Informatica Certification Exams General Practice Test

By Jeetu Dewda
Jeetu Dewda, Data Engineer
Jitendra, a proficient Data Engineer, excels in the world of data, using expertise to create, manage, and optimize data systems.
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Informatica Certification Exams General Practice Test - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In a short description, the data warehouse is a collection of data that is primarily used for

    • A.

      Organizational Decision Making

    • B.

      Transaction Processing

    • C.

      Temporary Data Storage

    • D.

      Query Optimization

    • E.

      Application Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational Decision Making
    Explanation
    A data warehouse is a collection of data that is specifically designed to support organizational decision making. It is a centralized repository that consolidates data from various sources and provides a platform for analyzing and reporting on the data. The purpose of a data warehouse is to provide decision-makers with easy access to accurate and consistent data, enabling them to make informed decisions and gain insights into the organization's performance and trends. Therefore, the correct answer is "Organizational Decision Making."

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  • 2. 

    Data Marts have specific business related purposes.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Data marts are subsets of data warehouses that are designed to serve specific business purposes. They contain a focused set of data that is relevant to a particular department or function within an organization. By limiting the scope of data to a specific area, data marts can provide more targeted and efficient access to information for decision-making and analysis. Therefore, the statement that data marts have specific business-related purposes is true.

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  • 3. 

    The database designed for queries on transactional data is known as 

    • A.

      ODS

    • B.

      OLTP

    • C.

      OLAP

    • D.

      OLCP

    • E.

      DSS

    Correct Answer
    A. ODS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ODS because an Operational Data Store (ODS) is a database designed specifically for queries on transactional data. It is used to support real-time operational reporting and analysis. ODS stores current and frequently updated data from various operational systems, making it suitable for transactional queries. On the other hand, OLTP (Online Transaction Processing) databases are used for transactional processing, OLAP (Online Analytical Processing) databases are used for complex analysis and reporting, OLCP (Online Collaborative Processing) is not a recognized term, and DSS (Decision Support System) is a broader term that encompasses various types of databases used for decision-making.

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  • 4. 

    This is a quantifiable value such amount of sales, budget or revenue.

    • A.

      Dimension

    • B.

      Database

    • C.

      Datamart

    • D.

      Fact

    • E.

      Datawarehouse

    Correct Answer
    D. Fact
    Explanation
    The given statement describes a quantifiable value such as sales, budget, or revenue, which is typically stored in a fact table in a data warehouse. A fact table contains the measurements or metrics of a business process and is used for analysis and reporting. Therefore, the correct answer is "Fact."

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  • 5. 

    The center of Star schema consists of one or more 

    • A.

      Fact tables

    • B.

      Dimension tables

    • C.

      Indexes

    • D.

      Views

    • E.

      Synonyms

    Correct Answer
    A. Fact tables
    Explanation
    The center of a Star schema consists of one or more Fact tables. Fact tables are the central tables in a Star schema that store the quantitative and numerical data. They contain the measurements or metrics of a business process or event. Dimension tables, on the other hand, are connected to the Fact tables and provide descriptive attributes or context for analyzing the data in the Fact tables. Indexes, views, and synonyms are not specific to the center of a Star schema and are not directly related to the organization of the schema.

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  • 6. 

    The process of pulling data from various hetrogeneous source systems is known as

    • A.

      Loading

    • B.

      Transforming

    • C.

      Cleansing

    • D.

      Refreshing

    • E.

      Extraction

    Correct Answer
    E. Extraction
    Explanation
    The process of pulling data from various heterogeneous source systems is known as extraction. This involves extracting data from different sources and bringing it together into a central location for further processing and analysis. Extraction is the first step in the ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) process, where data is extracted from multiple sources, transformed into a consistent format, and then loaded into a data warehouse or another destination system.

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  • 7. 

    Change data capture is a part of 

    • A.

      Incremental Extraction

    • B.

      Full Extraction

    • C.

      Online Extraction

    • D.

      Offline Extraction

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Incremental Extraction
    Explanation
    Change data capture is a method used to identify and track changes made to a database. It captures only the changes that have occurred since the last extraction, allowing for efficient and incremental updates to the data. Incremental extraction, as the correct answer, refers to the process of extracting only the changed data from a database using change data capture. This approach is commonly used in data integration and data warehousing scenarios to keep the target system up to date with the source system.

