ISTQB Foundation Level Exam Test Paper - I

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| By Mohit Zenith
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Mohit Zenith
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ISTQB Foundation Level Exam Test Paper - I


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

    • A.

      Each test stage has a different purpose.

    • B.

      It is easier to manage testing in stages.

    • C.

      We can run different tests in different environments.

    • D.

      The more stages we have, the better the testing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
    Explanation
    Testing is split into distinct stages primarily because each stage serves a different purpose. By dividing the testing process into stages, we can focus on specific objectives and ensure that each stage fulfills its intended goal. This approach allows for a more systematic and organized testing process, where each stage can be executed independently and efficiently. It also helps in identifying and addressing specific issues at each stage, leading to better overall quality assurance.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

    • A.

      Regression testing

    • B.

      Integration testing

    • C.

      System testing

    • D.

      User acceptance testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Regression testing
    Explanation
    Regression testing is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities. Regression testing involves retesting previously tested software to ensure that changes or fixes have not introduced new defects. Test capture and replay tools allow testers to record and automate test cases, making it easier to repeat tests and identify any regression issues. By using these tools, testers can save time and effort by automating repetitive tests and quickly identifying any regressions in the software.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    • A.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.

    • B.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.

    • C.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.

    • D.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

    Correct Answer
    D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
    Explanation
    A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage because statement coverage ensures that every statement in the code has been executed at least once, while branch coverage only ensures that every branch of a decision structure has been executed at least once. Therefore, achieving 100% statement coverage guarantees a more thorough testing of the code and is more likely to uncover faults.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following requirements is testable?

    • A.

      The system shall be user friendly.

    • B.

      The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.

    • C.

      The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.

    • D.

      The system shall be built to be portable.

    Correct Answer
    C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
    Explanation
    The requirement that states "The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load" is testable because it can be objectively measured and verified. It can be tested by simulating the specified design load and measuring the system's response time to ensure that it meets the requirement. On the other hand, statements like "The system shall be user friendly" or "The system shall be built to be portable" are subjective and cannot be easily measured or objectively tested. The requirement about safety-critical parts containing 0 faults may be testable, but it would require additional clarification on how faults are defined and detected.

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  • 5. 

    Analyse the following highly simplified procedure: Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?” IF the customer wants ‘return’ Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?” IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’ Say: “That will be £11:20″ ELSE Say: “That will be £19:50″ ENDIF ELSE Say: “That will be £9:75″ ENDIF Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The minimum number of tests needed is 3 because there are three possible combinations of replies that need to be tested:
    1) Customer wants a return ticket and chooses cheap-day rate.
    2) Customer wants a return ticket and chooses a rate other than cheap-day.
    3) Customer wants a single ticket.
    By testing these three combinations, we can ensure that all questions have been asked and all replies have been given.

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  • 6. 

    Error guessing:

    • A.

      Supplements formal test design techniques.

    • B.

      Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.

    • C.

      Is only performed in user acceptance testing.

    • D.

      Is not repeatable and should not be used.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplements formal test design techniques.
    Explanation
    Error guessing is a technique that complements formal test design techniques. It involves using the tester's experience and intuition to identify potential errors or defects in the system without relying solely on predefined test cases or specifications. This technique can be applied in various testing phases, including component, integration, system, and user acceptance testing. It allows testers to think creatively and anticipate potential issues that may not be covered by formal test cases, enhancing the overall test coverage and effectiveness.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

    • A.

      Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.

    • B.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.

    • C.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.

    • D.

      Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

    Correct Answer
    C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
    Explanation
    Test coverage criteria are used to measure the extent to which a test suite exercises the items being tested. This can include measuring the percentage of user requirements covered or the percentage of faults found. However, the statement that a measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found is not true. Test coverage criteria do not directly measure the number or percentage of faults found, but rather focus on the extent of coverage achieved by the test suite.

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  • 8. 

    In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:

    • A.

      Find as many faults as possible.

    • B.

      Test high risk areas.

    • C.

      Obtain good test coverage.

    • D.

      Test whatever is easiest to test.

    Correct Answer
    B. Test high risk areas.
    Explanation
    In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to test high risk areas. This is because high-risk areas are more likely to have critical defects that could impact the system's functionality, performance, or security. By focusing on these areas first, testers can identify and address potential issues that pose the greatest risk to the system's overall quality and reliability. This approach ensures that testing efforts are targeted towards mitigating the most significant risks, ultimately leading to a more effective and efficient testing process.

