HIV, AIDS, Cancer, And Immune NCLEX Quiz Questions

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HIV, AIDS, Cancer, And Immune NCLEX Quiz Questions - Quiz

Are you a medical student or a person who is studying medicines? Here are some HIV, AIDS, cancer, and immune NCLEX quiz questions to see how well you understand. There are a few questions for you to refresh your memory and brain and have a self-assessment of your knowledge. We wish you the best of luck with this test and hope you score as much as you can. Let's go!.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which would the nurse be identifying as properties of a malignant tumor?

    • A.

      Low rate of growth

    • B.

      Undifferentiated cells

    • C.

      Does not gain access to blood and lymphatic channels to metastasize

    • D.

      Grows by expansion and does not infiltrate

    Correct Answer
    B. Undifferentiated cells
    Explanation
    The nurse would be identifying undifferentiated cells as properties of a malignant tumor. In contrast to benign tumors, malignant tumors are characterized by cells that are not well-differentiated or specialized. This means that the cells do not have the normal structure and function of the tissue they originated from. Undifferentiated cells are a hallmark of malignancy and contribute to the aggressive nature of malignant tumors, as they can rapidly divide and invade surrounding tissues.

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  • 2. 

    Which medication would the patient be given with AIDS prior to meals that need appetite stimulation?

    • A.

      Adipex

    • B.

      Megestrol Acetate

    • C.

      Demerol

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Megestrol Acetate
    Explanation
    Megestrol Acetate is the correct answer because it is a medication commonly prescribed to patients with AIDS to stimulate their appetite prior to meals. This medication helps to improve food intake and promote weight gain in individuals who may be experiencing a loss of appetite due to their condition. Adipex is a weight loss medication, Demerol is a painkiller, and none of these options would specifically address the appetite stimulation needs of a patient with AIDS.

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  • 3. 

    Which immunoglobulin comes as the first produced in response to bacterial and viral infections?

    • A.

      IgG

    • B.

      IgA

    • C.

      IgM

    • D.

      IgE

    Correct Answer
    C. IgM
    Explanation
    IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced in response to bacterial and viral infections. It is the largest immunoglobulin and is primarily found in the bloodstream. IgM is responsible for activating the complement system, which helps to eliminate pathogens. It is produced in the early stages of an immune response and is eventually replaced by other immunoglobulins such as IgG.

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  • 4. 

    Which of these takes its part in allergic and hypersensitive reactions?

    • A.

      IgG

    • B.

      IgA

    • C.

      IgM

    • D.

      IgE

    Correct Answer
    D. IgE
    Explanation
    IgE takes part in allergic and hypersensitive reactions. It is an immunoglobulin that is responsible for triggering allergic responses, such as asthma, hay fever, and hives. IgE binds to allergens and activates immune cells, leading to the release of inflammatory substances like histamine. This causes the symptoms associated with allergies and hypersensitivity reactions.

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  • 5. 

    Which WBC is the first to respond where inflammation occurs?

    • A.

      Eosinophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Neutrophils

    • D.

      Granulocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are the first white blood cells to respond in cases of inflammation. They are part of the body's innate immune response and are quickly recruited to the site of inflammation. Neutrophils are highly mobile and are capable of engulfing and destroying bacteria and other pathogens. They release various chemicals and enzymes that help to eliminate the infection and promote tissue healing. Their rapid response and ability to phagocytose pathogens make them crucial in the early stages of inflammation.

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  • 6. 

    At a well-baby visit, a child gets an MMR vaccine. The child has what type of immunity?

    • A.

      Acquired Immunity

    • B.

      Passive Immunity

    • C.

      Natural Immunity

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquired Immunity
    Explanation
    Acquired immunity is the correct answer because the MMR vaccine is designed to stimulate the body's immune system to produce a response against the measles, mumps, and rubella viruses. This response leads to the production of specific antibodies and memory cells that provide long-term protection against these diseases. This type of immunity is acquired through vaccination or exposure to the actual pathogens, as opposed to natural immunity which is obtained through natural infection, or passive immunity which is temporary and acquired through the transfer of antibodies from another source.

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  • 7. 

    Which cells are related to cellular response to viral, fungal, and also parasitic infections?

    • A.

      B cells

    • B.

      RBC

    • C.

      Humoral Response

    • D.

      T cells

    Correct Answer
    D. T cells
    Explanation
    T cells are related to cellular response to viral, fungal, and parasitic infections. T cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They can recognize and destroy infected cells, including those infected by viruses, fungi, and parasites. T cells also help in activating other immune cells and regulating the immune response. B cells, on the other hand, are responsible for producing antibodies as part of the humoral response, which is another arm of the immune system. RBCs (red blood cells) do not play a direct role in the cellular response to infections.

