Health Insurance - Nc

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1. Medicare Part A, begins automatically at age:

Explanation

Medicare Part A begins automatically at age 65. This is the age at which most individuals become eligible for Medicare benefits. Medicare Part A covers hospital insurance and helps to pay for inpatient hospital stays, skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and some home health care services. It is important for individuals to enroll in Medicare Part A around their 65th birthday to ensure they have coverage when they become eligible.

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About This Quiz
North Carolina Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz focuses on key regulatory aspects of health insurance in North Carolina, assessing knowledge on policy replacement, agent licensing, penalties for non-compliance, disability income policies, coordination-of-benefits, and... see morefraud investigation. It is crucial for professionals in the insurance sector. see less

2. An insurer organized under the laws of the State of North Carolina is a:

Explanation

A domestic insurer refers to an insurance company that is organized and operates under the laws of a specific state. In this case, the insurer is organized under the laws of the State of North Carolina, making it a domestic insurer.

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3. FYI Company's employee is injured while driving in the employ of the company.  Coverage for the employee comes from:

Explanation

When an employee is injured while driving in the employ of the company, the coverage for the employee comes from the company's Workers Compensation policy. Workers Compensation insurance provides benefits to employees who are injured or become ill as a result of their job. It covers medical expenses, lost wages, and rehabilitation costs for the injured employee. General Liability insurance typically covers third-party claims for bodily injury or property damage, while the employee's health policy only covers personal medical expenses unrelated to work. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is FYI's Workers Compensation.

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4. COBRA applies to employers with at least:

Explanation

The correct answer is 20 employees because the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) requires employers with at least 20 employees to offer continued health insurance coverage to employees and their dependents after they lose their job or experience a reduction in work hours. COBRA allows individuals to maintain the same level of coverage they had while employed, but they must pay the full premium themselves.

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5. The department responsible for evaluation, selection and distribution of risks is:

Explanation

The underwriting department is responsible for evaluating, selecting, and distributing risks. They assess the potential risks associated with insurance policies and determine the appropriate premiums to charge. This department plays a crucial role in ensuring that the insurance company maintains a profitable portfolio by carefully analyzing and managing risks.

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6. Relevant to health insurance, morbidity includes all of the following except:

Explanation

Morbidity refers to the occurrence of illness or disease in a population. In the context of health insurance, it is used to assess the risk of an individual or group developing a particular health condition. Factors such as income, sex, and age can influence morbidity rates as they may impact access to healthcare, prevalence of certain diseases, and overall health status. However, intelligence is not typically considered a factor in determining morbidity as it does not directly affect the likelihood of developing a disease or illness.

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7. What does it mean if an agent's license is inactive ?

Explanation

If an agent's license is inactive, it means that the agent is not authorized to transact any insurance business for which a license is required. This means that the agent cannot legally sell or provide insurance services until their license is reactivated.

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8. Which part has rights in a policy only after the death of the insured ?

Explanation

The beneficiary is the person who has rights in a policy only after the death of the insured. They are the individual or entity designated by the policy owner to receive the benefits or proceeds from the insurance policy upon the insured's death. The beneficiary does not have any rights or access to the policy while the insured is still alive.

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9. In accidental death and dismemberment insurance, which of the following would not be considered accidental ?

Explanation

The employee requiring abdominal surgery after food poisoning in the lunch room would not be considered accidental because food poisoning is typically not considered an accidental event. Accidental events usually involve unexpected and unintentional incidents, such as injuries caused by falling objects, severing a hand while working, or falling from a height. Food poisoning, on the other hand, is generally caused by consuming contaminated food and is not typically considered an accidental event.

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10. Which two are Activities of Daily Living?

Explanation

Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) are basic self-care tasks that individuals perform on a daily basis to maintain their personal hygiene and independence. Eating and dressing are two examples of ADLs as they involve essential tasks related to nourishment and maintaining personal appearance. These activities are fundamental for individuals to meet their basic needs and carry out their daily routines.

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11. A failure to communicate information which a party to an insurance contract knows and should communicate, is called an act of:

Explanation

Concealment refers to the act of intentionally withholding or not disclosing important information that a party to an insurance contract knows and should communicate. This can include not revealing previous medical conditions, prior accidents, or other relevant details that could affect the insurance coverage or premiums. Concealment can lead to the denial of a claim or the cancellation of the insurance policy.

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12. An individual license is considered terminated:

Explanation

When an individual license is terminated, it means that it is no longer valid or in effect. In this case, the correct answer is "On the death of the licensee." This means that if the person who holds the license passes away, the license is considered terminated and no longer valid. This could be due to legal requirements or the need to transfer the license to another person or entity after the licensee's death.

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13. How is the Insurance Commissioner selected ?

Explanation

The Insurance Commissioner is selected through an election by the people. This means that the citizens of the state have the opportunity to vote for their preferred candidate for the position of Insurance Commissioner. This democratic process allows for the Commissioner to be chosen based on the will and choice of the people, ensuring that the position is held by someone who has gained the trust and support of the public.

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14. A policy is returned to the insurer within 10 days of the date the policy is delivered.  How much of the premium is returned to the applicant ?

