Mc-12w Mqf For Co's

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1. __________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.

Explanation

Caution indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed. It serves as a warning to be careful and take necessary precautions to prevent any potential damage.

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Mc-12w Mqf For Co

Quiz for all 76 questions from closed book MQF for Crypto Operators.

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2. ________ and ________ indicate a mandatory requirement.

Explanation

The words "will" and "shall" indicate a mandatory requirement. When used in a sentence, they imply that something is necessary or required to be done. These words suggest that there is no option or choice in the matter, and the action must be carried out.

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3. True/False: If the PIC refuses a mission, the mission will not depart until the conditions have been corrected or improved so that the mission can operate safely.

Explanation

If the PIC (Pilot in Command) refuses a mission, it means that they have determined that the conditions are not safe for the mission to depart. This could be due to various factors such as weather conditions, mechanical issues, or other safety concerns. In such cases, the mission will not proceed until the necessary corrections or improvements have been made to ensure the safety of the operation. Therefore, the statement that the mission will not depart until the conditions have been corrected or improved is true.

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4. True/False: ORM is a logic-based, common sense approach to making calculated decisions on human, material, and environmental factors before, during, and after all operations.

Explanation

ORM stands for Operational Risk Management. It is a systematic approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks associated with operations. ORM involves analyzing human, material, and environmental factors to make informed decisions before, during, and after operations. By considering these factors, organizations can minimize the likelihood and impact of risks. Therefore, the statement that ORM is a logic-based, common sense approach to making calculated decisions on human, material, and environmental factors before, during, and after all operations is true.

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5. Only ______ should be on the airstair door stairway at any one time.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 person because the statement suggests that only one person should be on the airstair door stairway at any one time.

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6. The following portable non-transmitting devices are authorized at any time _____.

Explanation

The given answer "all of the above" is correct because all the mentioned devices, including electronic watches, hand-held non-printing calculators, and hearing aids, are authorized at any time. These devices are considered portable non-transmitting devices and can be used without any restrictions.

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7. The WJ antennas consist of a(n) ___ and _____ antenna.

Explanation

The WJ antennas consist of an upper and lower antenna. This suggests that there are two separate antennas, with one positioned above the other. The upper antenna may be responsible for receiving signals from the upper portion of the frequency spectrum, while the lower antenna handles signals from the lower portion. This configuration allows for improved reception and coverage across a wider range of frequencies.

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8. The ___ is responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.

Explanation

The pilot-in-command is responsible for and has the final authority over the operation of the aircraft. They are in charge of making decisions regarding the flight, ensuring the safety of the passengers and crew, and adhering to all regulations and procedures. The pilot-in-command has the ultimate responsibility for the aircraft and its occupants during the flight.

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9. T/F: All emergency equipment will be installed unless specifically exempted by mission requirements/directives.

Explanation

This statement implies that unless there are specific mission requirements or directives that exempt certain equipment, all emergency equipment will be installed. In other words, the default assumption is that all emergency equipment should be installed unless there is a valid reason not to. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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10. T/F: All crewmembers will have seatbelts and should harness fastened during takeoff and landing unless crew duties dictate otherwise.

Explanation

During takeoff and landing, it is important for crewmembers to have their seatbelts and harnesses fastened for safety reasons. This is a standard procedure followed by airlines to ensure that crewmembers are securely in their seats in case of any sudden movements or emergencies. However, if crew duties require them to be up and moving during these phases of flight, they may not be required to have their seatbelts fastened. Therefore, the statement is true as long as crew duties do not dictate otherwise.

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11. T/F: When crews are directed to carry weapons, at least one pilot will normally be armed. For combat operations all crewmembers will be armed IAW theater SPINS or SQ/CC policy.

Explanation

The statement suggests that when crews are instructed to carry weapons, it is common for at least one pilot to be armed. Additionally, during combat operations, all crewmembers will be armed in accordance with theater SPINS or SQ/CC policy. Therefore, the correct answer is True.

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12. T/F: Do NOT attempt to open the Air-Stair door unless the pilot has cleared you to do so and the aircraft has been completely depressurized.

Explanation

Opening the Air-Stair door without the pilot's clearance and without depressurizing the aircraft can be dangerous. The Air-Stair door is used for boarding and disembarking passengers, and it is important to follow proper procedures to ensure the safety of everyone on board. By waiting for the pilot's clearance and ensuring that the aircraft has been completely depressurized, the risk of accidents or injuries can be minimized. Therefore, it is true that one should not attempt to open the Air-Stair door unless the pilot has cleared them to do so and the aircraft has been completely depressurized.

