    Explanation
    In the operon, genes that code for enzymes are called structural genes. These genes contain the information necessary for the synthesis of specific enzymes or proteins. They are responsible for carrying out the biochemical reactions within the cell, and their expression is regulated by the operator and repressor genes. The operator gene controls the access of RNA polymerase to the structural genes, while the repressor gene produces a protein that can bind to the operator gene and prevent transcription of the structural genes. Inducer genes, on the other hand, are not directly related to the coding of enzymes in the operon.

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  • 35. 

    The chromosome of Escherichia coli

    • A.

      Is a linear chromosome

    • B.

      Has about 4300 genes

    • C.

      Is surrounded by a membraned

    • D.

      Contains some 35000 genes

    Correct Answer
    B. Has about 4300 genes
    Explanation
    Escherichia coli is a bacterium that has a circular chromosome, not a linear one. It is a single, circular DNA molecule that contains around 4300 genes. The other options mentioned in the question, such as having a membraned surround or containing 35000 genes, are incorrect.

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  • 36. 

    The genome of a bacterium consists of

    • A.

      All the structural genes in the chromosome

    • B.

      The complete set of genetic information

    • C.

      All the RnA molecule in a cell

    • D.

      All the proteins in a cell

    Correct Answer
    D. All the proteins in a cell
    Explanation
    The genome of a bacterium consists of all the proteins in a cell. The genome is the complete set of genetic information present in an organism, including all the genes. In bacteria, the genome is typically a single circular chromosome that contains all the structural genes responsible for coding proteins. These proteins play essential roles in various cellular processes and are crucial for the bacterium's survival and function. Therefore, the genome of a bacterium encompasses all the proteins present in the cell.

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  • 37. 

    Restriction enzymes are notable for their ability to

    • A.

      Stitch together fragments of DNA

    • B.

      Produce Okazaki fragments from plasmids

    • C.

      Split nucleic acid molecules at a specific point

    • D.

      Induce transformations

    Correct Answer
    C. Split nucleic acid molecules at a specific point
    Explanation
    Restriction enzymes are enzymes that can recognize specific DNA sequences and cleave the DNA at those sequences. This ability to split nucleic acid molecules at a specific point is what makes restriction enzymes notable. They are widely used in molecular biology techniques such as DNA cloning, gene editing, and DNA fingerprinting. By cutting DNA at specific sites, restriction enzymes allow scientists to manipulate and analyze DNA in a controlled manner.

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  • 38. 

    Generalized transduction is carried out by

    • A.

      Virulent phages that have a lysogenic cycle

    • B.

      Temperate phages that undergo lysogeny

    • C.

      Virulent phages that have a lytic cycle

    • D.

      Temperate phages that are incapable of lysogeny

    Correct Answer
    B. Temperate phages that undergo lysogeny
    Explanation
    Generalized transduction is a process in which any bacterial DNA can be transferred from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage. In this process, the bacteriophage mistakenly packages bacterial DNA instead of its own DNA during the assembly of new phage particles. When this phage infects another bacterium, it injects the packaged bacterial DNA into the recipient bacterium, thereby transferring genetic material. This process is carried out by temperate phages that undergo lysogeny, as they have the ability to integrate their DNA into the bacterial chromosome and transfer it to other bacteria.

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  • 39. 

    Through the techniques of genetic engineering, you have produced a plasmid that contains a gene for human insulin. Such a plasmid is called a(n)

    • A.

      Human plasmid

    • B.

      Recombinant plasmid

    • C.

      F' prime plasmid

    • D.

      F* plasmid

    Correct Answer
    B. Recombinant plasmid
    Explanation
    A recombinant plasmid is the correct answer because it refers to a plasmid that has been modified through genetic engineering techniques to contain a gene from another organism, in this case, the gene for human insulin. This term accurately describes the plasmid produced in the given scenario.

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  • 40. 

    In the prodromal phase, symptoms

    • A.

      Are their height

    • B.

      May include nausea, fever, and headache

    • C.

      Have begun to disappear

    • D.

      Have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease

    Correct Answer
    B. May include nausea, fever, and headache
    Explanation
    The prodromal phase refers to the early stage of a disease where initial symptoms start to appear. In this phase, symptoms may include nausea, fever, and headache. This suggests that these symptoms are common during the prodromal phase and can be indicators of the onset of a disease.

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  • 41. 

    Which one of the following does not apply to endotoxins

    • A.