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  • 9. 

    Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets? v - test control w - test monitoring x - test estimation y - incident management z - configuration control 1 -   calculation of required test resources 2 -   maintenance of record of test results 3 -   re-allocation of resources when tests overrun 4 -   report on deviation from test plan 5 -   tracking of anomalous test results

    • A.

      V-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4

    • B.

      V-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3

    • C.

      V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2

    • D.

      V-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

    Correct Answer
    C. V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
    Explanation
    The best pair that matches the test management terms with the activity descriptions is v-3, w-4, x-1, y-5, z-2. This is because v (test control) is associated with the re-allocation of resources when tests overrun (activity 3), w (test monitoring) is associated with reporting on deviation from the test plan (activity 4), x (test estimation) is associated with the calculation of required test resources (activity 1), y (incident management) is associated with tracking of anomalous test results (activity 5), and z (configuration control) is associated with the maintenance of a record of test results (activity 2).

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

    • A.

      System tests are often performed by independent teams.

    • B.

      Functional testing is used more than structural testing.

    • C.

      Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.

    • D.

      End-users should be involved in system tests.

    Correct Answer
    D. End-users should be involved in system tests.
    Explanation
    End-users should not be involved in system tests. System tests are typically conducted by independent teams to ensure an unbiased evaluation of the system's functionality and performance. Involving end-users in system tests may introduce biased opinions and preferences, potentially compromising the objectivity of the testing process.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      Incidents should always be fixed.

    • B.

      An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

    • C.

      Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.

    • D.

      An incident can be raised against documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incidents should always be fixed.
    Explanation
    The statement "Incidents should always be fixed" is false because not all incidents necessarily need to be fixed. Incidents can vary in severity, and some may not require immediate fixing or may not be fixable at all. It is important to prioritize incidents based on their impact and prioritize fixing those that are critical or have a high impact on the system's functionality.

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  • 12. 

    Enough testing has been performed when:

    • A.

      Time runs out.

    • B.

      The required level of confidence has been achieved.

    • C.

      No more faults are found.

    • D.

      The users won’t find any serious faults.

    Correct Answer
    B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
    Explanation
    Enough testing has been performed when the required level of confidence has been achieved. This means that the testing process has been thorough enough to provide a certain level of assurance that the system or product being tested is functioning correctly and meets the necessary requirements. It implies that the testing has been comprehensive enough to identify and address any potential faults or issues, giving confidence in the reliability and quality of the system.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

    • A.

      Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

    • B.

      Incidents may be raised against user requirements.

    • C.

      Incidents require investigation and/or correction.

    • D.

      Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
    Explanation
    The given statement "Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test" is not true. Incident resolution is not solely the responsibility of the author of the software under test. It is a collective responsibility of the development team, including developers, testers, and other stakeholders involved in the software development process. Incident resolution involves investigating and correcting the issues raised during testing, which can be done by various team members depending on their roles and expertise.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

    • A.

      Syntax testing

    • B.

      Equivalence partitioning

    • C.

      Stress testing

    • D.

      Modified condition/decision coverage

    Correct Answer
    C. Stress testing
    Explanation
    Stress testing is not described in a unit test standard. Unit test standards typically focus on aspects such as syntax testing to ensure correct code structure, equivalence partitioning to cover different input scenarios, and modified condition/decision coverage to test different logical conditions. However, stress testing, which involves testing the system's performance under extreme conditions, is not typically included in unit test standards.

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  • 15. 

    Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

    • A.

      They are used to support multi-user testing.

    • B.

      They are used to capture and animate user requirements.

    • C.

      They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.

    • D.

      They capture aspects of user behavior.

    Correct Answer
    B. They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
    Explanation
    Capture-replay tools are commonly used in software testing to record and replay user interactions with a system. They capture aspects of user behavior, such as mouse clicks and keyboard inputs, and then replay them to test the system's response. However, they are not used to capture and animate user requirements. User requirements are typically captured through interviews, surveys, or other requirements gathering techniques, and then translated into functional specifications. Capture-replay tools are focused on testing the functionality of the system, not on capturing or animating user requirements.

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  • 16. 

    How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

    • A.

      Metrics from previous similar projects

    • B.

      Discussions with the development team

    • C.

      Time allocated for regression testing

    • D.