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  • 8. 

    This protects against respiratory and GI infections.

    • A.

      IgM

    • B.

      IgA

    • C.

      IgG

    • D.

      IgE

    Correct Answer
    B. IgA
    Explanation
    IgA is the correct answer because it is an immunoglobulin that plays a crucial role in protecting against respiratory and gastrointestinal (GI) infections. IgA is found in high concentrations in the mucosal linings of the respiratory tract and the gastrointestinal tract, where it helps to neutralize pathogens and prevent their entry into the body. It is particularly effective in defending against infections caused by viruses and bacteria that enter through these routes. IgA also provides passive immunity to infants through breast milk, further protecting them against respiratory and GI infections.

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  • 9. 

    A nurse completes patient education for a 10-year-old girl who has multiple allergies about self-administration of epinephrine. Where would the nurse guide the patient to inject the EpiPen?

    • A.

      Dorsogluteal

    • B.

      Deltoid

    • C.

      Outer thigh

    • D.

      Lower abdomen

    Correct Answer
    C. Outer thigh
    Explanation
    The nurse would guide the patient to inject the EpiPen into the outer thigh. This is the recommended site for self-administration of epinephrine because it has a large muscle mass and is easily accessible. Injecting into the outer thigh allows for quick absorption of the medication and can help to treat severe allergic reactions effectively.

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  • 10. 

    This immunoglobulin crosses the placenta and assumes a major role in bloodborne and tissue infections.

    • A.

      IgG

    • B.

      IgA

    • C.

      IgM

    • D.

      IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is the correct answer because it is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta. It plays a major role in providing immunity to the fetus during pregnancy, as well as in fighting against bloodborne and tissue infections. IgA, IgM, and IgE do not cross the placenta and have different functions in the immune system.

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  • 11. 

    What clinical manifestations does a nurse recognize as common for RA? SATA?

    • A.

      Joint swelling

    • B.

      Absence of joint pain

    • C.

      Fatigue

    • D.

      Limited movement

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Joint swelling
    C. Fatigue
    D. Limited movement
    Explanation
    The nurse recognizes joint swelling as a common clinical manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) because inflammation of the joints is a characteristic feature of this condition. Fatigue is also commonly observed in patients with RA, as the body's immune response and chronic inflammation can lead to overall tiredness and lack of energy. Limited movement is another common symptom, as RA can cause joint stiffness and difficulty in performing daily activities. However, the absence of joint pain is not a typical manifestation of RA, as pain and discomfort in the affected joints are commonly experienced by patients.

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  • 12. 

    ______ is characteristic of SLE.

    • A.

      Butterfly rash

    • B.

      Cardiac issues

    • C.

      Renal issues

    • D.

      Joint pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Butterfly rash
    Explanation
    A characteristic of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is a butterfly rash. This rash appears on the face, particularly on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, resembling the shape of a butterfly. It is a common symptom of SLE and is often triggered by exposure to sunlight. The rash can be red or pink in color and may be accompanied by other symptoms such as skin sensitivity or itching. Therefore, the presence of a butterfly rash is indicative of SLE.

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  • 13. 

    What nursing diagnosis is gonna be most important for a 22-year-old female patient who has scleroderma?

    • A.

      Acute Pain

    • B.

      Impaired Body Image

    • C.

      Risk for injury

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Impaired Body Image
    Explanation
    Scleroderma is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the skin and connective tissues, causing hardening and tightening. It often leads to changes in physical appearance, such as skin thickening and tightness, which can significantly impact body image. Therefore, the most important nursing diagnosis for a 22-year-old female patient with scleroderma would be Impaired Body Image. This diagnosis acknowledges the psychological and emotional distress that may arise from the visible physical changes associated with the disease, and the need for interventions to support the patient's self-esteem and body acceptance.

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  • 14. 

    For a patient with gout, these items on the lunch would be inappropriate.

    • A.

      Baked tilapia and brown rice

    • B.

      Chicken salad with oranges

    • C.

      Grilled salmon with green beans

    • D.

      Medium-well steak, roasted red potatoes, kale salad, and pork BBQ

    Correct Answer
    D. Medium-well steak, roasted red potatoes, kale salad, and pork BBQ
    Explanation
    The lunch item that would be inappropriate for a patient with gout is the medium-well steak, roasted red potatoes, kale salad, and pork BBQ. Gout is a form of arthritis caused by excess uric acid in the blood, and certain foods high in purines can trigger gout attacks. Red meat, such as steak and pork, is high in purines and can increase uric acid levels. Additionally, organ meats like pork BBQ are also high in purines. Therefore, this meal would not be suitable for a patient with gout.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 26, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 22, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Kblackburn0021

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