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13. T/F: The Aircraft Commander will conduct a crew debrief with all crewmembers following each flight.

Explanation

The statement is true because it is a standard practice for the Aircraft Commander to conduct a crew debrief with all crewmembers after each flight. This debrief allows the crew to discuss any issues or concerns that arose during the flight, review any deviations from standard operating procedures, and identify areas for improvement. It is an essential part of the post-flight process to ensure effective communication, learning, and continuous improvement within the crew.

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14. The PIC's area of responsibility include which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that the PIC's area of responsibility includes all of the mentioned tasks: having the final mission authority and making decisions not assigned to a higher authority, being the final authority for requesting and accepting aircrew or mission waivers, and passing mission progress reports to C2 agents.

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15. The mission commander shall be designated when the MC-12W is executing a mission employing 

Explanation

The mission commander is designated when the MC-12W is executing a mission that involves ISR (Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance), SIGINT (Signals Intelligence), and Weapons Asset. This means that the mission commander is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all aspects of the mission, including gathering intelligence, monitoring signals, and utilizing weapons.

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16. True/False: Mission qualification training and mission evaluations may be conducted on missions with system operators on board provided the individual in training possesses a current AF Form 8 for basic aircraft qualification.

Explanation

Mission qualification training and mission evaluations can be conducted on missions with system operators on board as long as the individual in training possesses a current AF Form 8 for basic aircraft qualification. This means that the individual has met the necessary requirements and qualifications to participate in the mission and can undergo further training and evaluation while on board.

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17. ______ is the time period between mission reporting and final aircraft engine shutdown.

Explanation

The flight duty period (FDP) refers to the time period between mission reporting and final aircraft engine shutdown. This is the duration during which the crew members are on duty and responsible for operating the aircraft. It includes pre-flight preparations, the actual flight, and any post-flight tasks. Scheduling restrictions, crew rest, and post-deployment stand down are not directly related to the specific time period mentioned in the question.

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18. Although Halon 1211 is _____, care should be taken as agent can form ____ byproducts when exposed to fire or high temperature.

Explanation

Halon 1211 is considered non-toxic, meaning it does not pose immediate harm to humans or animals. However, caution should still be exercised because when Halon 1211 is exposed to fire or high temperatures, it can form toxic byproducts. These byproducts can be harmful and potentially dangerous.

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19. Only a _____ or properly trained _____ should close and lock the Airstair Door.

Explanation

A crewmember refers to a member of the flight crew or cabin crew who is responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft and its passengers. Closing and locking the Airstair Door requires knowledge and training on the specific procedures and mechanisms involved, which is typically possessed by crewmembers. Ground personnel, on the other hand, may not have the necessary expertise or training to perform this task. Therefore, the correct answer is crewmember; ground personnel.

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20. When exposed to Halon 1211 avoid contact with ____ and _____.

Explanation

When exposed to Halon 1211, it is important to avoid contact with eyes and skin. Halon 1211 is a fire extinguishing agent that can cause irritation and chemical burns if it comes into contact with the eyes or skin. Therefore, it is crucial to protect these sensitive areas to prevent any potential harm or injury.

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21. True/False: Do not attempt to check the security of the airstair door or cargo door in flight. Remain as far from the door as possible with seatbelts securely fastened.

Explanation

It is important to not attempt to check the security of the airstair door or cargo door in flight and to remain as far from the door as possible with seatbelts securely fastened. This is because opening or tampering with the door during flight can compromise the integrity of the aircraft and pose a serious safety risk to passengers and crew. Therefore, the statement "True" indicates the correct answer.

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22. T/F: Following a bird strike, aircrews should land as soon as conditions permit to have the aircraft inspected by qualified maintenance personnel.

Explanation

Following a bird strike, aircrews should land as soon as conditions permit to have the aircraft inspected by qualified maintenance personnel. This is because bird strikes can cause damage to the aircraft, such as engine failure or structural damage, which may not be immediately visible or apparent to the aircrew. It is important to have the aircraft inspected by qualified maintenance personnel to ensure that any damage is identified and repaired before the aircraft is flown again, ensuring the safety of the crew and passengers.

