1.
How many heat units are produced on a single phase machine using 100 ma, .02 sec., and 60 kVp ?
Correct Answer
A. 120
Explanation
100mA x .02s x 60 x 1 (single phase machine)= 120 heat units produced.
2.
What percentage of the energy in the tube is converted to X-ray photons ?
Correct Answer
A. 1%
Explanation
Only 1% of the energy is converted into x-ray photons. The remaining 99% is converted into heat.
3.
Which of the following measurements is constant in parallel circuit ?
Correct Answer
A. Volts
Explanation
In a parallel circuit, volts are constant. They do not vary through the circuit.
4.
A KUB calls for 70 kVp and 40 mAs. If you select the 200mA station, what time should be used ?
Correct Answer
A. 0.2
Explanation
To calculate the time you must do take the mAs/mA. 40/200=.2
5.
Current cycling from positive to negative is know as:
Correct Answer
A. Oscillation
Explanation
Oscillation is current flowing between positive and negative. Think of an oscillating fan that goes from one side of the room to the other.
6.
Which of the following are subatomic particles ?1. Electron 2. Proton 3. Neutron
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation
Subatomic particles are those found in an atom. Protons and neutrons are found inside the nucleus while electrons are in the orbiting shells of the atom.
7.
A radiograph of the Femur is made using 12 mAs, 70 kVp, 40 inch SID, and a 8 inch OID. If the image of the femur measures 22 inches, what is the actual length of the femur ?
Correct Answer
A. 17.6
Explanation
This is a multistep problem since the formula to find object size (or actual length of the femur) is Image size/MF.
First the Magnification factor must be found. To do this the formula SID/SOD is used. SOD is the SID-OID. Therefore, the MF is 40/32 = 1.25.
Now simply take the image size of 22 as mentioned in the question and divide by the MF of 1.25.
22/1.25 = 17.6
8.
A radiograph of the chest was taken at 72 inches using 5 mAs. The CXR needed to be repeated in a wheelchair in a different room. The new distance is 40 inches. What is the new mAs?
Correct Answer
A. 2
Explanation
The formula for the square law should be set up as mAs1/mAs2=D1/D2 squared. In this case, it would be 5/X=72/40 squared (5184/1600). Therefore X= 1.54 (rounded to 2). Without doing any math two answers can be eliminated since when decreasing distance, less mAs is needed. Therefore, the answer must be less than the original 5.
9.
All of the following are true, EXCEPT
Correct Answer
A. If kVp is doubled, the intensity increases by a factor six
Explanation
When kVp is doubled, there is an increase in penetration. However, it is not by a factor of six. All other options are true; increasing kVp increases penetration, increasing kVp by 15% has the same effect as doubling the mAs, and increasing kVp increases the visibility of scatter.
10.
A great, sharp difference between the black and whites on an image is known as
Correct Answer
A. Short-scale contrast
Explanation
A black and white film is a high contrast film as there is a high difference between black and white. High contrast is also known as short-scale or narrow latitude.
11.
As collimation increases, what happens to Compton scatter ?
Correct Answer
A. Decreases
Explanation
When collimation is increased, field size decreased. Think of increasing the USE of collimation which limits the size of the beam. This limiting of field size decreases the number of x-rays striking the patient which will decrease the amount of Compton scatter created.
12.
To better visualize the colon on an x-ray, it is helpful to introduce
Correct Answer
D. Contrast media
Explanation
To better visualize the colon it is helpful to introduce contrast. The high atomic number of the contrast media will produce an image with higher contrast and lead to better visualization.
13.
Which anatomic structure has a high attenuating nature ?
Correct Answer
A. Bone
Explanation
Bone, because of its high atomic number, absorbs far more radiation than other organs such as the colon, kidneys, and bladder. Therefore, bone shows up as white on the image; the x-rays were absorbed in the bone and did not penetrate the part to expose the IR.
14.
How will high kVp affect radiographic contrast ?
Correct Answer
A. Produce lower contrast
Explanation
An image created with high kVp creates a low contrast radiograph. Increasing kVP makes scatter more visible and adds shades of gray to the film. When there are more shades of gray on the film there are lower differences between each shade. Therefore, it is a lower contrast radiograph.
15.
What technical factor controls receptor exposure?
Correct Answer
A. MAs
Explanation
mAs and receptor exposure are directly proportional. Meaning, if mAs is increased so is the exposure, by the same amount. For example, if the mAs is doubled, the exposure (density) doubles. If the mAs is tripled, the exposure triples.
