ISTQB Mock Foundation Exam

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1/39 Questions

Which statement about testing is true?
- Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
- Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.
- Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
- Testing can only be done by an independent test team.

About This Quiz

This ISTQB mock Foundation Exam assesses core software testing skills. It covers specification-based testing techniques, test suite exhaustiveness, early testing initiation, fundamental test process activities, product vs. Project risks, and regression testing insights. Ideal for learners aiming to validate their testing knowledge.

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2.

Which of the following best describes integration testing?
- Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components.
- Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.
- Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
- Integration of automated software test suites with the product.
Correct Answer

A. Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components.

Explanation

Integration testing is a type of testing that focuses on exposing faults in the interfaces and the interaction between integrated components. This testing is conducted to ensure that the integrated components work together as expected and to identify any issues or bugs that may arise due to the integration process. It helps in validating the correct functioning of the system as a whole and ensures that the integrated components interact seamlessly with each other.

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3.

Which two specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to each other?
- Decision tables and state transition testing
- Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
- Decision tables and boundary value analysis
- Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
Correct Answer

A. Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis are closely related because they both focus on dividing the input domain into smaller, manageable sets. Equivalence partitioning divides the input domain into equivalence classes, where all inputs within the same class are expected to behave the same way. Boundary value analysis, on the other hand, focuses on testing the boundaries between these equivalence classes. By combining these two techniques, testers can ensure that both the representative values within each class and the values at the boundaries are thoroughly tested.

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4.

Consider the following statements about regression tests: I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed. II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests). III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system. IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
- I and II
- I and III
- II and III
- II and IV
Correct Answer

A. I and III

Explanation

Regression tests may usefully be automated if they are well designed because automation can make the process more efficient and reliable. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse effect elsewhere in the system because by retesting the system after changes, any potential issues or bugs can be identified and fixed before they cause problems in other areas. Therefore, the pair of statements that is true is I and III.

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5.

Which of these statements about functional testing is true?
- Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the code.
- Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.
- Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the system and see what happens.
- Inspection is a form of functional testing.
Correct Answer

A. Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.

Explanation

Functional testing is a type of testing that focuses on verifying the functionality of a system or software application. It involves testing the system against the functional requirements to ensure that it performs as expected. This type of testing is not limited to any specific phase of the software development life cycle and can be performed by various stakeholders, including business analysts, testers, developers, and users. It helps in identifying any functional defects or issues in the system and ensures that the software meets the desired functional requirements.

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6.

What is the best description of static analysis?
- The analysis of batch programs
- The reviewing of test plans
- The analysis of program code or other software artifacts
- The use of black-box testing
Correct Answer

A. The analysis of program code or other software artifacts

Explanation

Static analysis refers to the process of analyzing program code or other software artifacts without actually executing the code. It involves examining the code to identify potential errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities. This analysis helps in finding issues such as coding errors, security vulnerabilities, performance problems, and adherence to coding standards. The purpose of static analysis is to improve software quality, enhance security, and reduce the likelihood of bugs and errors in the code. It is different from black-box testing, which involves testing the software from an external perspective without knowledge of its internal structure.

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7.

Consider the following types of tools: V. Test management tools W. Static analysis tools X. Modeling tools Y. Dynamic analysis tools Z. Performance testing tools Which of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers?
- W, X and Y
- V, Y and Z
- V, W and Z
- X, Y and Z
Correct Answer

A. W, X and Y

Explanation

Developers are most likely to use static analysis tools (W) to identify and fix potential code issues, modeling tools (X) to design and visualize software systems, and dynamic analysis tools (Y) to test and debug their code during runtime. These tools help developers ensure the quality and efficiency of their software development process. Performance testing tools (Z) are typically used by performance testers or quality assurance teams to assess the performance of the software and may not be directly used by developers.

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8.

According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:
- Is part of the fundamental testing process.
- Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.
- Involves intentionally adding known defects.
- Follows the steps of a test procedure.
Correct Answer

A. Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.

