1.
__________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
Correct Answer
B. Caution
Explanation
Caution indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed. It serves as a warning to be careful and take necessary precautions to prevent any potential damage.
2.
________ and ________ indicate a mandatory requirement.
Correct Answer
A. Will/Shall
Explanation
The words "will" and "shall" indicate a mandatory requirement. When used in a sentence, they imply that something is necessary or required to be done. These words suggest that there is no option or choice in the matter, and the action must be carried out.
3.
________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
Correct Answer
C. Warning
Explanation
The term "warning" is used to indicate operating procedures, techniques, etc., that have the potential to cause personal injury or loss of life if they are not followed carefully. This term is commonly used to alert individuals about potential dangers or hazards that could result in serious harm. It serves as a precautionary measure to ensure the safety of individuals and emphasizes the importance of adhering to proper procedures to avoid any potential risks.
4.
The _____ is vested with ultimate mission authority and responsible for each course of action taken.
Correct Answer
C. Pilot in Command (PIC)
Explanation
The Pilot in Command (PIC) is the individual who has the ultimate authority and responsibility for each course of action taken during a mission. They are in charge of making decisions and ensuring the safety and success of the mission. The PIC is responsible for the overall operation of the aircraft and the crew, and they have the final say in all matters related to the mission.
5.
The PIC shall report deviations or exceptions taken without waiver through the command channels to the appropriate waiver authority within __ hours and to the Chief, MAJCOM Stan/Eval within __ hours.
Correct Answer
B. 24/48
Explanation
The PIC (Pilot in Command) is required to report any deviations or exceptions taken without a waiver through the command channels. They must report to the appropriate waiver authority within 24 hours and to the Chief, MAJCOM Stan/Eval within 48 hours. This reporting process ensures that any deviations from standard procedures are properly documented and reviewed by the appropriate authorities.
6.
True/False: If the PIC refuses a mission, the mission will not depart until the conditions have been corrected or improved so that the mission can operate safely.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
If the PIC (Pilot in Command) refuses a mission, it means that they have determined that the conditions are not safe for the mission to depart. This could be due to various factors such as weather conditions, mechanical issues, or other safety concerns. In such cases, the mission will not proceed until the necessary corrections or improvements have been made to ensure the safety of the operation. Therefore, the statement that the mission will not depart until the conditions have been corrected or improved is true.
7.
The PIC's area of responsibility include which of the following?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that the PIC's area of responsibility includes all of the mentioned tasks: having the final mission authority and making decisions not assigned to a higher authority, being the final authority for requesting and accepting aircrew or mission waivers, and passing mission progress reports to C2 agents.
8.
The local ______ is the focal point for all mission support activities.
Correct Answer
A. C2 Agency
Explanation
The correct answer is C2 Agency. The local C2 Agency is responsible for coordinating and managing all mission support activities. They serve as the central hub for communication, decision-making, and resource allocation during missions. This agency plays a critical role in ensuring the success and effectiveness of mission operations.
9.
The mission commander shall be designated when the MC-12W is executing a mission employing
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The mission commander is designated when the MC-12W is executing a mission that involves ISR (Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance), SIGINT (Signals Intelligence), and Weapons Asset. This means that the mission commander is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all aspects of the mission, including gathering intelligence, monitoring signals, and utilizing weapons.
10.
If ______, or in training for a particular event, primary cremembers or those occupying a primary position must be under the supervision of an instructor while performing that event (direct supervision for critical phases of flight).
Correct Answer
B. Noncurrent
Explanation
The correct answer is "Noncurrent". Noncurrent refers to individuals who are not currently qualified or trained for a particular event or task. In this context, it means that if someone is noncurrent or not currently qualified, they must be under the supervision of an instructor while performing that event or task. This ensures that they are properly guided and supervised to prevent any potential risks or errors.
11.
True/False: Mission qualification training and mission evaluations may be conducted on missions with system operators on board provided the individual in training possesses a current AF Form 8 for basic aircraft qualification.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Mission qualification training and mission evaluations can be conducted on missions with system operators on board as long as the individual in training possesses a current AF Form 8 for basic aircraft qualification. This means that the individual has met the necessary requirements and qualifications to participate in the mission and can undergo further training and evaluation while on board.