16.
Exposure measures the number of x-ray photons created while air Kerma measures the energy of the ions.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Exposure measures the number created, air KERMA measures the total energy of those ions in air.
17.
KERMA is an acronym that means:
Correct Answer
A. Kinetic Energy Released per unit Mass
Explanation
KERMA stands for Kinetic Energy Released per unit Mass.
18.
Expectant mothers who are technologists, should wear their baby badge:
Correct Answer
A. At their waist
Explanation
The baby badge should be worn at the waist underneath the lead apron in addition to the badge that is worn at the collar over the lead apron.
19.
A technologist standing 3 feet from the fluoroscopy table increases their distances from the table to 7 feet. The original exposure was 20 mR/hr. What is the new exposure?
Correct Answer
A. 4
Explanation
The formula for the inverse square law is I1/I2=D2/D1 squared. So this problem would be set up as 20/x=7/3 squared. After solving for X as outlined in the video, the answer is 4 mR/hr (rounded).
20.
The bucky slot cover must have this thickness to effectively protect the technologist
Correct Answer
A. 0.25mm lead
Explanation
The bucky slot cover must have a thickness of 0.25mm lead to protect the gonads of the technologist. This thickness assumes that the operator is wearing an apron.
21.
Leakage radiation from the tube is limited to
Correct Answer
A. 1 mGy/hr at 1 meter
Explanation
Leakage radiation is limited to 1 mGy/hr at 1 meter at the highest mA and kVp setting.
22.
What is the dose equivalent limits for the lens of the eye ?
Correct Answer
A. 150 mSv
Explanation
150 mSv is the dose equivalent limits for the lens of the eye.
23.
Lead is a protection barrier of choice because
Correct Answer
A. It has a high atomic number
Explanation
Lead is the barrier of choice because of its high atomic number and ability to absorb x-rays.
24.
All of the following represent a cardinal rule EXCEPT
Correct Answer
A. Call for assistance
Explanation
Time, distance, and shielding are the cardinal rules regarding radiation protection.
25.
A technologist standing 2 ft from the fluoroscopy table is exposed to 500 mR of scatter radiation. What will be the exposure dose if the tech moves back 15 ft ?
Correct Answer
A. 9mR
Explanation
The formula for the inverse square law is Intensity 1 over Intensity 2 equals Distance 2 over Distance 1 squared. Remember, the problem is inverse because as distance increases, the intensity of the beam decreases. Therefore, this problem should be set up as 500 over X equals 15 over 2 squared. After squaring the two distances and completing the formula the answer is 9 mR. For a reminder on how to find “X” refer to the video on the inverse square law.
Remember, you can easily eliminate 2 answers without doing math. Since the distance (SID) is increasing, that means the intensity of the beam will go down and be lower than the original 500. Think of getting farther from a fire, the intensity of the heat would decrease.
26.
Which of these is a stochastic effect that is unlikely to occur at low doses ?
Correct Answer
C. Cancer
Explanation
Although it is possible since there is no threshold for cancers (it is a stochastic effect), it is not likely that it would occur at low doses.
27.
No threshold and no dose is safe, best describes the _____________effect
Correct Answer
D. Stochastic effect
Explanation
A non-threshold model shows that no dose of radiation is safe since the first dose shows a response.
28.
The relationship between distance and intensity can be expressed through the
Correct Answer
D. Inverse square law
Explanation
The inverse square law is the relationship between the (square of the) distance and intensity of the beam. As SID increases, intensity decreases.
29.
When densely ionizing radiation damages alpha particles 1. They are not changed by the presence of oxygen 2. They are significantly changed by the presence of oxygen 3. No damage is seen during oxygenation
Correct Answer
A. 1 only
Explanation
When densely ionizing radiation damages alpha particles they are not changed or damaged by the presence of oxygen. Particulate Radiation in the form of Alpha Particles are not more effective in the presence of oxygen.
30.
“LET” stands for
Correct Answer
C. Linear energy transfer
Explanation
LET stands for linear energy transfer. This is the energy that is transferred to the tissue as it traverses the patient. X-ray has a relatively low LET as most of its energy exits the patient. However, Alpha has a very high LET as the energy is not penetrating enough to exit the patient therefore it transfers all of its energy.
31.
Dose area product (DAP) in many fluoroscopy machines is a equal to:
Correct Answer
A. Air kerma (Gy) X area of the exposure field (cm2)
Explanation
Dose-area product is equal to the air kerma (in Gy) multiplied by the area of the exposure field (in cm2).