Explanation

Debugging is the process of identifying and fixing the cause of a failure or defect in a software system. It is an essential part of the testing process as it helps in resolving issues and ensuring the proper functioning of the system. Debugging does not involve intentionally adding known defects, but rather focuses on identifying and resolving existing defects. It follows the steps of a test procedure to systematically identify and fix the cause of a failure, ensuring the software meets the desired requirements and quality standards.

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1
9.

Which of the following is an advantage of independent testing?
- Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team.
- Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more code.
- The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end of the schedule.
- Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.
Correct Answer

A. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.

Explanation

Independent testers questioning the assumptions behind requirements, designs, and implementations is an advantage of independent testing because it helps to identify any potential flaws or gaps in the project. This can lead to improved quality and reliability of the software being developed. By challenging assumptions, independent testers provide valuable insights and feedback that can contribute to the overall success of the project.

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10.

Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing? 1. Over-reliance on the tool 2. Greater consistency and repeatability 3. Objective assessment 4. Unrealistic expectations 5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool 6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing 7. Repetitive work is reduced
- Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
- Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
- Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
- Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
Correct Answer

A. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5

Explanation

Using tools to support testing provides several benefits. Firstly, it allows for greater consistency and repeatability in the testing process. This means that tests can be executed in a more standardized and reliable manner. Secondly, tools enable objective assessment of the testing results, reducing the potential for subjective bias. Additionally, tools provide ease of access to information about tests or testing, making it easier for testers to gather and analyze data. Lastly, the use of tools reduces repetitive work, saving time and effort. However, there are also risks involved. Over-reliance on the tool can lead to a lack of critical thinking and human judgment. Unrealistic expectations may arise from the belief that the tool can solve all testing challenges. Lastly, underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool can result in inadequate maintenance and potential issues.

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1
11.

Which of the following is the most important difference between the metrics-based approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?
- The metrics-based approach is more accurate than the expert-based approach.
- The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expert based approach relies on team wisdom.
- The metrics-based approach can be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-based approach, but not vice versa.
- The expert-based approach takes longer than the metrics-based approach.
Correct Answer

A. The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expert based approach relies on team wisdom.

Explanation

The most important difference between the metrics-based approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation is that the metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data, while the expert-based approach relies on team wisdom. This means that the metrics-based approach relies on objective data and trends from previous projects to make estimates, while the expert-based approach relies on the knowledge and experience of the team members.

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12.

Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based (white-box) test techniques? V. Decision outcomes exercised W. Partitions exercised X. Boundaries exercised Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised Z. Statements exercised
- V, W or Y
- W, X or Y
- V, Y or Z
- W, X or Z
Correct Answer

A. V, Y or Z

Explanation

To assess the coverage achieved for structure-based (white-box) test techniques, decision outcomes exercised (V), conditions or multiple conditions exercised (Y), and statements exercised (Z) could be used. These factors help determine how much of the code has been tested and how thoroughly the different components have been exercised. By evaluating the decision outcomes, conditions, and statements exercised during testing, one can assess the extent of coverage achieved by the test techniques.

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13.

Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?
- Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.
- Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.
- Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them.
- Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using the tool are maintained.
Correct Answer

A. Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits." This answer suggests that in order to have good tool support within an organization, it is important to align the existing processes with the use of the tool and continuously monitor the use and benefits of the tool. This ensures that the tool is effectively integrated into the organization's workflow and that its usage is optimized for maximum benefits.

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14.

Assume postal rates for 'light letters' are: $0.25 up to 10 grams; $0.35 up to 50 grams; $0.45 up to 75 grams; $0.55 up to 100 grams. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
- 0, 9,19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99,100
- 10, 50, 75,100, 250, 1000
- 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101
- 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56
Correct Answer

A. 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101

Explanation

The test inputs selected using boundary value analysis are 0, 1, 10, 11, 50, 51, 75, 76, 100, and 101 grams. Boundary value analysis focuses on testing the boundaries or limits of a range, as they are more likely to contain defects. In this case, the boundaries are the weight limits for each postal rate. By selecting inputs that are just below, at, and just above these boundaries, we can test for any potential issues or errors that may occur at these critical points.

