LPN Practice Exam

56 Questions | Total Attempts: 18

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LPN Practice Exam

Exam for LPN


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A 17 year old patient diagnosed with OCD (Obsessive Compulsive Disorder) and is taking Paxil (paroxetine).  The following are instructions to give to patient and family.  Please select all that apply to Paxil.
    • A. 

      Do not stop Paxil abruptly as withdrawal can occur.

    • B. 

      Paxil may cause unusual bleeding or bruising.

    • C. 

      Paxil may increase risk of suicidal thinking or behavior in young adults.

    • D. 

      Do not take this medicine with calcium as it may decrease the effects of the drug.

    • E. 

      Paxil can cause sexual dysfunction in both men and women.

  • 2. 
    The drug derived from cannabis (delta 9 THC) and considered a controlled substance and is used to treat chemotherapy induced nausea is
    • A. 

      Dolasetron (Anzemet)

    • B. 

      Lorazepam (Ativan

    • C. 

      Dronabinol (Marinol)

    • D. 

      Metoclopramide (Reglan)

  • 3. 
    A client is to receive conscious sedation for a minor surgical procedure. Which drug administration should the nurse expect?
    • A. 

      Benztropine (Cogentin)

    • B. 

      Nitroprusside (Nipride)

    • C. 

      Clonidine (Catapres)

    • D. 

      Propofol (Diprivan)

  • 4. 
    Bupivacaine (Marcaine) is indicated for
    • A. 

      Use as an antiepileptic, as it is a calcium channel blocker devised to target neurons

    • B. 

      The palliative treatment of mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease

    • C. 

      The treatment of certain inflammatory diesease and some types of cancer.

    • D. 

      Local anesthesia including infiltration , nerve block, epidural and intrathecal anesthesia.

  • 5. 
    The nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Furosemide (Lasix) is ordered for this patient by the health-care provider. The nurse understands this medication is given to produce which of the following outcomes?
    • A. 

      To reduce oxygen requirements by the cardiac tissue

    • B. 

      To improve cardiac output to the tissues

    • C. 

      To increase sodium retention in the plasma

    • D. 

      To reduce circulating fluid volume

  • 6. 
    The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed a beta-adrenergic blocker metoprolol (Lopressor) for hypertension. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of beta-adrenergic blockers?
    • A. 

      This class of medication blocks converson of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

    • B. 

      This class of medication blocks sympathetic nervous system receptors.

    • C. 

      This class of medication directly vasodilates the coronary arteries.

    • D. 

      This class of medication allows the body to rid itself of sodium and water

  • 7. 
    The nurse has been doing medication education for the client receiving atenolol (Tenormin), a beta-blocker. The nurse determines that learning has occurred when the client makes which statement?
    • A. 

      “I need to take my pulse every day.”

    • B. 

      "I cannot take this drug if I develop glaucoma.”

    • C. 

      “If I have any side effects, I will stop the medication.”

    • D. 

      “I cannot continue to have my morning cup of coffee.”

  • 8. 
    The client has epilepsy and receives phenytoin (Dilantin). The client has been seizure-free, and asks the nurse why he still needs blood tests when he is not having seizures. What is the best response by the nurse?
    • A. 

      “Because phenytoin (Dilantin) can deplete your system of potassium.”

    • B. 

      “Because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause blood-thinning in some clients.”

    • C. 

      “Because phenytoin (Dilantin) has a very narrow range between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose.”

    • D. 

      “Because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which will show up in the blood tests.”

  • 9. 
    A client has been taking fosinopril (Monopril) for 2 months. The nursedetermines that the client is having the intended effects of therapy if the nurse notes which of the following?
    • A. 

      Lowered BP

    • B. 

      Lowered pulse rate

    • C. 

      Increased WBC

    • D. 

      Increased monocyte count

  • 10. 
     A client has an order to begin short-term therapy with enoxaparin(Lovenox). The nurse explains to the client that this medication isbeing ordered to:
    • A. 

      Dissolve urinary calculi

    • B. 

      Reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis

    • C. 

      Relieve migraine headaches

    • D. 

      Stop progression of multiple sclerosis

  • 11. 
    A client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate withatropine (Lomotil). The nurse teaches the client which of the followingabout the use of this medication?
    • A. 

      Drooling may occur while taking this medication

    • B. 

      Irritability may occur while taking this medication

    • C. 

      This medication contains a habit-forming ingredient

    • D. 

      Take the medication with a laxative of choice

  • 12. 
    A nurse in a physician’s office is reviewing the results of a client’sphenytoin (Dilantin) level drawn that morning. The nurse determinesthat the client has a therapeutic drug level if the client’s result was:
    • A. 

      3 mcg/ml

    • B. 

      8 mcg/ml

    • C. 

