Mfe 2A651 Vol 1-5 Unit Review 100 Random Questions

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the main function of the MOC?

    • A.

      To check the aircraft forms and check with other personnel located around and onboard the aircraft.

    • B.

      To monitor and coordinate sortie production, maintenance production, and execution of the flying and maintenance schedules, and maintain visibility of fleet health indicators.

    • C.

      To ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees; its ultimate goal is to protect them from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses.

    Correct Answer
    B. To monitor and coordinate sortie production, maintenance production, and execution of the flying and maintenance schedules, and maintain visibility of fleet health indicators.
    Explanation
    The main function of the MOC is to monitor and coordinate sortie production, maintenance production, and execution of the flying and maintenance schedules, and maintain visibility of fleet health indicators. This means that the MOC is responsible for overseeing and managing the production and execution of flight and maintenance operations, ensuring that schedules are followed and fleet health is maintained.

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  • 2. 

    Which squadrons form a maintenance group?

    • A.

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • B.

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • C.

      Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D.

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. This answer includes all the necessary components that form a maintenance group. Maintenance operations, maintenance, and aircraft maintenance are all directly related to the maintenance of the aircraft, while quality assurance ensures that the maintenance is carried out correctly and meets the required standards.

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  • 3. 

    QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?

    • A.

      Supervisors.

    • B.

      Flight commanders.

    • C.

      Group commanders.

    • D.

      Squadron commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is supervisors. This means that QA recommends possible corrective actions to supervisors. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that tasks are completed correctly. Therefore, it is logical for QA to provide recommendations to supervisors, as they are in a position to implement and enforce any necessary corrective actions within their teams.

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  • 4. 

    Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • A.

      Operations support center.

    • B.

      Logistics support squadron.

    • C.

      Operations support squadron.

    • D.

      Maintenance operations center.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations center.
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules, as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. This means they oversee the scheduling and coordination of aircraft maintenance and repairs, ensuring that all aircraft are properly maintained and in good working condition. They also track and analyze fleet health indicators to identify any potential issues or trends that may require attention.

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  • 5. 

    When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?

    • A.

      Debrief.

    • B.

      Training.

    • C.

      Specialist.

    • D.

      Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Specialist.
    Explanation
    As an engine troop in an aircraft maintenance squadron, you will most likely be assigned to the specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your primary responsibility would be to specialize in the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines. Being assigned to the specialist flight would allow you to focus on your specific area of expertise and contribute to the overall maintenance and operational readiness of the squadron's aircraft.

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  • 6. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • A.

      NCO academy.

    • B.

      On-the-job training.

    • C.

      Career development course.

    • D.

      Task qualification training.

    Correct Answer
    C. Career development course.
    Explanation
    A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills, knowledge, and abilities related to the specific career or job role. It provides employees with the necessary tools and resources to develop their careers and improve their performance in their current roles. This type of training often includes workshops, seminars, online courses, and other learning opportunities that are designed to enhance job-related knowledge and skills.

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  • 7. 

    You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      36

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    C. 48
    Explanation
    In the Air Force, you are eligible to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS) after completing 48 months of service. ALS is a professional military education program that enhances leadership skills and prepares airmen for supervisory roles. By completing 48 months, airmen have gained enough experience and knowledge to benefit from the training provided in ALS.

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  • 8. 

    Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?

    • A.

      ORM.

    • B.

      MSDS.

    • C.

      AFOSH.

    • D.

      Flightline safety.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFOSH.
    Explanation
    AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. It is a program that focuses on ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. This program aims to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace by implementing safety regulations, conducting inspections, and providing training and education on occupational safety and health. AFOSH plays a crucial role in maintaining the well-being of Air Force personnel and creating a safe working environment for them.

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  • 9. 

    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series

    • A.

      91

    • B.

      21-101

    • C.

      61

    • D.

      127

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91. The question is asking about the regulation that governs occupational health. The Air Force series 91 is a set of regulations that specifically deals with occupational health in the Air Force. Therefore, the correct answer is 91.