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15.

What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?
- 9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.
- 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.
- 9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.
- 9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.
Correct Answer

A. 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.

Explanation

If a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage, it means that 9 out of 10 statements in the software code have been executed or tested by this set of tests. This indicates that the tests have effectively covered a significant portion of the code, ensuring that most of the statements have been exercised and checked for correctness.

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16.

Consider the following list of test process activities: I. Analysis and design II. Test closure activities III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting IV. Planning and control V. Implementation and execution Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?
- I, II, III, IV and V.
- IV, I, V, III and II.
- IV, I, V, II and III.
- I, IV, V, III and II.
Correct Answer

A. IV, I, V, III and II.

Explanation

The correct sequence of the test process activities is as follows:

IV. Planning and control - This activity involves creating a test plan and defining the test strategy to guide the testing process.

I. Analysis and design - In this activity, the test requirements are analyzed, and test cases and test data are designed.

V. Implementation and execution - This activity involves executing the test cases and recording the results.

III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting - After the test execution, the exit criteria are evaluated to determine if the testing is complete. A report is then generated to summarize the test results.

II. Test closure activities - Finally, the test closure activities are performed, which include gathering lessons learned, archiving testware, and closing the test project.

Therefore, the correct sequence is IV, I, V, III, and II.

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1
17.

What is the purpose of confirmation testing?
- To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business needs.
- To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.
- To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changes made.
- To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.
Correct Answer

A. To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.

Explanation

Confirmation testing is performed to ensure that a defect has been fixed correctly. This type of testing is done after a defect has been identified, reported, and fixed. It involves retesting the specific area where the defect occurred to verify that the fix has resolved the issue and that the system is functioning as expected. Confirmation testing helps to ensure that the defect has been properly addressed and that it will not reoccur in the future. It provides confidence to the users that the system is working correctly after the defect has been fixed.

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18.

Consider the following statements about maintenance testing: I. It requires both re-test and regression test and may require additional new tests. II. It is testing to show how easy it will be to maintain the system. III. It is difficult to scope and therefore needs careful risk and impact analysis. IV. It need not be done for emergency bug fixes. Which of the statements are true?
- I and III
- I and IV
- II and III
- II and IV
Correct Answer

A. I and III

Explanation

Maintenance testing requires both re-test and regression test, as any changes or fixes made to the system may introduce new defects or impact existing functionality. It is also difficult to scope and requires careful risk and impact analysis, as the changes made during maintenance can have unintended consequences. Therefore, statements I and III are true. Statement IV is false because maintenance testing should be done even for emergency bug fixes to ensure that the fix does not introduce new issues or impact other parts of the system. Statement II is not mentioned in the given information, so its truthfulness cannot be determined.

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19.

What is the most important factor for successful performance of reviews?
- A separate scribe during the logging meeting
- Trained participants and review leaders
- The availability of tools to support the review process
- A reviewed test plan
Correct Answer

A. Trained participants and review leaders

Explanation

Trained participants and review leaders are the most important factor for successful performance of reviews. Having individuals who are knowledgeable and experienced in the review process ensures that the reviews are conducted effectively and efficiently. Trained participants are able to provide valuable insights and feedback, while review leaders can guide the process and ensure that all necessary steps are followed. Without trained participants and review leaders, the reviews may lack depth and may not identify all potential issues or improvements.

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20.

Which of the following encourages objective testing?
- Unit testing
- System testing
- Independent testing
- Destructive testing
Correct Answer

A. Independent testing

Explanation

Independent testing encourages objective testing because it involves testing the system or software by a third-party tester who is not involved in its development. This ensures that the testing process remains unbiased and objective, as the tester does not have any preconceived notions or biases towards the system. Independent testing helps in identifying any defects or issues that may have been overlooked during the development process, ensuring a more accurate and reliable assessment of the system's functionality.