      15 mcg/ml

    • D. 

      24 mcg/ml

  • 13. 
    Identify the ACE inhibitor.
    • A. 

      Enalapril

    • B. 

      Aspirin

    • C. 

      Labetolol

    • D. 

      Paracetamol

  • 14. 
    Gingival hyperplasia is an oral condition possible in up to 50% of children using
    • A. 

      Phentobarbital

    • B. 

      phenytoin (Dilantin)

    • C. 

      Pentobarbital

    • D. 

      Valproic acid (Depakote)

  • 15. 
    Oxybutynin (ditropan) may be prescribed for which of the following postoperative complications
    • A. 

      Nausea

    • B. 

      Pain

    • C. 

      Bladder spasm

    • D. 

      Bleeding

  • 16. 
    The nurse is caring for a client who is taking atorvastatin (Lipitor), a “statin” for high-cholesterol level. The nurse must teach the client to report any muscle weakness or pain immediately because this could be a sign of this rare, but serious, adverse effect.
    • A. 

      Multiple sclerosis

    • B. 

      Myasthenia gravis

    • C. 

      Rhabdomyolitis

  • 17. 
    The nurse is caring for a client who is taking furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg daily. The client displays muscle weakness and electrocardiogram changes. Which of the following is essential for the nurse to assess at this time?
    • A. 

      Intake and output

    • B. 

      Daily weight

    • C. 

      Potassium level

    • D. 

      Skin turgor

  • 18. 
    A post burn injury client should have what type of diet:
    • A. 

      High protein,high sodium,high carbs

    • B. 

      High protein,low sodium,low carbs

    • C. 

      Low fat,high calories,high sodium

    • D. 

      Low calorie,low fat, low protein

  • 19. 
    This step of the nursing process includes the systematic collection of all subjective and objective data about the client in which the nurse focuses holistically on the client- physical, psychological, emotional, sociocultural, and spirtual.
    • A. 

      Assessment

    • B. 

      Planning

    • C. 

      Implementation

    • D. 

      Diagnosis

  • 20. 
    Assessment that focuses on past medical history, family history, reason for admission, medications currently taking, previous hospitalization, surgeries, psyhosocial assessment, nutrition, complete physical assessment
    • A. 

      Initial assessment

    • B. 

      Focus assessment

    • C. 

      Emergency assessment

  • 21. 
     You are caring for a patient who is newly diagnosed with Congestive Heart Failure CHF. Which statement by the patient would indicate that your patient teaching has been a success?
    • A. 

      I will watch my salt intake and ensure that I do not exceed 4g or 4000mg per day in my diet

    • B. 

      I will conduct a daily weight, keep a log of my daily weight, and report to my doctor immediately any weight gain of 3 or more pounds in one day

    • C. 

      If I feel that I am urinating too frequently, I will not take my diuretic for a few days to help with the frequency of urination, after all, I don’t want to fall getting out of bed so much at night

    • D. 

      I will just smoke one half pack of cigarettes per day, as this is healthier than one pack

  • 22. 
    A client receiving Lopressor 50mg IV  should most importantly have which vital signs checked prior to administration?
    • A. 

      Temperature

    • B. 

      Respirations

    • C. 

      Blood pressure, and heart rate

    • D. 

      Pain

  • 23. 
    A client with a history of coronary artery disease begins to experience chest pain. After putting the client on bedrest and administering a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually, which intervention should the nurse implement first?  
    • A. 

      A. Calling the health care provider

    • B. 

      Checking the heart's creatine kinase MB (CK-MB) level

    • C. 

      Getting a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)

    • D. 

      Preparing the client for angioplasty

  • 24. 
    To prevent complications of immobility, which activities would the nurse plan for the first postoperative day after a colon resection?
    • A. 

      Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 minutes around the clock

    • B. 

      Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair

    • C. 

      Provide passive range of motion three times a day

    • D. 

      It is not necessary to worry about complications of immobility on the first postoperative day

  • 25. 
    The nurse will provide preoperative teaching on deep breathing, coughing and turning exercises. When is the best time to provide the preoperative teachings?
    • A. 

      Before administration of preoperative medications

    • B. 

      The afternoon or evening prior to surgery

    • C. 

      Several days prior to surgery

    • D. 

      Upon admission of the client in the recovery room

  • 26. 
    The patient had undergone thyroidectomy. Which of the following are the earliest signs of poor tissue perfusion and poor respiratory function?
    • A. 

      Cyanosis, lethargy

    • B. 

      Fast, thready pulse, bradypnea

    • C. 

      Apprehension and restlessness

    • D. 

      Faintness, pallor

  • 27. 
    The diabetic patient who had undergone abdominal surgery experiences wound evisceration. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate nursing action?
    • A. 

      Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile normal saline

    • B. 

      Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze

    • C. 

      Cover the wound with water-soaked gauze

    • D. 

      Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together

  • 28. 
    The Nurse Practice act and American disablity act is what kind of law?
    • A. 

      Common law

    • B. 

      Statutory law

    • C. 

      Common law

  • 29. 
    Where are the nursing standards of care outlined as well as the scope of practice by the nurse that will be used in a malpractice lawsuit
    • A. 

      Nurse practice act

    • B. 

      Nurses code of ethics

    • C. 

      Nursing standards act

    • D. 

      State board of nusing

  • 30. 
    This type of tort includes assult and battary, deframamtion of character, fraud, invasion of privacy, and false imprisonment-any willing act against a person that nterferes with their rights.
    • A. 

      Intentional tort

    • B. 

      Unintentional tort

  • 31. 
    A patient is admitted with DT's to a private room. What is the nursing intervention priority?
    • A. 

      Administer thiamine and zinc

    • B. 

      Seizure precautions in place

    • C. 

      Make sure the room is quiet and dark

    • D. 

      Administer Valium

  • 32. 
    A client with lung cancer has had a pneumonectomy. What prescription would be ordered:
    • A. 

      Supplement oxygen

    • B. 

      Closed chest tube

    • C. 

      Head of the bead elevated

    • D. 

      Coughing and deeping breathing exercises

  • 33. 
    What are the clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism:
    • A. 

      Fatique,weight gain,decreased libido

    • B. 

      Insomnia,tachycardia,shortness of breath

    • C. 

      Hypokalemia,diuresis,fatique

    • D. 

      Restlessness,weight loss,fatique

  • 34. 
    The client has a bull eye's rash. what quesitons would you ask:
    • A. 

      Have you been out of the country in 6 months

    • B. 

      Have you found any ticks on your body recently

    • C. 

      What have you ate or drank recently

    • D. 

      Have you had a fever in the last few days

  • 35. 
    The client says to the nurse, “I'm going to die, and I wish my family would stop hoping for a cure! I get so angry when they carry on like this. After all, I'm the one who's dying.” The therapeutic response by the nurse is: 
    • A. 

      “Have you shared your feelings with your family?”

    • B. 

      “I think we should talk more about your anger with your family.”

    • C. 

      “You're feeling angry that your family continues to hope for you to be cured?”

    • D. 

      “Well, it sounds like you're being pretty pessimistic. After all, years ago, people died of pneumonia.”

  • 36. 
    The nurse is conducting a group therapy session, and a client with a manic disorder is monopolizing the group. The appropriate nursing action is which of the following?
    • A. 

      Ask the client to leave.

    • B. 

      Refer the client to another group.

    • C. 

      Tell the client to stop monopolizing

    • D. 

      Thank the client for the contribution and tell him or her to allow others a chance to contribute

  • 37. 
    The client is admitted to the mental health unit with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. A nursing diagnosis formulated for the client is thought processes, disturbed related to paranoia. In formulating nursing interventions with the members of the health care team, the nurse provides instructions to: 
    • A. 

      Increase socialization of the client with peers.

    • B. 

      Avoid laughing or whispering in front of the client.

    • C. 

      Begin to educate the client about social supports in the community.

    • D. 

      Have the client sign a release of information to appropriate parties so that adequate data can be obtained for assessment purposes.

  • 38. 
    The manic client announces to everyone in the dayroom that a stripper is coming to perform this evening. When the nurse firmly states that this will not happen, the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence to the nurse. Based on the analysis of this situation, the nurse determines that the appropriate action would be to: 
    • A. 

      Orient the client to time, person, and place.

    • B. 

      Tell the client that the behavior is not appropriate.

    • C. 

      Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance.

    • D. 

      Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours.

  • 39. 
    The nurse is monitoring a client who abuses alcohol for signs of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following would alert the nurse to the potential for withdrawal delirium?
    • A. 

      Hypotension, ataxia, hunger

    • B. 

      Stupor, agitation, muscular rigidity

    • C. 

      Hypotension, coarse hand tremors, agitation

    • D. 

      Hypertension, changes in level of consciousness, hallucinations

  • 40. 
    A client begins to experience extrapyramidal side effects from an antipsychotic medication. The nurse anticipates that the physician will prescribe which of the following to treat this condition?
    • A. 

      Haloperidol (Haldol)

    • B. 

      Benztropine (Cogentin)

    • C. 

      Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

    • D. 

      Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

  • 41. 
    The nurse teaches the patient being evaluated for rhythm disturbances with a Holter monitor to:
    • A. 

      Remove the electrodes to shower or bathe.

    • B. 

      Exercise as much as possible while his monitor is in place

    • C. 

      Attach the recorder and call the assigned number if an episode of irregular heart beats occurs.