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23. T/F: If an actual emergency arises, terminate all simulated emergency flight procedures training and flight maneuvers practice.

Explanation

In the event of a real emergency, it is crucial to prioritize the safety of the individuals involved. Simulated emergency flight procedures training and flight maneuvers practice should be terminated immediately to address the actual emergency situation effectively. This ensures that all resources and attention are focused on resolving the real emergency and minimizing any potential risks or damages.

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24. If ______, or in training for a particular event, primary cremembers or those occupying a primary position must be under the supervision of an instructor while performing that event (direct supervision for critical phases of flight).

Explanation

The correct answer is "Noncurrent". Noncurrent refers to individuals who are not currently qualified or trained for a particular event or task. In this context, it means that if someone is noncurrent or not currently qualified, they must be under the supervision of an instructor while performing that event or task. This ensures that they are properly guided and supervised to prevent any potential risks or errors.

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25. T/F: The pilot operating the radios will notify the crew which radio is primary, and update the crew when the primary radio changes. 

Explanation

The pilot operating the radios is responsible for informing the crew about the primary radio and any changes in it. This ensures that the crew is aware of which radio is being used as the primary communication channel.

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26. _______ status is granted to certain individuals performing unique support duties directly associated with and essential to a particular aircraft, aircrew, or mission.

Explanation

Mission Essential Ground Personnel (MEGP) status is granted to individuals who perform unique support duties that are directly associated with and essential to a specific aircraft, aircrew, or mission. This status recognizes the critical role these individuals play in ensuring the success and safety of the mission. They are responsible for tasks such as maintenance, logistics, and ground support, which are crucial for the smooth operation of the aircraft and the accomplishment of the mission objectives.

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27. True/False: PIC's may extend their FDP up to 2 hours provided no training tactical events or pilot proficiency maneuvers occur within the 2-hour extension.

Explanation

PIC's (Pilot in Command) may extend their FDP (Flight Duty Period) up to 2 hours without any training tactical events or pilot proficiency maneuvers occurring within the extended time. This means that if there is no need for additional training or maneuvers, the PIC can continue their duty for an extra 2 hours.

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28. True/False: Crewmember delinquent in FCIF review or joining a mission enroute can receive a FCIF update from a primary aircrew member.

Explanation

A crewmember who is delinquent in FCIF review or joining a mission enroute can receive a FCIF update from a primary aircrew member. This means that even if a crewmember has not completed the required FCIF review or is joining a mission after it has already started, they can still receive an update on the FCIF from a primary aircrew member.

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29. Pilots should not eat meals ___ and their meals should consist of ___ items.

Explanation

Pilots should not eat meals at the same time and their meals should consist of different menu items. This is because eating at the same time can increase the risk of food poisoning or other digestive issues if one meal is contaminated. Additionally, having a different menu allows pilots to have a variety of nutrients and avoid potential food allergies or intolerances.

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30. EMERGENCY DESTRUCTION PROCEDURES: The _____ directs the destruction procedures.

Explanation

The Mission Commander is responsible for directing the emergency destruction procedures. They have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the destruction of certain assets or materials in emergency situations. As the leader of the mission, they are in a position to assess the situation, evaluate the risks, and determine the appropriate actions to be taken for the safety and security of the mission and its personnel.

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31. The upper WJ antenna is mounted _______.

Explanation

The upper WJ antenna is mounted inside the KuSS antenna radome.

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32. Crewmembers who wear corrective spectacles or contact lenses must ____ while performing aircrew duties.

Explanation

Crewmembers who wear corrective spectacles or contact lenses must carry a spare set of clear prescription spectacles on their person while performing aircrew duties. This is important in case their primary pair of spectacles gets damaged or lost during the duty, ensuring that they have a backup to maintain their visual acuity. It is crucial for crewmembers to have clear vision while performing their duties to ensure the safety and efficiency of their tasks.

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33. Normal crew composition is ______.

Explanation

The correct answer is "One AC, one CP, one SO, and one CO." This means that the normal crew composition consists of one Aircraft Commander (AC), one Co-pilot (CP), one Senior Officer (SO), and one Crew Officer (CO). Each of these roles plays a specific function within the crew, ensuring the smooth operation and safety of the aircraft.

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34. FIRE, SMOKE, AND FUMES: The first step is to ______.