Explanation

If a policy is returned to the insurer within 10 days of its delivery, the applicant is entitled to a full refund of the premium paid. This means that 100% of the premium will be returned to the applicant in this scenario.

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15. When a claimant is covered by more than one plan the situation is resolved through:

Explanation

Coordination of benefits is the process used to determine the order in which multiple insurance plans will pay for a claim when a claimant is covered by more than one plan. This ensures that the claimant does not receive more than 100% of the total eligible expenses. The primary plan, typically the plan in which the claimant is enrolled as the primary policyholder, pays first, and the secondary plan pays any remaining expenses up to its coverage limits. This process helps prevent overpayment and ensures fair distribution of benefits among the multiple insurance plans.

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16. Any transaction that involves purchasing an insurance policy and terminating an existing policy is known as:

Explanation

Replacement refers to the transaction where an individual purchases a new insurance policy to replace an existing policy. This typically occurs when the policyholder wants to switch to a different insurance provider or obtain a new policy with better terms or coverage. The existing policy is terminated and replaced with the new one. This process is commonly done to ensure that the policyholder has the most suitable insurance coverage for their needs.

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17. Twelve months ago, a man slipped and fell down a flight of stairs at his workplace.  As a result he has a paralysis for which he is not expected to recover.  This 46 year old person will probably be able to collect disability income benefits from:

Explanation

The man in the scenario slipped and fell down a flight of stairs at his workplace, resulting in paralysis. Since this injury occurred at his workplace, he will likely be able to collect disability income benefits from Workers Compensation. Workers Compensation is a form of insurance that provides benefits to employees who are injured or become ill as a result of their job. It covers medical expenses, rehabilitation costs, and a portion of lost wages for the injured worker.

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18. An insurer owned by policyholders is:

Explanation

A mutual insurer is an insurance company that is owned by its policyholders. This means that the policyholders are also considered the owners of the company and have a say in its operations and decision-making processes. In a mutual insurer, any profits made by the company are typically distributed back to the policyholders in the form of dividends or reduced premiums. This ownership structure is different from a capital stock insurer, where ownership is held by shareholders, and a fraternal insurer, which is a type of mutual insurer that operates on a nonprofit basis. A reciprocal exchange is a different type of insurance organization where policyholders exchange insurance contracts with one another.

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19. The main master policy owner of a group health insurance contract is the:

Explanation

The main master policy owner of a group health insurance contract is the employer. This means that the employer is responsible for purchasing and maintaining the group health insurance policy for their employees. The employer typically negotiates the terms and coverage options with the insurance provider and pays the premiums on behalf of the employees. The employer also has the authority to make changes to the policy and add or remove employees from the coverage.

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20. Terminally ill persons would need which of the following ?

Explanation

Terminally ill persons would need hospice care because it is a type of care that focuses on providing comfort and support to individuals who are nearing the end of their life. Hospice care aims to improve the quality of life for patients and their families by addressing their physical, emotional, and spiritual needs. It involves a multidisciplinary team of healthcare professionals who work together to manage pain, provide symptom relief, and offer emotional support. Hospice care can be provided in various settings, including the patient's home, a hospice facility, or a hospital.

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21. Under a disability insurance policy, an insured is eligible for a waiver of premium benefit:

Explanation

The correct answer is "After the first six months of disability." This means that the insured will be eligible for a waiver of premium benefit only after they have been disabled for at least six months. This benefit allows the insured to stop paying premiums for their disability insurance policy while they are disabled, providing financial relief during this period.

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22. All of the following are valid reasons for the Insurance Commissioner to suspend or revoke the applicant for an insurance license, except:

Explanation

The Insurance Commissioner may suspend or revoke an applicant's insurance license for various reasons, including being refused a license in another state, willfully misrepresenting insurance policy provisions, and mishandling funds received during insurance transactions. However, reporting a change of address to the Commissioner in 8 days is not a valid reason for suspension or revocation.

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23. Which of the following requires a reporting company to respond to a consumer's complaint that his file contains inaccurate information ?

Explanation

The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires a reporting company to respond to a consumer's complaint that his file contains inaccurate information. This act is designed to promote accuracy, fairness, and privacy of consumer information held by reporting companies. It gives consumers the right to dispute inaccurate information in their credit reports and requires reporting companies to investigate and correct any errors.

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24. An insurance company pays claims after a self-insured, specified limit has been reached.  This is:

Explanation

Stop-loss coverage is a type of insurance that protects an insurance company from excessive losses by limiting the amount they have to pay out in claims. In this scenario, the insurance company will only pay claims once a self-insured, specified limit has been reached. This means that the company will not have to pay for claims below this limit, reducing their financial risk. Stop-loss coverage is commonly used by self-insured employers or groups to protect themselves from large and unexpected claims expenses.

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25. What does the Insurance Commissioner have the right to do if an agent lacks authority from an insurer named on a binder for coverage ?

Explanation

The Insurance Commissioner has the right to suspend or revoke the license of an agent if they lack authority from an insurer named on a binder for coverage. This means that if an agent is not authorized by the insurer to provide coverage, the Insurance Commissioner can take action against them by suspending or revoking their license. This is done to ensure that only authorized agents are selling insurance and to protect consumers from unauthorized or fraudulent practices.

