Tmc Lifeguard Drill 6/27-7/3

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| By Sarafarris
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Questions: 35 | Attempts: 244

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READ INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY!

This drill test is for TMC Lifeguards. This will count as drill for the week of 6/27-7/3. You must pass with an 80%. If you do not pass, Sara will let you know and we will talk about how you can make it up. No exceptions! For your user name, make sure you use your full real name. If I cannot figure out who you are, you will not receive credit. Make sure you enter a valid email address. Have your ID be Read moreas close to your real name as possible. At the end, please print out your certificate and return to Sara's desk or email it to her. If you have questions, ask!

You are being timed for 1 hour (you will be paid for 1 hour). You may use the internet, Lifeguarding book, or your friends and coworkers. The deadline is Sunday, July 3rd at 6PM. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is NOT a City of Plano recreation center?

    • A.

      Tom Muehlenbeck

    • B.

      Carpenter Park

    • C.

      Huffhines

    • D.

      Liberty

    • E.

      Oak Point

    Correct Answer
    C. Huffhines
    Explanation
    Huffhines is not a City of Plano recreation center.

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  • 2. 

    Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect you from—

    • A.

      Yourself.

    • B.

      The risk of legal action as long as they act in good faith, within the scope of their training and are not negligent.

    • C.

      The need to legally document what was seen, heard and done at the scene.

    • D.

      The need to obtain consent before providing care.

    Correct Answer
    B. The risk of legal action as long as they act in good faith, within the scope of their training and are not negligent.
    Explanation
    Good Samaritan laws are laws that protect individuals who provide assistance to others in emergency situations from being held liable for any harm or injury caused during the rescue attempt. These laws encourage people to help others in need without fear of facing legal action, as long as they act in good faith and within the limits of their training. The correct answer states that Good Samaritan laws protect individuals from the risk of legal action if they act in good faith, within the scope of their training, and are not negligent.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of lifeguards at TMC?

    • A.

      Educating patrons about facility rules and regulations.

    • B.

      Watching TV.

    • C.

      Minimizing or eliminating hazardous situations or behaviors.

    • D.

      Providing needed care for the victim.

    • E.

      Cleaning the bathrooms.

    Correct Answer
    B. Watching TV.
    Explanation
    Lifeguards at TMC have several responsibilities, including educating patrons about facility rules and regulations, minimizing or eliminating hazardous situations or behaviors, and providing needed care for victims. However, watching TV is not listed as one of their responsibilities.

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  • 4. 

    If a victim of injury or illness refuses care, you should—

    • A.

      Continue to provide care as needed.

    • B.

      Explain to the victim why he or she needs care and request the victim to at least allow someone more highly trained, such as EMS personnel, to evaluate the situation.

    • C.

      Interview bystanders and fill out the incident report behind their back.

    • D.

      Ignore the victim.

    Correct Answer
    B. Explain to the victim why he or she needs care and request the victim to at least allow someone more highly trained, such as EMS personnel, to evaluate the situation.
    Explanation
    If a victim of injury or illness refuses care, it is important to explain to them why they need care and request them to at least allow someone more highly trained, such as EMS personnel, to evaluate the situation. This is because even if the victim refuses care, they may not fully understand the severity of their condition or the potential consequences of not receiving proper medical attention. By explaining the situation and involving trained professionals, the victim may be more likely to reconsider and accept the necessary care.

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  • 5. 

    The “F” in the FIND decision-making model stands for—

    • A.

      Features of lifeguarding.

    • B.

      Figure out the problem.

    • C.

      FVAP

    • D.

      Focus on lifeguarding

    Correct Answer
    B. Figure out the problem.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Figure out the problem." In the FIND decision-making model, the "F" represents the step of identifying and understanding the problem or issue at hand. This step involves gathering information, analyzing the situation, and clarifying the problem to ensure a clear understanding before moving forward with the decision-making process.

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  • 6. 

    What does FVAP stand for?

    • A.

      Floater Vomit Activity Procedure

    • B.

      Fecal Vomit Arrival Procedure

    • C.