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  • 10. 

    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • A.

      00–5–1

    • B.

      00–20–1

    • C.

      21–101

    • D.

      36–2108

    Correct Answer
    C. 21–101
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21–101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.

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  • 11. 

    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • A.

      Lock and pin the work stands.

    • B.

      Your mom.

    • C.

      Check the AFTO Form 781K.

    • D.

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.
    Explanation
    To ensure that it is safe to proceed with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This is because they may have valuable information or observations about the aircraft that could affect its safety. By communicating with others, potential hazards or issues can be identified and addressed before starting the maintenance process.

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  • 12. 

    How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?

    • A.

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • B.

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C.

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D.

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the axis of rotation of a propeller extends 10 feet in front of the propeller and 5 feet behind it. This information is important for understanding the clearance required for safe operation of the propeller and any potential hazards that may be present within this range.

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  • 13. 

    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      200

    • C.

      300

    • D.

      400

    Correct Answer
    B. 200
    Explanation
    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft is 200. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any harm caused by the powerful blast of the engine exhaust. Being within this range could potentially lead to burns, injuries, or damage to property. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a minimum distance of 200 feet to ensure the safety of everyone in the vicinity of the aircraft.

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  • 14. 

    FOD is normally caused by

    • A.

      People.

    • B.

      Animals.

    • C.

      Weather.

    • D.

      Mechanical failure.

    Correct Answer
    A. People.
    Explanation
    FOD, or Foreign Object Debris, is typically caused by people. This refers to any object, substance, or debris that is not part of an aircraft or its components, but can cause damage or pose a safety risk. Common examples include tools, loose hardware, or even trash left on runways or in maintenance areas. While animals, weather, and mechanical failure can also contribute to FOD incidents, the primary cause is human error, such as improper maintenance practices, failure to secure equipment, or negligence in cleaning up after work.

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  • 15. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?

    • A.

      Quality assurance.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Production supervisor.

    • D.

      Maintenance group commander.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander is responsible for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they have the overall authority and accountability for ensuring that the program is implemented effectively and that all personnel are following the necessary procedures to prevent FOD incidents. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the highest level of authority and are in the best position to oversee and manage the FOD program within their organization.

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  • 16. 

    During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

    • A.

      Acetone.

    • B.

      Toluene.

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D.

      Carbon monoxide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbon monoxide.
    Explanation
    During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals and gases is possible. Acetone and toluene are commonly used solvents and may be present in these environments. Carbon dioxide is a natural component of the atmosphere and is not typically harmful in normal concentrations. However, carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that can be produced by the combustion of fuels and is a significant concern in aviation settings. Therefore, the correct answer is carbon monoxide.

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  • 17. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they

    • A.

      Aerosols.

    • B.

      Liquids.

    • C.

      Solids.

    • D.

      Gases.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gases.
    Explanation
    Toxic materials in the form of gases are the easiest to get into the body because they can be inhaled directly into the respiratory system. Gases can easily penetrate through the lungs and enter the bloodstream, allowing them to quickly reach various organs and cause toxic reactions. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional pathways such as ingestion or absorption through the skin, which can be slower and less efficient in delivering toxic substances to the body.

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  • 18. 

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Your Mom.

    • C.

      Supervisor.

    • D.

      Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in charge of ensuring that employees understand and follow safety protocols to protect themselves in the workplace. Safety, environmental, and your mom are not responsible for providing this training.

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  • 19. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • A.

      Explosions.

    • B.

      Unauthorized entry.

    • C.

      Overflow of materials.

    • D.

      Mixing of unlike materials.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the stored materials. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm to the environment or individuals. By restricting access to authorized personnel only, the risk of mishandling or misuse of hazardous materials is minimized, reducing the potential for accidents or harm.

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  • 20. 

    A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is

    • A.

      Dilution.

    • B.

      Incineration.

    • C.

      Land disposal.

    • D.