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26. The policy provision which prevents an insurer from voiding a policy for misstatements after 2 years is:

Explanation

Incontestability is the correct answer because it is a policy provision that prevents an insurer from voiding a policy for misstatements after a specific period of time, usually 2 years. This provision is designed to protect policyholders from having their coverage revoked based on innocent or unintentional misrepresentations made when applying for the policy. After the incontestability period expires, the insurer cannot use misstatements as a reason to cancel the policy or deny claims.

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27. In order to deal with the financial consequences of the death of a senior sales manager, a corporation could purchase:

Explanation

Key person insurance is a type of life insurance policy that a corporation can purchase to protect itself financially in the event of the death of a key employee, such as a senior sales manager. This insurance policy provides the company with funds to cover the financial losses that may occur due to the absence of the key employee, such as lost revenue, recruitment and training costs for a replacement, and potential business disruptions. It helps the company to continue its operations smoothly and minimize the financial impact of losing a key member of the team.

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28. A single deductible amount for all members of the same family and a right to single family member deductibles is known as:

Explanation

A family deductible refers to a single deductible amount that applies to all members of the same family. This means that once the total amount of medical expenses for the family reaches the deductible, the insurance coverage kicks in. It provides the right to single family member deductibles, meaning that if an individual within the family incurs medical expenses that meet their own deductible amount, their coverage will also begin. This type of deductible is beneficial for families as it allows them to pool their medical expenses together and reach the deductible faster.

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29. The mathematical rule that says that as the number of individual but similar exposure units increases the easier it is to predict losses is which of the following ?

Explanation

The law of large numbers is a mathematical rule that states that as the number of individual but similar exposure units increases, it becomes easier to predict losses. This means that by increasing the sample size, the average outcome becomes more predictable and stable. In the context of insurance, this principle allows insurers to accurately estimate the probability of losses occurring and set appropriate premiums.

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30. The Federal Act that is designed to protect group plan participants, establish pension equality, and mandates strict reporting and disclosure requirements is:

Explanation

ERISA stands for the Employee Retirement Income Security Act. It is a federal act that aims to protect participants in group retirement plans, such as pensions and 401(k) plans. ERISA ensures that employees receive the benefits they are entitled to and establishes rules for plan administration, fiduciary responsibilities, and reporting and disclosure requirements. This act plays a crucial role in promoting pension equality and transparency in the management of employee retirement plans.

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31. A feature of the Self-Insured (Self-Funded) Plan is :

Explanation

The feature of a Self-Insured (Self-Funded) Plan is that claims are paid out of their own funds instead of funding claims through an insurer. This means that the company takes on the financial risk of paying for their employees' healthcare expenses instead of relying on an insurance company to cover those costs. This can be advantageous for large companies or entrepreneurs who have the financial resources to manage and pay for these claims directly. Additionally, this type of plan typically does not require evidence of insurability, meaning employees do not need to provide proof of their health status to be eligible for coverage.

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32. How much continuing education is an agent required to complete ?

Explanation

Agents are required to complete 24 hours of continuing education every two years, which is equivalent to one biennial year. This means that they are not required to complete continuing education on an annual basis, but rather every two years.

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33. Usually, in order to join a group insurance plan without proving insurability, an employee must:

Explanation

To join a group insurance plan without proving insurability, an employee must join the plan during the enrollment period. This is the designated time period when employees are allowed to enroll in the group insurance plan. Joining the plan while eligible but after the enrollment period, during the probationary period, or during the elimination period would not guarantee the employee's eligibility without proving insurability. Therefore, joining during the enrollment period is the correct answer.

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34. In group insurance the Certificates of Insurance are issued to:

Explanation

The Certificates of Insurance are issued to the group members in group insurance. This is because the certificates serve as proof of coverage for each individual member within the group. By issuing the certificates to the group members, they have access to the necessary information regarding their insurance coverage and can utilize it when needed. The group sponsor, employer, and plan administrator may also have access to this information, but the primary recipients are the group members themselves.

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35. What happens to a license after the death of a natural person who holds a valid insurance license?

Explanation

After the death of a natural person who holds a valid insurance license, the license always terminates. This means that the license is no longer valid and cannot be transferred to another person. The death of the license holder automatically cancels the license and it cannot be used by anyone else.

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36. Which of the following would be considered a morale risk ?

Explanation

The insured driving too fast can be considered a morale risk because it reflects a lack of responsibility and disregard for safety. This behavior can have negative consequences, such as accidents or violations, which can impact the insured's reputation and potentially lead to higher insurance premiums. It also indicates a potential lack of judgment and self-control, which can be seen as a character flaw and affect the insured's overall trustworthiness.

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37. Deductibles, coinsurance, and co-payments in a health insurance policy are cost-effective choices that have the effect of:

Explanation

Deductibles, coinsurance, and co-payments in a health insurance policy are cost-effective choices that have the effect of cost sharing. This means that the policyholder and the insurance company share the costs of healthcare expenses. The policyholder pays a portion of the costs through deductibles, coinsurance, and co-payments, while the insurance company covers the remaining portion. This sharing of costs helps to reduce the financial burden on both the policyholder and the insurance company, making it a cost-effective option for managing healthcare expenses.