32.
ESE means
Correct Answer
A. Entrance skin exposure
Explanation
ESE means entrance skin exposure.
33.
If a patient is standing at the vertical board for a radiograph of the clavicle, how many degrees should the tube be angle for an AP Axial Projection?
Correct Answer
B. 0-15 cephalic
Explanation
This angle helps to project the clavicle above the ribs and scapula. 15-30 degree angulation is used when the patient is supine.
34.
What is the anatomy on the humerus that is know for the most common area for trauma?
Correct Answer
C. Surgical neck
Explanation
This is the most common area of fractures seen in the humerus. Fractures of the anatomical neck are less common, but more damaging. This is in the area of the growth plate.
35.
What type of bone is the scapula considered?
Correct Answer
D. Flat bone
Explanation
The scapula is a triangular bone that is very flat.
36.
Which view would best illustrate the olecranon process in profile?
Correct Answer
D. Lateral elbow
Explanation
The lateral view of the elbow demonstrates the olecranon process and the fat pads in profile.
37.
A patient has a right hip injury from an MVA. They are brought to the emergency room by an ambulance. The patient is immobilized to a back board. Which views would be most appropriate to assess for a fractured hip?
Correct Answer
B. AP pelvis and a cross-table lateral
Explanation
Two opposing views are needed to rule out a fracture. An AP pelvis is needed for comparison. A cross-table lateral is needed, since the patient is immobile and cannot move. The left leg can be moved and the image can be directed a cross the table.
38.
If the Radiologist asked for an image that would demonstrate the coronoid process, what view would he need?
Correct Answer
B. Medial oblique elbow
Explanation
Rotating the elbow inward 45 degrees will demonstrate the coronoid process.
39.
Where is the central ray centered for a KUB?
Correct Answer
C. At the iliac crest
Explanation
To center for a KUB the central ray should be centered to the mid-sagittal plane and at the iliac crest.
40.
In a car accident, a patient injured their left anterior thorax (Ribs) on the steering wheel. Which view would best demonstrate this area?
Correct Answer
B. RAO
Explanation
The ribs farthest from the IR are projected free of superimposition with the spine.
41.
The acromion is a feature on what bone?
Correct Answer
B. Scapula
Explanation
The acromion is a bony process on the scapula.
42.
If a patients' ASIS measures 17 cm, which angle should be used for a lateral view of the knee?
Correct Answer
A. 5 degrees cephalic
Explanation
No matter the patient size, a 5 degree cephalic angle is added to lateral knees.
43.
What is the largest known sesamoid bone in the body?
Correct Answer
D. Patella
Explanation
A sesamoid bone is a bone embedded within a tendon or a muscle. The knee is a complex joint held together by ligaments and tendons and the patella sits anteriorly.
44.
When the patients head is lower than their feet it is termed?
Correct Answer
C. Trendelenburg
Explanation
Trendelenburg is when the head is placed downward lower than the feet. This may be done for myelogram procedures. Fowler, which is the opposite position, is the feet lower.
45.
For a patient that is diabetic and scheduled for a fluoroscopy examination, what precautions should be made?
Correct Answer
C. Schedule them first in the morning
Explanation
Diabetics must monitor their insulin levels. It is difficult for them to be NPO since their insulin levels will drop if they go a long time without eating. If they are scheduled early and complete their procedure early then they can eat sooner.
46.
Proper body mechanics for lifting a patient include which of the following?1. Lift with your back2. Stand with your feet shoulder width apart3. Bend your knees slightly
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Low back injuries are common for healthcare workers. To avoid this stand width your feet shoulder width apart, slightly bend your knees, and lift with your legs and not your back.
47.
"If you don't hold still, I will have to stick you again with this needle!" is an example of:
Correct Answer
C. Assault
Explanation
Assault is the threat of touching a person in a harmful manner. Our patients may be afraid and they do not always hold still. By making this statement, we are guilty of assault.
48.
Res ipsa loquitur means:
Correct Answer
D. The thing that speaks for itself
Explanation
A defendant was negligent in tort law. The act was so bad and obvious that it speaks for itself, there is no need for further explanation. Such as; hemostat left in a patient during an operation.
49.
All of the following can cause a fire to burn EXCEPT:
Correct Answer
C. Burning odor
Explanation
An odor is the only option that can not cause a fire to burn.
50.
When reading a blood pressure, the bottom number is called;
Correct Answer
B. Diastolic
Explanation
The bottom number, diastolic, is the measurement when the heart is at rest, in between beats.