      Biodegradation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution.
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or another liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to lower the toxicity of the waste and make it safer for disposal. Dilution is often used for liquid or water-soluble waste that can be effectively diluted without causing harm to the environment. However, it is important to note that dilution is not always the most suitable method for all types of hazardous waste and other disposal methods may be required depending on the specific nature of the waste.

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  • 21. 

    For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

    • A.

      Incineration.

    • B.

      Land disposal.

    • C.

      Biodegradation.

    • D.

      Chemico-physical treatment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incineration.
    Explanation
    Incineration is unlikely to be justified for hazardous waste disposal because it can release harmful pollutants into the air, posing a risk to human health and the environment. Alternative methods such as land disposal, biodegradation, and chemico-physical treatment may be considered safer and more environmentally friendly options for managing hazardous waste.

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  • 22. 

    A specialized function of the supply mission is

    • A.

      Repair.

    • B.

      Service.

    • C.

      Disposal.

    • D.

      Retrieval.

    Correct Answer
    C. Disposal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is disposal. In a supply mission, disposal refers to the process of getting rid of waste or unwanted items. This could include disposing of trash, recycling materials, or properly disposing of hazardous materials. Disposal is an important function as it ensures that waste is handled in a safe and environmentally friendly manner.

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  • 23. 

    From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?

    • A.

      Base system.

    • B.

      Weapons system.

    • C.

      Inventory system.

    • D.

      Geographical system.

    Correct Answer
    B. Weapons system.
    Explanation
    The RSS manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This suggests that the RSS is responsible for ensuring the availability and maintenance of weapons and related equipment. This perspective implies a focus on managing the inventory, distribution, and maintenance of weapons to support operational readiness and effectiveness.

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  • 24. 

    Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

    • A.

      Depot Level Repair System.

    • B.

      Repair Cycle Support System.

    • C.

      Standard Base Supply System.

    • D.

      Precious Metals Recovery System.

    Correct Answer
    B. Repair Cycle Support System.
    Explanation
    The Repair Cycle Support System manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and facilitating the repair and maintenance of equipment and supplies. It ensures that repairs are conducted efficiently and effectively, minimizing downtime and maximizing the availability of resources. The system tracks repair orders, manages inventory, and coordinates with suppliers and maintenance personnel to ensure timely repairs and replacements.

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  • 25. 

    Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

    • A.

      Overhaul.

    • B.

      Retest OK.

    • C.

      Time change.

    • D.

      Repair cycle support.

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhaul.
    Explanation
    Selected equipment items are predetermined to require overhaul when they are returned to the depot. This means that these specific items have design characteristics, function, or application that necessitate a complete overhaul to restore their functionality and performance. Overhaul involves a comprehensive inspection, repair, and replacement of components to ensure that the equipment is in optimal working condition. This process is essential to extend the lifespan of the equipment and maintain its reliability and effectiveness.

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  • 26. 

    Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?

    • A.

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B.

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C.

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D.

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register (D04).
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This document serves as a record of all the documents that have been processed, allowing organizations to track and monitor their daily activities and ensure that all necessary documents have been accounted for. The Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23) may provide other types of information, but they do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 27. 

    Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?

    • A.

      Mission.

    • B.

      Contract.

    • C.

      Location.

    • D.

      Type of aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission.
    Explanation
    The reason Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis is because each organization has a different mission. Different organizations have different objectives and goals, and therefore require different parts and supplies to fulfill their specific missions. By prioritizing deliveries based on the mission of each organization, Base Supply ensures that the right parts are delivered to the right organizations at the right time, allowing them to carry out their missions effectively.

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  • 28. 

    What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

    • A.

      Origin of an item.

    • B.

      Why the item broke.

    • C.

      How long the item will take to repair.

    • D.

      The responsible reparable processing center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item.
    Explanation
    A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track the history and maintenance of equipment. By completing this form, the origin of the item can be determined, providing important information about its history and previous maintenance.

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  • 29. 

    Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

    • A.

      AFMAN 23–110.

    • B.

      TO 00–20–2.

    • C.

      AFI 91–301.

    • D.

      TO 00–5–1.

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00–20–2.
    Explanation
    TO 00-20-2 provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag.