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38. In managed care, the members' choice of providers is most restrictive in which of he following type of plan ?

Explanation

In managed care, the members' choice of providers is most restrictive in an HMO (Health Maintenance Organization) plan. HMOs typically require members to choose a primary care physician (PCP) who acts as a gatekeeper for all healthcare services. Referrals from the PCP are usually necessary for seeing specialists or receiving specialized care. Additionally, HMOs often have a limited network of providers, and coverage may be limited or nonexistent for out-of-network services. This level of restriction on provider choice distinguishes HMOs from other types of managed care plans like PPOs (Preferred Provider Organizations) or Point of Service plans.

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39. Under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), a qualifying event insures that an employee who is covered can:

Explanation

Under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), a qualifying event allows an employee who is covered by health insurance to choose to continue their coverage. This means that even if the employee's employment status changes, such as through termination, they have the option to maintain their health insurance benefits for a certain period of time. This ensures that the employee and their dependents can still have access to healthcare even after leaving their job.

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40. Supplemental insurance used to pay for hospital confinement to treat a cancer is also known as:

Explanation

Dread disease insurance refers to supplemental insurance that is specifically designed to cover the expenses related to hospital confinement for the treatment of a specific illness, such as cancer. This type of insurance provides financial support to individuals diagnosed with a critical illness and helps cover the costs of medical treatments, hospital stays, and other related expenses. It is commonly referred to as dread disease insurance because it provides coverage for specific diseases that are often feared due to their severity and potential impact on a person's life.

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41. After an insurance policy has been in effect for two years, what keeps it from being rescinded by the insurer ?

Explanation

The incontestability clause prevents the insurer from rescinding the insurance policy after it has been in effect for two years. This clause essentially states that after this time period, the insurer cannot contest or challenge the validity of the policy based on any misrepresentations or omissions made by the insured during the application process. It provides a level of protection for the policyholder, ensuring that once the policy has been in force for two years, the insurer cannot cancel or void it based on any previous discrepancies.

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42. According to the code, all insurers must maintain a department to investigate:

Explanation

The code states that all insurers are required to have a department to investigate possible fraudulent claims from insureds. This means that insurers must have a specific team or division dedicated to examining and looking into any suspicious or potentially deceitful claims made by their policyholders. This is important to ensure that insurers can identify and prevent any fraudulent activities that may occur within their insured population, thereby protecting the integrity of the insurance system.

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43. Senior citizens are given a 30 day free look to view a policy: 

Explanation

The 30-day free look period is a feature of Medicare Supplement Insurance (Medigap) policies. When a senior citizen turns 65 and enrolls in Medicare Part B, they become eligible to purchase a Medigap policy. During the 30-day free look period, they can review their policy, determine whether it meets their needs, and if not, cancel the policy and receive a full refund. This 30-day free look period is specific to Medigap policies for individuals who are 65 years of age or older and not for those under individual or group plans or at age 60 or older.

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44. If the Commissioner issues a Notice of Seizure for documents and the individual fails to send those documents what is the penalty?

Explanation

If an individual fails to send the documents after receiving a Notice of Seizure from the Commissioner, the penalty is a possible combination of 1 year in jail and/or a $1,000 fine. This means that the individual may be sentenced to serve up to 1 year in jail, or they may be required to pay a fine of $1,000, or they may face both penalties depending on the decision of the court. The severity of the penalty is determined by the court based on the specific circumstances of the case.

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45. What would a person be guilty of who refuses to submit books and records to the commissioner ?

Explanation

A person who refuses to submit books and records to the commissioner would be guilty of a misdemeanor. This means that they have committed a minor criminal offense, which is less serious than a felony. Refusing to provide books and records to the commissioner could be seen as obstructing an investigation or withholding important information, which is generally considered a punishable offense.

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46. Which of the following are common insurance policy provisions?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Entire contract, grace period, reinstatement." These are common insurance policy provisions. The entire contract provision states that the policy and any attached endorsements constitute the entire agreement between the insured and the insurer. The grace period provision allows the insured a specified period of time after the premium due date to make payment without the policy lapsing. The reinstatement provision allows the insured to reinstate a lapsed policy by paying any outstanding premiums and meeting any other requirements set by the insurer.

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47. Who has the right to change life insurance policy beneficiaries ?

Explanation

The policyholder has the right to change life insurance policy beneficiaries. As the owner of the policy, they have the authority to make changes to the beneficiaries listed on the policy. This allows them to update or remove beneficiaries as needed, ensuring that the policy reflects their current wishes and circumstances. The policyholder has the power to make decisions regarding who will receive the life insurance benefits upon their death.

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48. Under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconsolidation Act (COBRA), which of the folowing is a qualifying event ?

Explanation

Under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), a qualifying event refers to certain life events that may cause an individual to lose their health insurance coverage. Divorce is considered a qualifying event as it often leads to a change in marital status, which can result in the loss of health insurance coverage provided by a spouse's employer.