      For Vacation Always Prepare

    • D.

      Fecal Vomit Action Plan

    Correct Answer
    D. Fecal Vomit Action Plan
    Explanation
    FVAP stands for Fecal Vomit Action Plan. This acronym refers to a plan or procedure that outlines the necessary actions to be taken in response to the presence of fecal vomit. It suggests that there is a specific course of action to be followed in order to address and handle this particular situation.

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  • 7. 

    You are cleaning up a blood spill. An untrained employee picks up gauze with blood on it. She is not wearing disposable gloves. Her action is an example of exposure through—

    • A.

      Direct contact.

    • B.

      Droplet transmission.

    • C.

      Indirect contact.

    • D.

      Vector-borne transmission.

    Correct Answer
    C. Indirect contact.
    Explanation
    The untrained employee picking up gauze with blood on it without wearing disposable gloves is an example of indirect contact. Indirect contact refers to the transmission of pathogens through contact with contaminated objects or surfaces. In this case, the blood on the gauze can potentially contain pathogens, and by touching it without gloves, the employee is exposing themselves to the pathogens present in the blood.

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  • 8. 

    One of the first steps to follow during an emergency is—

    • A.

      Conducting an initial assessment.

    • B.

      Documenting what happened.

    • C.

      Planning for an emergency.

    • D.

      Transporting the victim to the hospital.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conducting an initial assessment.
    Explanation
    During an emergency, conducting an initial assessment is one of the first steps to follow. This involves quickly evaluating the situation and assessing the victim's condition to determine the appropriate course of action. It helps to identify any life-threatening injuries or conditions that require immediate attention. This assessment is crucial in order to provide the necessary first aid or medical care to the victim and ensure their safety.

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  • 9. 

    The steps you perform in an initial assessment are—

    • A.

      Perform 5 abdominal thrusts and 5 back blows.

    • B.

      Check for consciousness, signs of life, a pulse and severe bleeding.

    • C.

      Place the victim in a modified-H.A.IN.E.S. recovery position and monitor the ABCs.

    • D.

      Roll the victim onto his or her back and provide rescue breaths at a rate of 1 breath about every 3 seconds

    Correct Answer
    B. Check for consciousness, signs of life, a pulse and severe bleeding.
    Explanation
    In an initial assessment, it is important to check for consciousness, signs of life, a pulse, and severe bleeding. This helps to determine the victim's condition and prioritize the appropriate actions. The other steps mentioned in the options, such as performing abdominal thrusts, back blows, placing the victim in a modified-H.A.IN.E.S. recovery position, and providing rescue breaths, are specific actions that may be required in certain emergency situations but are not part of the initial assessment.

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  • 10. 

    The care provided to an adult who is not moving or breathing, but has a pulse (respiratory arrest), is—

    • A.

      Perform 5 abdominal thrusts, with each thrust being a distinct attempt to dislodge the object.

    • B.

      Place the adult in a modified-H.A.IN.E.S. recovery position.

    • C.

      Give rescue breaths at a rate of 1 rescue breath about every 3 seconds.

    • D.

      Give rescue breaths at a rate of 1 rescue breath about every 5 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    D. Give rescue breaths at a rate of 1 rescue breath about every 5 seconds.
  • 11. 

    A mother yells to you that something is wrong with her infant. You obtain consent and put on the appropriate personal protective equipment. During the initial assessment, you determine the unconscious infant has an airway obstruction. What is the proper sequence of care for an unconscious infant?

    • A.

      Give 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts

    • B.

      Give 3 chest thrusts, look for an object and give 1 rescue breaths

    • C.

      Give 5 chest thrusts, immediately do a finger sweep and give 2 rescue breaths

    • D.

      Give 5 chest thrusts, look for an object and give 2 rescue breaths

    Correct Answer
    D. Give 5 chest thrusts, look for an object and give 2 rescue breaths
    Explanation
    After obtaining consent and putting on appropriate personal protective equipment, the proper sequence of care for an unconscious infant with an airway obstruction is to give 5 chest thrusts, look for an object, and then give 2 rescue breaths. This sequence helps to clear the airway obstruction and provide oxygen to the infant.