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21.

What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
- Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
- Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.
- Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
- Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.
Correct Answer

A. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.

Explanation

Specification-based testing techniques involve deriving tests from models that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components. These models can be formal or informal, but they provide a clear representation of the desired behavior or requirements of the software. By deriving tests from these models, testers can ensure that the software meets the specified criteria and behaves as expected. This approach helps in identifying any gaps or inconsistencies in the software's functionality and ensures that it solves the intended problem effectively.

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22.

Review the following portion of an incident report. 1. I place any item in the shopping cart. 2. I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart. 3. I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart. 4. I click the < Checkout > button. 5. I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, 'No items in shopping cart. Click to continue shopping.' 6. I click < Okay >. 7. I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates. 8. The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6. Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?
- The steps to reproduce the failure.
- The summary.
- The check for intermittence.
- The use of an objective tone.
Correct Answer

A. The summary.

Explanation

The given incident report is missing the summary. A summary is an important aspect of a good incident report as it provides a concise overview of the incident, allowing readers to quickly understand the main issue. Without a summary, it may be difficult to grasp the overall context and significance of the incident.

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23.

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental test process activity?
- Test planning and control
- Test analysis and design
- Test implementation and execution
- Defect accounting and inventory management
Correct Answer

A. Defect accounting and inventory management

Explanation

While defect tracking and management are important aspects of software testing, they are not considered fundamental test process activities. The core activities include test planning and control, test analysis and design, test implementation and execution, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, and test closure activities.

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0
24.

Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?
- Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require preparation and follow up.
- There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
- Reviews must be controlled by the author.
- Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.
Correct Answer

A. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.

Explanation

The statement "Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system" is true because reviews of specifications provide an opportunity to identify and address potential issues, errors, or ambiguities before the development process begins. By reviewing the specifications early on, any problems can be caught and resolved at a much lower cost compared to finding and fixing them later in the development cycle. Additionally, reviews allow for collaboration and input from multiple stakeholders, ensuring that the specifications meet the necessary requirements and are of high quality.

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25.

If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?
- 15, 19 and 25 degrees
- 17, 18, 20 and 21 degrees
- 18, 20 and 22 degrees
- 16 and 26 degrees
Correct Answer

A. 15, 19 and 25 degrees

Explanation

The minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions is 15, 19, and 25 degrees. These values cover the three partitions: below 18 degrees, between 18 and 21 degrees, and above 21 degrees. 15 degrees falls below 18 degrees, 19 degrees falls within the range of 18 and 21 degrees, and 25 degrees falls above 21 degrees. Therefore, testing these three values will cover all possible scenarios for the given temperature conditions.

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26.

Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?
- Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
- Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
- Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest calculation rules.
- Inaccurate calculators were used to calculate the expected results.
Correct Answer

A. Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest calculation rules.

Explanation

Insufficient training given to the developers concerning compound interest calculation rules could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated. This suggests that the developers may not have had the necessary knowledge and understanding of compound interest calculation rules, leading to errors in the software's calculations.

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27.

Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
- Test management and control
- Test specification and design
- Test execution and logging
- Performance and monitoring
Correct Answer

A. Test specification and design

Explanation

Test data preparation tools support the activities of test specification and design. These tools assist in creating test cases, defining test data requirements, and generating test data sets. They help in designing effective test scenarios and ensuring that the necessary test data is available for executing the tests. Test data preparation tools can also help in automating the process of creating and managing test data, making it easier to maintain and reuse test data sets across different test cycles.

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28.