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  • 8. 

    Which is used to store data and perform data cleansing, merging before loading into Data warehousing?

    • A.

      ODS

    • B.

      OLTP

    • C.

      Staging

    • D.

      ODS&OLTP

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Staging
    Explanation
    Staging is used to store data and perform data cleansing and merging before loading it into a data warehousing system. This allows for the transformation and preparation of the data before it is loaded into the data warehouse, ensuring that it is accurate and consistent. Staging serves as an intermediary step in the ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) process, where data from various sources is collected, cleaned, and consolidated before being loaded into the data warehouse for analysis and reporting.

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  • 9. 

    The two types of loading available in DWH are 

    • A.

      Full Load

    • B.

      Direct Load

    • C.

      Incremental Load

    • D.

      Option 1 & Option 3

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Option 1 & Option 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Option 1 & Option 3. In a data warehouse, there are two types of loading available: Full Load and Incremental Load. Full Load refers to loading all the data from source systems into the data warehouse, while Incremental Load involves loading only the changes or updates since the last load. Direct Load is not a type of loading in a data warehouse, so Option 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1 & Option 3.

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  • 10. 

    The process of converting and summarizing operational data into a consistent, business-oriented format:

    • A.

      Transformation

    • B.

      Extraction

    • C.

      Loading

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Transformation
    Explanation
    Transformation refers to the process of converting and summarizing operational data into a consistent, business-oriented format. This involves manipulating and restructuring the data to make it more useful and relevant for analysis and decision-making purposes. Extraction and loading are also important steps in the data transformation process, where data is extracted from various sources and loaded into a central repository or data warehouse. Therefore, the correct answer is Transformation, as it encompasses all of these activities.

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  • 11. 

    The latest informatica suite is compatible of

    • A.

      8 Bit

    • B.

      16 Bit

    • C.

      32 Bit

    • D.

      64 Bit

    • E.

      128 Bit

    Correct Answer
    D. 64 Bit
    Explanation
    The latest Informatica suite is compatible with a 64-bit system. This means that it can run on computers or servers that have a 64-bit operating system installed. The 64-bit architecture allows for higher memory capacity and better performance compared to 32-bit systems. It also enables the software to handle larger datasets and perform complex calculations more efficiently.

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  • 12. 

    Is both Informatica PowerCenter and PowerMart are same

    • A.

      Depends upon the User

    • B.

      NO

    • C.

      YES

    • D.

      Only at some times

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    D. Only at some times
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only at some times" because Informatica PowerCenter and PowerMart are both data integration tools developed by Informatica, but they have different features and capabilities. PowerCenter is a more advanced and comprehensive tool that offers a wide range of data integration and management functionalities, while PowerMart is a simplified version with limited features. Therefore, depending on the specific requirements and needs of the user, either PowerCenter or PowerMart may be suitable for certain situations.

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  • 13. 

    Flat file lookup is one newly added feature in Informatica PowerCenter 7.1version

    • A.

      Depends upon the User

    • B.

      NO

    • C.

      I don't know

    • D.

      Only at some times

    • E.

      YES

    Correct Answer
    E. YES
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that the feature of flat file lookup was newly added in Informatica PowerCenter 7.1 version. The answer "YES" indicates that the statement is correct and the feature was indeed added in that version.

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  • 14. 

    How many important client components available in Informatica

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      0

    • D.

      No client tools

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 because Informatica has five important client components that are used for various purposes. These components include PowerCenter Client, PowerCenter Repository Manager, PowerCenter Designer, PowerCenter Workflow Manager, and PowerCenter Workflow Monitor. Each component serves a specific function in the Informatica environment, such as designing and managing workflows, creating and editing mappings, and monitoring workflow execution.

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  • 15. 

    Which component is used for New server registration in informatica

    • A.

      Designer

    • B.

      Workflow Manager

    • C.

      2&3

    • D.

      Repository Manager

    • E.

      Repository administration console

    Correct Answer
    E. Repository administration console
    Explanation
    The Repository administration console is used for New server registration in Informatica. This component allows users to register a new server in the Informatica repository. It provides a graphical user interface that allows administrators to manage and configure the Informatica server. The Repository administration console is specifically designed for administrative tasks and provides a centralized platform for managing and maintaining the Informatica environment.