Explanation

In the event of a fire, smoke, or fumes, the first priority is to ensure personal safety. Donning an oxygen mask is crucial to protect oneself from inhaling harmful substances and to maintain a sufficient oxygen supply. This step should be taken before any other actions, such as notifying the command post, locating the source of the issue, or reporting the situation to the pilot.

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35. An operating procedure, technique, etc. which is considered essential to emphasize is indicated by:

Explanation

A "Note" is used to indicate an operating procedure, technique, or any other information that is considered essential to emphasize. Unlike a "Warning" or "Caution," which typically highlight potential dangers or risks, a "Note" provides important additional information or instructions that should be carefully followed to ensure proper understanding or execution of a process. Therefore, in this context, a "Note" is the correct choice to indicate an essential emphasis.

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36. Aircraft security at non-United States military installations is the responsibility of the controlling agency and/or ______.

Explanation

The correct answer is PIC, which stands for Pilot in Command. The responsibility for aircraft security at non-United States military installations lies with the controlling agency and/or the Pilot in Command. The PIC is the individual who has final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight. They are responsible for ensuring the security of the aircraft, including implementing and enforcing security protocols and procedures.

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37. The OP2 equipment rack and console contain the following equipment:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both A & B". This means that the OP2 equipment rack and console contain both the equipment listed in option A (PRC-117 radios, SPS control/programming units, KG-250M encryptors) and the equipment listed in option B (LOS video equipment, Cisco routers, VIASAT KuSS Antenna Control Unit).

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38. Non-rated senior officers who desire to fly may occupy a pilot seat _______

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that non-rated senior officers who desire to fly may occupy a pilot seat during non-critical phases of flight, when under direct supervision of an instructor pilot, and with no passengers on board. In other words, they are allowed to fly as long as these conditions are met.

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39. ________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.

Explanation

The term "warning" is used to indicate operating procedures, techniques, etc., that have the potential to cause personal injury or loss of life if they are not followed carefully. This term is commonly used to alert individuals about potential dangers or hazards that could result in serious harm. It serves as a precautionary measure to ensure the safety of individuals and emphasizes the importance of adhering to proper procedures to avoid any potential risks.

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40. Each crewmember must carry an operable/NVG _____ on each flight.

Explanation

Each crewmember must carry an operable/NVG compatible flashlight on each flight. This is because NVG (Night Vision Goggles) require a specific type of light source that is compatible with the goggles in order to provide clear visibility in low-light or night-time conditions. Therefore, a compatible flashlight is necessary for the crewmembers to effectively use the NVGs during their flights.

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41. Maximum Flying Time, ____ hours logged flight time per 7 consecutive days, ___ hours logged flight time per 30 consecutive days and ___ hours per 90 consecutive days.

Explanation

The answer 56;125;330 indicates that the maximum flying time allowed is 56 hours logged flight time per 7 consecutive days, 125 hours logged flight time per 30 consecutive days, and 330 hours logged flight time per 90 consecutive days. This means that a pilot cannot exceed these respective limits within the specified time periods.

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42. T-box or WJ WILL NOT be powered on until ____ is on and ____ is on.

Explanation

The T-box or WJ will not be powered on until both mission power and CO rack power are on. This means that both the power from the mission and the power from the CO rack need to be functioning in order for the T-box or WJ to turn on.

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43. T/F: The OP1 and OP2 consoles each contain a PAC24 audio control panel for selecting ARC-231 (AUX1 or AUX2); PRC-117G (AUX3, AUX4, or AUX5), VHF1 or VHF2 audio.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that both the OP1 and OP2 consoles have a PAC24 audio control panel that allows the selection of different audio sources, including ARC-231 (AUX1 or AUX2), PRC-117G (AUX3, AUX4, or AUX5), and VHF1 or VHF2 audio. This means that both consoles have the capability to control and select these audio sources, confirming the statement as true.

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44. For classified aircraft components which cannot be removed and stored, lock the aircraft. If available, use _____ to guard the aircraft; otherwise, use guards employed by the host country for flightline/airport area control.

Explanation

In the given context, the recommendation is to lock the aircraft if the classified components cannot be removed and stored. Additionally, it suggests using Ravens to guard the aircraft if they are available. Ravens are a specific type of personnel trained in security and intelligence gathering, often employed by the military for protection and surveillance purposes. Therefore, using Ravens as guards would be the most suitable option in this situation.