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49. If one were to receive the principal sum benefit of death in a disability policy, the death must occur:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Within a specified number of days after injury occurs." This means that in order for the policyholder to receive the principal sum benefit of death in a disability policy, the death must happen within a certain timeframe after the injury occurs. This indicates that there is a time limit for the death to be considered related to the injury and be eligible for the benefit.

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50. All of the following would be considered unfair trade practices, except:

Explanation

Making a recommendation to the customer after consulting on his/her needs would not be considered an unfair trade practice. This action is a normal part of the insurance business and is expected when providing services to customers. However, the other options listed in the question, such as making untrue or misleading statements, filing false financial statements, and misrepresenting policy terms, are all examples of unfair trade practices as they involve dishonesty and deception.

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51. All of the following would be considered unfair claim practices, except:

Explanation

Directly advising a claimant to obtain the services of an attorney would not be considered an unfair claim practice. While the other options mentioned involve unfair practices such as failing to acknowledge communications, misrepresenting policy provisions, and delaying coverage decisions, advising a claimant to seek legal representation is not inherently unfair. In fact, it can be seen as a helpful suggestion to ensure the claimant's rights are protected and they receive proper legal guidance during the claims process.

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52. Certain healthcare providers are called "service type providers".  This means:

Explanation

"Service type providers" refers to healthcare providers who receive direct payments for the services they provide. This means that when patients receive medical treatment or services from these providers, they are responsible for making payments directly to the provider, rather than the payments being made to the insured individual. This distinguishes service type providers from other types of healthcare providers where payments may be made through insurance companies or other intermediaries.

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53. Statements in the application or policy that are guaranteed true in all aspects are considered:

Explanation

An warranty is the correct answer because it refers to statements in the application or policy that are guaranteed true in all aspects. A warranty is a promise or guarantee made by the insurer to the insured that certain statements or conditions are true. It provides assurance to the insured that the information provided is accurate and the policy will cover the stated risks or benefits.

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54. Unless it is merely a statement of an expectation or a belief, a representation as to the future is considered which of the following ?

Explanation

A representation as to the future is considered a promise. A promise is a statement or assurance made by one party to another, indicating that they will do or not do something in the future. It implies a commitment to fulfill the stated expectation or belief. In this context, the representation as to the future is not just a description or provision, but a promise of a future action or outcome.

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55. The purchase of an insurance policy may not provide one of the following for the insured.  Select the most complete answer:

Explanation

The purchase of an insurance policy cannot eliminate the risk completely. Insurance policies are designed to provide financial protection in the event of a loss, but they do not eliminate the possibility of that loss occurring. Instead, insurance policies help to mitigate the financial impact of a loss by providing compensation or coverage. Therefore, while insurance can reduce uncertainty, provide peace of mind, and replace a large possible loss with a small certain loss, it cannot eliminate the risk entirely.

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56. Physicians and surgeons services, whether provided in a hospital, or elsewhere:

Explanation

Physicians and surgeons services are covered by Medicare Part B. This means that Medicare will pay for a portion of the cost of these services, but there will still be a charge for the coverage. Medicare Part B is the portion of Medicare that covers outpatient services, such as doctor visits and medical procedures. While Medicare Part A covers hospital stays, it does not cover physicians and surgeons services. Therefore, the correct answer is that these services are covered by Medicare Part B with a charge for the coverage.

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57. HMOs are involved in all of the following, except:

Explanation

HMOs, or Health Maintenance Organizations, are involved in controlling costs by encouraging preventative care, providing health care services, and providing health care financial coverage. However, they do not emphasize the use of specialty physicians. HMOs typically focus on primary care physicians and may require referrals from primary care doctors before seeing a specialist. This approach helps to manage costs and ensure that patients receive appropriate and necessary care.

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58. Which is the most expensive LTC policy ?

Explanation

The most expensive LTC policy is the one with a 14 day elimination period and a 5 year benefit period. The elimination period refers to the waiting period before the policy starts paying benefits, and a shorter elimination period typically results in a higher premium. The benefit period refers to the length of time the policy will pay benefits, and a longer benefit period also usually leads to a higher premium. Therefore, the combination of a shorter elimination period and a longer benefit period would generally result in a higher cost for the policy.

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59. Which of the following is not a standard level of care for a LTC policy ?

Explanation

Convalescent care is not a standard level of care for a long-term care (LTC) policy. Convalescent care typically refers to the care provided to individuals who are recovering from an illness or surgery and need assistance with activities of daily living during the recovery period. In contrast, standard levels of care for LTC policies include intermediate care, which provides assistance with daily activities and supervision, custodial care, which includes assistance with activities of daily living, and skilled nursing care, which involves medical care provided by licensed healthcare professionals.

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60. If a person gives an erroneous statement on an application unintentionarlly, this is:

Explanation

If a person gives an erroneous statement on an application unintentionally, it is considered false. The term "false" refers to something that is not true or accurate. In this context, it means that the person made a mistake or provided incorrect information on the application without any intention to deceive or commit fraud.