12.
Basic crew complement is ____.
Correct Answer
A. One aircraft commander (AC) and one co-pilot (CP)
Explanation
The correct answer is "One aircraft commander (AC) and one co-pilot (CP)". This answer suggests that the basic crew complement for the given scenario consists of only an aircraft commander and a co-pilot. No other positions or operators are mentioned, indicating that only these two roles are required for the crew.
13.
_______ status is granted to certain individuals performing unique support duties directly associated with and essential to a particular aircraft, aircrew, or mission.
Correct Answer
B. Mission Essential Ground Personnel (MEGP)
Explanation
Mission Essential Ground Personnel (MEGP) status is granted to individuals who perform unique support duties that are directly associated with and essential to a specific aircraft, aircrew, or mission. This status recognizes the critical role these individuals play in ensuring the success and safety of the mission. They are responsible for tasks such as maintenance, logistics, and ground support, which are crucial for the smooth operation of the aircraft and the accomplishment of the mission objectives.
14.
True/False: Pilot rated senior staff members (DV7s or above) who desire to fly on the aircraft, but are not fully mission qualified, must be under the supervision of an instructor pilot but are not required to have a currect instrument refresher course (IRC) and instrument evaluation.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Pilot rated senior staff members (DV7s or above) who desire to fly on the aircraft, but are not fully mission qualified, must be under the supervision of an instructor pilot and are required to have a current instrument refresher course (IRC) and instrument evaluation.
15.
Non-rated senior officers who desire to fly may occupy a pilot seat _______
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that non-rated senior officers who desire to fly may occupy a pilot seat during non-critical phases of flight, when under direct supervision of an instructor pilot, and with no passengers on board. In other words, they are allowed to fly as long as these conditions are met.
16.
______ is the time period between mission reporting and final aircraft engine shutdown.
Correct Answer
B. Flight duty period (FDP)
Explanation
The flight duty period (FDP) refers to the time period between mission reporting and final aircraft engine shutdown. This is the duration during which the crew members are on duty and responsible for operating the aircraft. It includes pre-flight preparations, the actual flight, and any post-flight tasks. Scheduling restrictions, crew rest, and post-deployment stand down are not directly related to the specific time period mentioned in the question.
17.
FDP for MC-12W crewmembers is ____ hours provided the aircraft has fully functioning autopilot pitch axis control.
Correct Answer
B. 16
Explanation
The FDP (Flight Duty Period) for MC-12W crewmembers is 16 hours when the aircraft has fully functioning autopilot pitch axis control. This means that the crewmembers can remain on duty, including flying and performing their duties, for a maximum of 16 hours as long as the autopilot pitch axis control is fully operational.
18.
Maximum FDP is ___ hours for operational reconnaissance mission and pilot proficiency training flights.
Correct Answer
A. 12
Explanation
The maximum FDP (Flight Duty Period) for operational reconnaissance missions and pilot proficiency training flights is 12 hours. This means that pilots involved in these activities are limited to a maximum of 12 hours of continuous duty, including flight time and any other related tasks. This restriction is in place to ensure that pilots remain alert and capable of safely completing their missions without experiencing excessive fatigue.
19.
Pilots should not conduct practice instrument approaches, touch and go landings, tactical arrivals, NVG landings, or conduct simulated emergency procedures after __ hours
Correct Answer
A. 12
Explanation
Pilots should not conduct practice instrument approaches, touch and go landings, tactical arrivals, NVG landings, or conduct simulated emergency procedures after 12 hours because after this time, their fatigue levels may increase, leading to decreased alertness and impaired decision-making abilities. It is important for pilots to be well-rested and mentally sharp to ensure the safety of themselves and their passengers.
20.
True/False: PIC's may extend their FDP up to 2 hours provided no training tactical events or pilot proficiency maneuvers occur within the 2-hour extension.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
PIC's (Pilot in Command) may extend their FDP (Flight Duty Period) up to 2 hours without any training tactical events or pilot proficiency maneuvers occurring within the extended time. This means that if there is no need for additional training or maneuvers, the PIC can continue their duty for an extra 2 hours.