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  • 16. 

    Which Component of informatica is used to configure connection details

    • A.

      Workflow Monitor

    • B.

      Mapping Designer

    • C.

      Workflow Manager

    • D.

      Repository Manager

    • E.

      Worklet Designer

    Correct Answer
    C. Workflow Manager
    Explanation
    Workflow Manager is the component of Informatica used to configure connection details. It allows users to create, edit, and manage workflows, which are a set of instructions for data integration tasks. Within the Workflow Manager, users can define the connections to various data sources and targets, specifying the necessary connection details such as server name, database name, username, and password. This allows the workflows to access and manipulate data from different sources and load it into the desired target systems.

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  • 17. 

    Which  tool is used for users,user groups and priviledges

    • A.

      Designer

    • B.

      Workflow Manager

    • C.

      Repository Manager

    • D.

      2&3

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Repository Manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Repository Manager because it is the tool used for managing users, user groups, and privileges in a repository. The Repository Manager allows administrators to create and manage user accounts, assign users to user groups, and set permissions and privileges for different users and user groups. It provides a centralized and efficient way to control access and manage security in the repository.

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  • 18. 

    Where is the actual business rules will be implemented

    • A.

      Source qualifier

    • B.

      Transformation Developer

    • C.

      Workflow Designer

    • D.

      Mapping Designer

    • E.

      Warehouse Designer

    Correct Answer
    D. Mapping Designer
    Explanation
    The actual business rules will be implemented in the Mapping Designer. This is where the transformation logic is defined and applied to the data. The Mapping Designer allows the user to create mappings between source and target objects, and apply various transformations and rules to the data during the mapping process. It provides a graphical interface to design the flow of data and apply the necessary business rules to achieve the desired output.

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  • 19. 

    Is it possible to generate a table in relational database using informatica

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    • C.

      Sometimes

    • D.

      May be possible

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes
    Explanation
    It is possible to generate a table in a relational database using Informatica. Informatica is a data integration tool that allows users to extract, transform, and load data into a database. It provides features and functionalities to create and manage tables in a relational database. Therefore, using Informatica, users can generate tables in a relational database.

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  • 20. 

    Which Component of informatica is used to see the performance of the workflow while running

    • A.

      Workflow Monitor

    • B.

      Mapping Designer

    • C.

      Workflow Manager

    • D.

      Repository Manager

    • E.

      Worklet Designer

    Correct Answer
    A. Workflow Monitor
    Explanation
    Workflow Monitor is the component of Informatica that is used to see the performance of the workflow while it is running. It provides real-time monitoring and tracking of workflows, sessions, and tasks. This allows users to view the status, progress, and statistics of the workflow, including details such as the number of rows read/written, transformation performance, and error messages. Workflow Monitor helps in troubleshooting and optimizing the performance of workflows by providing valuable insights into their execution.

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  • 21. 

    The Repository Manager connects to the repository database through the Repository Server.

    • A.

      Depends upon the User

    • B.

      FALSE

    • C.

      TRUE

    • D.

      Only at some times

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    C. TRUE
    Explanation
    The statement is suggesting that the Repository Manager connects to the repository database through the Repository Server. This indicates that the Repository Manager relies on the Repository Server to establish a connection with the repository database. Therefore, the correct answer is TRUE.

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  • 22. 

    In the Informatica Repository, where is the meta data getting stored?

    • A.

      Synonyms

    • B.

      Dimension tables

    • C.

      Indexes

    • D.

      Database tables

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    D. Database tables
    Explanation
    The metadata in the Informatica Repository is stored in database tables. These tables store information about the structure, relationships, and properties of the data objects in the repository. Storing the metadata in database tables allows for efficient storage, retrieval, and management of the metadata within the repository.

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  • 23. 

    How the repository server communicates with the repository database

    • A.

      Through native drivers

    • B.

      Third party softwares

    • C.

      LAN Drivers

    • D.

      Logical Paths

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    A. Through native drivers
    Explanation
    The repository server communicates with the repository database through native drivers. Native drivers are software components that allow the server to interact directly with the database using the database's native communication protocol. This ensures efficient and secure communication between the server and the database, without the need for any third-party software or additional drivers.

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  • 24. 

    The Repository Server can manage a repository residing on a database on a different machine on the network

    • A.