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61. Insurer and the insured share covered losses.  This is called:

Explanation

Coinsurance refers to a situation where both the insurer and the insured share the covered losses. In this arrangement, the insured pays a certain percentage of the covered losses out of pocket, while the insurer covers the remaining percentage. This helps in spreading the risk between the two parties and ensures that both have a financial stake in the insurance policy.

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62. A disability income policy covers injuries suffered by an insured on or off the job is called?

Explanation

An occupational policy is a type of disability income policy that provides coverage for injuries suffered by an insured individual both on and off the job. This means that the policyholder will receive benefits in the event of a disability caused by an injury, regardless of whether the injury occurred in the workplace or outside of it. This type of policy is specifically designed to protect individuals who may be at risk of injury in their occupation, providing them with financial support in case of disability.

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63. The type of healthcare provider that provides both the healthcare services and healthcare coverage is called:

Explanation

A Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) is a type of healthcare provider that offers both healthcare services and healthcare coverage. HMOs typically have a network of healthcare providers that members must use in order to receive coverage. They focus on preventive care and typically require members to choose a primary care physician who coordinates their healthcare. HMOs may also require referrals from the primary care physician for specialty care. This model allows for coordinated and cost-effective care, as well as a focus on preventive measures.

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64. Each of the following terms is an important characteristic of a major medical policy, except:

Explanation

Capitation is not an important characteristic of a major medical policy. Capitation refers to a payment model where healthcare providers receive a fixed amount of money per patient, regardless of the services provided. This model is commonly used in managed care plans, such as Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs), but it is not a characteristic of major medical policies. Deductible, setting maximum amounts, and coinsurance, on the other hand, are important characteristics of major medical policies. Deductible is the amount a policyholder must pay out of pocket before the insurance coverage kicks in. Setting maximum amounts refers to the limits set by the insurance company on the amount they will pay for certain services. Coinsurance is the percentage of costs shared by the policyholder and the insurance company after the deductible has been met.

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65. Which of the following is not an example of cost sharing in a health insurance policy ?

Explanation

Coordination is not an example of cost sharing in a health insurance policy. Cost sharing refers to the portion of healthcare expenses that the insured individual is responsible for paying out of pocket. Coinsurance, co-payment, and deductible are all examples of cost sharing, where the insured individual contributes a certain percentage or fixed amount towards the cost of their healthcare services. However, coordination does not involve sharing the cost of healthcare expenses but rather refers to the process of managing and organizing healthcare services to ensure that they are provided efficiently and effectively.

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66. Which of the following may be offered by insurers providing Medicare supplement policies ?

Explanation

Insurers providing Medicare supplement policies may offer the core benefit plan without any additional benefits. This means that they provide coverage for the basic benefits that are not covered by Medicare, such as deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments. However, they do not offer any additional benefits beyond what is already provided by Medicare.

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67. A health insurance co-payment is:

Explanation

A health insurance co-payment is a payment made by the insured person directly to the healthcare provider at the time of receiving a service. This payment is separate from the insurance company's coverage and is usually a fixed amount or a percentage of the total service cost. It helps to share the cost burden between the insured individual and the insurance provider.

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68. Any person who diverts or misappropriates fiduciary funds is guilty of:

Explanation

If a person diverts or misappropriates fiduciary funds, they are guilty of theft. Theft refers to the act of taking someone else's property or funds without their permission or lawful authority. In this case, the person is unlawfully taking fiduciary funds, which are funds held in trust for another person or entity. By diverting or misappropriating these funds, the person is essentially stealing them, making theft the appropriate charge in this scenario.

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69. The likelihood of incurring disease or disability at any given time is:

Explanation

Morbidity refers to the state of being diseased or the incidence of disease in a population. It is a measure of the likelihood of incurring disease or disability at any given time. Therefore, the correct answer is Morbidity.

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70. The purpose of the North Carolina Life and Health Guaranty Association is:

Explanation

The purpose of the North Carolina Life and Health Guaranty Association is to protect life and health policy holders and/or insureds when member insurers become insolvent. This means that if an insurance company goes bankrupt and is unable to fulfill its obligations to policy holders, the Guaranty Association steps in to provide coverage and benefits to those policy holders, subject to certain limitations. This ensures that individuals who have purchased life and health insurance are still protected and their claims are honored, even if their insurance company fails.

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71. Which of the following is true regarding participation in a group health plan

Explanation

A non-contributory group health plan must involve all members because in this type of plan, the employer bears the entire cost of the plan and does not require any contributions from the employees. Therefore, it is mandatory for all eligible members to be included in the plan to ensure equal access to healthcare benefits for all employees.

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72. A person has a disability policy with the following definition of disability: "the inability to perform any occupation for which the insured is suited through education, training, experience or prior economic status". 

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Any occupation definition and is very restrictive." This is because the policy states that disability is defined as the inability to perform any occupation for which the insured is suited through education, training, experience, or prior economic status. This means that the insured would only be considered disabled if they are unable to perform any type of work that they are qualified for, making it a very restrictive definition.