      Both a & b

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a & b
    Explanation
    Both metrics from previous similar projects and discussions with the development team can help in estimating the amount of re-testing likely to be required. By analyzing metrics from previous projects, such as the number of defects found during testing, the complexity of the system, and the effort required for re-testing, one can get an idea of the potential re-testing needs. Similarly, discussions with the development team can provide insights into the changes made, the impact on existing functionality, and the areas that may require thorough re-testing. Therefore, considering both metrics and discussions with the development team can provide a more comprehensive estimation of the re-testing effort.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is true of the V-model?

    • A.

      It states that modules are tested against user requirements.

    • B.

      It only models the testing phase.

    • C.

      It specifies the test techniques to be used.

    • D.

      It includes the verification of designs.

    Correct Answer
    D. It includes the verification of designs.
    Explanation
    The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the verification and validation of designs. It is a graphical representation of a sequential development process, where each phase is associated with a corresponding testing phase. The V-model includes the verification of designs, which means that the designs are thoroughly checked and validated against the specified requirements before moving forward with the development process. This ensures that the designs are accurate and meet the intended functionality.

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  • 18. 

    The oracle assumption:

    • A.

      Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.

    • B.

      Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.

    • C.

      Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.

    • D.

      Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
    Explanation
    The oracle assumption refers to the belief that the tester is capable of consistently identifying the correct outcome of a test. This means that the tester has the knowledge and understanding necessary to determine whether the test results are accurate and expected. The assumption does not imply that the tester knows everything about the software under test or that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers. It simply suggests that the tester has the ability to recognize the correct outcome of a test.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

    • A.

      They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.

    • B.

      They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

    • C.

      Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

    • D.

      Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. This means that it is more cost-effective to identify and address faults early in the development process, as the cost of fixing them increases as the project progresses. This is because identifying and fixing faults in the later stages of testing and deployment can require more resources, time, and effort. Therefore, the answer highlights the importance of early detection and prevention of faults to minimize costs.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

    • A.

      To find faults in the software.

    • B.

      To assess whether the software is ready for release.

    • C.

      To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.

    • D.

      To prove that the software is correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. To prove that the software is correct.
    Explanation
    The objective of a test is to identify faults or defects in the software, assess its readiness for release, and demonstrate that it does not work as expected. However, it is not possible to prove that software is completely correct through testing alone. Testing can only provide information about the presence of defects, but it cannot guarantee the absence of defects. Therefore, proving that the software is correct is not a realistic objective for a test.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

    • A.

      Boundary value analysis

    • B.

      Usability testing

    • C.

      Performance testing

    • D.

      Security testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Boundary value analysis
    Explanation
    Boundary value analysis is a form of functional testing that involves testing the system's behavior at the boundaries or limits of its input values. It aims to identify any errors or issues that may occur when the input values are at the minimum or maximum limits. By testing the system at these critical points, it helps ensure that the system functions correctly and handles boundary conditions effectively.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

    • A.

      Features to be tested

    • B.

      Incident reports

    • C.

      Risks

    • D.

      Schedule

    Correct Answer
    B. Incident reports
    Explanation
    Incident reports typically do not form part of a test plan. A test plan outlines the approach, objectives, scope, and resources required for testing a software application. It includes the features to be tested, risks associated with testing, and the schedule for executing the tests. Incident reports, on the other hand, are documents that record and track any issues or problems encountered during the testing process. They are used for troubleshooting and resolving issues, but are not typically included in the initial test plan.

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  • 23. 

    Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?

    • A.

      Test management

    • B.

      Test design

    • C.

      Test execution

    • D.

      Test planning

    Correct Answer
    C. Test execution
    Explanation
    Test execution provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST. This is because test execution involves the actual running of tests on the software or system being tested. By using CAST, which stands for Computer-Aided Software Testing, the process of test execution can be automated, reducing the need for manual testing efforts. Automation can lead to significant cost savings by saving time, improving efficiency, and reducing the chances of human errors. Therefore, implementing CAST in test execution can result in the biggest potential cost savings compared to the other activities mentioned.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

    • A.

      Statement testing

    • B.

      Path testing

    • C.

      Data flow testing

    • D.

      State transition testing

    Correct Answer
    D. State transition testing
    Explanation
    State transition testing is not a white box technique because it focuses on testing the behavior of a system based on its different states and the transitions between them, without considering the internal structure or implementation details of the system. White box techniques, on the other hand, involve testing based on knowledge of the internal structure, code, or logic of the system.