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45. Calculate ______ fuel to allow for 30 minutes of operations prior to reaching ______. Aircraft Commanders will recalculate Bingo and Joker requirements for any mission changes or retaskings. 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Joker; Bingo". In aviation, "Joker" refers to the minimum fuel required for a pilot to divert to an alternate airport, while "Bingo" refers to the minimum fuel required for a pilot to safely return to their home base. Therefore, the calculation is asking for the amount of fuel needed to allow for 30 minutes of operations before reaching the minimum diversion fuel (Joker), and the pilot will recalculate the minimum fuel required to safely return home (Bingo) if there are any changes or retaskings during the mission.

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46. The PIC shall report deviations or exceptions taken without waiver through the command channels to the appropriate waiver authority within __ hours and to the Chief, MAJCOM Stan/Eval within __ hours.

Explanation

The PIC (Pilot in Command) is required to report any deviations or exceptions taken without a waiver through the command channels. They must report to the appropriate waiver authority within 24 hours and to the Chief, MAJCOM Stan/Eval within 48 hours. This reporting process ensures that any deviations from standard procedures are properly documented and reviewed by the appropriate authorities.

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47. The local ______ is the focal point for all mission support activities.

Explanation

The correct answer is C2 Agency. The local C2 Agency is responsible for coordinating and managing all mission support activities. They serve as the central hub for communication, decision-making, and resource allocation during missions. This agency plays a critical role in ensuring the success and effectiveness of mission operations.

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48. Aircrew shall not remain on alert for more than __ consecutive hours

Explanation

Aircrew should not remain on alert for more than 72 consecutive hours. This is important for their safety and well-being as prolonged periods of alertness can lead to fatigue and impaired performance. It is crucial for aircrew members to be well-rested and alert during their duties to ensure the safety of themselves, passengers, and the aircraft.

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49. T/F: MEGP and civilian employees under direct contract to the DoD or engaged in official direct mission support activities are considered mission essential and may be on board when touch-and-go or stop-and-go landings are performed.

Explanation

MEGP and civilian employees under direct contract to the DoD or engaged in official direct mission support activities are considered mission essential and may be on board when touch-and-go or stop-and-go landings are performed. This means that these individuals are deemed necessary for the mission and can be present during these types of landings.

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50. A qualified _____ will accomplish the landing during actual emergency conditions unless conditions dictate otherwise.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Aircraft Commander" because they are responsible for the overall operation and safety of the aircraft. In emergency situations, it is their duty to make critical decisions and take control of the landing process to ensure the safety of the crew and passengers. While other crew members may have specific roles and responsibilities, the aircraft commander is ultimately in charge and will accomplish the landing unless circumstances require a different course of action.

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51. Pilots should not conduct practice instrument approaches, touch and go landings, tactical arrivals, NVG landings, or conduct simulated emergency procedures after __ hours 

Explanation

Pilots should not conduct practice instrument approaches, touch and go landings, tactical arrivals, NVG landings, or conduct simulated emergency procedures after 12 hours because after this time, their fatigue levels may increase, leading to decreased alertness and impaired decision-making abilities. It is important for pilots to be well-rested and mentally sharp to ensure the safety of themselves and their passengers.

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52. Do not practice emergency procedures ______.

Explanation

Emergency procedures should not be practiced with passengers on board because it can cause panic and anxiety among the passengers, leading to a potentially dangerous situation. It is important to ensure the safety and well-being of the passengers during a flight, and practicing emergency procedures with them on board may create unnecessary fear and confusion. It is more appropriate to conduct emergency drills and practice procedures in a controlled environment, such as during training sessions or simulations, to ensure that all crew members are familiar with the necessary protocols.

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53. Any crewmember observing an altitude deviation of more than ___ feet from assigned or a decrease of ___ knots airspeed from desired or potential terrain/obstruction will immediately notify the PF. PF will acknowledge the warning.

Explanation

If any crewmember observes an altitude deviation of more than 200 feet from the assigned altitude or a decrease of 10 knots airspeed from the desired speed or potential terrain/obstruction, they are required to immediately notify the Pilot Flying (PF). The PF will then acknowledge the warning. This procedure is in place to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants by promptly addressing any significant deviations from the planned flight parameters.

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54. Before completing any further steps, wait until the LAN at the Sensor position has all ____ blinking lights. Not doing so could result in an unstable system and _____ to the WJ processor.

Explanation

Before completing any further steps, it is important to wait until the LAN at the Sensor position has all GREEN blinking lights. Not doing so could result in an unstable system and damage to the WJ processor.

