HIV, AIDS, Cancer And Immune NCLEX
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- 1.Which of the following does the nurse identify as properties of a malignant tumor?
- A.
Slow rate of growth
- B.
Undifferentiated cells
- C.
Does not gain access to blood an lymphatic channels to metastasize
- D.
Grows by expansion and does not infiltrate
- 2.A nurse is working in community service dealing with primary prevention of common cancers. What strategies would she plan to discuss?
- A.
Making dietary and lifestyle changes
- B.
Completing self-breast and testicular exams monthly
- C.
Annual mammography annually at age 40 unless specified
- D.
Having a colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 50
- 3.A client in her early 20's tells a nurse that colon cancer runs in her family. She ask what she can do to decrease her risk. What is the appropriate response?
- A.
Attend genetic counseling before having children
- B.
Decreasing intake of high fiber foods decreases the risk for cancer
- C.
Limit alcohol, fat, processed, and high nitrate foods in your diet
- D.
Don't worry about this, you are too young for colon cancer
- 4.While reviewing the chart of a client, the nurse notices the TNM classification system. The documentation reads T0,Nx,M0. What does the nurse gather from this information?
- A.
No evidence of primary tumor, regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed, distant metastasis
- B.
Primary tumor cannot be assessed, no regional lymph node metastasis, distant metastasis cannot be assessed
- C.
Carcinoma in situ, evidence of lymph node involvement, distant metastasis
- D.
No evidence of primary tumor, regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed, no distant metastasis
- 5.A client has a nursing diagnosis of Knowledge Deficit r/t needle biopsy of the thyroid. What patient statement would reflect this diagnosis?
- A.
Who will take care of my kids while I'm in the hospital for a few days?
- B.
I'm glad they can use imaging to make sure they are taking a biopsy of the right spot.
- C.
I'm glad I don't have to be put asleep for this procedure
- D.
I heard the risk of disturbing the surrounding tissue with this procedure is pretty low
- 6.Molly has a family history of breast cancer and just got the news that she is positive for the BRCA1 BRCA2. She elects to have a bilateral mastectomy. What type of surgery is this?
- A.
Pallative
- B.
Prophylactic
- C.
Reconstructive
- D.
Patient assuring
- 7.A patient with abdominal cancer has a radioactive implant in place. What safety precautions would the nurse use when caring for the client?
- A.
Advising visitors and nurses that are pregnant that after 16 weeks, the radiation is not harmful
- B.
Placing the client in a private room with notices about radioactive substance safety posted
- C.
Explaining to the patient and family that visiting is limited to 2 hours daily
- D.
Advising visitors and nurses to stay at least 3 feet away from the source of radiation
- 8.The student nurse is administering cisplatin to a patient. What action would required intervention by the experienced nurse?
- A.
The student assess to see if the IV is patent on the dorsal aspect of the R hand before administering the medication
- B.
The student identified the medication as a vesicant
- C.
The student reviews the policy and procedure about antidotes before administration
- D.
The nurse administers zofran before the infusion because it causes nausea and vomiting
- 9.A client receiving chemotherapy starts to complain about severe itching and rash 20 minutes after initiation. What should the nurses initial action be?
- A.
Administer doxorubicin
- B.
Quickly medicate with prednisone and benadryl
- C.
Stop the infusion immediately
- D.
Administer ondansetron, discontinue the infusion, and notify the physician
- 10.A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with a diagnosis of Impaired Mucous Membranes r/t cancer treatment. SELECT ALL the appropriate interventions for this patient
- A.
Assist the patient with normal saline mouth rinses
- B.
Brushing the teeth with a stiff brush 3 times a day
- C.
Provide with bland, room temperature meals
- D.
Commercial mouth washes before and after meals
- 11.A few weeks after starting whole brain radiation, a female patient in her early 30's notices that her hair is falling out. She starts to cry and tells the nurse she feels ugly now. What can the nurse do to assist the patient to cope?
- A.
Show the patient pictures of bald women on the internet to normalize her appearance
- B.
Assist the patient in exploring her feelings and locating wig and turban shops
- C.
Explaining the hair will grow back soon
- D.
Tell the patient shaving her head will be better for her image before it all falls out
- 12.Which WBC does the nurse know is the first to respond at the site where inflammation occurs?
- A.
Eosinophils
- B.
Basophils
- C.
Neutrophils
- D.
Granulocytes
- 13.A child gets a MMR vaccine at a well baby visit. What type of immunity does the child have?
- A.
Acquired Immunity
- B.
Passive Immunity
- C.
Natural Immunity
- D.
Nonspecific Immunity
- 14.Which cells are associated with cellular response to viral, fungal, and parasitic infections?
- A.
B cells
- B.
RBC
- C.
Humoral Response
- D.
T cells
- 15.Which immunoglobulin protects against respiratory and GI infections
- A.
IgM
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgG
- D.
IgE
- 16.This immunoglobulin crosses the placenta and assumes a major role in bloodborne and tissue infections
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgE
- 17.Which immunoglobulin appears as the first produced in response to bacterial and viral infections?
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgE
- 18.This immunoglobulin takes part in allergic and hypersensitive reactions
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgE
- 19.During the assessment of a patient with suspected immune system dysfunction, what assessments by the nurse are important in gathering information about the chief complaint? SATA
- A.
Inquiring about allergies
- B.
Asking about sexual preference
- C.
Asking about infection history and immunization history
- D.
Asking about use of antibiotics, steroids, and NSAIDS
- 20.Which of the following does the nurse recognize as warning signs of primary immunodeficiency? SATA
- A.
2 ear infections in a calendar year
- B.
Family history of PI
- C.
3 sinus infections in one year
- D.
Persistent oral thrush infections
- E.
Pneumonia 1 time in the last 2 years
- 21.A patient with DiGeorge syndrome is receiving IVIG. Which of the following would the nurse recognize as a problem?
- A.
It is infusing at 150 ml/hr
- B.
Complaint of flank and back pain, chills, and fever
- C.
BUN 18
- D.
The other nurse gave the patient acetaminophen and diphenhydramine 30 minutes for the scheduled infusion
- 22.A patient with HIV has developed PCP. What does the nurse infer from this new diagnosis?
- A.
The CD4 count is likely >500
- B.
The viral load is likely low
- C.
The patient has likely developed full blown AIDS
- D.
This is a common cancer affecting the skin of AIDS patients
- 23.When reviewing the laboratory data of a patient with HIV, the nurse sees that the CD4 count is 350. What stage does the nurse identify this patient is in?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3 (AIDS)
- D.
Unknown
- 24.Which statement by the patient requires further education when discussing AIDS prevention and transmission?
- A.
Sharing needles contributes to HIV and AIDS
- B.
I should always wear a latex condom during all sexual activity
- C.
AIDS can be transmitted through casual contact
- D.
Infants can get infected while in utero, during birth, after birth, and during breastfeeding
- 25.The nurse sustains a needle stick while recapping a needle from a patient with an unconfirmed HIV status. What is the nurses initial action?
- A.
Give consent for testing
- B.
Notify the supervisor
- C.
Start post exposure prophylaxis
- D.
Document the exposure
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