1.
Which of the following is NOT a City of Plano recreation center?
Correct Answer
C. Huffhines
Explanation
Huffhines is not a City of Plano recreation center.
2.
Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect you from—
Correct Answer
B. The risk of legal action as long as they act in good faith, within the scope of their training and are not negligent.
Explanation
Good Samaritan laws are laws that protect individuals who provide assistance to others in emergency situations from being held liable for any harm or injury caused during the rescue attempt. These laws encourage people to help others in need without fear of facing legal action, as long as they act in good faith and within the limits of their training. The correct answer states that Good Samaritan laws protect individuals from the risk of legal action if they act in good faith, within the scope of their training, and are not negligent.
3.
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of lifeguards at TMC?
Correct Answer
B. Watching TV.
Explanation
Lifeguards at TMC have several responsibilities, including educating patrons about facility rules and regulations, minimizing or eliminating hazardous situations or behaviors, and providing needed care for victims. However, watching TV is not listed as one of their responsibilities.
4.
If a victim of injury or illness refuses care, you should—
Correct Answer
B. Explain to the victim why he or she needs care and request the victim to at least allow someone more highly trained, such as EMS personnel, to evaluate the situation.
Explanation
If a victim of injury or illness refuses care, it is important to explain to them why they need care and request them to at least allow someone more highly trained, such as EMS personnel, to evaluate the situation. This is because even if the victim refuses care, they may not fully understand the severity of their condition or the potential consequences of not receiving proper medical attention. By explaining the situation and involving trained professionals, the victim may be more likely to reconsider and accept the necessary care.
5.
The “F” in the FIND decision-making model stands for—
Correct Answer
B. Figure out the problem.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Figure out the problem." In the FIND decision-making model, the "F" represents the step of identifying and understanding the problem or issue at hand. This step involves gathering information, analyzing the situation, and clarifying the problem to ensure a clear understanding before moving forward with the decision-making process.
6.
What does FVAP stand for?
Correct Answer
D. Fecal Vomit Action Plan
Explanation
FVAP stands for Fecal Vomit Action Plan. This acronym refers to a plan or procedure that outlines the necessary actions to be taken in response to the presence of fecal vomit. It suggests that there is a specific course of action to be followed in order to address and handle this particular situation.
7.
You are cleaning up a blood spill. An untrained employee picks up gauze with blood on it. She is not wearing disposable gloves. Her action is an example of exposure through—
Correct Answer
C. Indirect contact.
Explanation
The untrained employee picking up gauze with blood on it without wearing disposable gloves is an example of indirect contact. Indirect contact refers to the transmission of pathogens through contact with contaminated objects or surfaces. In this case, the blood on the gauze can potentially contain pathogens, and by touching it without gloves, the employee is exposing themselves to the pathogens present in the blood.
8.
One of the first steps to follow during an emergency is—
Correct Answer
A. Conducting an initial assessment.
Explanation
During an emergency, conducting an initial assessment is one of the first steps to follow. This involves quickly evaluating the situation and assessing the victim's condition to determine the appropriate course of action. It helps to identify any life-threatening injuries or conditions that require immediate attention. This assessment is crucial in order to provide the necessary first aid or medical care to the victim and ensure their safety.
9.
The steps you perform in an initial assessment are—
Correct Answer
B. Check for consciousness, signs of life, a pulse and severe bleeding.
Explanation
In an initial assessment, it is important to check for consciousness, signs of life, a pulse, and severe bleeding. This helps to determine the victim's condition and prioritize the appropriate actions. The other steps mentioned in the options, such as performing abdominal thrusts, back blows, placing the victim in a modified-H.A.IN.E.S. recovery position, and providing rescue breaths, are specific actions that may be required in certain emergency situations but are not part of the initial assessment.
10.
The care provided to an adult who is not moving or breathing, but has a pulse (respiratory arrest), is—
Correct Answer
D. Give rescue breaths at a rate of 1 rescue breath about every 5 seconds.
11.
A mother yells to you that something is wrong with her infant. You obtain consent and put
on the appropriate personal protective equipment. During the initial assessment, you determine the unconscious infant has an airway obstruction. What is the proper sequence of care for an unconscious infant?
Correct Answer
D. Give 5 chest thrusts, look for an object and give 2 rescue breaths
Explanation
After obtaining consent and putting on appropriate personal protective equipment, the proper sequence of care for an unconscious infant with an airway obstruction is to give 5 chest thrusts, look for an object, and then give 2 rescue breaths. This sequence helps to clear the airway obstruction and provide oxygen to the infant.