A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?
- Master test plan
- System test plan
- Acceptance test plan
- Project plan
Correct Answer

A. Acceptance test plan

Explanation

An acceptance test plan is a likely name for the document that describes a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. This plan outlines the tests that will be conducted to determine if the system meets the specified requirements and is ready for acceptance by the end-users or stakeholders. It focuses on validating the system's functionality, usability, and overall performance to ensure it meets the desired standards and expectations.

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29.

Consider the following list of either product or project risks: I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization. II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time. III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges. IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system. V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?
- I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
- II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
- I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
- III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.
Correct Answer

A. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.

Explanation

The correct answer is I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks. This is because risks I and III are related to the product itself, such as incorrect calculations and security vulnerabilities, while risks II, IV, and V are more related to the project's execution, such as vendor delays, skills gaps, and process overload for the development team.

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30.

Requirement 24.3.A 'Postage Assitant' will calculatethe amount of postage due for letters and small packages up to 1 kilogram in weight. The imputs are: the type of item (letter, book or other package) and the weight in grams. Which of the following conform to the required contents of a test case?
- Test the three types of item to post and three different weights [Req24.3]
- Test 1: Letter, 10grams, postage $0.25. Test 2: book, 500grams, postage $1.00. Test 3:package, 999gram, postage $2.53[Req 24.3]
- Test 1: Letter, 10grams to Belgium. Test 2: book, 500grams to USA. Test 3:package, 999grams to South Africa[Req 24.3]
- Test 1: Letter, 10grams, Belgium, postage $0.25. Test 2: package 999grams to South Africa, postage $2.53
Correct Answer

A. Test 1: Letter, 10grams, postage $0.25. Test 2: book, 500grams, postage $1.00. Test 3:package, 999gram, postage $2.53[Req 24.3]
31.

Consider the following decision table for Car rental. Conditions Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 Over 23? F T T T Clean driving record? Don't care F T T On business? Don't care Don't care F T Actions 　　　　 Supply rental car? F F T T Premium charge F F F T Given this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test cases? TC1: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record
- TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.
- TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
- TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
- TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.
Correct Answer

A. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.

Explanation

Based on the given decision table, the expected result for TC1 is "Don't supply car" because the person is over 23 (Rule 1: T) and has violations or accidents on their driving record (Rule 2: F). Therefore, the condition for "Supply rental car" is not met. For TC2, the expected result is "Supply car with no premium charge" because the person is over 23 (Rule 1: T) and has a clean driving record (Rule 2: T). Therefore, the condition for "Supply rental car" is met and there is no premium charge (Rule 4: T).

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32.

System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of 'finding as many defects as possible during system test' might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?
- Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
- Importance of early testing.
- The absence of errors fallacy.
- Defect clustering.
Correct Answer

A. Defect clustering.

Explanation

The tester suggests redirecting the test effort according to the test principle of defect clustering. Defect clustering is the principle that states that a small number of modules or areas in the system usually contain the majority of defects. By focusing the test effort on these specific modules or areas, the objective of finding as many defects as possible during system testing can be better met. This principle recognizes that not all parts of the system are equally likely to contain defects, and prioritizes testing in the areas that are more prone to defects.

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0
33.

An exhaustive test suite would include:
- All combinations of input values and preconditions.
- All combinations of input values and output values.
- All pairs of input value and preconditions.
- All states and state transitions.
Correct Answer

A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.

Explanation

An exhaustive test suite would include all combinations of input values and preconditions because this approach ensures that all possible combinations are tested, providing comprehensive coverage of the system under test. By testing all combinations, we can identify any potential interactions or dependencies between input values and preconditions, ensuring that the system behaves correctly in all scenarios. This approach helps to minimize the risk of undiscovered bugs or issues that may arise from specific combinations of input values and preconditions.

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34.

Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?
- Show that the system works before we ship it.
- Find as many defects as possible.
- Reduce the overall level of product risk.
- Prevent defects through early involvement.
Correct Answer

A. Show that the system works before we ship it.

Explanation

The test objective "Show that the system works before we ship it" might conflict with the proper tester mindset because it focuses solely on demonstrating that the system functions correctly, rather than on finding defects or reducing product risk. A proper tester mindset involves actively seeking out and identifying potential issues or flaws in the system to ensure its overall quality and reliability.