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55. The use of _____ is intended primarily to focus CRM priorities and communications in a situation wherein safety of flight is not a factor.

Explanation

In this context, the term "Time-Out" refers to a temporary pause or break in CRM (Crew Resource Management) priorities and communications. It is used when safety of flight is not a concern, allowing the crew to take a moment to regroup, reassess the situation, or address non-urgent matters. This helps to maintain a clear focus and prevent distractions from affecting the overall performance and effectiveness of the crew.

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56. True/False: Pilot rated senior staff members (DV7s or above) who desire to fly on the aircraft, but are not fully mission qualified, must be under the supervision of an instructor pilot but are not required to have a currect instrument refresher course (IRC) and instrument evaluation.

Explanation

Pilot rated senior staff members (DV7s or above) who desire to fly on the aircraft, but are not fully mission qualified, must be under the supervision of an instructor pilot and are required to have a current instrument refresher course (IRC) and instrument evaluation.

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57. There are four airline-type double-cell life vests located in the cabin. Two are stored below the ____ and one behind _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is "left hand side (LHS) tower/each operator seat." This means that two airline-type double-cell life vests are stored below the left hand side tower, and one is stored behind each operator seat.

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58. MEGP status is granted to certain individuals performing unique support duties directly associated with and essential to a particular aircraft, aircrew, or mission. MEGP authority must be on:

Explanation

MEGP status is granted to individuals who perform unique support duties that are directly associated with and essential to a specific aircraft, aircrew, or mission. In order to have MEGP authority, it is necessary for the individual to have it stated in their orders or other written authorization. This means that the individual must have official documentation or written proof that grants them MEGP status. This ensures that only those who have been authorized and designated for MEGP duties are allowed to perform them.

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59. HSD button WILL NOT be powered on when personnel are within ___ of the HSD antenna. Once the Air-Stair door is closed and all ground personnel are away from the plane, the HSD button may be turned on. When conducting an ERCC or a FARP the HSD WILL be in the ___ configuration.

Explanation

When personnel are within 6 feet of the HSD antenna, the HSD button will not be powered on. Once the Air-Stair door is closed and all ground personnel are away from the plane, the HSD button may be turned on. During an ERCC or a FARP, the HSD will be in the OFF configuration.

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60. Flight duty period is the time period between ___ and final ____

Explanation

The flight duty period is the time period between mission reporting and aircraft engine shutdown. This means that it starts when the crew reports for their mission and ends when the aircraft's engines are shut down after completing the mission. During this period, the crew is responsible for carrying out their duties and ensuring the safe operation of the aircraft.

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61. Ensure all personnel are at least __ feet away from PW or Rover attenas prior to transmitting on either system.

Explanation

All personnel should be at least 5 feet away from PW or Rover antennas before transmitting on either system. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and to prevent any interference or damage to the antennas during transmission. Being too close to the antennas can pose health risks and may disrupt the signal transmission. Therefore, it is important to maintain a minimum distance of 5 feet to ensure smooth and safe communication.

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62. Personnel will remain at least ___ feet away from the circular INMARSAT antenna directly above the crew entrance door when this system is in use. The aircraft has appropriate shielding to run the INMARSAT system with the crew entrance door open. Personnel will not use the crew entrance door or accomplish _____ while the INMARSAT system is in use.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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63. Air Force aircrews require at least __ hours of continuous restful activities including an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep during the 12 hours immediately prior to the flight duty period.

Explanation

Air Force aircrews require at least 10 hours of continuous restful activities including an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep during the 12 hours immediately prior to the flight duty period. This ensures that the aircrews are well-rested and in a suitable physical and mental state to carry out their duties during the flight duty period.

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64. "Limit conversation to that essential for crew coordinationand mission accomplishment during taxi, takeoff, approach, landing, and other critical phases of flight" is the definition of ______.

Explanation

The term "Sterile Cockpit" refers to the practice of limiting conversation to only essential communication related to crew coordination and mission accomplishment during critical phases of flight such as taxi, takeoff, approach, and landing. This helps to minimize distractions and ensure that the flight crew can focus on their tasks and maintain a high level of situational awareness.

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65. T/F: The on-site C2 center will provide temporary storage for COMSEC and other classified materials during en route, turnaround, and crew rest stops. If a storage facility is not available, the aircraft gun storage box may be used for material classified up to and including TOP SECRET.