12.
Signs and symptoms of a heart attack include—
Correct Answer
D. Nausea, shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
Explanation
The signs and symptoms listed in the question are all potential indicators of a heart attack. However, the only option that specifically relates to the cardiovascular system is "nausea, shortness of breath or difficulty breathing." Chest pain can be a symptom of a heart attack, but the duration mentioned in the question (less than 1 minute) is not typically associated with a heart attack. Dry, red, hot skin is not a common symptom of a heart attack, and inability to speak in full sentences can be a symptom of various conditions but is not specific to a heart attack. Therefore, the correct answer is "nausea, shortness of breath, or difficulty breathing."
13.
Which of the following is NOT a specific link in the Cardiac Chain of Survival?
Correct Answer
D. Early rescue
Explanation
The Cardiac Chain of Survival is a series of actions that, when performed in order, can greatly increase the chances of survival for someone experiencing cardiac arrest. The specific links in the chain include early recognition of the emergency and early access to EMS, early CPR, early defibrillation, and early advanced care. "Early rescue" is not a specific link in the Cardiac Chain of Survival, as it is a general term that encompasses all the other specific links.
14.
The pads of an AED for an adult should be placed—
Correct Answer
C. On the upper right chest and lower left side.
Explanation
The correct answer is on the upper right chest and lower left side. This placement of the pads ensures that the electrical shock from the AED passes through the heart, which is located in the center of the chest. Placing the pads in this manner allows for the most effective delivery of the shock to potentially restore the heart's normal rhythm.
15.
Since a child’s chest may be small, it is alright to defibrillate if the pads touch each other when placed on the chest.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
It is not alright to defibrillate if the pads touch each other when placed on a child's chest. The pads should be placed at least one inch apart to ensure the effective delivery of the electrical shock to the heart. Placing the pads too close together can result in ineffective defibrillation and may not restore the heart's normal rhythm. Therefore, the statement is false.
16.
During a near drowning, the lifeguard recognizes an emergency in the water,
activates the EAP, uses rescue equipment and follows the general procedures
for a water emergency.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true. During a near drowning, a lifeguard should recognize the emergency in the water, activate the Emergency Action Plan (EAP), use rescue equipment, and follow the general procedures for a water emergency. This includes assessing the situation, providing immediate assistance to the victim, and calling for additional help if needed. By following these steps, the lifeguard can effectively respond to the emergency and potentially save a life.
17.
The “S” in the mnemonic SAMPLE stands for—
Correct Answer
B. Signs and symptoms.
Explanation
The "S" in the mnemonic SAMPLE stands for signs and symptoms. This is used as a framework for gathering information during a medical assessment. Signs refer to objective observations that can be measured or observed by a healthcare professional, such as a high temperature or a rash. Symptoms, on the other hand, are subjective experiences reported by the patient, such as pain or dizziness. By assessing signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can gather important information about a patient's condition and make informed decisions about their care.
18.
What is Paul David's Middle name?
Correct Answer
A. David
Explanation
The correct answer is David because the question is asking for Paul David's middle name. Therefore, David is the middle name of Paul David.
19.
Who is TMC's complex supervisor?
Correct Answer
C. Jana Glass
Explanation
Jana Glass is TMC's complex supervisor.
20.
Which of the following are not allowed in the pool? (Check all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Noodles
B. Face Masks
D. Glass
Explanation
Noodles, face masks, and glass are not allowed in the pool. Noodles are not allowed because they can cause obstruction or accidents in the pool. Face masks are not allowed because they can obstruct vision and breathing in water. Glass is not allowed because it can break and cause injuries.
21.
How tall must someone be to ride the water slides?
Correct Answer
A. 48 inches
Explanation
The correct answer is 48 inches. This is the minimum height requirement for someone to be able to ride the water slides. It is important for safety reasons as shorter individuals may not be able to safely navigate the slides or may be at a higher risk of injury.
22.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of hypoxia?
Correct Answer
A. Restlessness
Explanation
Restlessness is a sign or symptom of hypoxia. When the body does not receive enough oxygen, it can cause restlessness as the brain and other organs are not getting the necessary oxygen to function properly. This can lead to increased anxiety and agitation in individuals experiencing hypoxia.
23.
What percentage of oxygen do we exhale?