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  • 30. 

    If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

    • A.

      AF IMT 2005.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 349.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 350.

    • D.

      DD Form 1574.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 2005.
    Explanation
    If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. This form is specifically designed for requesting and tracking parts and supplies in the Air Force. AFTO Form 349 and AFTO Form 350 are maintenance forms used for different purposes, while DD Form 1574 is a document used for receiving and transferring property. Therefore, AF IMT 2005 is the most appropriate form for ordering an engine part in this scenario.

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  • 31. 

    If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN

    • A.

      23–110.

    • B.

      23–254.

    • C.

      91–110.

    • D.

      91–254.

    Correct Answer
    A. 23–110.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, 23–110, is most likely referring to a specific code or entry in the AF IMT 2005. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to determine the exact meaning or significance of this code or entry. It is recommended to refer to AFMAN 23–110 for more detailed information on the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries.

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  • 32. 

    Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?

    • A.

      DD Form 1574.

    • B.

      DD Form 1575.

    • C.

      DD Form 1577–2.

    • D.

      DD Form 1577–3.

    Correct Answer
    B. DD Form 1575.
    Explanation
    DD Form 1575 is the correct answer because it is the form that is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance. This form is used to track the status and location of the item while it is being repaired or awaiting the necessary parts. It helps to ensure that the item is properly accounted for and that the necessary actions are taken to get it back into working order.

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  • 33. 

    Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • A.

      Supply.

    • B.

      Shelf-life.

    • C.

      Inspection.

    • D.

      Bench stock.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shelf-life.
    Explanation
    Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the length of time a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will be used or consumed within its specified shelf-life, thus guaranteeing satisfactory performance over that period. This is particularly important for perishable goods or items that may degrade or deteriorate over time.

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  • 34. 

    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

    • A.

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B.

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C.

      Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.

    • D.

      Should be inspected or tested.

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.
    Explanation
    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should not be used or returned to supply after the expiration date. It is important to adhere to the shelf-life period to ensure the quality and safety of the item.

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  • 35. 

    A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency

    • A.

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.

    • B.

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

    • C.

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

    • D.

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

    Correct Answer
    C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
    Explanation
    A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency identified in the report is of utmost importance and needs immediate attention. If left uncorrected, it has the potential to result in significant harm or damage to the equipment or system. This category is reserved for critical issues that require urgent action to prevent any major loss or damage.

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  • 36. 

    Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      72

    Correct Answer
    C. 24
    Explanation
    Category I DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours.

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  • 37. 

    Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?

    • A.

      Shelf-life.

    • B.

      Bench stock.

    • C.

      Hazardous materials.

    • D.

      Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.
    Explanation
    The CA/CRL (Controlled Access/Controlled Release List) is a list that contains authorized equipment inventory data. This means that only the items listed on the CA/CRL are allowed to be accessed or released. Therefore, the type of items that must be reflected on the CA/CRL is Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. Shelf-life, Bench stock, and Hazardous materials are not specifically mentioned as items that need to be reflected on the CA/CRL.

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  • 38. 

    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • A.

      Shop chief.

    • B.

      Supervisor.

    • C.

      Commander.

    • D.

      Supply chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander.
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This indicates that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role. The commander is typically the highest-ranking officer in a military unit or organization, and they have the responsibility of making important decisions, such as appointing personnel to specific positions. Therefore, it makes sense that the commander would have the authority to appoint someone as an equipment custodian.

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  • 39. 

    The first part of a TO number identifies the

    • A.

      Sectionalization of the TO.

    • B.

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • C.

      Category and type of equipment in the TO.

    • D.

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.

    Correct Answer
    C. Category and type of equipment in the TO.
    Explanation
    The first part of a TO number is used to identify the category and type of equipment in the TO. This helps users quickly determine the specific equipment that the TO pertains to. It allows for easy categorization and organization of technical manuals based on the type of equipment they cover.

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  • 40. 

    The second part of a TO number gives the

    • A.

      TO classification.

    • B.

      Type of equipment in the TO.

    • C.