Explanation

The statement is false because the on-site C2 center will provide temporary storage for COMSEC and other classified materials during en route, turnaround, and crew rest stops, not the aircraft gun storage box. The aircraft gun storage box is only suitable for material classified up to and including SECRET, not TOP SECRET.

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66. Chips or cracks in turret windows are not airsafe. If detected, report to ____ immediately.

Explanation

If chips or cracks are found in the turret windows, they are considered to be not airsafe. In such a situation, it is important to report the issue to the mission commander immediately. The mission commander is responsible for overseeing the mission and ensuring the safety of the crew and equipment. They have the authority to take appropriate action and make decisions regarding the safety of the aircraft. Therefore, reporting the problem to the mission commander is the correct course of action in this scenario.

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67. The Emergency Equipment Panel contains all of the following except _____.

Explanation

The Emergency Equipment Panel contains all the essential equipment needed in case of an emergency, including a fire extinguisher, flashlight, and crash axe. However, the Emergency Locator Transmitter is not typically found on the panel. It is a device used to transmit distress signals in the event of an aircraft accident or emergency, but it is usually located elsewhere in the aircraft.

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68. All MC-12 aircraft should have two ____ on the aircraft and one _____ should be available for each Sensor Operator and Cryptologic Operator.

Explanation

All MC-12 aircraft should have two EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) on the aircraft and one EPOS (Emergency Portable Oxygen System) should be available for each Sensor Operator and Cryptologic Operator.

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69. The PennantRace system consists of the PennantRace chassis, PennantRace router, KG-250M #1 encryption device, and an antenna array of __ antennas.

Explanation

The PennantRace system consists of the PennantRace chassis, PennantRace router, KG-250M #1 encryption device, and an antenna array of 9 antennas. This implies that the system requires a total of 9 antennas to function properly.

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70. If the aircraft loses pressure and any occupant lacks functioning oxygen equipment, the pilot must descend to maintain an altitude of ____ MSL or less (terrain permitting).

Explanation

If the aircraft loses pressure and any occupant lacks functioning oxygen equipment, the pilot must descend to maintain an altitude of 13,000 ft MSL or less (terrain permitting). This is because at altitudes above 13,000 ft, the air becomes thin and lacks sufficient oxygen for occupants to breathe normally. Descending to a lower altitude ensures that there is enough oxygen for everyone on board to breathe safely.

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71. The _____ is vested with ultimate mission authority and responsible for each course of action taken.

Explanation

The Pilot in Command (PIC) is the individual who has the ultimate authority and responsibility for each course of action taken during a mission. They are in charge of making decisions and ensuring the safety and success of the mission. The PIC is responsible for the overall operation of the aircraft and the crew, and they have the final say in all matters related to the mission.

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72. Basic crew complement is ____.

Explanation

The correct answer is "One aircraft commander (AC) and one co-pilot (CP)". This answer suggests that the basic crew complement for the given scenario consists of only an aircraft commander and a co-pilot. No other positions or operators are mentioned, indicating that only these two roles are required for the crew.

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73. Maximum FDP is ___ hours for operational reconnaissance mission and pilot proficiency training flights.

Explanation

The maximum FDP (Flight Duty Period) for operational reconnaissance missions and pilot proficiency training flights is 12 hours. This means that pilots involved in these activities are limited to a maximum of 12 hours of continuous duty, including flight time and any other related tasks. This restriction is in place to ensure that pilots remain alert and capable of safely completing their missions without experiencing excessive fatigue.

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74. T/F: An aircrew member may fly up to four sorties during a flight duty period.

Explanation

An aircrew member may not fly up to four sorties during a flight duty period.

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75. FDP for MC-12W crewmembers is ____ hours provided the aircraft has fully functioning autopilot pitch axis control.

Explanation

The FDP (Flight Duty Period) for MC-12W crewmembers is 16 hours when the aircraft has fully functioning autopilot pitch axis control. This means that the crewmembers can remain on duty, including flying and performing their duties, for a maximum of 16 hours as long as the autopilot pitch axis control is fully operational.

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76. T/F: The balun transformer located in the OP2 equipment rack is used to convert the unbalanced input of HDMI converters to balanced signal lines.

Explanation

The balun transformer located in the OP2 equipment rack is not used to convert the unbalanced input of HDMI converters to balanced signal lines.