Correct Answer
B. 16%
Explanation
When we inhale, the air we breathe in contains approximately 21% oxygen. However, when we exhale, the air we breathe out contains a lower percentage of oxygen, around 16%. This is because our body uses some of the oxygen we inhale for various metabolic processes, and what is left is exhaled along with other gases such as carbon dioxide.
24.
What is the phone number to the guard office?
Correct Answer
972-769-4413
9727694413
(972)769-4413
Explanation
The correct answer is 972-769-4413, 9727694413, (972)769-4413. These are all different formats of the same phone number. The first format includes dashes between the numbers, the second format is a continuous string of numbers, and the third format includes parentheses around the area code. All three formats represent the same phone number for the guard office.
25.
A child is in the river with a kickboard. How many whistles should you blow?
Correct Answer
E. 1 short
Explanation
Blowing one short whistle is the correct answer because it is a signal for the child to return to shore. The other options either do not provide any specific instruction to the child or are not appropriate signals in this situation.
26.
Part of your uniform is wearing your hat or visor. When is it appropriate to take your hat or visor off?
Correct Answer
A. While inside
Explanation
It is appropriate to take off your hat or visor while inside because wearing headgear indoors is generally considered impolite and disrespectful.
27.
The ABCs stand for...
Correct Answer
B. Airway, Breathing, Circulation
Explanation
The correct answer is "Airway, Breathing, Circulation." This acronym is commonly used in emergency medicine to prioritize the steps in providing basic life support. It reminds healthcare providers to first ensure that the patient's airway is clear, then assess and support their breathing, and finally check and maintain their circulation.
28.
Which is not part of your uniform?
Correct Answer
A. Silly Bands
Explanation
Silly Bands are not part of the uniform because they are a type of fashion accessory and not necessary for the job or role of a guard. The other options, such as the guard shirt, guard suit, sunscreen, and whistle, are all items that are typically included as part of a guard's uniform.
29.
How many minutes early should you show up for your shift? (Write the number only.)
Correct Answer
15
15 min
15 minutes
fifteen
15 min.
Explanation
The correct answer is 15 minutes. This is the recommended time for an employee to arrive before their shift starts. It allows them to settle in, prepare for their tasks, and ensure a smooth transition between shifts. Arriving early also demonstrates punctuality and dedication to one's job.
30.
Which of the following should you leave in the Guard Room when the EAP has been activated?
Correct Answer
D. Sandwhich
Explanation
During an emergency situation when the Emergency Action Plan (EAP) has been activated, it is important to prioritize essential items and leave behind any non-essential belongings. In this case, the sandwich is the only item that is not necessary for emergency response. The rescue tube, backboard, emergency bag, and incident report are all crucial tools and documents that may be needed to assist in rescue and provide necessary information. Therefore, the sandwich should be left behind in the guard room during the activation of the EAP.
31.
What is the ratio of adults to childern under 6 years old in the pool?
Correct Answer
B. 1 adult to 3 children
Explanation
The ratio of adults to children under 6 years old in the pool is 1 adult to 3 children. This means that for every adult in the pool, there are 3 children under 6 years old.
32.
Which of the following people is NOT a Head Guard?
Correct Answer
E. Jason
Explanation
The question asks for the person who is NOT a Head Guard. Among the given options, Jack, Taylor, Caitlin, and Kristi are all potential candidates for being a Head Guard. However, Jason is the only person who is not a Head Guard.
33.
What is the compression depth for CPR on a child?
Correct Answer
B. 1 - 1 1/2 inches
Explanation
The compression depth for CPR on a child is 1 - 1 1/2 inches. This means that when performing CPR on a child, the chest should be compressed to a depth of 1 to 1 1/2 inches. This depth is important to ensure effective circulation and oxygenation during CPR.
34.
If Lifeguards wear suits that are primarily red, what is the main color of Management's suits?
Correct Answer
A. Blue
Explanation
The main color of Management's suits is blue. This can be inferred from the fact that lifeguards wear suits that are primarily red, suggesting that there is a distinction in color between the lifeguards and the management. Since blue is not mentioned in relation to the lifeguards, it can be assumed that it is the main color of the management's suits.
35.
Which one of the following do you NOT do when cleaning the outdoor bathrooms
Correct Answer
C. Hose before sweeping
Explanation
When cleaning the outdoor bathrooms, it is important to hose before sweeping. This is because hosing the area first helps to remove any loose dirt, debris, or waste that may be present. By doing this, it makes the sweeping process more effective as it eliminates the risk of pushing dirt around or creating a muddy mess. Therefore, hosing before sweeping ensures a cleaner and more efficient cleaning process.