      Depends upon the User

    • B.

      FALSE

    • C.

      TRUE

    • D.

      Only at some times

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    C. TRUE
    Explanation
    The Repository Server has the capability to manage a repository that is located on a different machine within the network. This means that the Repository Server can access and control the repository's data and resources, even if it is stored on a separate database on a different machine. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 25. 

    Using the repository manager, the entire repository can be backed up in the format of 

    • A.

      Text file

    • B.

      Zip File

    • C.

      XML File

    • D.

      Binary File

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    D. Binary File
    Explanation
    The entire repository can be backed up in the format of a binary file. Binary files store data in a format that is not easily readable by humans, but it is efficient for storing large amounts of data. This format is commonly used for backing up and restoring repositories because it preserves the integrity of the data and allows for easy transfer and storage.

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  • 26. 

    How the repository server create and update the repository tables

    • A.

      Through repository agent process

    • B.

      Through native drivers

    • C.

      Through LAN Drivers

    • D.

      Through PSTN Lines

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    A. Through repository agent process
    Explanation
    The repository server creates and updates the repository tables through the repository agent process. This process is responsible for managing the communication between the repository server and the database where the repository tables are stored. It handles tasks such as creating new tables, updating existing tables, and ensuring data integrity within the repository. The repository agent process is specifically designed to handle these operations efficiently and securely.

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  • 27. 

    When you connecting to the repository, you need to mention the

    • A.

      Your local machine's IP

    • B.

      Your Project Name

    • C.

      Host name and Port no

    • D.

      Your Mobile no

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    C. Host name and Port no
    Explanation
    When connecting to a repository, you need to mention the host name and port number. These details are necessary to establish a connection with the repository server and access the desired repository. The host name specifies the server where the repository is located, while the port number identifies the specific communication channel through which the connection is established. By providing the correct host name and port number, you can successfully connect to the repository and perform the desired actions.

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  • 28. 

    What is the default repository server connection timeout limit

    • A.

      60 Secs

    • B.

      30 Secs

    • C.

      15 Secs

    • D.

      120 Secs

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 Secs
    Explanation
    The default repository server connection timeout limit is 60 seconds.

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  • 29. 

    For executing a workflow, the PowerCenter server uses the

    • A.

      Designer

    • B.

      DLM Process

    • C.

      DTM Process

    • D.

      DLF Process

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    C. DTM Process
    Explanation
    The PowerCenter server uses the DTM (Data Transformation Manager) Process for executing a workflow. The DTM Process is responsible for reading, transforming, and loading the data as defined in the workflow. It coordinates the execution of tasks, manages data flow, and ensures that the workflow runs smoothly. The DTM Process plays a crucial role in the overall workflow execution in PowerCenter.

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  • 30. 

    The primary PowerCenter server process is known as 

    • A.

      Workflow Manager

    • B.

      Load Manager

    • C.

      Workflow Monitor

    • D.

      Designer

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    B. Load Manager
    Explanation
    The primary PowerCenter server process is known as Load Manager. The Load Manager is responsible for managing the execution of workflows and sessions. It determines the order in which sessions are run, monitors the progress of sessions, and handles session recovery in case of failures. It also manages the distribution of tasks across the nodes in a grid environment. The Load Manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the efficient and reliable execution of data integration processes in PowerCenter.

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  • 31. 

    What are the servers available in informatica

    • A.

      Informatica Server

    • B.

      Workflow Server

    • C.

      Informatica repository Server

    • D.

      Option 1 & Option 3

    • E.

      Option 1 & Option 2

    Correct Answer
    D. Option 1 & Option 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Option 1 & Option 3. The Informatica Server and Informatica Repository Server are available in Informatica. The Informatica Server is responsible for executing the workflows and tasks, while the Informatica Repository Server stores and manages metadata related to the workflows, mappings, and other objects used in the Informatica environment. Therefore, both Option 1 (Informatica Server) and Option 3 (Informatica Repository Server) are the correct servers available in Informatica.

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  • 32. 

    Is it necessary to run the Informatica server before accessing Repository

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    • C.

      May be true

    • D.