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73. A person who acts in a capacity that requires an active license without having a valid license, is guilty of a:

Explanation

When a person acts in a capacity that requires an active license without actually having a valid license, they are guilty of a misdemeanor. A misdemeanor is a lesser criminal offense that is typically punishable by fines, probation, community service, or a short period of incarceration. This offense is considered less serious than a felony, which involves more severe punishments. In this case, the person is engaging in an illegal activity by misrepresenting their qualifications and is therefore guilty of a misdemeanor.

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74. Which of the following (recall) provisions of a disability contract is likely to change the contract least and cost the most ?

Explanation

A non-cancelable contract is likely to change the contract least and cost the most. This type of contract guarantees that the insurer cannot cancel or change the terms of the policy, including the premium, as long as the policyholder continues to pay the premiums on time. This provides the policyholder with stability and certainty in terms of coverage and premium rates. However, the cost of a non-cancelable contract is generally higher compared to other types of disability contracts due to the guaranteed benefits and protection it offers.

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75. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the social security (OASDHI) program ?

Explanation

The social security (OASDHI) program is designed to provide a minimum floor of income for retirees and is meant to supplement their own personal retirement program. This means that the program does not fully fund retirees' income but rather acts as a safety net to ensure a minimum level of financial support. The statement also implies that the program is not voluntary for most individuals, as there are only a few exemptions. Additionally, the actuarial value of each person's contribution is equal to the actual value of their benefit, suggesting that the program is financially sound and sustainable.

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76. In which of the following plans are claim forms typically completed and submitted by the participant?

Explanation

In an indemnity plan, claim forms are typically completed and submitted by the participant. Unlike other types of plans such as Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO), Point of Service (POS), and Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO), where the provider or the insurance company may handle the claims process, in an indemnity plan, the participant takes responsibility for completing and submitting the claim forms themselves. This allows the participant to have more control and involvement in the claims process.

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77. With the cost of living rider, the life insurance policy holder:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the life insurance policy holder gets an automatic increase in the face value if there is an increase in the cost of living index, and there is an additional premium for the additional coverage. This means that if the cost of living increases, the face value of the policy will also increase, providing the policyholder with more coverage. However, this increase in coverage comes at an additional cost, which is reflected in the form of a premium.

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78. If the financial loss on a certain group of people occurring over a certain period of time defines the pricing of a disability policy, it is the pricing principle known as:

Explanation

The correct answer is Frequency. The pricing principle of a disability policy is determined by the financial loss occurring over a certain period of time. This means that the frequency of the occurrence of the disability and the resulting financial loss is taken into account when setting the pricing for the policy. The higher the frequency of disability claims, the higher the pricing of the policy to cover the potential financial losses.

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79. To be classified as accidental under a disability income insurance policy, the following criteria must be used:

Explanation

In order for an event to be considered accidental under a disability income insurance policy, the cause of the event may be intentional, but the result must be accidental. This means that even if the individual intended for the event to occur, the outcome must still be unintentional or unexpected. This criterion allows for coverage in situations where the individual's actions may have been deliberate, but the consequences were unforeseen or accidental.

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80. A probationary period in a group health poliy is intended for people:

Explanation

The probationary period in a group health policy is intended for people who joined the group after the effective date. This means that individuals who become part of the group after the policy's effective date will have to go through a probationary period before they can fully access the benefits of the group health policy. During this period, their coverage may be limited or restricted in some way. This is to ensure that only eligible individuals who joined the group after the policy was in effect can fully benefit from the group health policy.

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81. Which of the following statement concerning the usual Coordination-of-Benefits provision are correct ?

Explanation

When both plans have the Coordination-of-Benefits provision, the coverage for the employee takes precedence over the coverage for dependents.

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82. The Common Disaster provision is designed to protect the interests of which of the following ?

Explanation

The Common Disaster provision is designed to protect the interests of the contingent or secondary beneficiary. This provision ensures that if the primary beneficiary and the insured both die in a common accident or disaster, the contingent or secondary beneficiary will receive the benefits. It acts as a safeguard to ensure that the intended beneficiaries are still provided for in the event of a tragedy.

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83. An individual might purchase LTC protection out of concern for all the following, except:

Explanation

An individual might purchase LTC protection out of concern for the inevitable cost of health care, the increasing probability of needed services, and existing medical coverage. However, ineligibility for Medigap coverage is not a concern that would typically drive someone to purchase LTC protection. Medigap coverage is a supplemental insurance policy that helps fill in the gaps of Medicare coverage, particularly for out-of-pocket costs. LTC protection, on the other hand, is specifically designed to cover long-term care expenses that are not typically covered by health insurance or Medicare. Therefore, ineligibility for Medigap coverage would not be a reason for someone to purchase LTC protection.

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84. When a family policy covers children, all of the following are true, except:

Explanation

When a family policy covers children, evidence of insurability is not required if coverage for children is permanent insurance. This means that if the family policy includes permanent insurance coverage for children, there is no need to provide evidence of insurability, such as medical exams or health history, in order to obtain coverage for the children.

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85. The home care coverage of a LTC policy provides for:

Explanation

The home care coverage of a LTC policy provides for part-time nursing at home for a custodial care patient. This means that the policy will cover the cost of having a nurse come to the patient's home and provide nursing care on a part-time basis. This type of coverage is specifically for custodial care patients, who require assistance with daily activities such as bathing, dressing, and eating, but do not require full-time nursing care.