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__________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which...
________ and ________ indicate a mandatory requirement.
True/False: If the PIC refuses a mission, the mission will not depart...
True/False: ORM is a logic-based, common sense approach to making...
Only ______ should be on the airstair door stairway at any one time.
The following portable non-transmitting devices are authorized at any...
The WJ antennas consist of a(n) ___ and _____ antenna.
The ___ is responsible for, and is the final authority as to the...
T/F: All emergency equipment will be installed unless specifically...
T/F: All crewmembers will have seatbelts and should harness fastened...
T/F: When crews are directed to carry weapons, at least one pilot will...
T/F: Do NOT attempt to open the Air-Stair door unless the pilot has...
T/F: The Aircraft Commander will conduct a crew debrief with all...
The PIC's area of responsibility include which of the following?
The mission commander shall be designated when the MC-12W is executing...
True/False: Mission qualification training and mission evaluations may...
______ is the time period between mission reporting and final aircraft...
Although Halon 1211 is _____, care should be taken as agent can form...
Only a _____ or properly trained _____ should close and lock the...
When exposed to Halon 1211 avoid contact with ____ and _____.
True/False: Do not attempt to check the security of the airstair door...
T/F: Following a bird strike, aircrews should land as soon as...
T/F: If an actual emergency arises, terminate all simulated emergency...
If ______, or in training for a particular event, primary cremembers...
T/F: The pilot operating the radios will notify the crew which radio...
_______ status is granted to certain individuals performing unique...
True/False: PIC's may extend their FDP up to 2 hours provided no...
True/False: Crewmember delinquent in FCIF review or joining a mission...
Pilots should not eat meals ___ and their meals should consist of ___...
EMERGENCY DESTRUCTION PROCEDURES: The _____ directs the destruction...
The upper WJ antenna is mounted _______.
Crewmembers who wear corrective spectacles or contact lenses must ____...
Normal crew composition is ______.
FIRE, SMOKE, AND FUMES: The first step is to ______.
An operating procedure, technique, etc. which is considered essential...
Aircraft security at non-United States military installations is the...
The OP2 equipment rack and console contain the following equipment:
Non-rated senior officers who desire to fly may occupy a pilot seat...
________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could...
Each crewmember must carry an operable/NVG _____ on each flight.
Maximum Flying Time, ____ hours logged flight time per 7 consecutive...
T-box or WJ WILL NOT be powered on until ____ is on and ____ is on.
T/F: The OP1 and OP2 consoles each contain a PAC24 audio control panel...
For classified aircraft components which cannot be removed and stored,...
Calculate ______ fuel to allow for 30 minutes of operations prior to...
The PIC shall report deviations or exceptions taken without waiver...
The local ______ is the focal point for all mission support...
Aircrew shall not remain on alert for more than __ consecutive hours
T/F: MEGP and civilian employees under direct contract to the DoD or...
A qualified _____ will accomplish the landing during actual emergency...
Pilots should not conduct practice instrument approaches, touch and go...
Do not practice emergency procedures ______.
Any crewmember observing an altitude deviation of more than ___ feet...
Before completing any further steps, wait until the LAN at the Sensor...
The use of _____ is intended primarily to focus CRM priorities and...
True/False: Pilot rated senior staff members (DV7s or above) who...
There are four airline-type double-cell life vests located in the...
MEGP status is granted to certain individuals performing unique...
HSD button WILL NOT be powered on when personnel are within ___ of the...
Flight duty period is the time period between ___ and final ____
Ensure all personnel are at least __ feet away from PW or Rover...
Personnel will remain at least ___ feet away from the circular...
Air Force aircrews require at least __ hours of continuous restful...
"Limit conversation to that essential for crew coordinationand...
T/F: The on-site C2 center will provide temporary storage for COMSEC...
Chips or cracks in turret windows are not airsafe. If detected, report...
The Emergency Equipment Panel contains all of the following except...
All MC-12 aircraft should have two ____ on the aircraft and one _____...
The PennantRace system consists of the PennantRace chassis,...
If the aircraft loses pressure and any occupant lacks functioning...
The _____ is vested with ultimate mission authority and responsible...
Basic crew complement is ____.
Maximum FDP is ___ hours for operational reconnaissance mission and...
T/F: An aircrew member may fly up to four sorties during a flight duty...
FDP for MC-12W crewmembers is ____ hours provided the aircraft has...
T/F: The balun transformer located in the OP2 equipment rack is used...
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