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35.

Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration management: I. Identify and document the characteristics of a test item II. Control changes to the characteristics of a test item III. Check a test item for defects introduced by a change IV. Record and report the status of changes to test items V. Confirm that changes to a test item fixed a defect Which of the following statements is true?
- Only I is a configuration management task.
- All are configuration management tasks.
- I, II and III are configuration management tasks.
- I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.
Correct Answer

A. I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.

Explanation

The correct answer is I, II and IV are configuration management tasks. This is because identifying and documenting the characteristics of a test item (I), controlling changes to the characteristics of a test item (II), and recording and reporting the status of changes to test items (IV) are all activities that fall under the scope of configuration management. These tasks involve managing and tracking changes made to test items, ensuring that they are properly documented and reported.

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36.

What is a test condition?
- An input, expected outcome, pre-condition and post-condition
- The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point
- Something that can be tested
- A specific state of the software, e.g. before a test can be run
Correct Answer

A. Something that can be tested

Explanation

A test condition refers to something that can be tested. In the context of software testing, a test condition is a specific aspect or feature of the software that needs to be evaluated. It could be a particular input, expected outcome, pre-condition, or post-condition that is used to verify the functionality or behavior of the software. By testing these conditions, one can determine whether the software meets the desired requirements or specifications.

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37.

What is exploratory testing?
- The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.
- A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.
- The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.
- Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.
Correct Answer

A. Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.

Explanation

Exploratory testing refers to a testing approach where testers simultaneously design tests, execute them, log the results, and learn from the outcomes. It involves a dynamic and flexible process of exploring the software to discover defects and gain insights. Unlike other testing methods, exploratory testing does not rely on predefined test cases or scripts, but instead encourages testers to use their domain knowledge, intuition, and creativity to uncover issues. This approach allows for adaptability and enables testers to uncover defects that may not have been anticipated or covered by scripted tests.

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38.

A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria: # System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent specified in the product risk analysis document. # System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product risks specified in the product risk analysis document. During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which were detected during testing. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentage which is well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of explanations: I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed. II. The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find. III. A version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software that was used during early testing. IV. The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of view. V. The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became available. Which of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root causes?
- II, III and IV are possible explanations, but I and V are not possible.
- All five are possible explanations.
- I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.
- III, IV and V are possible explanations, but I and II are not possible.
Correct Answer

A. I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.

Explanation

The correct answer is I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible. This is because the statement mentions that not all tests planned for significant product risks were executed (explanation I), the product risk analysis failed to identify all important risks from a customer point of view (explanation IV), and the product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became available (explanation V). However, there is no information given to suggest that the organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find (explanation II) or that a version-control issue resulted in the release of a version of the software that was used during early testing (explanation III).

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39.

If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the airline's frequent flier program. If you don't hold a gold card, there is a possibility that you will get 'bumped' off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in following Figure. Note that each box (i.e. statement) has been numbered. Three tests have been run: Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight What is the statement coverage of these three tests?
- A gold card holder who stays in economy and a non-gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class.
- A gold card holder who stays in economy and a non-gold card holder who are both upgraded to business class.
- A gold card holder who stays in economy and a non-gold card holder who both stay in economy class.
- A gold card holder who is upgraded to business class and a non-gold card holder who stays in economy class.
Correct Answer

A. A gold card holder who stays in economy and a non-gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class.

Explanation

The statement coverage of these three tests is that they cover all the statements in the given scenario. Test 1 covers the statement of a gold card holder getting upgraded to business class, Test 2 covers the statement of a non-gold card holder staying in economy, and Test 3 covers the statement of a person being bumped from the flight. Therefore, all the statements in the scenario are covered by these three tests.

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