21.
Aircrew shall not remain on alert for more than __ consecutive hours
Correct Answer
C. 72
Explanation
Aircrew should not remain on alert for more than 72 consecutive hours. This is important for their safety and well-being as prolonged periods of alertness can lead to fatigue and impaired performance. It is crucial for aircrew members to be well-rested and alert during their duties to ensure the safety of themselves, passengers, and the aircraft.
22.
Flight duty period is the time period between ___ and final ____
Correct Answer
A. Mission reporting; aircraft engine shutdown
Explanation
The flight duty period is the time period between mission reporting and aircraft engine shutdown. This means that it starts when the crew reports for their mission and ends when the aircraft's engines are shut down after completing the mission. During this period, the crew is responsible for carrying out their duties and ensuring the safe operation of the aircraft.
23.
Each crewmember must carry an operable/NVG _____ on each flight.
Correct Answer
B. Compatible flashlight
Explanation
Each crewmember must carry an operable/NVG compatible flashlight on each flight. This is because NVG (Night Vision Goggles) require a specific type of light source that is compatible with the goggles in order to provide clear visibility in low-light or night-time conditions. Therefore, a compatible flashlight is necessary for the crewmembers to effectively use the NVGs during their flights.
24.
True/False: Crewmember delinquent in FCIF review or joining a mission enroute can receive a FCIF update from a primary aircrew member.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A crewmember who is delinquent in FCIF review or joining a mission enroute can receive a FCIF update from a primary aircrew member. This means that even if a crewmember has not completed the required FCIF review or is joining a mission after it has already started, they can still receive an update on the FCIF from a primary aircrew member.
25.
True/False: ORM is a logic-based, common sense approach to making calculated decisions on human, material, and environmental factors before, during, and after all operations.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
ORM stands for Operational Risk Management. It is a systematic approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks associated with operations. ORM involves analyzing human, material, and environmental factors to make informed decisions before, during, and after operations. By considering these factors, organizations can minimize the likelihood and impact of risks. Therefore, the statement that ORM is a logic-based, common sense approach to making calculated decisions on human, material, and environmental factors before, during, and after all operations is true.
26.
Pilots should not eat meals ___ and their meals should consist of ___ items.
Correct Answer
C. At the same time/different menu
Explanation
Pilots should not eat meals at the same time and their meals should consist of different menu items. This is because eating at the same time can increase the risk of food poisoning or other digestive issues if one meal is contaminated. Additionally, having a different menu allows pilots to have a variety of nutrients and avoid potential food allergies or intolerances.
27.
Ensure all personnel are at least __ feet away from PW or Rover attenas prior to transmitting on either system.
Correct Answer
A. 5
Explanation
All personnel should be at least 5 feet away from PW or Rover antennas before transmitting on either system. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and to prevent any interference or damage to the antennas during transmission. Being too close to the antennas can pose health risks and may disrupt the signal transmission. Therefore, it is important to maintain a minimum distance of 5 feet to ensure smooth and safe communication.
28.
Although Halon 1211 is _____, care should be taken as agent can form ____ byproducts when exposed to fire or high temperature.
Correct Answer
B. Non-toxic/toxic
Explanation
Halon 1211 is considered non-toxic, meaning it does not pose immediate harm to humans or animals. However, caution should still be exercised because when Halon 1211 is exposed to fire or high temperatures, it can form toxic byproducts. These byproducts can be harmful and potentially dangerous.
29.
Only a _____ or properly trained _____ should close and lock the Airstair Door.
Correct Answer
C. Crewmember; ground personnel
Explanation
A crewmember refers to a member of the flight crew or cabin crew who is responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft and its passengers. Closing and locking the Airstair Door requires knowledge and training on the specific procedures and mechanisms involved, which is typically possessed by crewmembers. Ground personnel, on the other hand, may not have the necessary expertise or training to perform this task. Therefore, the correct answer is crewmember; ground personnel.
30.
Chips or cracks in turret windows are not airsafe. If detected, report to ____ immediately.