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  • 12. 

    Signs and symptoms of a heart attack include—

    • A.

      Chest pain that lasts less than 1 minute.

    • B.

      Dry, red, hot skin.

    • C.

      Inability to speak in full sentences.

    • D.

      Nausea, shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Nausea, shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
    Explanation
    The signs and symptoms listed in the question are all potential indicators of a heart attack. However, the only option that specifically relates to the cardiovascular system is "nausea, shortness of breath or difficulty breathing." Chest pain can be a symptom of a heart attack, but the duration mentioned in the question (less than 1 minute) is not typically associated with a heart attack. Dry, red, hot skin is not a common symptom of a heart attack, and inability to speak in full sentences can be a symptom of various conditions but is not specific to a heart attack. Therefore, the correct answer is "nausea, shortness of breath, or difficulty breathing."

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is NOT a specific link in the Cardiac Chain of Survival?

    • A.

      Early CPR

    • B.

      Early defibrillation

    • C.

      Early recognition of the emergency and early access to EMS

    • D.

      Early rescue

    Correct Answer
    D. Early rescue
    Explanation
    The Cardiac Chain of Survival is a series of actions that, when performed in order, can greatly increase the chances of survival for someone experiencing cardiac arrest. The specific links in the chain include early recognition of the emergency and early access to EMS, early CPR, early defibrillation, and early advanced care. "Early rescue" is not a specific link in the Cardiac Chain of Survival, as it is a general term that encompasses all the other specific links.

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  • 14. 

    The pads of an AED for an adult should be placed—

    • A.

      On the lower right chest and lower left side.

    • B.

      On the lower right side and upper left chest.

    • C.

      On the upper right chest and lower left side.

    • D.

      On the upper right and upper left side of the chest.

    Correct Answer
    C. On the upper right chest and lower left side.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is on the upper right chest and lower left side. This placement of the pads ensures that the electrical shock from the AED passes through the heart, which is located in the center of the chest. Placing the pads in this manner allows for the most effective delivery of the shock to potentially restore the heart's normal rhythm.

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  • 15. 

    Since a child’s chest may be small, it is alright to defibrillate if the pads touch each other when placed on the chest.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It is not alright to defibrillate if the pads touch each other when placed on a child's chest. The pads should be placed at least one inch apart to ensure the effective delivery of the electrical shock to the heart. Placing the pads too close together can result in ineffective defibrillation and may not restore the heart's normal rhythm. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 16. 

    During a near drowning, the lifeguard recognizes an emergency in the water, activates the EAP, uses rescue equipment and follows the general procedures for a water emergency.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. During a near drowning, a lifeguard should recognize the emergency in the water, activate the Emergency Action Plan (EAP), use rescue equipment, and follow the general procedures for a water emergency. This includes assessing the situation, providing immediate assistance to the victim, and calling for additional help if needed. By following these steps, the lifeguard can effectively respond to the emergency and potentially save a life.

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  • 17. 

    The “S” in the mnemonic SAMPLE stands for—

    • A.

      Secondary assessment.

    • B.

      Signs and symptoms.

    • C.

      Signs of life.

    • D.

      Sara Farris

    Correct Answer
    B. Signs and symptoms.
    Explanation
    The "S" in the mnemonic SAMPLE stands for signs and symptoms. This is used as a framework for gathering information during a medical assessment. Signs refer to objective observations that can be measured or observed by a healthcare professional, such as a high temperature or a rash. Symptoms, on the other hand, are subjective experiences reported by the patient, such as pain or dizziness. By assessing signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can gather important information about a patient's condition and make informed decisions about their care.

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  • 18. 

    What is Paul David's Middle name?

    • A.

      David

    • B.

      Paul

    • C.

      Morgan

    • D.

      John

    Correct Answer
    A. David
    Explanation
    The correct answer is David because the question is asking for Paul David's middle name. Therefore, David is the middle name of Paul David.

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  • 19. 

    Who is TMC's complex supervisor?

    • A.