      Sometimes

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes
    Explanation
    Yes, it is necessary to have the Informatica service up and running before accessing the Repository. The Repository Service manages the PowerCenter repository, which is a relational database that stores metadata. All repository clients access the repository database tables through the Repository Service. Therefore, the Informatica server, which includes the Repository Service, must be running to access the repository. Additionally, the database service must also be up. 

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  • 33. 

    You can create and maintain folders in the

    • A.

      Repository Manager

    • B.

      Designer

    • C.

      Workflow Manager

    • D.

      Workflow Monitor

    • E.

      Repository Server

    Correct Answer
    A. Repository Manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Repository Manager because it is the tool used to create and maintain folders in the repository. This tool allows users to organize and manage their files and resources within the repository, making it easier to navigate and locate specific items. The other options listed are not specifically designed for creating and maintaining folders in the repository.

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  • 34. 

    If you want to use the same object in several projects, you need to put it in a shared folder

    • A.

      Depends upon the User

    • B.

      FALSE

    • C.

      TRUE

    • D.

      Only at some times

    • E.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    C. TRUE
    Explanation
    If a user wants to use the same object in several projects, they need to put it in a shared folder. This implies that the object cannot be stored in a project-specific folder but rather needs to be accessible from multiple projects. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 35. 

    How many permission types are available for folders

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      7

    • E.

      9

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    There are three permission types available for folders. This means that users can be granted different levels of access to folders, such as read-only, read and write, or full control. These permissions help to control and manage the access and actions that users can perform on folders, ensuring the security and integrity of the stored data.

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  • 36. 

    Which privilege do you need to execute all tasks across all folders in the repository, and can perform any tasks

    • A.

      Administrator

    • B.

      Read

    • C.

      Write

    • D.

      Super User

    • E.

      Execute

    Correct Answer
    D. Super User
    Explanation
    The privilege of a "Super User" allows them to execute all tasks across all folders in the repository and perform any tasks. This privilege grants the user unrestricted access and control over all actions and operations within the repository.

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  • 37. 

    For comparing two folders, what is the mandatory permission a user should have.

    • A.

      Read

    • B.

      Write

    • C.

      Execute

    • D.

      Super User

    • E.

      Administrator

    Correct Answer
    A. Read
    Explanation
    To compare two folders, the mandatory permission a user should have is "Read". This permission allows the user to view the contents of the folders and compare them. Without the Read permission, the user would not be able to access the folder's data and therefore cannot compare them effectively. The other permissions listed, such as Write, Execute, Super User, and Administrator, are not necessary for simply comparing folders.

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  • 38. 

    Which option is need to be checked for creating shortcuts for  folders

    • A.

      Create Shortcuts

    • B.

      Allow shortcut

    • C.

      Shortcuts

    • D.

      None

    • E.

      Option 1 & Option 2

    Correct Answer
    B. Allow shortcut
    Explanation
    To create shortcuts for folders, the option that needs to be checked is "Allow shortcut". This option allows users to create shortcuts for folders, which are convenient links to access the original folder from a different location. By checking this option, users can easily create shortcuts for folders and access them without navigating through the entire directory structure.

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  • 39. 

    Pmcmd is a program that you can use to communicate with

    • A.

      Designer

    • B.

      PowerCenter Server

    • C.

      Workflow Manager

    • D.

      Workflow Monitor

    • E.

      Repository Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. PowerCenter Server
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PowerCenter Server because pmcmd is a command line utility provided by Informatica PowerCenter to communicate with the PowerCenter Server. It allows users to perform various tasks such as starting and stopping workflows, checking workflow status, and managing sessions on the PowerCenter Server.

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  • 40. 

    How many modes are available for using pmcmd

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      2(interactive and commandline)

    • E.

      0

    Correct Answer
    D. 2(interactive and commandline)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2(interactive and commandline). This means that there are two modes available for using pmcmd, which are interactive mode and commandline mode. Interactive mode allows users to enter commands and receive immediate feedback, while commandline mode allows users to run commands directly from the command line without any interaction.

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  • 41. 

    While using pmcmd in command line mode, each command must include the connection information of the 

    • A.

      PowerCenter Server

    • B.

      Repository Manager

    • C.

      Workflow Manager

    • D.

      Workflow Monitor

    • E.