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • D.

      Model and series for equipment type in the TO.

    Correct Answer
    D. Model and series for equipment type in the TO.
    Explanation
    The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series of the equipment type in the TO. This means that the TO number helps to identify the specific model and series of equipment for which the technical manual is intended. This information is important for ensuring that the correct instructions and procedures are followed for a particular equipment type.

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  • 41. 

    In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

    • A.

      Index.

    • B.

      Preliminary.

    • C.

      Methods and procedure.

    • D.

      Operational and maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Index.
    Explanation
    In the given options, the Index is the type of TO where you would find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. The Index serves as a reference guide or a catalog that lists all the technical orders (TOs) available for different categories of equipment. It helps users quickly locate the specific TO they need for a particular type of equipment, making it easier to access the necessary information for maintenance, operation, or other purposes.

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  • 42. 

    Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • A.

      General equipment.

    • B.

      General system.

    • C.

      Fault isolation.

    • D.

      Job guide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Job guide.
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for carrying out specific maintenance tasks. This type of manual is useful for technicians who need to perform maintenance actions on equipment or systems. It helps them understand the sequence of tasks involved in a particular maintenance action and ensures that they follow the correct procedures.

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  • 43. 

    Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?

    • A.

      Rapid action changes.

    • B.

      Operational supplements.

    • C.

      Urgent recommendations.

    • D.

      Time compliance technical order.

    Correct Answer
    C. Urgent recommendations.
    Explanation
    Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) provide various types of additional data to assist users in their tasks. This can include rapid action changes, operational supplements, and time compliance technical orders. However, urgent recommendations are not typically included in IETMs. These recommendations may require immediate attention or action and are usually communicated through other means such as alerts or notifications.

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  • 44. 

    What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Introduction.

    • B.

      Numerical index.

    • C.

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D.

      Reference designation index.

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Introduction. The introduction section of the IPB typically provides an overview and explanation of the coding system used throughout the IPB. It may include information on how to interpret the codes, abbreviations, symbols, or any other coding conventions used in the document. This section is important for users to understand and navigate the IPB effectively.

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  • 45. 

    What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Record.

    • B.

      Urgent action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action.
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of individuals involved.

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  • 46. 

    Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?

    • A.

      00–5–1.

    • B.

      00–5–2.

    • C.

      00–20–1.

    • D.

      00–20–2.

    Correct Answer
    A. 00–5–1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1 because this TO (Technical Order) covers information specifically related to the Air Force TO system. The other options, 00-5-2, 00-20-1, and 00-20-2, do not pertain to the Air Force TO system and cover different topics.

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  • 47. 

    How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?

    • A.

      The text or picture will be marked in color.

    • B.

      The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow.

    • C.

      The word “changed” will be marked on the text or picture.

    • D.

      A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.

    Correct Answer
    D. A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.
    Explanation
    When the text or picture in a TO has been changed, it will be indicated by a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.

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  • 48. 

    An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for

    • A.

      Job guides.

    • B.

      Work cards.

    • C.

      Preliminary TOs.

    • D.

      Methods and procedures TOs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Preliminary TOs.
    Explanation
    An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs. This form is used to document discrepancies and corrective actions for maintenance tasks. Preliminary TOs are initial technical orders that provide basic instructions for performing maintenance tasks, and they do not require the submission of an AFTO IMT 22. On the other hand, job guides, work cards, and methods and procedures TOs may require the submission of an AFTO IMT 22 if any discrepancies are found during the maintenance process.

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  • 49. 

    Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • A.

      Initiator.

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D.

      Product improvement office.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor of initiator.
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. They oversee the work of the initiator and have the authority to review and approve the form before it is submitted. The supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that all necessary information is included in the form and that it meets the required standards.

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  • 50. 

    Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Routine.

    • D.

      Emergency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent". The term "Urgent" implies that the recommendation needs to be submitted promptly as it involves a situation that, if not corrected, could potentially lead to personnel injury or damage to equipment or property. This indicates that the issue is of high importance and requires immediate attention to prevent any potential harm.

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