Correct Answer
B. Mission commander
Explanation
If chips or cracks are found in the turret windows, they are considered to be not airsafe. In such a situation, it is important to report the issue to the mission commander immediately. The mission commander is responsible for overseeing the mission and ensuring the safety of the crew and equipment. They have the authority to take appropriate action and make decisions regarding the safety of the aircraft. Therefore, reporting the problem to the mission commander is the correct course of action in this scenario.
31.
When exposed to Halon 1211 avoid contact with ____ and _____.
Correct Answer
D. Eyes/skin
Explanation
When exposed to Halon 1211, it is important to avoid contact with eyes and skin. Halon 1211 is a fire extinguishing agent that can cause irritation and chemical burns if it comes into contact with the eyes or skin. Therefore, it is crucial to protect these sensitive areas to prevent any potential harm or injury.
32.
EMERGENCY DESTRUCTION PROCEDURES: The _____ directs the destruction procedures.
Correct Answer
D. Mission Commander
Explanation
The Mission Commander is responsible for directing the emergency destruction procedures. They have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the destruction of certain assets or materials in emergency situations. As the leader of the mission, they are in a position to assess the situation, evaluate the risks, and determine the appropriate actions to be taken for the safety and security of the mission and its personnel.
33.
FIRE, SMOKE, AND FUMES: The first step is to ______.
Correct Answer
D. Don oxygen mask
Explanation
In the event of a fire, smoke, or fumes, the first priority is to ensure personal safety. Donning an oxygen mask is crucial to protect oneself from inhaling harmful substances and to maintain a sufficient oxygen supply. This step should be taken before any other actions, such as notifying the command post, locating the source of the issue, or reporting the situation to the pilot.
34.
Only ______ should be on the airstair door stairway at any one time.
Correct Answer
D. 1 person
Explanation
The correct answer is 1 person because the statement suggests that only one person should be on the airstair door stairway at any one time.
35.
True/False: Do not attempt to check the security of the airstair door or cargo door in flight. Remain as far from the door as possible with seatbelts securely fastened.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
It is important to not attempt to check the security of the airstair door or cargo door in flight and to remain as far from the door as possible with seatbelts securely fastened. This is because opening or tampering with the door during flight can compromise the integrity of the aircraft and pose a serious safety risk to passengers and crew. Therefore, the statement "True" indicates the correct answer.
36.
The Emergency Equipment Panel contains all of the following except _____.
Correct Answer
D. Emergency Locator Transmitter
Explanation
The Emergency Equipment Panel contains all the essential equipment needed in case of an emergency, including a fire extinguisher, flashlight, and crash axe. However, the Emergency Locator Transmitter is not typically found on the panel. It is a device used to transmit distress signals in the event of an aircraft accident or emergency, but it is usually located elsewhere in the aircraft.
37.
There are four airline-type double-cell life vests located in the cabin. Two are stored below the ____ and one behind _____.
Correct Answer
B. Left hand side (LHS) tower/each operator seat
Explanation
The correct answer is "left hand side (LHS) tower/each operator seat." This means that two airline-type double-cell life vests are stored below the left hand side tower, and one is stored behind each operator seat.
38.
Personnel will remain at least ___ feet away from the circular INMARSAT antenna directly above the crew entrance door when this system is in use. The aircraft has appropriate shielding to run the INMARSAT system with the crew entrance door open. Personnel will not use the crew entrance door or accomplish _____ while the INMARSAT system is in use.
Correct Answer
A. 6.6; engine running off/on loads
39.
Air Force aircrews require at least __ hours of continuous restful activities including an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep during the 12 hours immediately prior to the flight duty period.
Correct Answer
B. 10
Explanation
Air Force aircrews require at least 10 hours of continuous restful activities including an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep during the 12 hours immediately prior to the flight duty period. This ensures that the aircrews are well-rested and in a suitable physical and mental state to carry out their duties during the flight duty period.
40.
T/F: An aircrew member may fly up to four sorties during a flight duty period.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
An aircrew member may not fly up to four sorties during a flight duty period.
41.
The following portable non-transmitting devices are authorized at any time _____.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The given answer "all of the above" is correct because all the mentioned devices, including electronic watches, hand-held non-printing calculators, and hearing aids, are authorized at any time. These devices are considered portable non-transmitting devices and can be used without any restrictions.