      Designer

    Correct Answer
    A. PowerCenter Server
    Explanation
    When using pmcmd in command line mode, each command must include the connection information of the PowerCenter Server. This is because pmcmd is a command line utility used to control and manage PowerCenter workflows and sessions. In order to execute commands successfully, pmcmd needs to know the connection details of the PowerCenter Server, such as the server name, port number, and login credentials. Without this information, pmcmd would not be able to establish a connection with the PowerCenter Server and execute the desired commands.

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  • 42. 

    What is the return code for a successful pmcmd command execution

    • A.

      1(not available--connection failed)

    • B.

      0(successful)

    • C.

      3(error)

    • D.

      5(internal pmcmd error)

    • E.

      7(invalid user)

    Correct Answer
    B. 0(successful)
    Explanation
    The return code for a successful pmcmd command execution is 0.

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  • 43. 

    What is the pmcmd command for instructing the server to execute the subsequent commands in the wait mode.

    • A.

      Setfolder

    • B.

      Usefolder

    • C.

      Setnowait

    • D.

      Setwait

    • E.

      Showsettings

    Correct Answer
    D. Setwait
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "setwait." This command is used to instruct the server to execute subsequent commands in the wait mode. This means that the server will wait for each command to complete before moving on to the next one.

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  • 44. 

    In which mode of pmcmd, the username, password and server information are required for each command

    • A.

      Interactive mode

    • B.

      Commandline mode

    • C.

      User Mode

    • D.

      Server mode

    • E.

      Wait Mode

    Correct Answer
    B. Commandline mode
    Explanation
    In Commandline mode of pmcmd, the username, password, and server information are required for each command. This mode allows users to run commands directly from the command line without the need for an interactive session. It is useful for automating tasks and integrating with other systems.

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  • 45. 

    Which mode is used for handling the sessions and workflows 

    • A.

      Interactive mode

    • B.

      Commandline mode

    • C.

      User Mode

    • D.

      Server mode

    • E.

      Wait Mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Interactive mode
    Explanation
    Interactive mode is used for handling sessions and workflows because it allows the user to interact with the system in real-time. In this mode, the user can input commands and receive immediate feedback or results. This mode is commonly used for tasks that require user input or for troubleshooting purposes.

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  • 46. 

    What will be returned if the username and password are incorrect in a command

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      Zero Return Codes

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      Non Zero return Codes/7

    • E.

      1

    Correct Answer
    D. Non Zero return Codes/7
    Explanation
    If the username and password are incorrect in a command, a non-zero return code will be returned. This indicates that there was an error or failure in the authentication process. The specific value of 7 may be used to represent this particular type of error, but it could vary depending on the system or command being used.

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  • 47. 

    Which mode allows writing scripts for scheduling the workflows 

    • A.

      Interactive mode

    • B.

      Commandline mode

    • C.

      User Mode

    • D.

      Server mode

    • E.

      Wait Mode

    Correct Answer
    B. Commandline mode
    Explanation
    Commandline mode allows users to write scripts for scheduling workflows. In this mode, users can use command line tools and utilities to create and manage workflows. This mode is typically used by advanced users who prefer to automate and schedule tasks using scripts. It provides more flexibility and control over the scheduling process compared to other modes.

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  • 48. 

    Which window in desginer is used to access the repositories.

    • A.

      Output

    • B.

      Workspace

    • C.

      Navigation

    • D.

      Mapping desginer

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Navigation
    Explanation
    The Navigation window in the designer is used to access the repositories. This window allows users to navigate through the different repositories and access their contents. It provides a hierarchical view of the repositories, making it easier for users to locate and access the desired repository.

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  • 49. 

    How many tools are available in desginer

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      6

    • E.

      5

    Correct Answer
    E. 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 because the question is asking how many tools are available in designer. Out of the given options, 5 is the only number that represents the number of tools available in designer.

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  • 50. 

    Is it possible to create  source and target definition manually

    • A.

      No

    • B.

      Yes

    • C.

      Sometimes

    • D.

      Rarely

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Yes
    Explanation
    Yes, it is possible to create source and target definitions manually. This means that users can manually define the structure and properties of the source and target data that will be used in a data integration or migration process. This allows for greater flexibility and customization in the data integration process.

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Jeetu Dewda |Data Engineer |
Jitendra, a proficient Data Engineer, excels in the world of data, using expertise to create, manage, and optimize data systems.

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  • Current Version
  • Nov 09, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 06, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Jeetu Dewda
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