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86. A disability income policy social insurance supplement (SIS) benefit rider:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Provides benefit if the insured does not qualify for social insurance benefits". This means that even if the insured does not qualify for any social insurance benefits, they will still receive a benefit from the disability income policy.

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87. The guarantee insurability rider provides that the policy holder can purchase more insurance:

Explanation

The guarantee insurability rider allows the policy holder to purchase more insurance at specified intervals without the need to provide proof of insurability. This means that the policy holder can increase their coverage at predetermined times without having to go through the process of proving that they are insurable again. This can be beneficial for individuals who may experience changes in their health or other circumstances that could affect their insurability.

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88. The person applying for coverage through an indemnity provider is:

Explanation

The person applying for coverage through an indemnity provider is referred to as the insured. This term is used to describe the individual who is seeking insurance protection and will be covered under the policy. The insured is the one who will receive the benefits and financial protection provided by the indemnity provider in the event of a covered loss or claim.

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89. Which of the following applies to the social insurance program known as social security ?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Contributions are compulsory for most workers." This means that most workers are required to make contributions to the social security program.

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Medicare Part A, begins automatically at age:
An insurer organized under the laws of the State of North Carolina is...
FYI Company's employee is injured while driving in the employ of the...
COBRA applies to employers with at least:
The department responsible for evaluation, selection and distribution...
Relevant to health insurance, morbidity includes all of the following...
What does it mean if an agent's license is inactive ?
Which part has rights in a policy only after the death of the insured...
In accidental death and dismemberment insurance, which of the...
Which two are Activities of Daily Living?
A failure to communicate information which a party to an insurance...
An individual license is considered terminated:
How is the Insurance Commissioner selected ?
A policy is returned to the insurer within 10 days of the date the...
When a claimant is covered by more than one plan the situation is...
Any transaction that involves purchasing an insurance policy and...
Twelve months ago, a man slipped and fell down a flight of stairs at...
An insurer owned by policyholders is:
The main master policy owner of a group health insurance contract is...
Terminally ill persons would need which of the following ?
Under a disability insurance policy, an insured is eligible for a...
All of the following are valid reasons for the Insurance Commissioner...
Which of the following requires a reporting company to respond to a...
An insurance company pays claims after a self-insured, specified limit...
What does the Insurance Commissioner have the right to do if an agent...
The policy provision which prevents an insurer from voiding a policy...
In order to deal with the financial consequences of the death of a...
A single deductible amount for all members of the same family and a...
The mathematical rule that says that as the number of individual but...
The Federal Act that is designed to protect group plan participants,...
A feature of the Self-Insured (Self-Funded) Plan is :
How much continuing education is an agent required to complete ?
Usually, in order to join a group insurance plan without proving...
In group insurance the Certificates of Insurance are issued to:
What happens to a license after the death of a natural person who...
Which of the following would be considered a morale risk ?
Deductibles, coinsurance, and co-payments in a health insurance policy...
In managed care, the members' choice of providers is most restrictive...
Under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), a...
Supplemental insurance used to pay for hospital confinement to treat a...
After an insurance policy has been in effect for two years, what keeps...
According to the code, all insurers must maintain a department to...
Senior citizens are given a 30 day free look to view a policy: 
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What would a person be guilty of who refuses to submit books and...
Which of the following are common insurance policy provisions?
Who has the right to change life insurance policy beneficiaries ?
Under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconsolidation Act (COBRA),...
If one were to receive the principal sum benefit of death in a...
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Statements in the application or policy that are guaranteed true in...
Unless it is merely a statement of an expectation or a belief, a...
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If a person gives an erroneous statement on an application...
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A disability income policy covers injuries suffered by an insured on...
The type of healthcare provider that provides both the healthcare...
Each of the following terms is an important characteristic of a major...
Which of the following is not an example of cost sharing in a health...
Which of the following may be offered by insurers providing Medicare...
A health insurance co-payment is:
Any person who diverts or misappropriates fiduciary funds is guilty...
The likelihood of incurring disease or disability at any given time...
The purpose of the North Carolina Life and Health Guaranty Association...
Which of the following is true regarding participation in a group...
A person has a disability policy with the following definition of...
A person who acts in a capacity that requires an active license...
Which of the following (recall) provisions of a disability contract is...
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the social...
In which of the following plans are claim forms typically completed...
With the cost of living rider, the life insurance policy holder:
If the financial loss on a certain group of people occurring over a...
To be classified as accidental under a disability income insurance...
A probationary period in a group health poliy is intended for people:
Which of the following statement concerning the usual...
The Common Disaster provision is designed to protect the interests of...
An individual might purchase LTC protection out of concern for all the...
When a family policy covers children, all of the following are true,...
The home care coverage of a LTC policy provides for:
A disability income policy social insurance supplement (SIS) benefit...
The guarantee insurability rider provides that the policy holder can...
The person applying for coverage through an indemnity provider is:
Which of the following applies to the social insurance program known...
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