      They are composed exclusively of protein

    • B.

      They are part of the bacterial cell wall

    • C.

      They are present in gram-negative bacteria

    • D.

      All the above (A-C) are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. They are composed exclusively of protein
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that endotoxins are not composed exclusively of protein. Endotoxins are actually lipopolysaccharides, which are complex molecules consisting of both lipid and carbohydrate components. These molecules are found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria and are released when the bacteria are destroyed. Endotoxins can cause a variety of harmful effects in the body, including inflammation and systemic infection.

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  • 42. 

    Normal flora may be found in all the following environments except

    • A.

      Blood

    • B.

      Eyes

    • C.

      Vagina

    • D.

      Oropharynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood
    Explanation
    A normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally reside in or on the human body without causing any harm. These microorganisms can be found in various environments such as the skin, gastrointestinal tract, upper respiratory tract, and vagina. However, the blood is generally considered a sterile environment, meaning it does not contain any normal flora. Therefore, the correct answer is the blood.

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  • 43. 

    Hyaluronidase is a bacterial enzyme that

    • A.

      Induces blood clot formation in the host

    • B.

      Encourages movement in the organism

    • C.

      Enhances penetration through the host tissues

    • D.

      Convert toxins to toxoids

    Correct Answer
    D. Convert toxins to toxoids
    Explanation
    Hyaluronidase is a bacterial enzyme that enhances penetration through the host tissues.

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  • 44. 

    The cell that matures in the thymus gland

    • A.

      Localizes in the skin tissues

    • B.

      Becomes a plasma cell

    • C.

      Is responsible for cell-mediated immunity

    • D.

      Produces antibodies

    Correct Answer
    D. Produces antibodies
    Explanation
    The cell that matures in the thymus gland is responsible for cell-mediated immunity and produces antibodies. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T cells, which are a type of white blood cell involved in cell-mediated immunity. These mature T cells then migrate to various tissues, including the skin, where they can help fight off infections and other foreign invaders. Additionally, T cells can activate B cells, which are responsible for producing antibodies, further contributing to the immune response.

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  • 45. 

    Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation

    • A.

      Lysis of the cell through cytoplasm leakage

    • B.

      Attraction of phagocytes

    • C.

      Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interactions

    • D.

      Formation of an attack complex

    Correct Answer
    A. Lysis of the cell through cytoplasm leakage
    Explanation
    Lysis of the cell through cytoplasm leakage is not an effect of complement activation. Complement activation is a part of the immune response that helps in the elimination of pathogens. It involves a cascade of reactions that lead to various effects, such as attracting phagocytes to the site of infection, enhancing T-lymphocyte activity, and forming an attack complex to destroy the pathogen. However, lysis of the cell through cytoplasm leakage is not a direct effect of complement activation.

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  • 46. 

    A non-specific resistance factor effective against viral infection is

    • A.

      Lysozyme

    • B.

      Bile

    • C.

      Interferon

    • D.

      Complement

    Correct Answer
    C. Interferon
    Explanation
    Interferon is a non-specific resistance factor effective against viral infections. It is a group of proteins that are produced by cells in response to viral invasion. Interferon helps to inhibit viral replication and spread by activating the immune system and inducing antiviral responses in neighboring cells. It also enhances the activity of other immune cells, such as natural killer cells and macrophages, to eliminate the virus. Therefore, interferon plays a crucial role in the body's defense against viral infections.

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  • 47. 

    Natural Killer (NK) cells can be describe by all of the following except

    • A.

      NK cells have special receptors on th esurface of their membrane

    • B.

      NK cells recognize the body's cells and do not attack them

    • C.

      NK cells bind to the target cell and induce lysis

    • D.

      NK cells rely on class II MHC proteins to seperate normal cells from target cells

    Correct Answer
    D. NK cells rely on class II MHC proteins to seperate normal cells from target cells
  • 48. 

    The link between macrophages and neutrophils is that both cells

    • A.

      Are phagocytes

    • B.

      Have large granules in the cytoplasm

    • C.

      Lack a nucleus

    • D.

      Have a life span of about 10 years.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are phagocytes
    Explanation
    Both macrophages and neutrophils are phagocytes, which means they are specialized cells that can engulf and destroy pathogens or foreign substances. They play a crucial role in the immune response by clearing out debris and fighting infections. This common characteristic of being phagocytes is the link between these two cell types.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 28, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Nadine317
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