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  • 25. 

    Data flow analysis studies:

    • A.

      Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.

    • B.

      The rate of change of data values as a program executes.

    • C.

      The use of data on paths through the code.

    • D.

      The intrinsic complexity of the code.

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of data on paths through the code.
    Explanation
    Data flow analysis studies the use of data on paths through the code. This means that it analyzes how data is manipulated and used within a program as it executes. It helps identify how data flows through different parts of the code, how it is transformed, and how it affects the program's behavior. By understanding the data flow, developers can optimize their code, identify potential issues or bottlenecks, and improve the overall efficiency and performance of the program.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?

    • A.

      Actual results

    • B.

      Program specification

    • C.

      User requirements

    • D.

      System specification

    Correct Answer
    C. User requirements
    Explanation
    The best source of expected outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts is the User requirements. User requirements outline the specific needs and expectations of the end users for a software system. These requirements serve as a guide for creating test scripts and determining the expected outcomes. Program specification and system specification may provide some information, but they are more focused on the technical aspects of the software rather than the user's perspective. Actual results, on the other hand, are observed after the testing is performed and cannot be used as a source for creating test scripts.

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  • 27. 

    What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

    • A.

      An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.

    • B.

      An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.

    • C.

      Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.

    • D.

      A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

    Correct Answer
    C. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
    Explanation
    During an inspection, the authors of the work being inspected are not present, whereas during a walkthrough, the authors are present. This means that in an inspection, the focus is on evaluating the work without the influence or bias of the authors, while in a walkthrough, the authors can provide additional context and explanations for their work. The presence of the authors in a walkthrough allows for a more interactive and collaborative discussion, while an inspection is more objective and independent.

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  • 28. 

    Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

    • A.

      It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.

    • B.

      It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.

    • C.

      It reduces defect multiplication.

    • D.

      It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

    Correct Answer
    C. It reduces defect multiplication.
    Explanation
    Verification early in the life cycle helps in reducing defect multiplication. This means that identifying and fixing defects at an early stage prevents them from propagating further into the development process. By catching and addressing issues early on, the overall quality of the product is improved, and the cost and effort required for fixing defects later in the life cycle are reduced. This benefit of verification ensures that potential problems are addressed and resolved early, leading to a more efficient and effective development process.

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  • 29. 

    Integration testing in the small:

    • A.

      Tests the individual components that have been developed.

    • B.

      Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.

    • C.

      Only uses components that form part of the live system.

    • D.

      Tests interfaces to other systems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
    Explanation
    Integration testing in the small refers to testing the interactions between modules or subsystems. This type of testing focuses on ensuring that the components that have been developed work together correctly and that their interactions function as expected. It is different from integration testing in the large, which tests the entire system as a whole. Integration testing in the small helps identify any issues or bugs that may arise from the integration of different modules or subsystems, allowing them to be addressed before the system is deployed.

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  • 30. 

    Static analysis is best described as:

    • A.

      The analysis of batch programs.

    • B.

      The reviewing of test plans.

    • C.

      The analysis of program code.

    • D.

      The use of black box testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. The analysis of program code.
    Explanation
    Static analysis refers to the process of analyzing program code without actually executing it. It involves examining the code for potential errors, vulnerabilities, and other issues. This analysis helps identify bugs, security flaws, and quality-related problems in the code. It is different from dynamic analysis, which involves executing the program to observe its behavior. Therefore, the statement "the analysis of program code" accurately describes static analysis, making it the correct answer.

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  • 31. 

    Alpha testing is:

    • A.

      Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

    • B.

      The first testing that is performed.

    • C.

      Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

    • D.

      Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
    Explanation
    Alpha testing refers to the process of conducting pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site. This allows the developers to gather feedback and identify any issues or bugs before the software or product is officially released to the public. It is an essential step in the software development life cycle to ensure that the product meets the requirements and expectations of the end users.

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  • 32. 

    A failure is:

    • A.

      Found in the software; the result of an error.

    • B.

      Departure from specified behavior.

    • C.

      An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.

    • D.

      A human action that produces an incorrect result.

    Correct Answer
    B. Departure from specified behavior.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "departure from specified behavior." This means that a failure occurs when the software does not behave as intended or specified. It can happen due to errors in the software, incorrect steps or processes in the program, or even human actions that lead to incorrect results. In other words, a failure is when the software deviates from its expected behavior or does not meet the specified requirements.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Mohit Zenith
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