Maternity Nursing Test I
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- 1.You performed the leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech presentation, fetal back at the right side of the mother. Based on these findings, you can hear the fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location?
- A.
Left lower quadrant
- B.
Right lower quadrant
- C.
Left upper quadrant
- D.
Right upper quadrant
- 2.In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you palpated a soft broad mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is:
- A.
The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.
- B.
The presentation is breech.
- C.
The mass palpated is the back
- D.
The mass palpated is the buttocks.
- 3.In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is:
- A.
The buttocks because the presentation is breech.
- B.
The mass palpated is the head.
- C.
The mass is the fetal back.
- D.
The mass palpated is the fetal small part
- 4.The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:
- A.
Estrogen
- B.
Progesterone
- C.
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
- D.
Follicle Stimulating hormone
- 5.The hormone responsible for the maturation of the graafian follicle is:
- A.
Follicle stimulating hormone
- B.
Progesterone
- C.
Estrogen
- D.
Luteinizing hormone
- 6.The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is:
- A.
Transverse position
- B.
Vertical position
- C.
Oblique position
- D.
None of the above
- 7.In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This complaint maybe explained as:
- A.
A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen
- B.
The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards
- C.
The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones
- D.
The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy
- 8.Which of the following findings in a woman would be consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration?
- A.
Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striae gravidarum
- B.
Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
- C.
Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
- D.
Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
- 9.Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
- A.
Fetal movement felt by mother
- B.
Enlargement of the uterus
- C.
(+) pregnancy test
- D.
(+) ultrasound
- 10.What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?
- A.
Lightening
- B.
Ballotment
- C.
Pseudocyesis
- D.
Quickening
- 11.Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will prevent which prenatal discomfort?
- A.
Backache
- B.
Vertigo
- C.
Leg cramps
- D.
Nausea
- 12.When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps is:
- A.
Allow the woman to exercise
- B.
Let the woman walk for a while
- C.
Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the knees
- D.
Ask the woman to raise her legs
- 13.From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy mother should have prenatal check up every:
- A.
Week
- B.
2 weeks
- C.
3 weeks
- D.
4 weeks
- 14.The expected weight gain in a normal pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is
- A.
1 pound a week
- B.
2 pounds a week
- C.
10 lbs a month
- D.
10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester
- 15.In the Batholonew’s rule of 4, when the level of the fundus is midway between the umbilicus and xyphoid process the estimated age of gestation (AOG) is:
- A.
5th month
- B.
6th month
- C.
7th month
- D.
8th month
- 16.The following are ways of determining expected date of delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT:
- A.
Naegele’s rule
- B.
Quickening
- C.
Mc Donald’s rule
- D.
Batholomew’s rule of 4
- 17.If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is
- A.
Oct. 7
- B.
Oct. 24
- C.
Nov. 7
- D.
Nov. 8
- 18.Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to:
- A.
Strengthen perineal muscles
- B.
Relieve backache
- C.
Strengthen abdominal muscles
- D.
Prevent leg varicosities and edema
- 19.Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to relieve which discomfort?
- A.
Leg cramps
- B.
Urinary frequency
- C.
Orthostatic hypotension
- D.
Backache
- 20.The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy is:
- A.
The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
- B.
The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
- C.
The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must supply
- D.
The mother may have a problem of digestion because of pica
- 21.The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should be high in
- A.
Protein, minerals and vitamins
- B.
Carbohydrates and vitamins
- C.
Proteins, carbohydrates and fats
- D.
Fats and minerals
- 22.Which of the following signs will require a mother to seek immediate medical attention?
- A.
When the first fetal movement is felt
- B.
No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
- C.
Mild uterine contraction
- D.
Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
- 23.You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure by:
- A.
Asking her to void
- B.
Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
- C.
Giving the client a perineal care
- D.
Doing a vaginal prep
- 24.When preparing the mother who is on her 4th month of pregnancy for abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should instruct her to:
- A.
Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting
- B.
Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure
- C.
Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure and not void until the procedure is done
- D.
Void immediately before the procedure for better visualization
- 25.The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness” in a pregnant woman is by giving
- A.
Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
- B.
Low sodium diet
- C.
Intravenous infusion
- D.
Antacid
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