      Paul David Morgan

    • B.

      Steve McGuill

    • C.

      Jana Glass

    • D.

      Amy Fortenberry

    Correct Answer
    C. Jana Glass
    Explanation
    Jana Glass is TMC's complex supervisor.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Which of the following are not allowed in the pool? (Check all that apply)

    • A.

      Noodles

    • B.

      Face Masks

    • C.

      US Coast Guard approved life jackets

    • D.

      Glass

    • E.

      Water Shoes

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Noodles
    B. Face Masks
    D. Glass
    Explanation
    Noodles, face masks, and glass are not allowed in the pool. Noodles are not allowed because they can cause obstruction or accidents in the pool. Face masks are not allowed because they can obstruct vision and breathing in water. Glass is not allowed because it can break and cause injuries.

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  • 21. 

    How tall must someone be to ride the water slides?

    • A.

      48 inches

    • B.

      47 inches

    • C.

      84 inches

    • D.

      48 centimeters

    Correct Answer
    A. 48 inches
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 48 inches. This is the minimum height requirement for someone to be able to ride the water slides. It is important for safety reasons as shorter individuals may not be able to safely navigate the slides or may be at a higher risk of injury.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a sign or symptom of hypoxia?

    • A.

      Restlessness

    • B.

      Shortness

    • C.

      Hypothermia

    • D.

      Can't raise their left hand

    Correct Answer
    A. Restlessness
    Explanation
    Restlessness is a sign or symptom of hypoxia. When the body does not receive enough oxygen, it can cause restlessness as the brain and other organs are not getting the necessary oxygen to function properly. This can lead to increased anxiety and agitation in individuals experiencing hypoxia.

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  • 23. 

    What percentage of oxygen do we exhale?

    • A.

      21%

    • B.

      16%

    • C.

      80%

    • D.

      50%

    Correct Answer
    B. 16%
    Explanation
    When we inhale, the air we breathe in contains approximately 21% oxygen. However, when we exhale, the air we breathe out contains a lower percentage of oxygen, around 16%. This is because our body uses some of the oxygen we inhale for various metabolic processes, and what is left is exhaled along with other gases such as carbon dioxide.

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  • 24. 

    What is the phone number to the guard office?

    Correct Answer
    972-769-4413
    9727694413
    (972)769-4413
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 972-769-4413, 9727694413, (972)769-4413. These are all different formats of the same phone number. The first format includes dashes between the numbers, the second format is a continuous string of numbers, and the third format includes parentheses around the area code. All three formats represent the same phone number for the guard office.

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  • 25. 

    A child is in the river with a kickboard. How many whistles should you blow?

    • A.

      One long

    • B.

      2 short

    • C.

      3 short

    • D.

      2 short and one long

    • E.

      1 short

    Correct Answer
    E. 1 short
    Explanation
    Blowing one short whistle is the correct answer because it is a signal for the child to return to shore. The other options either do not provide any specific instruction to the child or are not appropriate signals in this situation.

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  • 26. 

    Part of your uniform is wearing your hat or visor. When is it appropriate to take your hat or visor off?

    • A.

      While inside

    • B.

      On a rainy day

    • C.

      On a blistering hot day

    • D.

      When it's cloudy

    • E.

      When the sun is going down

    Correct Answer
    A. While inside
    Explanation
    It is appropriate to take off your hat or visor while inside because wearing headgear indoors is generally considered impolite and disrespectful.

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  • 27. 

    The ABCs stand for...

    • A.

      Always Been Childish

    • B.

      Airway, Breathing, Circulation

    • C.

      Airway, Breath, Circle Motion

    • D.

      Automated External Defibulator

    Correct Answer
    B. Airway, Breathing, Circulation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Airway, Breathing, Circulation." This acronym is commonly used in emergency medicine to prioritize the steps in providing basic life support. It reminds healthcare providers to first ensure that the patient's airway is clear, then assess and support their breathing, and finally check and maintain their circulation.

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  • 28. 

    Which is not part of your uniform?

    • A.

      Silly Bands

    • B.

      Guard Shirt

    • C.