42.
Maximum Flying Time, ____ hours logged flight time per 7 consecutive days, ___ hours logged flight time per 30 consecutive days and ___ hours per 90 consecutive days.
Correct Answer
B. 56;125;330
Explanation
The answer 56;125;330 indicates that the maximum flying time allowed is 56 hours logged flight time per 7 consecutive days, 125 hours logged flight time per 30 consecutive days, and 330 hours logged flight time per 90 consecutive days. This means that a pilot cannot exceed these respective limits within the specified time periods.
43.
T-box or WJ WILL NOT be powered on until ____ is on and ____ is on.
Correct Answer
B. Mission power; CO rack power
Explanation
The T-box or WJ will not be powered on until both mission power and CO rack power are on. This means that both the power from the mission and the power from the CO rack need to be functioning in order for the T-box or WJ to turn on.
44.
The WJ antennas consist of a(n) ___ and _____ antenna.
Correct Answer
A. Upper;lower
Explanation
The WJ antennas consist of an upper and lower antenna. This suggests that there are two separate antennas, with one positioned above the other. The upper antenna may be responsible for receiving signals from the upper portion of the frequency spectrum, while the lower antenna handles signals from the lower portion. This configuration allows for improved reception and coverage across a wider range of frequencies.
45.
The upper WJ antenna is mounted _______.
Correct Answer
B. Inside the KuSS antenna radome.
Explanation
The upper WJ antenna is mounted inside the KuSS antenna radome.
46.
T/F: The OP1 and OP2 consoles each contain a PAC24 audio control panel for selecting ARC-231 (AUX1 or AUX2); PRC-117G (AUX3, AUX4, or AUX5), VHF1 or VHF2 audio.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that both the OP1 and OP2 consoles have a PAC24 audio control panel that allows the selection of different audio sources, including ARC-231 (AUX1 or AUX2), PRC-117G (AUX3, AUX4, or AUX5), and VHF1 or VHF2 audio. This means that both consoles have the capability to control and select these audio sources, confirming the statement as true.
47.
Crewmembers who wear corrective spectacles or contact lenses must ____ while performing aircrew duties.
Correct Answer
C. Carry a spare set of clear prescription spectacles on their person
Explanation
Crewmembers who wear corrective spectacles or contact lenses must carry a spare set of clear prescription spectacles on their person while performing aircrew duties. This is important in case their primary pair of spectacles gets damaged or lost during the duty, ensuring that they have a backup to maintain their visual acuity. It is crucial for crewmembers to have clear vision while performing their duties to ensure the safety and efficiency of their tasks.
48.
If the aircraft loses pressure and any occupant lacks functioning oxygen equipment, the pilot must descend to maintain an altitude of ____ MSL or less (terrain permitting).
Correct Answer
A. 13,000 ft
Explanation
If the aircraft loses pressure and any occupant lacks functioning oxygen equipment, the pilot must descend to maintain an altitude of 13,000 ft MSL or less (terrain permitting). This is because at altitudes above 13,000 ft, the air becomes thin and lacks sufficient oxygen for occupants to breathe normally. Descending to a lower altitude ensures that there is enough oxygen for everyone on board to breathe safely.
49.
Do not practice emergency procedures ______.
Correct Answer
B. With passengers on board
Explanation
Emergency procedures should not be practiced with passengers on board because it can cause panic and anxiety among the passengers, leading to a potentially dangerous situation. It is important to ensure the safety and well-being of the passengers during a flight, and practicing emergency procedures with them on board may create unnecessary fear and confusion. It is more appropriate to conduct emergency drills and practice procedures in a controlled environment, such as during training sessions or simulations, to ensure that all crew members are familiar with the necessary protocols.
50.
The ___ is responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.
Correct Answer
C. Pilot-in-command
Explanation
The pilot-in-command is responsible for and has the final authority over the operation of the aircraft. They are in charge of making decisions regarding the flight, ensuring the safety of the passengers and crew, and adhering to all regulations and procedures. The pilot-in-command has the ultimate responsibility for the aircraft and its occupants during the flight.