    • D. 

      Keep a diary of his activities as long as he wears the monitor.

  • 42. 
    A patient with a myocardial infarction has inferior wall disfunction. The nurse recognizes that the coronary artery most likely occluded is the? 
    • A. 

      Left circumflex coronary artery.

    • B. 

      Right coronary artery.

    • C. 

      Left descending coronary artery.

    • D. 

      Right ascending coronary artery

  • 43. 
    Nadolol (Corgard) is prescribed for a patient with coronary artery disease. In evaluating the effectiveness of the drug, the nurse would expect to find
    • A. 

      Increased urinary output and increased peripheral pulses.

    • B. 

      Decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and relief of chest pain.

    • C. 

      Decreased respirations, increased diastolic pressure, and relief of chest pain

    • D. 

      Decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, and reduced coronary vasospasm.

  • 44. 
    The nurse instructs a client receiving oral acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse determines teaching is effective if the client states which of the following?
    • A. 

      “If I miss a dose of medication, I can double up the next dose.”

    • B. 

      “I should avoid sexual contact while I have lesions.”

    • C. 

      “I’m glad this medication will cure me.”

    • D. 

      “I must take this medication with food.”

  • 45. 
    The nurse cares for a client taking isoniazid (INH) for the past 5 weeks. The client tells the nurse she has been experiencing tingling in her extremities and symmetrical numbness. The nurse knows that the patient is experiencing which common side effect of INH?
    • A. 

      Peripheral neuropathy

    • B. 

      Optic neuritis

    • C. 

      Decreased circulation

    • D. 

      Hypersensitivity

  • 46. 
    The doctor has ordered a urinalysis with C & S (culture and sensitivity) on a in your care. She has an indwelling Foley catheter to bedside drainage. The way to obtain the specimen is to:
    • A. 

      Separate the catheter from the drainage bag tubing and drain only from catheter.

    • B. 

      Open the port on the holding bag and obtain approximately 100 cc to both tests.

    • C. 

      Use a sterile needle and withdraw urine through the rubber port on the drainage tubing.

    • D. 

      Empty the collecting bag and collect the next 100 cc that drains into the bag

  • 47. 
    Which cholinergic agent would be used to treat non-obstructive urinary retention?
    • A. 

      Labetolol

    • B. 

      Atropine

    • C. 

      Bethanachol

    • D. 

      Dopamine

  • 48. 
    Oral hypoglycemic drugs do not work for type 1 DM
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood back into the circulatory system?
    • A. 

      Right atrium

    • B. 

      Right ventricle

    • C. 

      Tricuspid valve

    • D. 

      Left ventricle

  • 50. 
    Another name for ventricular contraction is:
    • A. 

      Systole

    • B. 

      Diastole

    • C. 

      Repolarization

    • D. 

      Sternum

  • 51. 
    The name for the volume of blood in the ventricle immediately before it is ejected is:
    • A. 

      Preload

    • B. 

      Afterload

    • C. 

      Contractility

    • D. 

      Automaticity

  • 52. 
    When determining heart rate in a normal heart, you should always remember that the atrial rate is:
    • A. 

      Always slower than the ventricular rate.

    • B. 

      The most accurate rate to measure.

    • C. 

      Always faster than the ventricular rate.

    • D. 

      Always equal to the ventricular rate.

  • 53. 
    Using the 6 second method or the rule of 10's, which of the following is the atrial rate if the number of P waves on a 6-second strip is 5?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      55

    • D. 

      150

  • 54. 
     Please place a check mark next to the rhythm or rhythms that would require defibrillation.
    • A. 

      Asystole

    • B. 

      Atrial fibrillation

    • C. 

      Supraventricular tachycardia

    • D. 

      Ventricular fibrillation

    • E. 

      Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

  • 55. 
    Your client’s daughter states, “I’m so glad my mother is taking Namenda (memantine).  She will be cured of Alzheimer’s disease." As the nurse, what do you say next?
    • A. 

      Yes, this will cure her disease

    • B. 

      I’m sorry. Namenda will not cure her disease. But it may help her maintain function for a longer period of time.

    • C. 

      Namenda is for Parkinson’s disease, not Alzheimer’s disease.

    • D. 

      Namenda is used for treating diabetes, not Alzheimer’s disease.

  • 56. 
    The client has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for two years. The client stopped this medication after a neighbor said the drug manufacturer’s plant was contaminated with rat droppings. What best describes the nurse’s assessment of the client when seen three days after stopping his medication?
    • A. 

      A sense of calmness and lack of anxiety.

    • B. 

      Increased heart rate, fever, and muscle cramps.

    • C. 

      Pinpoint pupils, constipation, and urinary retention.

    • D. 

      Nothing different; it is safe to abruptly stop lorazepam (Ativan).