      Guard Suit

    • D.

      Sunscreen

    • E.

      Whistle

    Correct Answer
    A. Silly Bands
    Explanation
    Silly Bands are not part of the uniform because they are a type of fashion accessory and not necessary for the job or role of a guard. The other options, such as the guard shirt, guard suit, sunscreen, and whistle, are all items that are typically included as part of a guard's uniform.

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  • 29. 

    How many minutes early should you show up for your shift? (Write the number only.)

    Correct Answer
    15
    15 min
    15 minutes
    fifteen
    15 min.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 minutes. This is the recommended time for an employee to arrive before their shift starts. It allows them to settle in, prepare for their tasks, and ensure a smooth transition between shifts. Arriving early also demonstrates punctuality and dedication to one's job.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following should you leave in the Guard Room when the EAP has been activated?

    • A.

      Rescue Tube

    • B.

      Back Board

    • C.

      Emergency Bag

    • D.

      Sandwhich

    • E.

      Incident Report

    Correct Answer
    D. Sandwhich
    Explanation
    During an emergency situation when the Emergency Action Plan (EAP) has been activated, it is important to prioritize essential items and leave behind any non-essential belongings. In this case, the sandwich is the only item that is not necessary for emergency response. The rescue tube, backboard, emergency bag, and incident report are all crucial tools and documents that may be needed to assist in rescue and provide necessary information. Therefore, the sandwich should be left behind in the guard room during the activation of the EAP.

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  • 31. 

    What is the ratio of adults to childern under 6 years old in the pool?

    • A.

      1 adult to 5 children

    • B.

      1 adult to 3 children

    • C.

      1 adult to 2.5 children

    • D.

      1 adult to 12 children

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 adult to 3 children
    Explanation
    The ratio of adults to children under 6 years old in the pool is 1 adult to 3 children. This means that for every adult in the pool, there are 3 children under 6 years old.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following people is NOT a Head Guard?

    • A.

      Jack

    • B.

      Taylor

    • C.

      Caitlin

    • D.

      Kristi

    • E.

      Jason

    Correct Answer
    E. Jason
    Explanation
    The question asks for the person who is NOT a Head Guard. Among the given options, Jack, Taylor, Caitlin, and Kristi are all potential candidates for being a Head Guard. However, Jason is the only person who is not a Head Guard.

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  • 33. 

    What is the compression depth for CPR on a child?

    • A.

      1/2 - 1 inch

    • B.

      1 - 1 1/2 inches

    • C.

      1 1/2 - 2 inches

    • D.

      2 - 2 1/2 inches

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 - 1 1/2 inches
    Explanation
    The compression depth for CPR on a child is 1 - 1 1/2 inches. This means that when performing CPR on a child, the chest should be compressed to a depth of 1 to 1 1/2 inches. This depth is important to ensure effective circulation and oxygenation during CPR.

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  • 34. 

    If Lifeguards wear suits that are primarily red, what is the main color of Management's suits?

    • A.

      Blue

    • B.

      Purple

    • C.

      Orange

    • D.

      Chartreuse

    • E.

      Magenta

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue
    Explanation
    The main color of Management's suits is blue. This can be inferred from the fact that lifeguards wear suits that are primarily red, suggesting that there is a distinction in color between the lifeguards and the management. Since blue is not mentioned in relation to the lifeguards, it can be assumed that it is the main color of the management's suits.

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  • 35. 

    Which one of the following do you NOT do when cleaning the outdoor bathrooms

    • A.

      Check and replace all feminine bags

    • B.

      Clean the sinks

    • C.

      Hose before sweeping

    • D.

      Clean the showers

    • E.

      Clean toilets

    Correct Answer
    C. Hose before sweeping
    Explanation
    When cleaning the outdoor bathrooms, it is important to hose before sweeping. This is because hosing the area first helps to remove any loose dirt, debris, or waste that may be present. By doing this, it makes the sweeping process more effective as it eliminates the risk of pushing dirt around or creating a muddy mess. Therefore, hosing before sweeping ensures a cleaner and more efficient cleaning process.

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